Psychology 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  • Visually compare:
    • sensory
    • working
    • short & long term
    • procedural
    • episodic, &
    • semantic memory
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the Herman Ebbinghaus Forgetting Curve look like?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  • Graph cumulative # of responses vs. Time for The 4 Reinforcement Schedules:
    • Fixed ratio (FR)
    • Fixed-interval (FI)
    • Variable- ratio (VR)
    • Variable-interval (VI)
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Compare Stimulus (+ and -) with Behavior (+ and -)

graphically

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  • Where on the brain is the:
    • pons
    • cerebral cortex
    • thalamus
    • hypothalamus
    • medulla oblongata
    • brain stem
    • midbrain
    • pituitary gland
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  • Where in the brain is the:
    • hypothalamic nuclei
    • amygdala
    • hippocampus
    • cingulate gyrus
    • corpus callosum
    • thalamus
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  • Where in the brain is the:
    • frontal lobe
    • temporal lobe
    • parietal lobe
    • occipital lobe
    • brainstem

(Visual cortex)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  • Where in the brain is the:
    • frontal lobe
    • somatomotor cortex
    • somatosensory cortex
    • parietal lobe
    • occipital lobe
    • cerebellum
    • spinal cord
    • medulla oblongata
    • temporal lobe
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  • Draw the diagram connecting signal detection theory and response bias
    • Know how they are interrelated
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  • Label the following in the eye:
    • cornea
    • sclera
    • pupil
    • iris
    • aqueous humor
    • vitreous humor
    • lens
    • ciliary muscles
    • retina
    • optic nerve
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  • What happens with regular eye sight, near sightedness (myopia), and far sightedness (hyperopia) with regards to:
    • where the image comes into focus, and
    • location of the retina?
A
  • Normally:
    • image focuses directly ON the retina
  • NS: elongation of eye (or other causes) make the image come into focus too soon
    • This was your problem…also this is why squinting, you were able to see images better. compresses eye, brings image more into focus
  • FR: shorter eye, image comes into focus too late
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  • Draw a diagram of the layers of the retina.
    • Indicate the location of the following cells:
      • a) rods
      • b) cones
      • d) bipolar cells
      • e) horizontal cells
      • f) amacrine cells
      • g) ganglion cells
      • h) optic nerve fibers
    • Indicate the direction of signal flow through these cells.
    • What is the purpose of these multiple layers of cells?
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  • Draw a diagram of the eyes, the optic nerve and the brain
    • Demonstrate how it is possible that the left hemisphere of the brain receives all of the visual input for the left half of the visual field of BOTH eyes
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Draw and label all of the parts of the inner ear and describe their function.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The Ear

  • Draw a cross-section of the COCHLEA
    • Show:
      • the three COMPARTMENTS
      • the organ of Corti
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When you see “memory,” think:

A

storage & retrieval of information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When you see “learning,” think:

A

a relatively long-lasting change in behavior resulting from experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define “encoding”

A
  • the initial process of memory creation, including:
    • sensation
    • transient storage of the information in working memory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Automatic vs controlled processing

A
  • automatic requires no attention or conscious effort
  • controlled does
  • If controlled is repeated over a long period of time, it can become automatic processing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define maintenance rehearsal

A

the rote, repetitive rehearsal of new info w/o thinking about its meaning or context

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Maintenance rehearsal can only maintain information in…?

A
  • the working memory, or at MOST create a weak, short-lived long term memory
  • it is BAD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define Elaborative (or “___” ) rehearsal

A
  • or “semantic” rehearsal
  • the rehearsal of new information by THINKING about its meaning, purpose, and relationship to previously-known concepts
    • its good!!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name & describe the 3 types of encoding

A
  1. Visual
    • encoding of an image or visualization
  2. Acoustic
    • encoding or a sound
  3. Semantic
    • encoding or meaning, understanding, or a concept’s interrelation with other stored information
    • THE BEST METHOD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Processes that aide in encoding memories (4)

A
  1. Mnemonics
  2. Chunking
  3. Peg-word system
  4. Loci method
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

State-dependent learning

A
  • if a memory is encoded in a particular PLACE or setting, or in conjunction with a sight or sound, recall is enhanced when attempted in a matching state
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The testing effect

A
  • testing (forced active recall) during the learning phase dramatically increases retention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The expensive memory principle

A

easy learning processes produce memories that are EASILY forgotten (and vice-versa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

shallow processing, aka

A

structural or phonemic processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Structural processing is encoding what?

A

what things look like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Phonemic processing is encoding what?

A
  • what things sound like
    • like repeating a term in one’s head
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  • Both structural and phonemic processing involve only what?
  • What do they produce?
A
  • Only involve maintenance rehearsal
  • Produce weak, short-lived memories
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Deep, aka “___” processing involves what?

A
  • aka “semantic”
  • Involves:
    • Encoding the MEANING of a concept, the CONTEXT surrounding a concept,
    • or making relational connections to other previously encoded memories
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  • Semantic processing involves what with regards to “learning”?
  • What does it produce?
A
  • “elaborative” rehearsal
  • produces strong, long-term memories
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Self-reference effect

A
  • the brain encodes info more easily (and forms stronger memories) when info being encoded is more closely related to oneself
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a mnemonic?

A
  • Refers to any pattern of letters, symbols, or associations
    • that help one remember something
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Peg-word system

A
  • Words represent numbers–this forms the “peg” then, to rapidly memorize a list of objects you associate each object with its appropriate peg
    • ex: associate the number 1 with “gun” or a candle (looks like the #1)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Loci method

A
  • associate words to be remembered with:
    • visual checkpoints
      • objects within a room, along a path somewhere, etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Define “chunking”

A
  • lumping of information together helps you remember
    • ex: remembering 295-274-9274 is easier than remembering 2952749274
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Name the 7 types of memory

A
  1. sensory
  2. working
  3. short-term
  4. long-term(LTM)
  5. procedural
  6. episodic
  7. semantic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  • For long-term memory, differentiate b/t explicit and implicit memory
A
  • Explicit (aka “Declarative”)
    • requires conscious, intentional recall
  • Implicit (aka “Procedural”)
    • automatic, unconscious recall
      • usually of skills, procedures, or conditioned responses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does a “semantic network” describe?

