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Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following types of local anesthetics is metabolized in the liver?

A. Amides

B. Esters

***BOARDS***

A

A. Amides

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2
Q

Ester local anesthetics are metabolized by pseudocholinesterase in the ______.

A. Liver

B. Kidneys

C. Plasma

D. Stomach

***BOARDS***

A

C. Plasma

Amides = Liver

Esters = Plasma

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3
Q

All of the following local anesthetics are Esters EXCEPT:

A. Procaine

B. Cocaine

C. Tetracaine

D. Prilocaine

E. Benzocaine

A

D. Prilocaine

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4
Q

All of the following local anesthetics are Esters EXCEPT:

A. Procaine

B. Cocaine

C. Lidocaine

D. Tetracaine

E. Benzocaine

A

C. Lidocaine

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5
Q

Which of the following local anesthetics cause the least amount of vasodilation?

A. Lidocaine

B. Bupivicaine

C. Mepivicaine

D. Articaine

E. Prilocaine

A

C. Mepivicaine (carbocaine)

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6
Q

Which of the following is the safest local anesthetic to use on children?

A. Lidocaine

B. Bupivicaine

C. Mepivicaine

D. Articaine

E. Prilocaine

A

A. Lidocaine

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7
Q

Which of the following local anesthetics is the LEAST safe for children?

A. Lidocaine

B. Bupivicaine

C. Mepivicaine

D. Articaine

E. Prilocaine

A

B. Bupivicaine (Maricaine)

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8
Q

Which of the following local anesthetics has an ester chain in it chemical formula?

A. Lidocaine

B. Bupivicaine

C. Mepivicaine

D. Articaine

E. Prilocaine

A

D. Articaine

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9
Q

Which of the following local anesthetics is metabolized in both the liver and the plasma?

A. Lidocaine

B. Bupivicaine

C. Mepivicaine

D. Articaine

E. Prilocaine

***BOARDS***

A

D. Articaine

Note: Articaine is an amide that also contains one ester chain in its chemical formula thus it gets metabolized in both the liver and the plasma

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10
Q

Which of the following local anesthetics is linked to a blood disorder known as methemglobinemia?

A. Lidocaine

B. Bupivicaine

C. Mepivicaine

D. Articaine

E. Prilocaine

***BOARDS***

A

E. Prilocaine

note: Methemglobinemia is where an abnormal amount of met-hemoglobin is produced which leads to deprivation of oxygen

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11
Q

Which of the following local anesthetics has the longest duration (last the longest)?

A. Lidocaine

B. Bupivicaine

C. Mepivicaine

D. Articaine

E. Prilocaine

A

C. Mepivicaine

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12
Q

Which of the following local anesthetics has the shortest duration (doesn’t last long)?

A. Lidocaine

B. Bupivicaine

C. Mepivicaine

D. Articaine

E. Prilocaine

***BOARDS***

A

D. Articaine

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13
Q

Discuss each of the following local anesthetics:

  • What’s the other name along w/ the percentage of LA for each of the following?
    • Lidocaine
    • Bupivicaine
    • Mepivicaine
    • Articaine
    • Prilocaine
A
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14
Q

Which of the following local anesthetics is Carbocaine?

A. Lidocaine

B. Bupivicaine

C. Mepivicaine

D. Articaine

E. Prilocaine

A

C. Mepivicaine

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15
Q

Which of the following local anesthetics is Marcaine?

A. Lidocaine

B. Bupivicaine

C. Mepivicaine

D. Articaine

E. Prilocaine

A

B. Bupivicaine

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16
Q

Which of the following local anesthetics is Xylocaine?

A. Lidocaine

B. Bupivicaine

C. Mepivicaine

D. Articaine

E. Prilocaine

A

A. Lidocaine

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17
Q

Which of the following local anesthetics is Citanest?

A. Lidocaine

B. Bupivicaine

C. Mepivicaine

D. Articaine

E. Prilocaine

A

E. Prilocaine

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18
Q

Which of the following local anesthetics is Septocaine?

A. Lidocaine

B. Bupivicaine

C. Mepivicaine

D. Articaine

E. Prilocaine

A

D. Articaine

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19
Q

Local anesthetics on their own are usually vasodilators, which of the following is the exception to this being a vasoconstrictor?

