Prosthodontics Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the most reliable record when fabricating a denture?

A. Maximum Intercuspation (MI)

B. Centric Occlusion (CO)

C. Centric Relation (CR)

D. All of the above

A

C. Centric Relation (CR)

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2
Q

Discuss the 5 situations that would give a dental bridge a poor prognosis:

A
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3
Q

What are the two main reasons that a dental bridge is contraindicated in regards to the abutment tooth?

A
  1. Compromised endodontically treated teeth should NOT be used as abutments because the removed dentin make them weaker
  2. Compromised periodontal teeth should NOT be used as abutments.
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4
Q

Which of the following is the ideal crown-to-root ratio in regards to dental bridges?

A. 1:2

B. 2:3

C. 1:1

D. 2:1

A

A. 1:2

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5
Q

Which of the following is the minimum crown-to-root ratio in regards to dental bridges?

A. 1:2

B. 2:3

C. 1:1

D. 2:1

A

C. 1:1

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6
Q

Which of the following is a very poor (contraindicated) crown-to-root ratio in regards to dental bridges?

A. 1:2

B. 2:3

C. 1:1

D. 2:1

A

D. 2:1

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7
Q

Which of the following is a realistic crown-to-root ratio in regards to dental bridges?

A. 1:2

B. 2:3

C. 1:1

D. 2:1

A

B. 2:3

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8
Q

Discuss Ante’s Law:

A
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9
Q

(T/F)

When replacing a canine with a bridge, the central and lateral incisors should NOT be splinted together.

***BOARDS***

A

False

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10
Q

Discuss Splinting in regards to dental bridges:

  • Splinting teeth ________.
  • Recommended where?
  • When replacing a ____, the central and lateral should be splinted together to prevent lateral drifting of the bridge.
A
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11
Q

All of the following are ideal abutment situations for dental bridges EXCEPT:

A. Divergent roots

B. Conical roots

C. Curved roots

D. Broad roots

E. Multiple roots

A

B. Conical roots

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12
Q

What are the 4 indications for a Partial Denture (RPD)?

A
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13
Q

Discuss Complete Dentures in regards to each of the following:

  • When is a complete denture indicated?
  • What is a complete contraindication to a complete denture? (Syndrome?)
A
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14
Q

Discuss Overdentures:

A
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15
Q

_______ in a cement-retained implant can cause peri-implantitis.

A

Excess Cement

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16
Q

Discuss Cement-Retained Implants in regards to it’s benefits/flaws:

A
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17
Q

Discuss Screw-Retained Implants:

A
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18
Q

Review Cement-Retained Implants vs Screw-Retained Implants:

A
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19
Q

What component of Alginate controls the setting rate?

A

Trisodium phosphate

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20
Q

Discuss Alginate in regards to each of the following:

  • Material of choice for _______.
  • ______ + _________ = insoluble calcium alginate.
  • Diatomaceous earth adds ____.
  • ______ controls the setting rate of alginate.
  • More bulk means less ______.
A
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21
Q

______ is the position in which condyles articulate with the thinnest avascular portion of their respective discs in the most anterior-superior position against the articulate eminence.

***I GOT A PRACTICE Q ON THIS***

A

Centric Relation (CR)

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22
Q

What is the definition of Centric Relation?

A

The position in which condyles articulate with the thinnest avascular portion of their respective discs in the most anterior-superior position against the articular eminence.

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23
Q

Discuss Maximum Intercuspation (MI):

A
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24
Q
A
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25
Q

Discuss CR vs MI in regards to each of the following:

  • MIO and CR coincide in ____ of the population.
  • Casts are mounted in _____ when MI can be maintained (single fixed procedure)
  • Casts are mounted in CR when ____ is impossible to maintain (complete dentures, multiple teeth being restored or replaced)
A
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26
Q

Discuss Occlusal Harmony in respect to a door and door hinge:

A
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27
Q

Discuss Bimanual Manipulation in regards to each of the following:

  • One of the most accurate methods to obtain accurate ______.
  • With patients lying back, ______.
  • _______ the jaw.
  • Identify first _____ tooth contact and repeat until you identify a consistent first tooth contact.
  • Keep _____ teeth slightly apart in CR with leaf gauge or acrylic resin.
  • Then take ______ of posterior teeth with PVS.
A
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28
Q

What is the objective of a Facebow Record?

A
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29
Q

Discuss what the purpose of a facebow is in a simplified way:

A

A facebow record transfers the relationship between the maxilla and the rest of the skull. From the patient to the articulator.

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30
Q

Which of the following is the easier but less accurate way to get a Facebow Record?

A. Arbitrary facebow

B. Kinematic facebow

A
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31
Q

Identify each of the following components of an Articulator:

  • Upper member = ?
  • Lower member = ?
  • Hindge axis = ?
A
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32
Q

Discuss Nonadjustable Articulators in regards to each of the following:

  • Does not reproduce full range of ________.
  • Distance between hinge and teeth is significantly _______ than in the patient.
  • May result in ______ contacts and _______.
A
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33
Q

Discuss Semiadjustable Articulators in regards to each of the following:

  • Allows you to set the _______ and ______.
  • Acron?
  • Nonacron?
A
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34
Q

Discuss Mounting Casts in regards to each of the following:

  • Casts poured from _____ are more accurately mounted with ______ records.
  • Casts poured from ______ are more accurately mounted with ______ materials.

***BOARDS***

A
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35
Q

(T/F)

Casts poured from alginate are more accurately mounted with elastometric materials.

A

False

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36
Q

What is disclusion?

A

Teeth separating from each other after function

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37
Q

Which of the following is associated w/ moving the jaw forward (protrusion)?

(select all that apply)

A. Condylar guidance

B. Incisal guidance

C. Canine guidance

D. Anterior guidance

A

A. Condylar guidance

B. Incisal guidance

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38
Q

Which of the following is associated w/ moving the jaw side to side (lateral extrusion)?

(select all that apply)

A. Condylar guidance

B. Incisal guidance

C. Canine guidance

D. Anterior guidance

A

C. Canine guidance

D. Anterior guidance

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39
Q

Which of the following is the posterior determinant of occlusion?

A. Condylar guidance

B. Incisal guidance

C. Canine guidance

D. Anterior guidance

A

A. Condylar guidance

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40
Q

Which of the following is the anterior determinant of occlusion?

A. Condylar guidance

B. Incisal guidance

C. Canine guidance

D. Anterior guidance

A

B. Incisal guidance

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41
Q

Which of the following is associated by the slope of the articular eminence and is represented by the horizontal condylar incliniation on the articulator

A. Condylar guidance

B. Incisal guidance

C. Canine guidance

D. Anterior guidance

A

A. Condylar guidance

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42
Q

Which of the following is represented by a pin and guide table on an articulator?

A. Condylar guidance

B. Incisal guidance

C. Canine guidance

D. Anterior guidance

A

B. Incisal guidance

Incisal guidance: incisal edges of lower incisors against lingual slopes of upper incisors

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43
Q

_______ is when in lateral movements all posterior teeth are immediately discluded as contact occurs solely between upper and lower canine on the working side.

A. Condylar guidance

B. Incisal guidance

C. Canine guidance

D. Anterior guidance

A

C. Canine guidance

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44
Q

Which of the following refers to both incisal and canine guidance?

A. Condylar guidance

B. Incisal guidance

C. Canine guidance

D. Anterior guidance

A

D. Anterior guidance

Note: Anterior guidance is when the slope of the upper incisors (protrusion) and canine guidance (lateral excursion)

Summary of Anterior guidance = protrusive and lateral excursion

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45
Q

Discuss Anterior Guidance:

A

Anterior Guidance

  • Refers to both incisal and canine guidance
  • During protrusive, incisal and condylar guidance provide clearance for all posterior teeth
  • During lateral, canines on working side and condyle on balancing side provide clearance for posterior teeth on balancing side
    • Balancing side refers to the side that the mandible is moving away from

Summary: Anterior guidance = posterior clearance provided by both incisal and canine guidance

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46
Q

Discuss what the Guide Table of the articulator is and its function in dentistry:

  • Mechanical incisal guide table gives insufficient information to reproduce ___________.
A

Guide Table

  • Anterior guidance must be preserved when restorative procedures are done on any of the “guiding” teeth
    • Guiding teeth refers to Incisal guidance (slope of maxillary incisors) and Canine guidance
    • If you are restoring any of the canines on a pt w/ canine guidance you need to make sure to preserve their canine guidance
  • Mechanical incisal guide table gives insufficient information to reproduce lingual contours of maxillary anterior natural teeth bc the mechanical guide table can only give you information about straight lines (the lingual surface of incisors are curved)
  • Custom incisal guide tables can give you this information
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47
Q

What is Mutual Protection in regards to prosthodontics?

A

Mutual protection: The front teeth protect the back and the back teeth protect the front.

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48
Q

Locate each of the following anatomical structures in maxillary edentulism:

  • Alveolar Ridge
  • Labial Frenum
  • Buccal Frenum
  • Labial Vestibule
  • Buccal Vestibule
  • Hamular Notch
  • Vibrating Line “Butterfly Line”
  • Coronoid Notch
  • Pterygomandibular Raphe
A
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49
Q

Discuss the purpose of the Vibrating Line in regards to each of the following:

  • Where is the “butterfly line”?
  • Where is it located?
  • What is the the Vibrating Line used to achieve when fabricating a maxillary complete denture?