A

its a theory for explaining how our LTM stores concepts and the relationships among them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What 5 things does the theory of Semantic Networks propose?

A
  1. The LTM is a web-like network of concepts
  2. Each concept is called a “node”
    • represented as circles or ovals
  3. Relationships b/t concepts are represented by connecting lines or arrows
    • Length of arrow is inversely proportional to strength of assn b/t concepts
  4. Each node can be (and usually is) connected to multiple related nodes
  5. 2 types of links: Superordinate and Modifier
    • Superordinate links connect the concept to a CATEGORY name
    • indicating the concept is a member of that larger class
      • cat–>mammal
    • Modifier links connect a concept to its properties
      • cat–> whiskers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In Semantic Networks, what are the 2 types of links b/t nodes?

A

Superordinate and modifier

  1. Superordinate links
    • connect the concept to a CATEGORY name
    • indicating the concept is a member of that larger class
    • cat–>mammal
  2. Modifier links
    • connect a concept to its properties
      • cat–> whiskers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  • How do Semantic Networks process recall events?
  • Describe it
A
  • via “spreading activation”
  • when working memory focuses attention on a node (A), any nodes directly connected to that node (B, C, D, whatever) are connected FIRST
  • Next, any nodes connected to THOSE nodes (B,C,D) are activated, and so on
    • This is called the “spreading” effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

In Semantic Networks, speed of connection of nodes is…?

A
  • NOT equivalent!
    • stronger semantic connections (that are tied to you more closely) fire more rapidly and are more easily recalled
    • Frequently used connections also fire more rapidly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Retrieval is…

A

any use or application of a stored memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the 3 forms of retrieval?

A
  1. Recall
  2. Recognition
  3. Relearning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Define recall, recognition, & relearning

A
  1. Recall
    • retrieval and active statement or correct application of a memory
  2. Recognition
    • associating information with an existing memory
  3. Relearning
    • increased learning efficacy when reinforcing an existing memory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Priming effect

A
  • Presenting a related word FIRST increases recall or verification rate
    • doctor before nurse speeds up recognition
      • doctor=primer
      • nurse=target
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Typicality effect

A
  • Using an example of a concept increases recall or verification rate
    • “a robin is a bird” verified more quickly than “a penguin is a bird”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Familiarity effect

A
  • increasing level of familiarity with the example increases recall or verification rate
    • “a dog is a mammal” verified more readily than “an aardvark is a mammal”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

True-false effect

A

true statements are verified more quickly than false statements are negated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Category size effect

A
  • recall & verification rate increase if category has few members
  • …and decrease if category has many members
    • “a poodle is a dog” is verified faster than “a poodle is a mammal”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Serial-position effect

A
  • Presentation order (or positioning in a list) impacts recall
    • PRIMACY effect
      • Predicts that concepts listed FIRST will be remembered at a higher rate
    • RECENCY effect
      • predicts that concepts listed LAST will be remembered at a higher rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

interference effects

A
  • a new memory that is very similar to an existing one can cause interference, or increased difficulty recalling the original memory
    • memorizing a 2nd phone number makes remembering other harder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Proactive interference

A
  • when <em><strong>old memories interfere</strong></em> with formation of <strong>new</strong> ones
    • you keep forgetting your new # because you keep remembering your old #
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

retroactive interference

A
  • when new memories interfere with old ones
    • forgot your old # because you memorized your new #
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

“Automatic spreading activation” occurs when the primer is a ____, and the target is a/n ______

A
  • is said to occur when the primer is a category NAME
  • …and the target is an example WITHIN that category
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  • Role of emotion in memory
    • heightened emotional states
A

memories coded during heightened emotional states are usually remembered more easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Role of emotion in memory: emotional interference

A

heightened emotions wrt one memory can simultaneously increase strength of LTM trace for that concept, and DECREASE strength of other memories occurring immediately before or during emotional event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  • Role of emotion in memory
    • positive vs negative recall
A
  • positive memories usually remembered more easily
  • negative ones forgotten more easily
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Individuals suffering from depression often remember what 2 just equally?

A

positive AND negative memories more easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Older adults tend to show a stronger recall bias for (positive/negative?) memories

A

positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
  • Role of emotion in memory
    • State-dependent learning
A
  • Similarity in states in which a memory is encoded and retrieved enhances recall
    • This includes mood or emotions present during encoding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Max brain size occurs in one’s ___’s and decreases with age thereafter

A

20’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What 2 types of memory decline the MOST/ most noticeably with age?

A
  1. Episodic memory
    • “What did I do last friday? Where was I when the Trade Towers collapsed?”
  2. Source memory
    • “Where did I read about this concept? Who told me about the Trade Towers collapsing?”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What memory type goes through LITTLE TO NO decline with age?

A

Semantic memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
  • Describe Alzheimer’s Disease
    • is a ___ disease characterized by ___(3)?
    • At what age does onset usually occur?
    • What are some late-stage symptoms?
A
  • Neurodegenerative disease characterized by
    1. memory loss
    2. impaired cognition
    3. language deterioration
  • usually occurs ~65 or greater
  • late-stage symptoms are more severe and include:
    • loss of judgement
    • confusion
    • drastic mood and personality changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
  • Physiological changes (aka biological “markers”) of Alzheimer’s Disease
  • What happens outside the cell and what happens inside the cell?
A

OUTSIDE:

  • In b/t CNS and neurons (OUTSIDE the cell), ß amyloids and portions of Amyloid Precursor Protein (“APP”) are normally snipped off and recycled in healthy individuals
    • …but in Alzheimer’s patients they aggregate into ß amyloid plaques

INSIDE:

  • The Tau protein (a struc protein associated with microtubules) undergoes hyperphosphorylation
    • this causes the modified Tau proteins to aggregate into insoluble neurofibrillary tangles
    • This causes the size of the actual brain itself to DECREASE!
    • Size of the ventricles increase, while size of the hippocampus decreases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Korsakoff’s Syndrome

A
  • A brain disorder resulting from severe Thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency
    • Usually from chronic alcohol abuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

In Korsakoff’s syndrome, what happens to hurt Thiamine production?