A. Procaine

B. Cocaine

C. Tetracaine

D. Benzocaine

A

B. Cocaine

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20
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Local Anesthetics?

***BOARDS***

A

Sodium channel blocker

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21
Q

Discuss the Pharmodynamics of Local Anesthetics in regards to each of the following:

  • What does Pharmodynamics refer to?
  • What is the Pharmodynamics of LA?
  • Only ____ form can penetrate neuron membrane.
A
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22
Q

Discuss the Pharmacokinetics of LA in regards to each of the following:

  • Increasing blood flow = ?
  • Increasing lipid solubility/hydrophobicity = ?
  • Increasing protein binding = ?
  • Decreasing pKa = ?
A
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23
Q

Which of the following has a pKa of 8.1?

A. Mepivicaine

B. Lidocaine, Septocaine, Prilocaine

C. Bupivicaine

D. All of the above

A

C. Bupivicaine

Mepivicaine = pKa 7.6

Lidocaine, Septocaine, articaine = pKa 7.8

Bupivicaine = pKa 8.1

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24
Q

Which of the following has a pKa of 7.6?

A. Mepivicaine

B. Lidocaine, Septocaine, Prilocaine

C. Bupivicaine

D. All of the above

A

A. Mepivicaine

Mepivicaine = pKa 7.6

Lidocaine, Septocaine, articaine = pKa 7.8

Bupivicaine = pKa 8.1

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25
Q

Which of the following has a pKa of 7.8?

A. Mepivicaine

B. Lidocaine, Septocaine, Prilocaine

C. Bupivicaine

D. All of the above

A

B. Lidocaine, Septocaine, Prilocaine

Mepivicaine = pKa 7.6

Lidocaine, Septocaine, articaine = pKa 7.8

Bupivicaine = pKa 8.1

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26
Q

Discuss the calculations of local anesthetics:

  • How many mg of anesthetic is in one 1.8mL carpule of 2% lidocaine?
  • How many mg of anesthetic is in one 1.8mL carpule of 4% septocaine?
A
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27
Q

A carpule of 2% lidocaine solution with 1:100k epi would contain how much epinephrine in mg?

A

0.018mg

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28
Q

What are the 3 benefits to adding a vasoconstrictor (epinephrine) to local anesthetic?

***BOARDS***

A
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29
Q

The maximum lidocaine without a vasoconstrictor for a patient is ______.

A. 0.2mg

B. 0.4mg

C. 4.4mg/kg

D. 7mg/kg

A

C. 4.4mg/kg

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30
Q

The maximum epinephrine for a cardiac patient is ____.

A. 0.2mg

B. 0.4mg

C. 4.4mg/kg

D. 7mg/kg

A

B. 0.4mg

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31
Q

The maximum epinephrine for ASA I patients is:

A. 0.2mg

B. 0.4mg

C. 4.4mg/kg

D. 7mg/kg

A

A. 0.2mg

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32
Q

“Slow” injection is 1 carpule per ____.

A

“Slow” injection is 1 carpule per minute

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33
Q

The maximum lidocaine with a vasoconstrictor for a patient is ______.

A. 0.2mg

B. 0.4mg

C. 4.4mg/kg

D. 7mg/kg

A

D. 7mg/kg

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34
Q

Discuss needle dimensions: (length and gauge of needles)

A
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35
Q

Which of the following has the highest failure rate?

A. IAN block

B. Buccal nerve block

C. Mental nerve block

D. Incisive nerve block

A

A. IAN block

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36
Q

Which of the following is done in tandem with IAN block?

A. PSA nerve block

B. Buccal nerve block

C. Mental nerve block

D. Incisive nerve block

E. ASA nerve block

A

B. Buccal nerve block

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37
Q

Which of the following is the open mouth method for IAN block?

A. Halstead

B. Gow-Gates

C. Akinosi

A

B. Gow-Gates

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38
Q

Which of the following has the highest risk of hematoma?

A. IAN block

B. ASA nerve block

C. Buccal nerve block

D. PSA nerve block

E. Mental nerve block

***BOARDS***

A

D. PSA nerve block

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39
Q

How deep (in mm) do you need to go w/ your needle to hit the PSA nerve block?

***BOARDS***

A
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40
Q

Whihc of the following is also called “true ASA block”?