***GOT A PRACTICE Q***

A

Vibrating Line

  • “Butterfly Line” is the junction between the hard palate and soft palate (anterior to vibrating line)
  • Located between Hamilcar notch and is 2mm away from fovea palatini
  • When taking and impression for a complete maxillary denture you want to get just a little past the vibrating line to achieve a Posterior Palatal Seal (gives suction cup effect to denture)
  • Butterfly line is the anterior border of the posterior palatal seal and the Vibrating line is the posterior border of the posterior palatal seal
  • Posterior palatal seals does not allow salvia to leak out of the posterior of the denture

***GOT A PRACTICE Q***

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50
Q

Discuss the Coronoid Notch in regards to each of the following:

  • What is it?
  • Where is it located?
  • Border molding?
  • What movements do you need the patient to do in order to capture this?
A
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51
Q

Discuss the Pterygomandibular Raphe in regards to each of the following:

  • Connects ______ and ________.
  • How do you capture it in an impression?
  • What is this important for in the maxillary arch?
A
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52
Q

Discuss Mandibular Edentulous Anatomy in regards to each of the following:

  • What muscle(s) is associated w/ the Labial frenum of the mandible?
  • What muscle(s) is associated w/ the Buccal frenum of the mandible?
  • What muscle(s) is associated w/ the Lingual frenum of the mandible?
  • What muscle(s) is associated w/ the Labial vestibule of the mandible?
  • What muscle(s) is associated w/ the Buccal vestibule of the mandible?
A
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53
Q

Discuss the Retromolar Pad in regards to each of the following:

  • Where is it located?
  • Does the dentist want the Retromolar Pad covered by the denture?
  • Contains attachments from what 4 muscles? ***BOARDS***
A
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54
Q

Dicsuss the Masseteric Notch:

  • What is the Masseteric Notch analogous to?
  • Where is it located?
  • What does it refer to?
  • Masseteric notch contacts when the mouth _____.
A
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55
Q

Discuss the Alveololingual Sulcus of an edentulous mandible in regards to each of the following:

  • Where is it located?
  • What are the two S’s?
A

It’s basically the lingual vestibule of the mandible

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56
Q

Discuss each of the following in regards to the Alveololingual Sulcus:

  • Anterior Region
    • where is it located?
    • Sublingual gland sits above mylohyoid muscle in this region so the flange is ____ anteriorly and should touch the mucosa of floor of the mouth.
  • Middle Region
    • where is it located?
    • Flange is deflected _______ away from mandible due to prominences of mylohyoid ridge in this area and contraction of mylohyoid medially.
  • Posterior Region
    • Where is it located?
    • Although mylohyoid attaches higher posteriorly, the posterior fibers are directed more vertically so the denture seats deeper and the lingual flange is ______.
    • Flange is deflected ______ toward the ramus of the mandible to form typical S-form of lingual sulcus.
    • Denture extension in this area is limited by what two muscles?

***BOARDS***

A
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57
Q

Discuss mandibular edentulous anatomy in regards to the Buccal Shelf:

  • Provides ____ for the denture.
  • Lies ________ to occlusal forces.
  • What muscle attaches here?
A
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58
Q

List each of the following from most to least common in regards to Frenectomies:

  • Buccal frenectomy
  • Labial frenectomy
  • Lingual frenectomy
A
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59
Q

Discuss Free Gingival Graft in regards to each of the following:

  • Necesssary for some ______ teeth.
  • FGG widens band of _______ tissue.
A
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60
Q

Discuss Hypermobile Ridge in regards to each of the following:

  • Flabby edentulous ridges are common especially in _________.
  • Tx with _____.
  • Use _________ in tray or perforate a custom tray when taking impression.
A
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61
Q

(T/F)

Flabby edentulous ridges are common especially in anterior mandible.

A

False

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62
Q

Epulis Fissuratum is a hyperplastic tissue reaction caused by an ill-fitting denture or _______.

***BOARDS***

A

Overextended Flange

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63
Q

Discuss Epulis Fissuratum in regards to each of the following:

  • What is it and what causes it?
  • Tx?
A
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64
Q

Discuss Fibrous (Pendulous) Tuberosity in regards to each of the following:

  • Commen when _______ touch Retromolar pads.
  • Can interfere with denture construction by _____.
  • Tx?
A
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65
Q

Discuss Papillary Hyperplasia in regards to each of the following:

  • What is it and where does it occur?
  • ______ is the main cause.
  • Tx?

***GAURENTEED BOARDS Qs***

A
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66
Q

Dicsuss Combination Syndrome in regards to each of the following:

  • What is it and what makes this occur?
  • Overgrowth of ____.
  • ______ in hard palate.
  • _____ of lower anterior teeth.
  • Loss of bone under the ______ bases.

***GAURENTEED BOARD Q***

A
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67
Q

_______ is the main cause of Papillary Hyperplasia.

A

Candidiasis

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68
Q

_______ is the specific pattern of bone resorption in the anterior edentulous maxilla when it is opposing mandibular anterior teeth only.

A

Combination Syndrome

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69
Q

Which of the following occurs on the palate and is caused by Candidiasis?

A. Epulis Fissuratum

B. Fibrous (Pendulous) Tuberosity

C. Papillary Hyperplasia

D. Combination Syndrome

E. Paget’s Disease

A

C. Papillary Hyperplasia

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70
Q

Which of the following is a hyperplastic tissue reaction caused by an ill-fitting denture or overextended flange?

A. Epulis Fissuratum

B. Fibrous (Pendulous) Tuberosity

C. Papillary Hyperplasia

D. Combination Syndrome

E. Paget’s Disease

A

A. Epulis Fissuratum

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71
Q

Which of the following is a specific pattern of bone resorption in the anterior endentulous maxilla when it is opposing mandibular anterior teeth only?

A. Epulis Fissuratum

B. Fibrous (Pendulous) Tuberosity

C. Papillary Hyperplasia

D. Combination Syndrome

E. Paget’s Disease

A

D. Combination Syndrome

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72
Q

Which of the following conditions is of unknown etiology and results in a patients dentures not fitting?

A. Epulis Fissuratum

B. Fibrous (Pendulous) Tuberosity

C. Papillary Hyperplasia

D. Combination Syndrome

E. Paget’s Disease

A

E. Paget’s Disease

Note: the etiology of combination syndrome is known

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73
Q

Discuss Retained Root Tips:

  • what can they be a risk of?
  • They can be left alone if ______/
A
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74
Q

Discuss Paget’s Disease in regards to each of the following:

  • What is it?
  • What is a cardinal sign?
A
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75
Q

Discuss each of the following:

  • Alveoplasty
  • Tori Removal
A
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76
Q

Discuss Vestibuloplasty in regards to each of the following:

  • What is the purpose?
  • ______ vestibuloplasty is more traumatic and rarely indicated.
A
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77
Q

Discuss Bone Augmentation in regards to each of the following:

  • Bone grafts = ?
  • Hydroxyapatite = ?
  • Which of the following is harder to restore?
    • A. Horizontal bone loss
    • B. Vertical bone loss
A

Augmentation: the process of making or becoming greater in size or amount

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78
Q

Which of the following is the distance between the nose and chin when biting together?

A. VDR

B. VDO

C. CR

D. MI

E. Interocclusal space

A

B. VDO

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79
Q

Which of the following is the distance between the nose and chin when at rest?

A. VDR

B. VDO

C. CR

D. MI

E. Interocclusal space

A

A. VDR

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80
Q

Which of the following indicates superior-inferior relationship of the maxilla and mandible when the teeth are occluded in MI.

A. VDR

B. VDO

C. CR

D. MI

E. Interocclusal space

A

B. VDO

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81
Q

What is Interocclusal Space?

A
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82
Q

Excessive VDO may result in all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Excessive display of mandibular teeth

B. Muscles of mastication fatigue

C. Angular cheilitis

D. Clicking of the posterior teeth when speaking

E. Strained appearance of the lips

***BOARDS***

A

C. Angular cheilitis

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83
Q

List as many of the signs and symptoms seen in patients with an Excessive VDO:

***BOARDS***

A
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84
Q

Discuss the signs and symptoms associated w/ insufficient VDO:

***BOARDS***

A
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85
Q

The _____ record can be used to fix an incorrect VDO.

A

CR

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86
Q

Which of the following is used to fix an incorrect VDO?

A. CR record

B. MI record

C. Protrusive record

D. Bite registration record

A

A. CR record

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87
Q

_______ refers to the distal space created between the maxillary and mandibular occlusal surfaces when the mandible is protruded, due to downward and forward movement of condyles down their articular eminence.

***BOARDS***

A

Christensen’s phenomenon (posterior open bite)

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88
Q

Discuss Protrusive Record in regards to each of the following:

  • What is it?
  • Christensen’s phenomenon = ?
A
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89
Q

Discuss each of the following in regards to the Plane of Occlusion:

  • Camper’s line = ?
  • Interpupillary line = ?
  • The ______ should be parallel to both of these lines, which can be measured with a Fox plane.
A
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90
Q

Discuss Balanced Occlusion in regards to complete dentures:

  • Balanced occlusion for complete dentures refers to ______________________.
  • What type of guidance should be avoided in complete dentures and why?
  • On the balancing side _______.
  • On the working side ________.
A
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91
Q

Which of the following is where only the palatal cusps of the maxillary posterior teeth contact the mandibular posterior teeth theoretically eliminating the destabilizing force vectors?