A
  • Alcohol inhibits conversion of thiamine to its active form, Thiamine Pyrophosphate (TPP)
  • Alcoholics:
    • vomit frequently
    • have inflammed GI linings
    • usually have worse eating habits
  • All of these contribute to vitamin B deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q
  • ___ ___ precedes Korsakoff’s Syndrome
  • What is it?
A
  • Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
  • Its a mild version of Korsakoff’s Syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q
  • How is Wernicke’s Encephalopathy treated?
A
  • by intravenous vitamin injections
  • by NOT DRINKING ANYMORE!!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q
  • Define “Amnesia”
    • What 3 things can cause it?
A
  • the loss of memory as a result of:
    1. brain damage
    2. injury
    3. psychological trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q
  • What makes amnesia different from forgetting?
A
  • Forgetting
    • is a result of NORMAL loss of recall
      • as a result of a fading memory trace
  • Amnesia
    • is loss of memory due to:
      • brain damage
      • injury, or
      • psychological trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
  • Anterograde amnesia
    • Define
    • How does it affect LTMs?
A

=Inability to create new memories

  • occurring AFTER the event that caused amnesia
  • LTMs from before event remain intact
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
  • Retrograde amnesia
    • Define
A
  • Memories created PRIOR to event cannot be remembered
    • but new memories CAN be created
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q
  • Dementia
    • Define
A
  • a gradual, long-term decline in one’s general mental function or capability
  • Is severe enough to interfere with one’s daily life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Describe:

  • “Prospective memory”
    • Give some examples or POOR Prospective Memory
A
  • the ability to remember to do something at some FUTURE TIME
    • ex: patient forgets to take their medication (poor Prospective Memory), forgetting to return a library book, etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q
  • Memory Construction:
    • The ___, ___, or ___ of what kind of memories?
A
  1. Creation
  2. Fabrication, or
  3. Recall

of FALSE MEMORIES!

81
Q
  • Confabulation
    • Define it
    • What 2 things is it usually observed in?
A

is the fabrication of false, but usually vivid and detailed memories

  • in order to fill in the gaps in a coherent story or memory

Usually observed in people with:

  1. Alzheimers
  2. Korsakoff’s
82
Q
  • Describe the “Misinformation Effect”
A
  • the presentation of inaccurate post-event information can:
    • cause an otherwise ACCURATE memory to be altered and recalled INACCURATELY
83
Q
  • Source monitoring errors
    • sometimes called “___ ___”
    • define
A
  • recall errors in which the source of the memory is inaccurately identified
  • Sometimes called “source amnesia”
84
Q
  • During recall, the individual makes one of two judgments to determine the SOURCE: (2)
A
  1. Heuristic Judgments:
    • UNCONSCIOUS determination of the source based on clues or short-cuts associated with the memory
  2. Systematic Judgments:
    • CONSCIOUS determination of the source based on intentional, logical evaluation of the details remembered
85
Q
  • Physical changes to ___ ___ (in the brain) account for learning & memory
A
  • changes to neuronal synapsis
86
Q
  • Define “neural plasticity”
    • What 3 things change?
A
  • refers to ability of the brain and its neurons to physically CHANGE in response to stimuli
  1. synapses
  2. dendrites
  3. glial cells
87
Q

Plasticity is closely associated with 3 events/processes:

A
  1. Development
  2. Memory storage (learning)
  3. CNS injury
88
Q

Compared to adult brains, baby brains contain: (3)

A
  • SAME number of neurons
  • MORE synapses
  • FEWER glial cells
    • glial cells=support cells, like oligodendrocytes
89
Q

Describe Synaptic Pruning during development

A
  • Number of synapses decrease through:
    • selective destruction of some synapses
    • strengthening of others
  • WEAKEST/LEAST FREQUENTLY USED
    • Get pruned out
  • STRONGEST/MOST FREQUENTLY USED
    • Get strengthened
90
Q
  • How does neural plasticity work:
    • during Memory Storage (learning)?
A
  • Its theorized that STM may result from TEMPORARY chemical or electrical traces that fade quickly
  • LTM traces, however, are always result of PHYSICAL changes to neuron itself
91
Q
  • LTM traces (unlike STM traces), are always the result of what?
A
  • PHYSICAL changes to the neuron itself
  • A neuron can:
    1. Grow additional dendrites
      • to strengthen neuronal connection
    2. Alter the synaptic membrane to either increase or decrease the strength of an individual synapse
92
Q
  • Describe Long-Term Potentiation (LTP)
    • What thing has been found to have (+) correlation with LTP?
A
  • is the persistent strengthening of a synapse
    • …based on increased activity at that particular synapse
  • An increase in gene expression (transcription and translation of the gene product protein) has (+) correlation with LTP
93
Q
  • Describe Long-Term Depression (LTD)
    • What is it the opposite of?
A
  • is the persistent WEAKENING of a synapse
    • …due to decreased activity
  • The opposite of Long-Term Potentiation (LTP)
94
Q
  • How does synaptic pruning work after a CNS injury?
A
  • after a traumatic brain injury, portions of the brain will sometimes reassign function to a different brain location
    • In severe cases, one full HEMISPHERE (!!) is removed so as to prevent seizures
    • If this happens early enough in life, the remaining hemisphere takes over ALL function from the broken hemisphere and the pt can live a normal life! YAY!
95
Q
  • Describe “Habituation”
A
  • a decreased response to a stimulus
    • after the stimulus has been presented multiple times
  • Basically, it’s a reduced response observed for an INNATE (unconscious) behavior
96
Q

Dishabituation is…?