A. MSA nerve block

B. PSA nerve block

C. Nasopalatine nerve block

D. Infraorbital nerve block

E. IAN block

A

D. Infraorbital nerve block

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41
Q

All of the following antibiotic classes are bactericidal EXCEPT:

A. Sulfonamides

B. Fluoroquinolones

C. Penicillins

D. Cephalosporins

E. Monobactams

A

A. Sulfonamides

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42
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is a folate synthesis inhibitor?

A. Sulfonamides

B. Fluoroquinolones

C. Penicillins

D. Cephalosporins

E. Monobactams

A

A. Sulfonamides

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43
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is a DNA synthesis inhibitor?

A. Sulfonamides

B. Fluoroquinolones

C. Penicillins

D. Cephalosporins

E. Monobactams

A

B. Fluoroquinolones

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44
Q

Discuss the prefix/suffix you need to know to remember what class of antibiotics each of the following belong to:

  • Sulfonamides
  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Penicillins
  • Cephalosporins
  • Monobactams
A

Sulfonamides = “sulfa”

Fluoroquinolones = “floxacin”

Penicillins = “cillin”

Cephalosporins = “cef”

Monobactams = “am”

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45
Q

All of the following are cell wall synthesis inhibitors, beta-lactam EXCEPT:

A. Fluoroquinolones

B. Penicillins

C. Cephalosporins

D. Monobactams

E. Carbapenems

A

A. Fluoroquinolones

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46
Q

Which of the following antibiotics has the broadest antimicrobial spectrum?

A. Penicillins

B. Tetracyclines

C. Lincosamides

D. Macrolides

E. Carbapenems

***BOARDS***

A

B. Tetracyclines

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47
Q

Which of the following is cross-allergenic with cephalosporins because they are chemically related?

A. Sulfonamides

B. Fluoroquinolones

C. Penicillins

D. Carbapenems

E. Monobactams

***BOARDS***

A

C. Penicillins

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48
Q

Which of the following Penicillins has the best/broadest gram-negative spectrum?

A. Penicillin G

B. Penicillin V

C. Ampicillin

D. Carbenicillin

E. Augmentin

A

C. Ampicillin

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49
Q

Which of the following penicillins is given IV because it is sensitive to acid degradation?

A. Penicillin G

B. Penicillin V

C. Ampicillin

D. Carbenicillin

E. Augmentin

A

A. Penicillin G

Note: Penicillin V is taken orally bc it is less sensitive to acid degradation

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50
Q

Which of the following penicillins is used specifically against pseudomonas?

A. Penicillin G

B. Penicillin V

C. Ampicillin

D. Carbenicillin

E. Augmentin

A

D. Carbenicillin

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51
Q

Which of the following penicillins are a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid?

A. Penicillin G

B. Penicillin V

C. Ampicillin

D. Carbenicillin

E. Augmentin

A

E. Augmentin

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52
Q

Which of the following penicillins is beta-lactamase-resistant?

A. Penicillin G

B. Penicillin V

C. Ampicillin

D. Methicillin

E. Augmentin

A

D. Methicillin

Note: remember that MRSA is a very dangerous disease

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53
Q

Discuss the prefix/suffix you need to know to remember what class of antibiotics each of the following belong to:

  • Carbapenems
  • Tetracyclines
  • Macrlides
  • Lincosamides
A

Carbapenems = “nem”

Tetracyclines = “cycline”

Macrlides = “thromycin”

Lincosamides = “mycin”

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54
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is a protein synthesis inhibitor (30S ribosome)?

A. Carbapenems

B. Tetracyclines

C. Macrlides

D. Lincosamides

A

B. Tetracyclines

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55
Q

All of the following antibiotics are protein synthesis inhibitors EXCEPT:

A. Carbapenems

B. Tetracyclines

C. Macrlides

D. Lincosamides

A

A. Carbapenems

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56
Q

All of the following conditions require antibiotic prophylaxis EXCEPT:

A. Prosthetic heart valve

B. Mitral valve prolapse without valvular regurgitation

C. History of endocarditis

D. Heart transplant with valvulopathy/valve dysfunction

E. Congenital heart problems

A

B. Mitral valve prolapse without valvular regurgitation

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57
Q

What are the 4 cardiovascular conditions that require antibiotic prophylaxis?