A. Balanced occlusion

B. Lingualized occlusion

C. Buccalized occlusion

D. All of the above

A

B. Lingualized occlusion

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92
Q

Discuss Lingualized Occlusion:

A
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93
Q

Which of the following refers to lateral movement of both condyles toward the working side, basically “TMJ looseness”?

A. Bennet angle

B. Bennet shift

C. Bennet movement

A

C. Bennet movement

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94
Q

Which of the following is associated with lateral movement of the mandible toward the working side during lateral excursion?

A. Bennett angle

B. Bennett shift

C. Bennett movement

A

B. Bennett shift

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95
Q

Discuss Bennett in regards to each of the following:

  • Bennett angle = ?
  • Bennet shift = ?
  • Bennet movement = ?
A
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96
Q

Which of the following is favored for cuspal anatomy in regards to disclusion?

A. Steep incisal and Canine guidance

B. Steep horizontal condylar inclination (HCI) and less Bennet movement

C. Short cusps with shallow inclines

D. Less Curve of Spee and less Curve of Wilson

A

C. Short cusps with shallow inclines

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97
Q

Which of the following is favored for Anterior Guidance in regards to disclusion?

A. Steep incisal and Canine guidance

B. Steep horizontal condylar inclination (HCI) and less Bennet movement

C. Short cusps with shallow inclines

D. Less Curve of Spee and less Curve of Wilson

A

A. Steep incisal and Canine guidance

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98
Q

Which of the following is favored for Posterior Guidance in regards to disclusion?

A. Steep incisal and Canine guidance

B. Steep horizontal condylar inclination (HCI) and less Bennet movement

C. Short cusps with shallow inclines

D. Less Curve of Spee and less Curve of Wilson

A

B. Steep horizontal condylar inclination (HCI) and less Bennet movement

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99
Q

Which of the following is favored for Tooth Arrangement in regards to disclusion?

A. Steep incisal and Canine guidance

B. Steep horizontal condylar inclination (HCI) and less Bennet movement

C. Short cusps with shallow inclines

D. Less Curve of Spee and less Curve of Wilson

A

D. Less Curve of Spee and less Curve of Wilson

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100
Q

Discuss each of the following determinants of occlusion in regards to Dissclusion:

  • What is favored in anterior guidance?
  • What is favored in posterior guidance?
  • What is favored in cuspal anatomy?
  • What is favored in tooth arrangement?
A
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101
Q

Discuss each of the following Compensating Curves:

  • Curve of Spee = ?
    • More ____ inclination as you move distally
  • Curve of Wilson = ?
    • More ______ inclination as you move distally
A
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102
Q

All of the following are factors that favor disclusion EXCEPT:

A. Steep incisal and Canine guidance

B. Steep horizontal condylar inclination (HCI) and less Bennett movement

C. Short cusps with shallow inclines

D. Less Curve of Spee and less Curve of Wilson

E. Shallow horizontal condylar inclination and greater Bennett movement

A

E. Shallow horizontal condylar inclination and greater Bennett movement

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103
Q

All of the following are factors that favor eccentric occlusion on posterior teeth EXCEPT:

A. Shallow Incisal and Canine Guidance

B. Steep horizontal Condylar inclination (HCI) and less Bennett movement

C. Tall cusps with steep inclines

D. Greater Curve of Spee and Curve of Wilson

A

B. Steep horizontal Condylar inclination (HCI) and less Bennett movement

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104
Q

All of the following are factors that favor disclusion of posterior teeth EXCEPT:

A. Steep incisal and Canine guidance

B. Steep horizontal condylar inclination (HCI) and less Bennett movement

C. Short cusps with shallow inclines

D. Greater Curve of Spee and Curve of Wilson

A

D. Greater Curve of Spee and Curve of Wilson

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105
Q

All of the following are factors that favor disclusion of posterior teeth EXCEPT:

A. Steep incisal and Canine guidance

B. Steep horizontal condylar inclination (HCI) and less Bennett movement

C. Tall cusps with steep inclines

D. Less Curve of Spee and Curve of Wilson

A

C. Tall cusps with steep inclines

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106
Q

All of the following are factors that favor disclusion of posterior teeth EXCEPT:

A. Shallow incisal and Canine guidance

B. Steep horizontal condylar inclination (HCI) and less Bennett movement

C. Short cusps with shallow inclines

D. Less Curve of Spee and Curve of Wilson

A

A. Shallow incisal and Canine guidance

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107
Q

Discuss the process of making bases and rims on a complete denture:

  • What are the steps?
A

Diagnostic cast –> custom trays –> border molding –> master casts –> bases and rims

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108
Q

Contact between the tip of the tongue and the anterior palate or lingual surface of teeth is associated with which of the following?

A. Fricative or Labiodental sounds

B. Sibilant or Linguoalveolar sounds

C. Linguodental sounds

D. Bilabial sounds

E. Guttural sounds

A

B. Sibilant or Linguoalveolar sounds

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109
Q

Contact between both lips is associated w/ which of the following?

A. Fricative or Labiodental sounds

B. Sibilant or Linguoalveolar sounds

C. Linguodental sounds

D. Bilabial sounds

E. Guttural sounds

A

D. Bilabial sounds

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110
Q

Contact between maxillary incisors and wet/dry line of lower lip is associated w/ which of the following?

A. Fricative or Labiodental sounds

B. Sibilant or Linguoalveolar sounds

C. Linguodental sounds

D. Bilabial sounds

E. Guttural sounds

A

A. Fricative or Labiodental sounds

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111
Q

Contact between the tip of the tongue and upper and lower teeth is associated w/ which of the following?

A. Fricative or Labiodental sounds

B. Sibilant or Linguoalveolar sounds

C. Linguodental sounds

D. Bilabial sounds

E. Guttural sounds

A

C. Linguodental sounds

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112
Q

Contact between the back of the tongue and throat is associated w/ which of the following?

A. Fricative or Labiodental sounds

B. Sibilant or Linguoalveolar sounds

C. Linguodental sounds

D. Bilabial sounds

E. Guttural sounds

A

E. Guttural sounds

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113
Q

Discuss each of the following:

  • Fricative or Labiodental sounds = ?
  • Sibilant or Linguoalveolar sounds = ?
  • Linguodental sounds = ?
  • Bilabial sounds = ?
  • Guttural sounds = ?

***GOT A PRACTICE Q ON THIS***

A
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114
Q

Which of the following is the resistance to vertical dislodging forces?

A. Support

B. Stability

C. Retention

D. Cohesion

E. Adhesion

***BOARDS***

A

C. Retention

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115
Q

Which of the following is the resistance to Horizontal dislodging forces?

A. Support

B. Stability

C. Retention

D. Cohesion

E. Adhesion

***BOARDS***

A

B. Stability

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116
Q

Which of the following is the resistance to vertical seating forces?

A. Support

B. Stability

C. Retention

D. Cohesion

E. Adhesion

***BOARDS***

A

A. Support

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117
Q

Which of the following is the attraction of unlike molecules?

A. Support

B. Stability

C. Retention

D. Cohesion

E. Adhesion

***BOARDS***

A

E. Adhesion

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118
Q

Which of the following is the clinging of like molecules?

A. Support

B. Stability

C. Retention

D. Cohesion

E. Adhesion

***BOARDS***

A

D. Cohesion

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119
Q

Which of the following is the primary support for a mandibular denture?

A. Ridge height and depth of vetibule

B. Palate

C. Retromolar pad

D. Buccal shelf

E. Alveolar ridge

***BOARDS***

A

D. Buccal shelf

Note: the Retromolar pad does offer support for mandibular dentures but isn’t the primary support.

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120
Q

Which of the following is the primary support for a maxillary denture?

A. Ridge height and depth of vetibule

B. Palate

C. Retromolar pad

D. Buccal shelf

E. Alveolar ridge

***BOARDS***

A

B. Palate

E. Alveolar ridge

note: support for maxillary denture comes from BOTH the palate and alveolar ridge

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121
Q

Which of the following provides stability for a maxillary denture?

A. Ridge height and depth of vetibule

B. Palate

C. Retromolar pad

D. Buccal shelf

E. Alveolar ridge

***BOARDS***

A

A. Ridge height and depth of vetibule

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122
Q

Which of the following provides stability for a mandibular denture?

A. Ridge height and depth of vetibule

B. Palate

C. Retromolar pad

D. Buccal shelf

E. Alveolar ridge

***BOARDS***

A

A. Ridge height and depth of vetibule

Support for Upper and Lower = ridge height and depth of vestibule

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123
Q

Which of the following provides a denture with Stability?

A. Denture base

B. Denture flange

C. Peripheral seal

***BOARDS***

A

B. Denture flange

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124
Q

Which of the following provides a denture with Support?

A. Denture base

B. Denture flange

C. Peripheral seal

***BOARDS***

A

A. Denture base

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125
Q

Which of the following provides a denture with Retention?

A. Denture base

B. Denture flange

C. Peripheral seal

***BOARDS***

A

C. Peripheral seal

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126
Q

________ is the combination of adhesion and cohesion forces that maintain film integrity.

A

Surface Tension

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127
Q

Discuss each of the following:

  • Adhesion
  • Cohesion
  • Surface tension
A
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128
Q

Discuss Overextension of a denture in regards to each of the following:

  • Denture flange is _____.
  • Signs and symptoms of an overextended denture?
  • Tx?
  • Denture extends ______.
  • Denture teeth are set so far back that they go up onto the ____.
  • Occlusal forces would ____ an overextended denture.
A
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129
Q

Discuss Underextension in regards to dentures:

A
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130
Q

What is the best indicator for success of a denture?