A
  • an increased response to a stimulus
    • after habituation has ALREADY occurred
  • The old stimulus is suddenly reacted to as if it were NEW
97
Q

When does dishabituation usually occur?

A
  • after a long period of stimulation
    • (when habituation is becoming significant)
  • …and a second stimulus is then introduced
    • This disrupts the process of habituation
98
Q

Give an example of habituation

A
  • A turtle brings its head under its shell when you touch its shell
    • after being touched enough times, the turtle realizes it’s not in danger and no longer hides
99
Q

Give an example of “Dishabituation”

A
  • Playing Peek-a-boo with a baby
    • when we respond to an old stimulus as if it were new again
100
Q
  • Define Sensitization
    • What’s it the opposite of?
A
  • an INCREASED response to a stimulus
    • after the stimulus has been presented multiple times
  • is the OPPOSITE of habituation
101
Q

What’s an example of Sensitization?

A
  • You become very sensitive to subtle vibrations in your car after you’ve driven it for a long time
  • You know something is “off”
102
Q

Define Classical Conditioning

A
  • learning to associate one stimulus with another
103
Q

When you see “Classical conditioning,” think:

A
  • Classical conditioning=
    • INSTINCTUAL responses!
104
Q

What’s the most common example of classical conditioning?

A

Pavlov’s Dogs (instinctual response)

105
Q

What are the 3 Stimulus types?

A
  1. Neutral
  2. Conditional
  3. Unconditioned
106
Q

What are the 2 Response types?

A
  1. Conditioned Response
  2. Unconditioned Response
107
Q
  • List the 4 Conditioning Processes
A
  1. Acquisition
  2. Extinction
  3. Spontaneous recovery
  4. Generalization
108
Q
  • Neutral stimulus
    • In Pavlov’s study, what was the neutral stimulus?
A
  • is a stimulus that:
    • does not elicit a response in the absence of learning

ex: THE BELL that was used in Pavlov’s study

109
Q
  • Unconditioned stimulus
    • In Pavlov’s Study, what was the unconditioned stimulus?
A
  • A stimulus that naturally elicits a response
    ex: SIGHT/SMELL OF STEAK caused dogs to salivate
110
Q
  • Conditioned stimulus
    • In Pavlov’s Study, what was his conditioned stimulus?
A
  • If a neutral stimulus is repeated paired with some stimulus that naturally elicits a response (an “unconditioned stimulus”)
    ex: pavlov linked the BELL with the SIGHT/SMELL of steak to create a conditioned stimulus
111
Q

With conditioning, what has to happen for a stimulus to be “acquired?”

A
  • Associations b/t the neutral and conditioned stimuli makes it so the once-neutral stimuli is now a conditioned stimulus
112
Q

With conditioning, what leads to extinction?

A
  • Association extinguished by repeatedly presenting the conditioned stimuli (bell) WITHOUT the unconditioned stimuli (steak)
113
Q

What in conditioning is the phenomenon of Spontaneous Recovery?

A
  • Subject shows a conditioned response to the conditioned stimulus, even though the conditioned stimulus has been extinguished
    • ex: Pavlov’s dogs react to bell sound years after the study (and extinction of the stimulus)
114
Q

In conditioning, what is “generalization?”

A
  • When individuals generalize a conditioned response to stimuli that are similar to, but not identical to the conditioned stimulus itself
115
Q

In conditioning, what is “discrimination?”

A
  • Subjects learn to respond to ONLY the specific, conditioned stimulus itself, while ignoring other very similar stimuli
    • ex: Pavlov’s dog’s dont respond to higher-pitched bells
116
Q

Define Operant Conditioning

A

learning to associate a behavior with a CONSEQUENCE

117
Q

Name the 2 Operant Processes

A
  1. Shaping
  2. Extinction
118
Q

Name the 4 types of operant conditioning Reinforcement

A
  1. Positive
  2. Negative
  3. Primary
  4. Conditioned
119
Q

Operant conditioning: shaping

A
  • involves reinforcing success approximations for some target behavior
    • ex: have a dog do something similar to sitting until you have it regularly sitting on command
120
Q

Operant conditioning: Extinction

A

occurs when a behavior results in NO consequences

121
Q

Operant conditioning: positive reinforcement

A

presenting something that results in reinforcement

122
Q

What is “reinforcement” in operant conditioning?

A

defined as anything that makes a behavior more like to occur in the future

123
Q

Operant conditioning: negative reinforcement

A
  • Involves REMOVING something to reinforce a behavior
    • Ex: Car beeps at you until you buckle your seatbelt
      • Remove annoying beeping sound to reinforce behavior of buckling up
124
Q

What is “punishment” in operant conditioning?

A

anything that makes a behavior less likely to occur

125
Q
  • Operant conditioning: positive punishment
    • Describe
    • Give an example
A
  • Involves presenting/ doing something/”adding something” to result in punishment
    • make the behavior less likely
  • ex: Spanking
126
Q
  • Operant conditioning: negative punishment
    • Describe
    • Give an example
A
  • Removing something to make behavior less likely to occur in future
    • ex: no phone, video games, grounding, etc
127
Q
  • Operant conditioning:
    • a ___ reinforcer has no intrinsic value in and of itself
      • ​…but gains it because it has been associated with a ___ ___
      • Give an example of this
A

“Conditioned Reinforcer”

  • associated with a “Primary reinforcer”
    • ex: Green paper with presidents is “worthless,” but since in the past it has been paired with food, clothes, shelter, etc.

it takes on reinforcing value by association

128
Q

What are the 4 Reinforcement Schedules?

A
  1. Fixed-Ratio
  2. Variable-Ratio
  3. Fixed-Interval
  4. Variable-Interval
129
Q

What does punishment do to behavioral response? (3)

A

Punishment either:

  1. ​Weakens the response
  2. Decreases its frequency, or
  3. Stops it altogether
130
Q
  • DONT think of “punishment” in terms of “good” or “bad”
    • Focus on what instead?
A
  • Focus on what punishments DO:

Discourage the behavior

131
Q

What does reinforcement do to behavior? (3)

A
  1. Encourages it
  2. Strengthens it, or
  3. Increases its frequency
132
Q

What are the 2 reactions to negative reinforcement?