A
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58
Q

What are the 3 compromised immunity conditions that require antibiotic prophylaxis?

A
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59
Q

Discuss antibiotic prophylaxis for Infective Endocarditis in regards to each of the following: (make sure to indicate the dose for each)

  • First choice?
  • First choice for children?
  • Penicillin allergy?
  • Children w/ PCN allergy?
  • Non-oral (IV or IM)?
  • Children, non-oral?
A
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60
Q

What is the antibiotic prophylaxis used for a patient with a prosthetic joint?

A
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61
Q

Which of the following heart conditions is an indication for antibiotic prophylaxis?

A. Cardiac pacemaker

B. Rheumatic fever without valvular dysfunction

C. Mitral valve prolapse without valvular regurgitation

D. Prosthetic joints

E. Congenital heart problems

“YOU WILL SEE THIS ON BOARDS - MAYBE EVEN WORD FOR WORD”

A

E. Congenital heart problems

Note: careful, prosthetic joint is not a heart condition

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62
Q

When is Antibiotic Prophylaxis NOT required?

***BOARDS*** FORSURE***

A

Simple dental procedures do NOT require prophylaxis. Make sure to review the slide below

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63
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is associated with liver damage?

A. Clindamycin

B. Broad spectrum antibiotics

C. Tetracycline

D. Erythromycin estolate

E. Penicillin

***BOARDS***

A

C. Tetracycline

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64
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is associated with aplastic anemia?

A. Clindamycin

B. Broad spectrum antibiotics

C. Tetracycline

D. Erythromycin estolate

E. Chloramphenicol

***BOARDS***

A

E. Chloramphenicol

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65
Q

Which of the following antibiotics causes GI upset and pseudomonas colitis?

A. Clindamycin

B. Broad spectrum antibiotics

C. Tetracycline

D. Erythromycin estolate

E. Chloramphenicol

***BOARDS***

A

A. Clindamycin

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66
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is associated with allergic cholestatic hepatitis?

A. Clindamycin

B. Broad spectrum antibiotics

C. Tetracycline

D. Erythromycin estolate

E. Chloramphenicol

***BOARDS***

A

D. Erythromycin estolate

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67
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause a superinfection?

A. Clindamycin

B. Broad spectrum antibiotics

C. Tetracycline

D. Erythromycin estolate

E. Chloramphenicol

***BOARDS***

A

B. Broad spectrum antibiotics

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68
Q

What two classes of antibiotics cancel each other out?

A
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69
Q

Which of the following antibiotics concentrate on gingival crevicular fluid?

A. Clindamycin

B. Tetracycline

A

B. Tetracycline

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70
Q

Which of the following antibiotics concentrate on bone?

A. Clindamycin

B. Tetracycline

A

A. Clindamycin

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71
Q

Discuss antivirals and anti fungal in regards to each of the following:

  • Acyclovir, Valcyclovir = ?
  • Fuconazole, Ketoconazole = ?
  • _____ is in troche form. ***He got a boards Q on this***
A
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72
Q

Which of the following is a COX 1 and 2 blocker that is metabolized in the liver?

A. Aspirin

B. Ibuprofen

C. Celecoxib

D. Meloxicam

A

B. Ibuprofen

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73
Q

Which of the following is a COX 1 and 2 blocker that is metabolized in the GI tract?

A. Aspirin

B. Ibuprofen

C. Celecoxib

D. Meloxicam

A

A. Aspirin

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74
Q

Which of the following are selective COX 2 blockers?

A. Aspirin

B. Ibuprofen

C. Celecoxib

D. Meloxicam

E. Two of the above

***BOARDS***

A

E. Two of the above

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75
Q

Discuss Acetaminophen in regards to each of the following:

  • Is Acetaminophen an NSAID?
  • Where is Acetaminophen metabolized?
  • Where is Ibuprophen metabolized?
  • Why is this the drug of choice for a feverish child? Why is aspirin bad for children?
  • What syndrome can be caused in a child taking aspirin?

***BOARDS***

A
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76
Q

What is the maximum dose per day for each of the following:

  • Ibuprofen?
  • Acetaminophen?
A
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77
Q

Discuss the Therapeutic Effects of Aspirin in regards to each of the following:

  • Analgesic = ?
  • Anti-inflammatory = ?
  • Antipyretic = ?
  • Bleeding time = ?