***BOARDS***

A
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131
Q

Which of the following is a polymer and is in powder form in regards to heated-cured acrylic?

A. PMMA

B. MMA

A

A. PMMA

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132
Q

Which of the following is the inhibitor in the liquid of heat-cured acrylic?

A. Methyl methacrylate (MMA)

B. Hydroquinone

C. Glycol dimethacrylate

D. Dimethyl-p-toluidine

E. Benzoyl peroxide

A

B. Hydroquinone

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133
Q

Which of the following is in liquid form in regards to heated-cured acrylic?

A. PMMA

B. MMA

A

B. MMA

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134
Q

Which of the following is the activator in the liquid of heat-cured acrylic?

A. Methyl methacrylate (MMA)

B. Hydroquinone

C. Glycol dimethacrylate

D. Dimethyl-p-toluidine

E. Benzoyl peroxide

A

D. Dimethyl-p-toluidine

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135
Q

Which of the following is the cross-linking agent in the liquid of heat-cured acrylic?

A. Methyl methacrylate (MMA)

B. Hydroquinone

C. Glycol dimethacrylate

D. Dimethyl-p-toluidine

E. Benzoyl peroxide

A

C. Glycol dimethacrylate

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136
Q

Which of the following is the initiator in the powder of heat-cured acrylic?

A. Methyl methacrylate (MMA)

B. Hydroquinone

C. Glycol dimethacrylate

D. Dimethyl-p-toluidine

E. Benzoyl peroxide

A

E. Benzoyl peroxide

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137
Q

Which of the following is the monomer in the liquid of heat-cured acrylic?

A. Methyl methacrylate (MMA)

B. Hydroquinone

C. Polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA)

D. Dimethyl-p-toluidine

E. Benzoyl peroxide

A

A. Methyl methacrylate (MMA)

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138
Q

Which of the following is the polymer in the powder of heat-cured acrylic?

A. Methyl methacrylate (MMA)

B. Hydroquinone

C. Polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA)

D. Dimethyl-p-toluidine

E. Salts of iron, cadmium or organic dyes

A

C. Polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA)

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139
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the pigment in the powder of heat-cured acrylic?

A. Methyl methacrylate (MMA)

B. Hydroquinone

C. Polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA)

D. Dimethyl-p-toluidine

E. Salts of iron, cadmium

A

E. Salts of iron, cadmium

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140
Q

All of the following are associated with the liquid in heat-cured acrylic EXCEPT:

A. Methyl methacrylate (MMA)

B. Benzoyl peroxide

C. Hydroquinone

D. Glycol dimethacrylate

E. Dimthyl-p-toluidine

A

B. Benzoyl peroxide

note: benzoyl peroxide is the initiator for the powder of heat-cured acrylic

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141
Q

_______ is due to underpacking with resin at time of processing or being heated too rapidly.

***BOARDS***

A

Porosity

142
Q

Discuss denture processing in regards to each of the following:

  • Shrinkage always occurs, but more shrinkage will occur if there is excessive __________.
  • What is the ideal ratio of monomer to polymer?
  • What two things during denture processing can cause Porosity?
A
143
Q

All of the following are true regarding porcelain denture teeth EXCEPT:

A. Has better retention than denture teeth made of acrylic because it can bond to the denture base better

B. More esthetic than denture teeth made of acrylic because it is more stain and wear resistant

C. Brittle

D. May wear opposing teeth

A

A. Has better retention than denture teeth made of acrylic because it can bond to the denture base better

144
Q

Discuss the advantages/disadvantages of using each of the following materials for denture teeth:

  • Acrylic
  • Porcelain
A
145
Q

Unilateral distal extension is associated w/ which of the following?

A. Kennedy class I

B. Kennedy class II

C. Kennedy class III

D. Kennedy class IV

A

B. Kennedy class II

146
Q

Bilateral distal extension is associated w/ which of the following?

A. Kennedy class I

B. Kennedy class II

C. Kennedy class III

D. Kennedy class IV

A

A. Kennedy class I

147
Q

Bilateral bounded edentulous space (BES) is associated w/ which of the following?

A. Kennedy class I

B. Kennedy class II

C. Kennedy class III

D. Kennedy class IV

A

D. Kennedy class IV

148
Q

An edentulous space that crosses the midline is associated w/ which of the following?

A. Kennedy class I

B. Kennedy class II

C. Kennedy class III

D. Kennedy class IV

A

D. Kennedy class IV

149
Q

Unilateral bounded edentulous space (BES) is associated w/ which of the following?

A. Kennedy class I

B. Kennedy class II

C. Kennedy class III

D. Kennedy class IV

A

C. Kennedy class III

150
Q

What are the 8 Applegate’s Rules in regards to RPDs?

A
151
Q

What is the Kennedy classification for the image below?

A
152
Q

What is the Kennedy classification for the image below?

A
153
Q

What is the Kennedy classification for the image below?

A
154
Q

What is the Kennedy classification for the image below?

A
155
Q

Which of the following components of an RPD provides Rigidity?

A. Rest seat

B. Minor connector

C. Retentive clasp

D. Major connector

E. Reciprocal clasp

***BOARDS***

A

D. Major connector

156
Q

Which of the following components of an RPD provides Support?

A. Rest seat

B. Minor connector

C. Indirect retainer

D. Major connector

E. Clasps

***BOARDS***

A

A. Rest seat

157
Q

Which of the following components of an RPD provides Stability?

A. Rest seat

B. Minor connector

C. Indirect retainer

D. Major connector

A

B. Minor connector

158
Q

Which of the following components of an RPD provides Retention?

A. Rest seat

B. Minor connector

C. Reciprocal clasp

D. Major connector

E. Retentive clasp

A

E. Retentive clasp

159
Q

Which of the following components of an RPD provides Stability?

A. Rest seat

B. Minor connector

C. Reciprocal clasp

D. Major connector

E. Two of the above

A

E. Two of the above

160
Q

Which of the following is the Least rigid major connector for maxillary RPDs?

A. Complete Palatal Plate

B. Maxillary Horseshoe

C. Palatal strap

D. All of the above

A

B. Maxillary Horseshoe

161
Q

Which of the following is the most rigid major connector for maxillary RPDs?

A. Complete Palatal Plate

B. Maxillary Horseshoe

C. Palatal strap

D. All of the above

A

A. Complete Palatal Plate

162
Q

Discuss each of the following Major Connectors in regards to maxillary RPDs:

  • Complete palatal plate
    • Rigidity?
    • Indications?
  • Horseshoe
    • Rigidity?
    • Indications?
  • Palatal strap
    • All major connectors should cross the midline _________.
A
163
Q

Discuss Beading in regards to RPDs:

  • Exclusive for _______ major connectors.
  • What is beading?
  • What’s the purpose of beading?
A
164
Q

Which of the following Mandibular Major Connector is indicated when the depth of the vestibule is greater than or equal to 7mm?

A. Lingual bar

B. Horseshoe

C. Lingual plate

D. Labial bar (swinglock)

***BOARDS***

A

A. Lingual bar

165
Q

Which of the following Mandibular Major Connector is indicated when the depth of the vestibule is less than 7mm?

A. Lingual bar

B. Horseshoe

C. Lingual plate

D. Labial bar (swinglock)

A

C. Lingual plate

166
Q

Which of the following Mandibular Major Connector is indicated when there is a missing mandibular canine?

A. Lingual bar

B. Horseshoe

C. Lingual plate

D. Labial bar (swinglock)

A

D. Labial bar (swinglock)

167
Q

Which of the following Mandibular Major Connector is indicated when there is lingual tori present?

A. Lingual bar

B. Horseshoe

C. Lingual plate

D. Labial bar (swinglock)

A

C. Lingual plate

168
Q

Discuss each of the following Mandibular Major Connectors:

  • Lingual bar
  • Lingual plate
  • Labial bar (swinglock)
A
169
Q

What are Minor Connectors in regards to the framework of an RPD?

A
170
Q

Discuss Rest seats in regards to RPDs:

  • What is a rest seat?
  • What do rest seats provide the RPD?
  • What surfaces are rest seats prepped on?
A
171
Q

Which of the following rest seats is an inverted V or U shape?

A. Occlusal rest

B. Cingulum rest

C. Incisal rest

D. All of the above

A

B. Cingulum rest

172
Q

Each of the bullets below are required in the preparation of which of the following?

  • 1/3 MD width
  • 1/2 Intercuspal width
  • 1.5mm deep for base metal

A. Occlusal rest seats

B. Cingulum rest seats

C. Incisal rest seats

***BOARDS***

A

A. Occlusal rest seats

173
Q

Each of the bullets below are required in the preparation of which of the following?

  • 2.5 MD width
  • 1.5mm deep

A. Occlusal rest seats

B. Cingulum rest seats

C. Incisal rest seats

***BOARDS***

A

C. Incisal rest seats

174
Q

Each of the bullets below are required in the preparation of which of the following?