A
  1. Escape learning:
    • subj. adopts a behavior to reduce or end an unpleasant stimulus
  2. Avoidance stimulus:
    • subj. adopts a behavior to AVOID an unpleasant stimulus in the future
133
Q
  • What are the 2 ways one can learn to associate two events?
A
  1. Automatic:
    • unconscious
    • stimulus driven
  2. Rule-Based Processing:
    • CONSCIOUS
    • Intentional
134
Q
  • What 2 things “drive” Rule-based processing
    • (when associating two events)
  • What does it LIMIT?
  • Why are humans “weird” when it comes to this?
A
  • Driven by both:
    1. The event (stimulus) experienced
    2. Language, cognition, or formal reasoning

Limits the applicability of Associative Learning!

  • Humans are weird because we learn to “expect” or “anticipate” an unconditioned stimulus
  • …and will apply external reasoning in order to alter (or avoid) the conditioning process
135
Q

Latent Learning. define & give an example

A
  • Learning that exists WITHOUT the presentation of a reward,
    • …but is spontaneously demonstrated once a reward IS presented
  • Basically, you CAN still learn without any kind of conditioning
    • mice in a maze learn to negotiate maze w/o any reinforcement
    • BUT when food reward is offered they negotiate better
136
Q
  • What are the four LIMITS on Associative Learning?
A
  1. Latent learning
  2. Biological predispositions
  3. Rules-based processing
  4. Instinctive drift
137
Q

Wrt associative learning, what are “biological predispositions?”

A
  • Every subject (animal or human) has biological instincts that predispose them toward adaptive responses
    • DECREASING the likelihood that conditioned responses contrary to those predispositions endure
138
Q
  • Describe “Instinctive Drift”
    • What is it a limit on?
A
  • The tendency of a subject of operant conditioning to revert from a conditioned response to an INSTINCTUAL response
    • often one that is very similar to the conditioned response

Is a limit on the applicability of associative learning

139
Q

Observational learning

A
  • Learning that results from observation of the behavior of others
140
Q

Define “Social-cognitive theory”

A
  • a broad psychological perspective that attempts to explain
    • behavior
    • learning, and
    • other phenomena

It INCLUDES observational learning as one of its tenants

141
Q

What are the 4 tenants of social-cognitive theory?

A
  1. Observational learning
  2. Self-efficacy
  3. Situational influences
  4. Cognitive processes
142
Q

Bobo doll experiment. What were the results?

A
  • Kids exposed to aggressive model (adult that beat up bobo doll) were more likely to act aggressively
  • When both genders were exposed to aggressive models, boys more aggressive than girls
143
Q

In observational learning, what is “modeling?”

A

the process of learning a behavior by watching others and mimicking their behavior

144
Q

Observing others may result in what wrt “modeling?” (3)

A
  1. We might learn to mimick what they do
  2. We might learn to NOT mimick their behavior
  3. It might motivate us to engage entirely unrelated behaviors
  • Ex:
    • Dad sees someone fall and die mtn climbing
    • decides mtn climbing isnt for him anymore and picks up crocheting
145
Q
  • What are “mirror neurons?”
    • Give an example of when they are used
A
  • are a class of neuron that are active when we watch someone else perform a behavior and again when we do the behavior OURSELVES
  • ex: see someone’s facial expression of emotion and later we make that same face ourselves
146
Q

What GPS principle does this represent?

A

figure ground (pragnanz)

The eye differentiates an object from its surrounding area. A form, silhouette, or shape is perceived as the FIGURE, while the surrounding area is perceived as the GROUND

147
Q

What GPS principle does this represent?

A

focal points:

a point of interest, something emphasized or different will catch and hold the viewers attention

148
Q

What GPS principle does this represent?

A

closure:

in perception, there is the tendency to complete unfinished or partially obscured objects

149
Q

What GPS principle does this represent?

A

figure ground (pragnanz):

The eye differentiates an object from its surrounding area. A form, silhouette, or shape is perceived as the FIGURE, while the surrounding area is perceived as the GROUND

150
Q

What GPS principle does this represent?

A

proximity:

the closer objects are to each other, the more likely they are to be perceived as a group

151
Q

What GPS principle does this represent?

A

closure:

in perception there is the tendency to complete unfinished or partially obscured objects

152
Q

What GPS principle does this represent?

A

figure ground (pragnanz):

The eye differentiates an object from its surrounding area. A form, silhouette, or shape is perceived as the FIGURE, while the surrounding area is perceived as the GROUND

153
Q

What GPS principle does this represent?

A

similarity:

when objects look similar to one another. People often perceive them as a group or pattern

154
Q

Name the Ten most frequently cited GP’s (Gestalt Principles)

A
  1. Closure
  2. Continuation
  3. Common Fate
  4. Proximity
  5. Similarity
  6. Continuity
  7. Good Gestalt
  8. Symmetry
  9. Past Experience
  10. Convexity
155
Q

The olfactory is an ____ pathway of the ___division of the PNS

A
  • afferent
  • somatic
156
Q
  • Perception and decision making would occur in a variety of _____s in the CNS/PNS?
A
  • interneurons
  • CNS
157
Q
  • Motor neurons are ____ nerve fibers of the ___ division of the CNS/PNS?
A
  • efferent
  • somatic
  • Peripheral NS
158
Q
  • Any memory lasting more than_____ has most likely encoded into long term memory
A

20-30 sec

159
Q
  • What is the transmission pathway of an auditory impulse, in order, from the hair cells to the auditory cortex?
A
  1. Hair cells of the inner ear
  2. Vesibulocochlear nerve
  3. Brain stem
  4. Medial geniculate nucleus (MGN)
    • part of the thalamus
  5. Auditory cortex
    • part of the temporal lobe
160
Q

Smell, aka “___”