***MOST IMPORTANT SLIDE IN ENTIRE PPT - BOARDS***

A
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78
Q

What is the number one toxic effect of aspirin?

A

Occult bleeding from GI tract

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79
Q

What is the suffix for Corticosteroids ?

What does the chemical structure of corticosteroids look like?

80
Q

Discuss the therapeutic effects of steroids in regards to each of the following:

  • Analgesic = ?
  • Anti-inflammatory = ?
81
Q

What is the rule of 2’s in regards to steroid side effects?

82
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Narcotics/Opiods?

83
Q

Discuss Narcotic combinations in regards to each of the following: (know #’s for BOARDS)

  • Vicodin
  • Percocet
  • Tylenol 1
  • Tylenol 2
  • Tylenol 3
  • Tylenol 4
84
Q

Discuss the therapeutic and side effects of morphine:

***HE GOT 3 Qs ON BOARDS***

85
Q

Discuss Nitrous Oxide in regards to each of the following:

  • Who was the first to use this?
  • Sensation before onset = ?
  • Side effect = ?
  • Long term exposure = ?
  • Diffusion hypoxia
86
Q

Discuss the absorption of drugs:

87
Q

Discuss the pH considerations in regards to each of the following:

  • For drugs that are weak acids = ?
  • For drugs that are weak bases = ?
88
Q

Discuss the Distribution of drugs:

89
Q

Discuss the first pass effect:

90
Q

Discuss the Volume of Distribution of medications:

91
Q

Discuss the metabolism of medications in regards to each of the following:

  • Phase 1
  • Phase 2
92
Q

Discuss the metabolism of Acetaminophen:

93
Q

Discuss the clearance/elimination of medications:

94
Q

Discuss Elimination Kinetics in regards to each of the following:

  • First-order kinetics?
  • Zero-order kinetics?
95
Q

Discuss Drug-Drug interactions in regards to each of the following:

  • One drug affects the pharmacokinetics of another drug, most commonly ______.
  • Induction?
  • Inhibition?
96
Q

Review the basics of pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of medications:

97
Q

Which of the following is associated w/ Pharmacodynamics?

A. Absorption

B. Distribution

C. Drug-receptor interaction

D. Metabolism

E. Clearance

A

C. Drug-receptor interaction

98
Q

Almost all drug targets are _____.

99
Q

Discuss Agonists in regards to each of the following:

  • What is an agonist?
  • Full agonist = ?
  • Partial agonist = ?
100
Q

Discuss Antagonist in regards to each of the following:

  • What is an antagonist?
  • Competitive antagonist?
  • Non-competitive antagonist?
101
Q

Which of the following inhibits the basal activity of a receptor in the absence of the normal agonist?

A. Non-competitive antagonist

B. Competitive antagonist

C. Inverse agonist

D. Partial agonist

E. Full agonist

A

C. Inverse agonist

102
Q

Discuss the Type I Dose Response Curve:

103
Q

Discuss the Type II Dose Response Curve:

104
Q

Combining drugs leads to more than the sum of the two independently:

A. Additive

B. Antagonistic

C. Synergistic

D. Partial agonist

A

C. Synergistic

105
Q

Two drugs producing opposing effects on the same tissue via distinct receptors is known as _______.

A. Chemical antagonism

B. Receptor antagonism

C. Pharmacokinetic antagonism

D. Physiologic antagonism

A

D. Physiologic antagonism

106
Q

Drug binds directly to another drug to put it out of commission:

A. Chemical antagonism

B. Receptor antagonism

C. Pharmacokinetic antagonism

D. Physiologic antagonism

A

A. Chemical antagonism

107
Q

One drug affects the PK of another via pH, etc.:

A. Chemical antagonism

B. Receptor antagonism

C. Pharmacokinetic antagonism

D. Physiologic antagonism

A

C. Pharmacokinetic antagonism

108
Q

Competition between two drugs for a single receptor is known as _____.