  • 2.5-3mm MD width
  • 2mm labiolingual width (ledge)
  • 1.5mm deep

A. Occlusal rest seats

B. Cingulum rest seats

C. Incisal rest seats

***BOARDS***

A

B. Cingulum rest seats

175
Q

Discuss Occlusal Rests in regards to each of the following:

  • Shape?
  • MD width?
  • Intercuspal width?
  • How many mm deep?
  • Floor inclines __________.
  • Angle formed with vertical minor connector is ______.
A
176
Q

Discuss Cingulum Rests in regards to each of the following:

  • Shape?
  • MD length?
  • Labiolingual width?
  • How many mm deep?
  • Contraindicated for ______.
  • Benefits?
A
177
Q

Discuss Incisal Rests in regards to each of the following:

  • Shape?
  • MD length?
  • How many mm deep?
  • Used as _____.
  • Less favorable leverage than _______.
  • Why is his not used often?
A
178
Q

_______ is a metal plate that contacts the proximal surface of the abutment tooth of an RPD.

A

Proximal Plate

noet: proximal plate is a minor connector

179
Q

Discuss Guide Planes of an RPD in regards to each of the following?

  • Is the guide plane part of the RPD or the tooth?
  • What are guide planes?
  • Buccolingual width?
  • Extends ____mm vertically down from marginal ridge.
A
180
Q

Discuss Indirect Retainers of RPDs in regards to each of the following:

  • The distal extension area of a partial is ____ and no anchored posteriorly.
  • There is a rotational movement centered around an imaginary line drawn through the __________.
  • Indirect retainer is directly _______ and ________ to the fulcrum line which provides bracing to resist rotational movement of distal extension area.
  • Axis of rotation?
A
181
Q

Discuss direct retainers (clasp assembly) in regards to each of the following?

  • Rest = ?
  • Minor connector = ?
  • Clasp arms
    • Retentive clasp arm = ?
    • Reciprocal clasp arm = ?
A
182
Q

Discuss direct retainers (clasp assembly) in regards to each of the following?

  • Extracoronal retainer
    • ______ “clasp” design
    • Clasps should encircle a tooth at leaast _____ degrees. ***BOARDS***
  • Intracoronal retainer
    • A precision attachment with _____ and _____ pattern.
    • Esthetic?
A
183
Q

Extracoronal retainer clasps should encircle a tooth at least ______.

A. 90 degrees

B. 120 degrees

C. 180 degrees

D. 360 degrees

***BOARDS***

A

C. 180 degrees

184
Q

Which of the following contacts the tooth above the height of contour/survey line?

A. Retentive clasp

B. Reciprocal clasp

***BOARDS***

A

B. Reciprocal clasp

185
Q

Which of the following contacts the tooth below the height of contour/survey line?

A. Retentive clasp

B. Reciprocal clasp

***BOARDS***

A

A. Retentive clasp

186
Q

Discuss Retentive clasps in regards to RDP:

  • Originates from ______ and ______.
  • Contacts tooth ______ height of contour/survey line.
    • Shoulder and middle should be ______ HOC.
    • Only the ____ should be under HOC.
    • Tip is designed to engage in _____ and resist dislodging forces - only active when dislodging forces are applied to them, otherwise seat passively
A
187
Q

Discuss reciprocal clasps in regards to RPDs:

  • Originates from _____ and _____
  • Contacts tooth ______ HOC/Survey line
  • _____ abutment tooth so it is not torqued by retentive clasp
A
188
Q

Which of the following portions of a tooth crown provides an RPD support?

A. Occlusal 1/3

B. Middle 1/3

C. Gingival 1/3

***BOARDS***

A

A. Occlusal 1/3

189
Q

Which of the following portions of a tooth crown provides an RPD retention?

A. Occlusal 1/3

B. Middle 1/3

C. Gingival 1/3

***BOARDS***

A

C. Gingival 1/3

190
Q

Which of the following portions of a tooth crown provides an RPD stabilization?

A. Occlusal 1/3

B. Middle 1/3

C. Gingival 1/3

***BOARDS***

A

B. Middle 1/3

191
Q

All of the following are Suprabulge clasp designs (originating above HOC) EXCEPT:

A. Akers

B. Ring

C. I bar

D. Combination

E. Embrasure

A

C. I bar

Note: Akers is the same as circumferential

Infrabulge clasp designs:

  • I bar, T bar, Bar type, and Y type
192
Q

Which of the following is the most common clasp design used in dentistry today? (if boards asks about a clasp and you have no idea- this would be the answer I would guess)

A. Circumferential (Akers) clasp

B. Ring clasp

C. Embrasure clasp

D. I-bar

E. T-bar

A

A. Circumferential (Akers) clasp

Circumferential (Akers) clasp:

  • Originates above HOC
  • Most common
  • Suprabuldge clasp design
193
Q

Which of the following suprabuldge clasp designs rests on both teeth?

A. Circumferential (Akers) clasp

B. Ring clasp

C. Embrasure clasp

D. I-bar

E. T-bar

A

C. Embrasure clasp

194
Q

Which of the following clasp designs is used when there is an undercut adjacent to the bounded edentulous space (BES)?

A. Circumferential (Akers) clasp

B. Ring clasp

C. Embrasure clasp

D. I-bar

E. T-bar

A

B. Ring clasp

195
Q

Which of the following offers an Ideal Class II lever system?

A. RPI

B. RPA

C. RPC

A

A. RPI

196
Q

Discuss each of the following in regards to RPDs:

  • RPI = ?
  • RPA = ?
  • RPC = ?
A
197
Q

Which of the following should be selected in a case w/ a bounded edentulous space (BES)?

A. Wrought wire

B. Akers clasp

C. RPI

D. RPA

A

B. Akers clasp

198
Q

All of the following are used in cases with distal extensions EXCEPT:

A. Wrought wire

B. Akers clasp

C. RPI

D. RPA

A

B. Akers clasp

199
Q

Which of the following is used for periodontally compromised teeth?

A. Wrought wire

B. Akers clasp

C. RPI

D. RPA

A

A. Wrought wire

200
Q

Which of the following is used for endo-treated teeth?

A. Wrought wire

B. Akers clasp

C. RPI

D. RPA

A

A. Wrought wire

201
Q

Discuss the framework of RPDs in regards to each of the following:

  • What is the framework of RPDs made of?
  • How much shrinkage is expected in the process of making RPD framework?
  • Cold-working?
  • What is the main reason why clasps break? ***BOARDS***
A
202
Q

Locate each of the following on the picture below:

  • Occlusal reduction
  • Axial wall
  • Functional cusp bevel
  • Finish line
A
203
Q

What are the 3 Principles of Tooth Preparation?

***BOARDS***

A
204
Q

Discuss the Biologic principle in regards to the Three Principles of Tooth Preparation:

  • Mechanical injury –> most prone area to mechanical injury?
  • Thermal injury –> ?
  • Chemical injury –> ?
  • Bacterial injury –> ?
A
205
Q

Discuss the Mechanical principle in regards to the Three Principles of Tooth Preparation:

  • Retention Form = ?
  • Resistance Form = ?
  • Retention Form + Resistance Form = ?
  • Taper or Parallelism = ?

***BOARDS***

A
206
Q

Discuss the Mechanical principle in regards to the Three Principles of Tooth Preparation:

  • Height or Length = ?
    • ____mm minimum for incisors and premolars
    • ____mm minimum for molars
  • Width = ?
  • Height to Base Ratio = minimum ratio is _____.
A
207
Q

Discuss the Mechanical principle in regards to the Three Principles of Tooth Preparation:

  • If you have a short clinical crown prep:
    • What can you put in the prep design for retention?
    • What can you put in the prep design for resistance?

***BOARDS***

A
208
Q

The property that the operator has the most control of is _______.

***GAURENTEED BOARDS Q***

A

Taper/Parallelism

209
Q

If you have a very small Height to Base Ratio (short clinical crown) of a crown prep what should you add to the prep?

***BOARDS***

A

Buccal Grooves for retention

Proximal grooves for resistance

210
Q

Ceramic and/or Metal crowns must be strong enough. Discuss each of the following in regards to the mechanica principal of the three principles of tooth preparation:

  • Minimum metal thickness:
    • at the margin = _____mm
    • non contact areas = ____mm
    • contact areas = _____mm
  • Minimum porcelain thickness is _____mm
  • Minimum PFM thickness:
    • Non-contact areas = ____mm (____mm porcelain, ___mm metal)
  • Optimal PFM thickness:
    • Contact areas = ____mm (____mm porcelain, ____mm metal)
A
  • 0.5mm at margin for Metal
  • 1mm at non contact areas for Metal
  • 1.5mm
    • at contact areas for Metal
    • for Porcelain
    • at non contact areas for PFM
  • 2mm at contact areas for PFM
211
Q

All of the following should be a minimum 1.5mm of thickness (for crown preps) EXCEPT:

A. Contact areas for metal crowns

B. At the margin of metal crowns

C. All surfaces of porcelain crowns

D. Non contact surfaces of PFM crowns

E. All of the above should be a minimum of 1.5mm

A

B. At the margin of metal crowns

212
Q

Discuss Reduction vs Clearance in regards to crown preps:

A
213
Q

Discuss each of the following in regards to crown preps:

  • Margin #1 = ?
  • Margin #2 = ?
A
214
Q

Discuss each of the following Margin locations in regards to crown preps:

  • Supragingival margin = ?
    • more adequately promote ______.
  • Equigingival margin = ?
  • Subgingical margin = ?
    • More _____.
A
215
Q

Which of the following Margin Types is indicated for PFM crowns?