A

olfaction

161
Q
  • Olfactory cells are called ______s because they are triggered by ___ ___s that directly bind specific gaseous/vaporized airborne _____s
A
  • chemoreceptors
  • membrane receptors
  • chemicals
162
Q
  • What are “Phermones?”
    • What are they more established/common in?
A
  • Specialized odor receptors released by one individual
    • elicit behavior in another individual upon olfaction (smell)

More established/common in animals than in humans

163
Q

Taste: _____s on the tongue bind ___ ___s, such as ___

A
  • chemoteceptors
  • dissolved chemicals
  • such as salt
164
Q

What is the pathway for Taste? (3)

A
  1. Taste buds
  2. Brain stem
  3. Taste center
    • in the thalamus
165
Q
  • What is somatosensation?
    • What does it include (7)?
A
  • basically, it’s “touch,” but it includes:
    1. touch
    2. texture
    3. pain
    4. pressure
    5. temperature
    6. stretching
    7. vibration
166
Q

The somatosensory cortex is in the ___ lobe

A

parietal

167
Q

the olfactory bulb is located in the ___

A

forebrain

168
Q

Kinesthetic sense

A
  • Body position and the mvmt of body parts relative to one another
169
Q
  • Vestibular Sense
    • Describe
    • What does it use for detection?
A

Balance and orientation

  • by responding to changes in linear and rotational acceleration
  • detected by HAIR CELLS in the vestibule and the semicircular canals
170
Q

Remember that sensation and perception are…

A

NOT EQUAL!!

171
Q

Think of “sensation” as…

A
  • a physiological process
    • sensory receptors and APs
172
Q

Think of “perception” as…

A
  • a PSYCHOlogical process
  • “Making sense” of the signal
    • Influenced by: experience, bias, etc.
173
Q

Bottom-Up processing

A
  • involves taking individual elements and putting them together to make a whole
174
Q

Top-Down processing

  • Involves ______ factors that influence the way in which components are ______ed
  • Higher level _______s “LET” you _____ something
A
  • Involves cognitive factors that influence the way in which components are processed
  • higher level expectations“LET you perceive something
175
Q

The concept of “schemas” is most closely related to which type of processing, bottom-up or top-down?

A

top-down

176
Q

What does “Perceptual Organization” refer to?

A
  • Our ability to use what info we DO have about an incomplete stimulus, such as:
    • depth
    • form
    • motion
    • constancy
  • …to “fill in the blanks,” and thereby perceive a whole, continuous picture
177
Q
  • Based on Ebbinghaus’s Curve of Forgetting, rank the following time intervals, measured from the first day a memory was encoded, in order of increasing percentage of memory loss:
    1. Day 1-2
    2. Days 3-5
    3. Days 12-20
    4. Days 2-10
A

12-20 < 3-5 < 2-10 < 1-2

  • The point here is that the closer to the point at which rehearsal ends…

the more information is lost more quickly

After the first few days, there is a very gradual decay in the information that is retained

178
Q

DISCRIMINATION

  • For the two examples that follow, identify the specific component of the example that illustrates each of following (if they apply):
  • a) neutral, conditioned, or unconditioned stimulus
  • b) conditioned or unconditioned response
  • c) acquisition, extinction, spontaneous recovery, generalization, or discrimination.

Example 1

  • A physically abused child reflexively raises his hand to cover his face when his father is about to strike him
  • His father smokes heavily and the child knows his father is nearby when he smells cigarette smoke
  • At first, the child does not like the smell of cigarette smoke, but mostly ignores it
  • After some time, however, the child begins to flinch at the mere smell of cigarette smoke
    • The child moves away from home and lives with roommates who also smoke
      • Eventually he loses his fear of cigarette smoke
  • Many years later, the child revisits his childhood home, long after his father has passed away
  • Upon entering the house he smells the strong odor of stale cigarette smoke
  • To his surprise, it makes him cringe

Example 2

  • An elderly man’s wife begins a new habit of baking bread weekly
  • The man loves his wife’s homemade bread and the smell of it cooking makes him salivate
  • His wife uses a wind-up oven timer to tell her when the bread is ready to remove from the oven
  • A few weeks later, his wife is using the same timer to keep track of her exercise on the treadmill
  • At the end of her exercise routine the man often tells his wife that he is hungry and asks for some homemade bread
  • A short-time later, the man realizes that the sound of his alarm clock also makes him salivate and crave homemade bread
  • However, because his wife never makes homemade bread in the mornings, this reaction eventually fades
    • until once again he only salivates to the sound of the oven timer
A

Example 1

  • The abuse received from the father serves as an unconditioned stimulus which cause flinching behavior (unconditioned response)
  • The smell of smoke is at first a neutral stimulus, but after repeated pairings with the abuse, the child acquires an association between the smell of smoke and the abuse
  • At this point, the smell becomes a conditioned stimulus which elicits the conditioned response of flinching
  • Once the child moves in with roommates who smoke, the fear response to smoke is extinguished because the smoke is no longer paired with the abusive father
  • However, the fear response spontaneously recovers when the individual revisits his childhood home

Example 2

  • The smell of homemade bread serves as the unconditioned stimulus which elicits salivation/hunger (unconditioned response)
  • The timer is a neutral stimulus that is repeatedly paired with the smell of the bread, and eventually, it takes on the role of a conditioned stimulus which elicits the conditioned response of salivation/hunger
  • Eventually, the man’s conditioned response generalizes to like stimuli (i.e. the alarm clock), but over time, the man shows discrimination in his response ONLY to the oven timer
179
Q

Sensing the Environment

  • Define “Sensation” (3 steps, or “-ion” s)
    • Also define “Threshold
A

Sensation is the…

  • Detection of environmental stimuli
    • by sensory receptors
  • Conversion of that stimuli
    • …to an electrical impulse
  • Transmission of that impulse
    • to the Central Nervous System (CNS)

Threshold

  • The MINIMUM magnitude of a stimulus,

OR

  • The minimum DIFFERENCE IN magnitude between two stimuli
  • …that can be perceived by the CNS*
180
Q