A. Chemical antagonism

B. Receptor antagonism

C. Pharmacokinetic antagonism

D. Physiologic antagonism

A

B. Receptor antagonism

109
Q

Discuss ANS Physiology in regards to each of the following:

  • How is the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems related and different?
  • Discuss how many nerves and which system (PSNS/SNS) controls them:
    • cranial nerves
    • cervical
    • lumbar
    • sacral
110
Q

All of the following are the result of stimulating the sympathetic system EXCEPT:

A. Pupil dilation

B. Stimulated salivation

C. Airway relaxation

D. Bladder relaxation

E. Slowed digestion

A

B. Stimulated salivation

111
Q

Which of the following type of receptors is a G-protein coupled receptor?

A. Ionotropic receptors

B. Metabotropic receptors

A

B. Metabotropic receptors

112
Q

Which of the following is a metabotropic receptor controlled by the Parasympathetic system?

A. Nicotinic receptors

B. Muscarinic receptors

C. Adrenergic receptors

D. All of the above

A

B. Muscarinic receptors

113
Q

Which of the following is a metabotropic receptor controlled by the Sympathetic system?

A. Nicotinic receptors

B. Muscarinic receptors

C. Adrenergic receptors

D. All of the above

A

C. Adrenergic receptors

114
Q

Which of the following is a Ionotropic receptor controlled by the Parasympathetic system?

A. Nicotinic receptors

B. Muscarinic receptors

C. Adrenergic receptors

D. All of the above

A

A. Nicotinic receptors

115
Q

Review the SNS vs. PSNS slide in the mental dental ppt on the other side of this note card:

116
Q

Discuss the synthesis of Acetylcholine in regards to each of the following:

  • _______ + _________ = Acetylcholine
  • Catalyzed by what enzyme?
  • Reversed by what enzyme?
117
Q

Which of the following catalyzes the synthesis of Acetylcholine?

A. Choline acetyltransferase

B. Acetycholinesterase

A

A. Choline acetyltransferase

118
Q

Which of the following Muscarinic receptors innervates the heart?

A. M1 receptor

B. M2 receptor

C. M3 receptor

D. M4 receptor

E. M5 receptor

A

B. M2 receptor

119
Q

Which of the following Muscarinic receptors innervates Smooth Muscle?

A. M1 receptor

B. M2 receptor

C. M3 receptor

D. M4 receptor

E. M5 receptor

A

C. M3 receptor

120
Q

Muscarinic receptor are under control of which of the following?

A. Sympathetic system

B. Parasympathetic system

A

B. Parasympathetic system

121
Q

Discuss Muscarinic receptors in regards to each of the following:

  • Which Muscarinic receptor innervates the heart and what effect does this have?
  • SLUDS?
  • BAM?
122
Q

Discuss Muscarinic Agonist in regards to each of the following:

  • Non-selective M agonist should not be used systemically for people with what 3 conditions?
A

CHF = congestive heart failure

Peptic ulcers = PSNS causes rest and digest increasing acidity

Asthma/COPD = don’t want to constrict the airway even more

CHF = you don’t want to decrease cardiac output even more

123
Q

Which of the following is a Muscarinic agonist that reversibly inhibits cholinesterase but can also directly affect NMJ?

A. Pilocarpine

B. Atropine

C. Neostigmine

D. Organophosphate insecticides

E. Pralidoxime

A

C. Neostigmine

124
Q

Which of the following is a Muscarinic agonist that irreversibly inhibits cholinesterase but can also directly affect NMJ?

A. Pilocarpine

B. Atropine

C. Neostigmine

D. Organophosphate insecticides

E. Pralidoxime

A

D. Organophosphate insecticides

125
Q

Which of the following stimulates saliva and constricts pupils?

A. Pilocarpine

B. Atropine

C. Neostigmine

D. Organophosphate insecticides

E. Pralidoxime

A

A. Pilocarpine

Pilocarpine = stimulates saliva

Atropine = reduces saliva

126
Q

Which of the following reduces saliva and can be used as an emergency drug to treat bradycardia?

A. Pilocarpine

B. Atropine

C. Neostigmine

D. Organophosphate insecticides

E. Pralidoxime

A

B. Atropine

Pilocarpine = stimulates saliva

Atropine = reduces saliva

127
Q

Which of the following can be used to tx insecticide poisoning?