A. Featheredge margin

B. Light chamfer margin

C. Heavy chamfer margin

D. Shoulder margin

***BOARDS***

A

C. Heavy chamfer margin

Featheredge = Best marginal seal

Light chamfer = Gold crowns

Heavy chamfer = PFM

Shoulder = All-ceramic crowns

216
Q

Which of the following Margin Types is indicated for Gold crowns?

A. Featheredge margin

B. Light chamfer margin

C. Heavy chamfer margin

D. Shoulder margin

***BOARDS***

A

B. Light chamfer margin

Featheredge = Best marginal seal

Light chamfer = Gold crowns

Heavy chamfer = PFM

Shoulder = All-ceramic crowns

217
Q

Which of the following Margin Types is indicated for All-ceramic crowns?

A. Featheredge margin

B. Light chamfer margin

C. Heavy chamfer margin

D. Shoulder margin

***BOARDS***

A

D. Shoulder margin

Featheredge = Best marginal seal

Light chamfer = Gold crowns

Heavy chamfer = PFM

Shoulder = All-ceramic crowns

218
Q

Which of the following Margin Types has the best marginal seal?

A. Featheredge margin

B. Light chamfer margin

C. Heavy chamfer margin

D. Shoulder margin

***BOARDS***

A

A. Featheredge margin

Featheredge = Best marginal seal

Light chamfer = Gold crowns

Heavy chamfer = PFM

Shoulder = All-ceramic crowns

219
Q

Discuss Each of the following Margin Types in regards to crown preps:

  • Featheredge
  • Light chamfer
  • Heavy chamfer
  • Shoulder
A
220
Q

What is the #1 lab complaint about a crown prep?

***BOARDS***

A

The tooth is under-reduced (so the lab will be forced to overcontour the crown)

221
Q

Which of the following tx options would you pick to conserserve tooth structure, has less restoration margin and is more easily seated during cementation?

A. PFM crown

B. 3/4 or 7/8 crown

C. All-ceramic crown

D. Porcelain

***MULTIPLE BOARD Qs ON THIS***

A

B. 3/4 or 7/8 crown

222
Q

What are the 3 benefits to the 3/4 or 7/8 crown?

***MULTIPLE BOARD Qs***

A
  • Conserves tooth structure
  • Less restoration margin in close proximity to gingival tissue
  • More easily seated during cementation
223
Q

Discuss Occlusal Schemes in regards to crown preps:

  • Occlusal point contacts preferred in crown preps should be ____ and _____ to prevent wear
  • Cusp-marginal ridge = ?
  • Cusp-fossa = ?
A
224
Q

Which of the following is the fake tooth in regards to dental bridge?

A. Abutment

B. Retainer

C. Pontic

D. Connector

A

C. Pontic

225
Q

Discuss each of the following components of a Bridge:

  • Abutment
  • Retainer
  • Pontic
  • Connector
A
226
Q

Which of the following pontics should NEVER be used in regards to bridges?

A. Hygienic/Sanitary pontic

B. Ridge-Lap pontic (Saddle)

C. Conical Pontic

D. Modified Ridge-Lap pontic

E. Ovate pontic

A

B. Ridge-Lap pontic (Saddle)

227
Q

Which of the following pontics is indicated in anterior teeth because of its superior esthetics in dental bridges (most esthetic Pontic of them all)?

A. Hygienic/Sanitary pontic

B. Ridge-Lap pontic (Saddle)

C. Conical Pontic

D. Modified Ridge-Lap pontic

E. Ovate pontic

A

E. Ovate pontic

228
Q

Discuss each of the following pontics in regards to bridges:

  • Hygienic/Sanitary pontic
  • Saddle/Ridge-Lap pontic
  • Conical pontic
  • Modified Ridge-Lap pontic
  • Ovate Pontic
A
229
Q

Which of the following is inicated for posterior mandible?

(select all that apply)

A. Hygienic/Sanitary pontic

B. Ridge-Lap pontic (Saddle)

C. Conical Pontic

D. Modified Ridge-Lap pontic

E. Ovate pontic

A

A. Hygienic/Sanitary pontic

Note: Conical Pontic are indicated in Molars (which can also be the molars of the posterior mandible)

230
Q

Which of the following is inicated for anterior teeth?

(select all that apply)

A. Hygienic/Sanitary pontic

B. Ridge-Lap pontic (Saddle)

C. Conical Pontic

D. Modified Ridge-Lap pontic

E. Ovate pontic

A

D. Modified Ridge-Lap pontic

E. Ovate pontic

231
Q

Which component of a bridge connects the retainer to the Pontic?

A
232
Q

Which of the following pontics is indicated in anterior teeth but requires surgery and a good ridge?

A. Hygienic/Sanitary pontic

B. Ridge-Lap pontic (Saddle)

C. Conical Pontic

D. Modified Ridge-Lap pontic

E. Ovate pontic

A

E. Ovate pontic

233
Q

Discuss Connector Designs in regards to Bridges:

  • Rigid = ?
  • Nonrigid = ?
  • Connectors for PFM bridges should have a minimum of ____mm height.
A
234
Q

Review Tissue Managment for Impressions:

A
235
Q

Review Reversible Hydrocolloid (Agar): a type of impression material

A
236
Q

Which of the following impression materials is the MOST INACCURATE?

A. Irreversible Hydrocolloid

B. Polysulfide Rubber

C. Condensation Silicone

D. Polyether

E. Addition Silicone

A

A. Irreversible Hydrocolloid

Note: Irreversible Hydrocolloid is Alginate

237
Q

Which of the following impression materials has an alcohol byproduct, which causes shrinkage of the impression when evaporated?

A. Irreversible Hydrocolloid

B. Polysulfide Rubber

C. Condensation Silicone

D. Polyether

E. Addition Silicone

***BOARDS***

A

C. Condensation Silicone

238
Q

Which of the following impression materials has an water byproduct?

A. Irreversible Hydrocolloid

B. Polysulfide Rubber

C. Condensation Silicone

D. Polyether

E. Addition Silicone

***BOARDS***

A

B. Polysulfide Rubber

239
Q

Which of the following impression materials has NO biproducts?

A. Irreversible Hydrocolloid

B. Polysulfide Rubber

C. Condensation Silicone

D. Polyether

E. Addition Silicone

***BOARDS***

A

E. Addition Silicone

240
Q

Which of the following impression materials is hydrophilic making it easily influenced by water and can cause imbibition (swelling up w/ water)?

A. Irreversible Hydrocolloid

B. Polysulfide Rubber

C. Condensation Silicone

D. Polyether

E. Addition Silicone

***BOARDS***

A

D. Polyether

Note: polyether (hydrophilic) is the opposite of polysulfide rubber (hydrophobic)

241
Q

Which of the following decreases the setting time for irreversible hydrocolloid (alginate)?

(select all that apply)

A. Hot water

B. More water

C. Cold water

D. Less water

***FOR SURE BOARDS Q***

A

A. Hot water

D. Less water

242
Q

If you want to decrease the setting time i.e. make impressions set faster, what could you do?

A

Small amount of Hot water

243
Q

What is Irreversible hydrocolloid?

A

Alginate

244
Q

Discuss each of the following in regards to Hydrocolloids:

  • Imbibition = ?
  • Syneresis = ?
A
245
Q

Which of the following impression materials are affected by both Imbibition and Syneresis?

A. Hydrocolloids

B. Polysulfide rubber

C. Condensation silicone

D. Polyether

E. Addition Silicone

A

A. Hydrocolloids

Note: this makes sense bc you should spray your alginate impressions w/ disinfectant and then wrap it in a damp paper towel

246
Q

Which of the following impression materials are affected by both Imbibition ONLY?

A. Hydrocolloids

B. Polysulfide rubber

C. Condensation silicone

D. Polyether

E. Addition Silicone

A

D. Polyether

247
Q

Which of the following impression materials are affected by both Syneresis ONLY?

A. Hydrocolloids

B. Polysulfide rubber

C. Condensation silicone

D. Polyether

E. Addition Silicone

A

B. Polysulfide rubber

Syneresis = loss of water

Imbibition = absorption of water

248
Q

Which of the following is the absorption of water?

A. Imbibition

B. Syneresis

A

A. Imbibition

249
Q

How do you mix impression material?

A. Put water first than mix in the powder

B. Put powder first than mix the water in

A

B. Put powder first than mix the water in

“P comes before W”

250
Q

Discuss Irreversible Hydrocolloid (alginate) in regards to each of the following:

  • Setting time?
  • Should be poured with gypsum (stone) within how long?
  • Primary ingredient?
  • Active ingredient?
  • Accuracy?
A
251
Q

Discuss Polysulfide Rubber impression material in regards to each of the following:

  • Byproduct?
  • Hydrophobic/hydrophilic?
  • Imbibition/Syneresis?
  • How long does it take to pour?
A
252
Q

Discuss the Condensation Silicone impression material in regards to each of the following:

  • Byproduct?
  • how long does it take to pour?
A
253
Q

Discuss the Polyether impression material in regards to each of the following:

  • Stability?
  • Hydrophobic/hydrophilic?
  • Imbibition/syneresis?
  • Stiffness?
  • time to pour?
A
254
Q

Discuss the Addition Silicone (PVS) impression material in regards to each of the following:

  • Byproducts?
  • What does PVS stand for?
  • Accuracy?
  • Inhibited by the sulfur in ______ and rubber dam.
A
255
Q

Discuss Gypsum in regards to each of the following:

  • What is Gypsum?
  • Mined as _____.
  • Manufactured with heat to get rid of some water to become ________.
  • All gypsum products are chemically the same, but differ in _____ and _____.
A
256
Q

Review the different types of Gypsum:

  • Type I
  • Type II
  • Type III
  • Type IV
  • Type V
A
257
Q

_______ is extra water needed to obtain a workable mix of material, does not chemically react w/ gypsum.

A
258
Q

Increasing the amount of water you pour into gypsum (dental stone) results in all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Less strength

B. More porosity

C. More expansion

D. Increased setting time

***Really important info***

A

C. More expansion

259
Q

Which of the following gypsum materials is used for mouth guards and Essex retainers?