Sensing the Environment

  • Sensation
    • Threshold

Provide a conceptual definition for:

  1. Absolute threshold
  2. Threshold of conscious perception/detection
  3. Difference threshold
    • a.k.a., “Just-Noticeable-Difference,” JND
A
  • Several different thresholds are of import when considering how sensory systems detect information from our external worlds

The Absolute threshold

  • Communicates information about how sensitive a given sensory system is
  • It is usually defined as the minimum amount of stimulation that can be detected about 50% of the time
    • Put another way, the absolute threshold tells you how bright (or dim ) a light must be or how loud a sound must be in order to be detected half of the time

​Any stimulus that falls below this minimum value would fail to cross a “Threshold for conscious detection”

  • It might be possible that stimuli of which we are not consciously aware influence us in some way
    • e.g. subliminal messages in advertising
  • However, consistent empirical support of this idea is lacking

Difference thresholds, a.k.a., “Just-Noticeable-Difference,” JND

  • Speak to our ability to discriminate among sensory stimuli of varying intensities
  • In other words, the JND is determined by how much difference must exist between two stimuli in order to determine that one is* MORE (or LESS) intense than the other
181
Q

Vision

  • The Eye

Describe Cones & Rods

  • How do they relate to e/o when it comes to sensitivity?
  • How are they different wrt resolution of detail?
  • What colors can/do they emit?
  • How many pigments do they have?

Relative # of cones/rods=?

A

CONES:

  • Less sensitive than rods
  • Perceive:
    • Color
    • Fine resolution of detail
  • Contain 3 PIGMENTS
    • Each of which show maximum light absorption at a different λ
      • The three “max absorption” λ’s are roughly equivalent to:
        • Blue, Green and Red

NOTE: Relative # of cones = X

RODS:

  • Highly sensitive (“Rod is such a wuss!”)
  • Perceive black & white only
  • Poor resolution of detail
  • Contain only ONE pigment (rhodopsin)

NOTE: Relative # of rods = 20X

182
Q

Vision

  • Optics
  1. The lens of the human eye is a ______ lens and therefore always produces a _____ image
  2. Light rays are bent primarily by the ____, and only adjusted by the _____
  3. Lasik surgery reshapes the _____, NOT the ____
  4. A ___ ___ exists for each eye where the _____ _____ passes through the retina
A
  1. The lens of the human eye is a converging lens and therefore always produces a PRI image
  2. Light rays are bent primarily by the cornea, and only adjusted by the lens
  3. Lasik surgery reshapes the cornea, NOT the lens
  4. A blind spot exists for each eye where the optic nerve passes through the retina
183
Q

Vision

  • Optics
    • A student makes the proclamation “The cells of the retina appear to be arranged upside down!

Explain this observation and why it helps account for the existence of a blind spot (aka the “optical ____“)

A

The retina is arranged such that the photoreceptors face away from the light

  • …and then make connections with several layers of cells that are closer to the source of the incoming light
  • So, in a way, the retina is indeed arranged*

“upside down”

Because the retinal ganglion cells are actually on the outside layer of the retina that is closest to the source of incoming light

  • …their axons actually have to project back through the retina
    • …in order to form the optic nerve to travel to the brain

The place at which all of the axons of the retinal ganglion cells project through the rear of the eye, therefore, have NO photoreceptors

This area is known as the optic disc or the “blind spot”

184
Q

Vision

  • Optics

Describe the factors that determine when a person is near- or far-sighted

  • Where is the image formed in both cases?
  • What type of lens is needed to correct each condition?
A

​In normally-sighted individuals, images coming into the eye are focused directly ON the retina

Nearsightedness (myopia)

  • is generally associated with either an elongation of the eye or severe curvature of the cornea such that the image tends to focus too early
    • This results in people having more difficulty seeing things at a distance

Farsightedness (hyperopioa)

  • is associated with an eye that is too short or a cornea that doesn’t curve enough
  • In this case, people have more difficulty seeing things that are relatively close

In _both_ cases, the problems with eyeshape and/or curvature of the cornea can be corrected with eyeglasses, contact lenses, and/or surgery

185
Q

What is the transmission pathway of an OLFACTORY IMPULSE

  • In order, from the olfactory epithelium to higher-order brain centers?
  • HINT: SNeering Ned Bugs B​rian*
A
  1. Olfactory SENSORY NEURONS
    • located in olfactory epithelium of the upper nasal cavity
  2. Olfactory NERVE
    • cranial nerve 1
  3. Olfactory BULB
    • forebrain
  4. Higher-order BRAIN centers
    • varies:
      • amygdala
      • hippocampus
      • orbitofrontal cortex, etc.
186
Q

Sensation

  • Threshold

Define “Absolute Threshold”

  • What kind of information about a sensory system does it communicate?
  • Numerically, how often should you be able to detect a stimuli for it to reach “Absolute Threshold?”
A

Absolute threshold

Communicates information about how sensitive a given sensory system is

Definition:

is the minimum amount of stimulation that can be detected about 50% of the time

  • Put another way, the absolute threshold tells you how bright (or dim ) a light must be or how loud a sound must be
  • ….in order to be detected HALF OF THE TIME*
187
Q

Sensation

  • Threshold

Describe:

“Threshold for Conscious Detection/Perception”

A

Threshold for conscious detection

  • ​Any stimulus that falls BELOW the minimum value (aka “Absolute Threshold”) would FAIL to cross the Threshold of conscious detection/perception

THINK: Subliminal Messages

  • It might be possible that stimuli of which we are not consciously aware are able to influence us in some way
    • e.g. subliminal messages in advertising
      • “OBEY MY DOG!”

However, consistent empirical support

of this idea is lacking

188
Q

Which hypothesis is LEAST relevant to the role of amyloid precursor protein (APP) in the formation of β-amyloid (Aβ) plaques?