A. Impression plaster

B. Model plaster

C. Dental stone

D. Dental stone HS/LE

E. Dental stone HS/HE

A

B. Model plaster

260
Q

Which of the following gypsum materials has the best abrasion resistance?

A. Impression plaster

B. Model plaster

C. Dental stone

D. Dental stone HS/LE

E. Dental stone HS/HE

***BOARDS***

A

D. Dental stone HS/LE

261
Q

Which of the following gypsum materials is for mounting casts in articulator?

A. Impression plaster

B. Model plaster

C. Dental stone

D. Dental stone HS/LE

E. Dental stone HS/HE

A

A. Impression plaster

262
Q

Which of the following gypsum materials is used in removable prosthesis and diagnostic casts?

A. Impression plaster

B. Model plaster

C. Dental stone

D. Dental stone HS/LE

E. Dental stone HS/HE

A

C. Dental stone

Impression plaster = mounting stone

Dental stone = diagnostic casts

263
Q

Which of the following gypsum materials is used for the fabrication of dies?

(select all that apply)

A. Impression plaster

B. Model plaster

C. Dental stone

D. Dental stone HS/LE

E. Dental stone HS/HE

A

D. Dental stone HS/LE

E. Dental stone HS/HE

264
Q

Discuss Dental Stone HS/LE in regards to each of the following:

  • Best ______.
  • Least _____ and _____.
  • Used for the fabrication of ______.

***BOARDS***

A
265
Q

Discuss Gypsum in regards to each of the following:

  • ____ seconds vacuum mix or _____ second hand spatulate.
  • Setting time is ____ to ______min.
A
266
Q

All of the following would decrease the setting time of dental stone EXCEPT:

A. Hot water

B. Less water

C. Decreased spatulation time

D. Use of slurry water

***BOARDS***

A

C. Decreased spatulation time

267
Q
A
268
Q

All of the following would decrease the setting time of dental stone EXCEPT:

A. Hot water

B. More water

C. Increased spatulation time

D. Use of slurry water

***BOARDS***

A

B. More water

269
Q

List the 4 ways to decrease the setting time of dental stone:

A
270
Q

Discuss the Gypsum Materials trends:

A
271
Q

List each of the following names of the types of gypsum (dental stone):

  • Type I = ?
  • Type II = ?
  • Type III = ?
  • Type IV = ?
  • Type V = ?
A
272
Q

Which of the following causes greening of porcelain?

A. Gold

B. Silver

C. Platinum

D. Palladium

***BOARDS***

A

B. Silver

273
Q

Which of the following gives a metal crown strength and increases melting temperature?

A. Gold

B. Silver

C. Palladium

D. Platinum

A

D. Platinum

Palladium also provides metal crowns strength

274
Q

Which of the following gives a metal crown tarnish resistance?

A. Gold

B. Silver

C. Palladium

D. Platinum

A

A. Gold

275
Q

Discuss Metal Alloys in regards to each of the following:

  • High noble alloys are ____% noble, of which at least _____% is gold.
  • Noble alloys are _____ noble
  • Base metal alloys are _____ noble
A
276
Q

Discuss each of the following Gold alloys and what type of restoration they are used for:

  • Type I gold
  • Type II gold
  • Type III gold
  • Type IV gold
A
277
Q

Which of the following types of gold alloys are used in crowns?

A. Type I gold

B. Type II gold

C. Type III gold

D. Type IV gold

A

C. Type III gold

278
Q

Which of the following types of gold alloys are used in class V restorations only?

A. Type I gold

B. Type II gold

C. Type III gold

D. Type IV gold

A

A. Type I gold

279
Q

Which of the following types of gold alloys are used in RPD castings?

A. Type I gold

B. Type II gold

C. Type III gold

D. Type IV gold

A

D. Type IV gold

280
Q

Which of the following has the highest percent of gold?

A. Type I gold

B. Type II gold

C. Type III gold

D. Type IV gold

A

A. Type I gold

281
Q

Which of the following has the lowest percent of gold?

A. Type I gold

B. Type II gold

C. Type III gold

D. Type IV gold

A

D. Type IV gold

282
Q

Which of the following is the ability to resist fracture during pulling?

A. Compressive strength

B. Tensile strength

C. Flexural strength

A

B. Tensile strength

283
Q

Which of the following is the ability to resist fracture during bending?

A. Compressive strength

B. Tensile strength

C. Flexural strength

A

C. Flexural strength

284
Q

Which of the following has the best fracture toughness?

A. Porcelain crown

B. Gold crown

C. Zirconia crown

D. PFM

***BOARDS***

A

C. Zirconia crown

285
Q

Discuss the Modulus of Elasticity/Elastic Modulus in regards to each of the following:

  • What is it a measure of?
  • Stress divided by ____.
  • Sustain deformation without _________ change in size or shape
A
286
Q

Which of the following is a prime example of being Brittle?

A. Porcelain crown

B. Gold crown

C. Zirconia crown

D. PFM

A

A. Porcelain crown

287
Q

Which of the following is a prime example of being Malleable?

A. Porcelain

B. Wires

C. Gold

D. Zirconia

A

C. Gold

Zirconia = fracture toughness

Porcelain = brittle

Wires = tensile

Gold = malleable

288
Q

Which of the following is a prime example of being Tensile?

A. Porcelain

B. Wires

C. Gold

D. Zirconia

A

B. Wires

289
Q

Discuss each of the folllowing and give examples the material that fits in each category:

  • Fracture toughness
  • Modulus of elasticity
  • Brittle
  • Ductility
  • Malleability
  • Percentage elongation
A
290
Q

What is the definition of Percentage Elongation?

A

Ability to be burnished

291
Q

Discuss Coefficient of Thermal Expansion in regards to each of the following:

  • What does it measure?
  • What does a high CTE mean?
  • What is the order from largest to smallest in regards to restorative material? ***BOARDS***
    • tooth, ceramic, metal, composite
A
292
Q

Which of the following is the correct order from highest Coefficient of Thermal Expansion to lowest?

A. metal > composite > tooth > ceramic

B. ceramic > metal > tooth > composite

C. composite > metal > tooth > ceramic

D. composite > tooth > metal > ceramic

E. ceramic > tooth > metal > composite

***BOARDS***

A

C. composite > metal > tooth > ceramic

composite > amalgam > gold > tooth > porcelain

“Composite metOl Tooth cEramic” - COTE = coefficient of Thermal Expansion

293
Q

Discuss the Desirable Mechanical Properties in regards to fixed prosthesis:

A
294
Q

What is the process from start to finish on the prep and delivery of crowns?

A
295
Q

________ is designed to enhance esthetics and provide function for a limited period of time after which it is replaced by a definitive prosthesis.

A
296
Q

Discuss each of the following in regards to crowns:

  1. Method
  2. Mold
  3. Material
A
297
Q

Discuss the cleaning of a prepped tooth for crown delivery in regards to each of the following:

  • _____ will make it harder to confirm occlusion.
  • Provisional cements have Eugenol which _______ so remove as much as possible with excavator, explorer, or we cotton pellet before proceeding. ***BOARDS***
A
298
Q

Provisional cements have ______ which inhibits polymerization of resin. So remove as much as possible with excavator, explorer or wet cotton pellet before proceeding.

***BOARDS***

A
299
Q

_______ must be present for porcelain to bond to the alloy in PFMs.

A
300
Q

Discuss each of the following in regards to Metal-Cermaic Crown:

  • Opaque porcelain = ?
  • Body or dentin porcelain = ?
  • Incisal or enamel porcelain = ?
  • Occlusal contacts must be equal to or greater than _____mm away from porcelain-metal junction
A
301
Q

All of the following are adhesive failures of metal-ceramic EXCEPT:

A. Porcelain-porcelain if inclusions or voids

B. Oxide metal if metal is contaminated

C. Porcelain-oxide if porcelain is contaminated

D. Porcelain-metal if oxide was no formed

A

A. Porcelain-porcelain if inclusions or voids

302
Q

Discuss each of the following metal-ceramic failures:

  • What 3 adhesive failures could happen?
  • What cohesive failures could happen?
  • Long span PFM bridges?
A
303
Q

Discuss All-Ceramic Crowns in regards to each of the following:

  • Esthetic or not?
  • Glass-infiltrated ceramics are etched with ______ and treated with ______ and then bonded to the tooth. ***BOARDS***
  • Ceramics with no glass content (zirconia and alumina) are ____ to the tooth with ______.
A
304
Q

Discuss Porcelain Veneers in regards to each of the following:

  • ____mm gingival third reduction
  • ____mm facial reduction
  • How much incisal reduction?
  • What type of prep do you do?

***BOARDS***

A
305
Q

Discuss Maryland Bridges in regards to each of the following:

  • What is another name for the Maryland bridge?
  • What is a Maryland Bridge?
  • A Conventional bridge requires ______.
  • A Resin-bonded bridge can experience _____.
A
306
Q

Which of the refers to the saturation or intensity of color?

A. Hue

B. Chroma

C. Value

D. Translucency

***BOARDS***

A

B. Chroma

307
Q

Which of the refers to the lightness or darkness of a color?

A. Hue

B. Chroma

C. Value

D. Translucency

***BOARDS***

A

C. Value

308
Q

Define each of the following in regards to the Munsell Color System:

  • Hue
  • Chroma
  • Value

***BOARDS***

A
309
Q

Object emits visible light when exposed to ultraviolet light:

A. Metamerism

B. Fluorescence

C. Opalescence

A

B. Fluorescence

310
Q

Light effect of a translucent material appearing blue in reflected light and red-orange in transmitted light:

A. Metamerism

B. Fluorescence

C. Opalescence

A

C. Opalescence

311
Q

Color appears different under different lighting:

A. Metamerism

B. Fluorescence

C. Opalescence

A

A. Metamerism

312
Q

What is the order of shade selection in regards to each of the following:

  • Chroma
  • Value
  • Hue
A
313
Q

Which of the following is the correct order in which you should shade match?

A. Chroma –> Value –> Hue

B. Hue –> Value –> Chroma

C. Chroma –> Hue –> Value

D. Value –> Chroma –> Hue

E. Value –> Hue –> Chroma

A

D. Value –> Chroma –> Hue

314
Q

Discuss each of the following in regards to shade selection and color:

  • Value –> (incisal 3rd, middle 3rd, cervical 3rd?)
  • Chroma –> (incisal 3rd, middle 3rd, cervical 3rd?)
  • Hue –> (incisal 3rd, middle 3rd, cervical 3rd?)
A
315
Q

Discuss Characterization in regards to crowns:

  • Define characterization in regards to a crown:
  • Staining = ?
  • Glazing = ?
  • You can always add more color and make something _____, but not the reverse.
A
316
Q

What is the first thing you check upon crown delivery?

A. Shade (esthetics)

B. Proximal contacts

C. Margins

D. Occlusion

E. Contour

***BOARDS***

A

A. Shade (esthetics)

317
Q

What is the second thing you check upon crown delivery?

A. Shade (esthetics)

B. Proximal contacts

C. Margins

D. Occlusion

E. Contour

A

B. Proximal contacts

318
Q

Discuss the order of things (from first to last) you should check when delivering a crown:

***BOARDS***

A
319
Q

Which of the following types of cement soothes the pulp bu also inhibits polymerization of resin?

A. Zinc Oxide Eugenol

B. Zinc Phosphate

C. Zinc Polycarboxylate

D. Glass Ionomer

E. Resin Modified Glass Ionomer

A

A. Zinc Oxide Eugenol

320
Q

Which of the following cements releases fluoride?

A. Zinc Oxide Eugenol

B. Zinc Phosphate

C. Zinc Polycarboxylate

D. Glass Ionomer

E. Resin Modified Glass Ionomer

A

D. Glass Ionomer

321
Q

Which of the following cements does not provide a chemical bond and causes pulpal irritation?

A. Zinc Oxide Eugenol

B. Zinc Phosphate

C. Zinc Polycarboxylate

D. Glass Ionomer

E. Resin Modified Glass Ionomer

A

B. Zinc Phosphate

322
Q

Which of the following has minimum pulpal irritation but exhibits chelation to calcium?

A. Zinc Oxide Eugenol

B. Zinc Phosphate

C. Zinc Polycarboxylate

D. Glass Ionomer

E. Resin Modified Glass Ionomer

A

C. Zinc Polycarboxylate

323
Q

Which of the following cements should not be used with All-Ceramic crowns due to expansion from water absorption?

A. Zinc Oxide Eugenol

B. Zinc Phosphate

C. Zinc Polycarboxylate

D. Glass Ionomer

E. Resin Modified Glass Ionomer

A

E. Resin Modified Glass Ionomer

324
Q

Which of the following cements bonds to dentin and has the most compressive strength?

A. Zinc Oxide Eugenol

B. Zinc Phosphate

C. Resin

D. Glass Ionomer

E. Resin Modified Glass Ionomer

A

C. Resin

325
Q

(T/F)

Dual cure cement is more color stable than light cure cement.

***BOARDS***

A

False

326
Q

Discuss the trend of Solubility and Technique sensitivity in regards to each of the following cements:

  1. Zinc Oxide Eugenol
  2. Zinc Phosphate
  3. Zinc Polycarboxylate
  4. Glass Ionomer
  5. Resin Modified Glass Ionomer
  6. Resin
A
327
Q

Which of the following require Resin Cement?

(select all that apply)

A. Zirconia (ceramic by no silica)

B. Metal (PFM or full gold)

C. Lithium disilicate (emax)

D. Feldspathic porcelain (veneers)

A

C. Lithium disilicate (emax)

D. Feldspathic porcelain (veneers)

328
Q

Which of the following require Luting Cement?

(select all that apply)

A. Zirconia (ceramic by no silica)

B. Metal (PFM or full gold)

C. Lithium disilicate (emax)

D. Feldspathic porcelain (veneers)

A

A. Zirconia (ceramic by no silica)

B. Metal (PFM or full gold)

Note: no silica means no glass

329
Q

Which of the following cements has fluoride release?

A. Resin cement

B. Luting cement

A

B. Luting cement

330
Q

Review what Cement is used on which crown:

  • Zirconia = ?
  • Metal = ?
  • Lithium disilicate = ?
  • Feldspathic porcelain = ?
A
331
Q

Discuss Dies in regards to each of the following:

  • Ditching a die ____ of the prep.
  • Die spacer allows ________.
A
332
Q

Discuss Positive vs Negative in regards to Dies:

A
333
Q

Discuss Waxing in regards to Dies:

  • Making a “____” of the object that you eventually want to make
  • Wax builds up internal stress as it is manipulated and these stresses will relax overtime causing ____ in shape and contour.
A
334
Q

Discuss the second step in Dies: Spruing

  • What is it?
  • Attach to crown in the area of the ________.
A
335
Q

Discuss the 3rd step in Dies: Investing

  • What is the Investing step?
  • Gypsum-bonded investments = ?
  • Phosphate-bonded investments = ?
  • Silica-bonded investments = ?

***BOARDS FOR SURE***

A
336
Q

What type of investing is used for Gold?

A. Gypsum-bonded investments

B. Phosphate-bonded investments

C. Silica-bonded investments

***BOARDS FOR SURE***

A

A. Gypsum-bonded investments

337
Q

What type of investing is used for Base Metal?

A. Gypsum-bonded investments

B. Phosphate-bonded investments

C. Silica-bonded investments

***BOARDS FOR SURE***

A

C. Silica-bonded investments

338
Q

What type of investing is used for PFM?

A. Gypsum-bonded investments

B. Phosphate-bonded investments

C. Silica-bonded investments

***BOARDS FOR SURE***

A

B. Phosphate-bonded investments

339
Q

Very hot cast metal immediated placed in cool water to make more malleable for finishing decribes which of the following?

A. Burnout

B. Casting

C. Recovery

D. Quenching

A

D. Quenching

340
Q

Melting metal into the investment decribes which of the following?

A. Burnout

B. Casting

C. Recovery

D. Quenching

A

B. Casting

341
Q

Melt out the wax positive to leave room for the metal to take its place describes which of the following?

A. Burnout

B. Casting

C. Recovery

D. Quenching

A

A. Burnout

342
Q

Retrieving the cast framework by breaking open the investment:

A. Waxing

B. Spruing

C. Recovery

D. Quenching

E. Investing

A

C. Recovery

343
Q

Making a “negative” by covering the wax with investment material describes which of the following?

A. Waxing

B. Spruing

C. Recovery

D. Quenching

E. Investing

A

E. Investing

344
Q

Making a “positive” of the object that you eventually want to make describes which of the following?

A. Waxing

B. Spruing

C. Recovery

D. Quenching

E. Investing

A

A. Waxing

345
Q

Making a path with wax for metal to go into the prosthesis as it is being casted describes which of the following?

A. Waxing

B. Spruing

C. Recovery

D. Quenching

E. Investing

A

B. Spruing

346
Q

Give a summary of the process of making Dies:

  1. Waxing
  2. Spruing
  3. Investing
  4. Burnout
  5. Casting
  6. Recovery
  7. Quenching
A
347
Q

Discuss Porosity Issues in regards to each of the following:

  • Porosity of porcelain can be caused by?
  • Porosity of acrylic can be caused by?
  • Shrinkage porosity of metal = ?
  • Back-pressure porosity of metal = ?

***BOARDS***

A
348
Q

Shrinkage porosity of metal can be caused by which of the following?

A. Inadequate condensing

B. Too fast heating

C. Too thin sprue

D. Too short sprue

***BOARDS***

A

C. Too thin sprue

349
Q

Back-pressure porosity of metal can be caused by which of the following?

A. Inadequate condensing

B. Too fast heating

C. Too thin sprue

D. Too short sprue

***BOARDS***

A

D. Too short sprue

350
Q

Porosity of porcelain can be caused by which of the following?

A. Inadequate condensing

B. Too fast heating

C. Too thin sprue

D. Too short sprue

***BOARDS***

A

A. Inadequate condensing

351
Q

Porosity of acrylic can be caused by which of the following?

A. Inadequate condensing

B. Too fast heating

C. Too thin sprue

D. Too short sprue

***BOARDS***

A

B. Too fast heating