A

  • A mutation in the enzyme responsible for processing APP causes an increased concentration of Aβ

B

  • A defect in the blood brain barrier causes decreased transport of APP from the cerebrospinal fluid to the blood plasma

C

  • A defect in the blood brain barrier causes increased transport of APP from the blood plasma to the cerebrospinal fluid

D

  • A defect in the blood brain barrier causes increased transport of APP from the cerebrospinal fluid to the blood plasma
A

D

EXCESS A.P.P IN CNS ⇒ β- Amyloid plaque buildup

  • This is a LEAST relevant question, so any answer that is relevant is incorrect

The common thread between theories regarding the formation of β-amyloid (Aβ) plaques is an accumulation of amyloid precursor protein (APP)

  • This is analogous to the basic science concept of precipitate formation in solution chemistry, in that:
    • when there is enough UNprocessed APP (or solute) it will aggregate, or precipitate, as a β-amyloid (Aβ) plaque
  • Because of this, any answer that can at least partially explain a higher than normal concentration of APP in the CNS is relevant (and therefore incorrect)
  • Answer A is incorrect, a mutation in the enzyme responsible for processing APP could result in increased concentrations of APP and thus the formation of β-amyloid (Aβ) plaques, especially if β-amyloid (Aβ) plaques can cross the blood brain barrier
  • Answers B and C are both incorrect, any defect in the blood brain barrier causing an increased concentration of APP/Aβ would be relevant to the formation of β-amyloid (Aβ) plaques
  • Answer B’s defect results in decreased CLEARANCE of APP/Aβ from the CNS to the blood plasma
  • Answer C’s defect results in an increased INTAKE of APP/Aβ into the CNS

Answer D is correct

A hypothesis suggesting increased transport of APP from the cerebrospinal fluid to the blood plasma would indicate a higher clearance from the central nervous system

  • and ∴ a lower overall APP concentration in the brain
189
Q

After eating a pineapple, a patient contracted a bacterial infection. The patient now has an extreme dislike for the taste of pineapple.

Which process has occurred?

A

  • Taste sensation has been observationally conditioned

B

  • Taste aversion has been classically conditioned

C

  • Taste response has been operantly conditioned

D

  • Nausea aversion has been instrumentally conditioned
A

B

Some conditioning has occurred in the scenario in the stem, but it is unlikely that observational or instrumental conditioning has occurred eliminating Answers A and D

  • To differentiate between Answers B and C we need to decide whether classical or operant conditioning has occurred

The association between vomiting and pineapple is an example of CLASSICAL CONDITIONING (Natural response), and thus Answer B is the best answer

190
Q

EPISODIC memory is an example of ____ memory

A

EXPLICIT

  • What were you doing when the Trade Towers collapsed?
    • (Requires conscious recall)
191
Q

Describe THE CENTRAL EXECUTIVE

  • What type of memory is it a part of?
  • What 2 things make it up?
  • What are its roles (2)?
  • When is an example of a time you’d be using the Central Executive?
A

Part of the WORKING memory!!!

The Central Executive portion of working memory is comprised of both the:

  1. Phonological Loop, and
  2. Visuospatial Sketchpad

The ROLE of the Central Executive is to:

  1. Suppress useless information
  2. Direct attention to useful information

You’d be using the Central Executive to process visual & audio information while playing video games

192
Q

What is a “FLASHBULB Memory?”

  • What do they involve?
  • Give a personal example of a flashbulb memory YOU have
A

Flashbulb memories

  • Are memories that correspond to an emotional event
  • Involve vivid recall of the contextual details (where you were, what you were doing, etc.) associated with the memory

Ex:

  • I remember 9/11 was on a TUESDAY, because the night before Ed Mccaffrey broke his leg on MNF
  • I was going to talk about that with the kids on the bus, but then I heard about the Towers.
193
Q

The Ear

  • What does the EXTERNAL AUDITORY CANAL do?
A

Funnels sound waves INTO the ear, and

causes the tympanic membrane to VIBRATE

194
Q

The Ear

  • What are the names of the 3 OSSICLES?
  • HINT: “-us” or “-es”*
  • Which of these 3 presses into the oval window of the cochlea?

What CAUSES the ossicles to MOVE?

A

THE 3 OSSICLES:

  1. Malleus
  2. Incus
  3. Stapes
    • ​The stapes actually presses into the oval window of the cochlea

Move because of the VIBRATION

of theTYMPANIC MEMBRANE

(which is vibrating because of sound waves that came through the

external auditory canal)

195
Q

The Ear

What happens in the COCHLEA as a result of:

  • MOVEMENT of the 3 OSSICLES?
    • ​What happens as a result of THIS?
A

IHC’s distend⇒ converted into neural impulses

⇒off to the brain

INNER HAIR CELLS along the basilar membrane of

the fluid-filled cochlea are DISTENDED (see pic)

“Distended”=swollen due to pressure from inside; bloated

As a result, this is CONVERTED into NEURAL IMPULSES

that TRAVEL TO THE BRAIN for processing

196
Q

The Ear

  • What do INNER Hair Cells (IHC’s) and OUTER Hair Cells (OHC’s) do?
A

INNER HAIR CELLS (IHC’s)

CONVERT mechanical DISPLACEMENT

(as a function of sound waves)

into NEURAL IMPULSES (⇒ off to the brain)

OUTER HAIR CELLS (OHC’s)

are involved in AMPLIFYING SOUND WAVES

197
Q

The Ear

  • STEREOCILIA
    • Are found WHERE?
    • How do they differ from “NORMAL” cilia?
      • Why is this difference important?
A

STEREOCILIA

  • found in the Organ of Corti

Differ from other cilia because:

They do NOT move like the cilia that sweep debris from the respiratory tract

Rather, they are moved by:

MOVEMENT IN THE FLUID THAT SURROUNDS THEM

These movements are important for:

  • Communicating sensory information (either auditory or vestibular) to the CNS
198
Q

The Ear

ORGAN OF CORTI

  • Is know as the “_______ of the body”
  • What does this organ contain?
A

Organ of Corti=

MICROPHONE of the Body

Contain the hair cells (IHC’s & OHC’s)

that give rise to nerve signals

in response to sound vibrations