A. Pilocarpine

B. Atropine

C. Neostigmine

D. Organophosphate insecticides

E. Pralidoxime

***BOARDS***

A

E. Pralidoxime

128
Q

Review all of the Muscarinic drugs:

129
Q

Discuss the synthesis of epinephrine and norepinephrine in regards to each of the following:

  • What are the 4 steps to synthesizing epinephrine?
  • Catecholamines = ?
  • Monoamines = ?
130
Q

All of the following are Catecholamines EXCEPT:

A. Dopamine

B. Serotonin

C. Norepinephrine

D. Epinephrine

A

B. Serotonin

131
Q

All of the following are Catecholamines EXCEPT:

A. Dopamine

B. Norepinephrine

C. Histamine

D. Epinephrine

A

C. Histamine

Monoamines = Catecholamines + serotonin and histamine

132
Q

All of the following Adrenergic receptors innervates smooth muscle EXCEPT:

A. Alpha-1 receptor

B. Alpha-2 receptor

C. Beta-1 receptor

D. Beta-2 receptor

A

C. Beta-1 receptor

133
Q

Which of the following innervates the smooth muscle of the lungs?

A. Alpha-1 receptor

B. Alpha-2 receptor

C. Beta-1 receptor

D. Beta-2 receptor

A

D. Beta-2 receptor

Note: “1 heart and 2 lungs” - NOVAK

134
Q

Which of the following innervates the heart?

A. Alpha-1 receptor

B. Alpha-2 receptor

C. Beta-1 receptor

D. Beta-2 receptor

A

C. Beta-1 receptor

135
Q

Discuss alpha and beta Adrenergic receptors in regards to each of the following:

  • Which receptor causes vasoconstriction, urinary retention, and mydriasis?
  • What 3 effects does the Beta-1 receptor have on the heart?
  • What receptor causes the release of renin form the kidneys?
  • What 3 effects does the Beta-2 receptor have?
136
Q

How does the Beta-1 receptor cause Tachycardia?

137
Q

Which of the following causes Tachycardia?

A. Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor

B. Alpha-2 adrenergic receptor

C. Beta-1 adrenergic receptor

D. Beta-2 adrenergic receptor

E. M2 Muscarinic receptor

A

C. Beta-1 adrenergic receptor

M2 Muscarinic receptor = bradycardia

Beta-1 adrenergic receptor = tachycardia

138
Q

Review all adrenergic agonist/antagonist drugs:

139
Q

Which of the following sympathomimetics inhibits Reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine?

A. Amphetamine

B. Tyramine

C. Cocaine

D. Tricyclic antidepressants

E. MAOI

A

D. Tricyclic antidepressants

140
Q

Which of the following inhibits release of norepinephrine?

A. Amphetamine

B. Tyramine

C. Cocaine

D. Tricyclic antidepressants

E. MAOI

A

A. Amphetamine

141
Q

Which of the following should not be taken with wine, cheese, chocolate (fermented)?

A. Amphetamine

B. Tyramine

C. Cocaine

D. Tricyclic antidepressants

E. MAOI

A

B. Tyramine

142
Q

Which of the following blocks enzymatic degradation of monoamines?

A. Amphetamine

B. Tyramine

C. Cocaine

D. Tricyclic antidepressants

E. MAOI

143
Q

Which of the following blocks adrenergic receptors?

A. Metoprolol

B. Isoprotenol

C. Albuteral

D. Dobutamine

E. Phenylephrine

A

A. Metoprolol

Beta-blockers block adrenergic receptors

note: albuterol activates the beta-2 receptor (inhaler) “2 lungs and 1 heart”

144
Q

Which of the following activates the Beta-1 receptor to kick start the heart?

A. Metoprolol

B. Isoprotenol

C. Albuteral

D. Dobutamine

E. Phenylephrine

A

D. Dobutamine

145
Q

Which of the following sympatholytics is an alpha-2 agonist, which actually blocks SNS signal?

A. Guanethidine

B. Reserpine

C. Clonidine

D. Methyldopa

E. Two of the above

A

E. Two of the above

146
Q

Which of the following depletes NE stores thus inhibiting release?

A. Guanethidine

B. Reserpine

C. Clonidine

D. Methyldopa

E. Two of the above

A

B. Reserpine

147
Q

Whihc of the following inhibits release of NE?

A. Guanethidine

B. Reserpine

C. Clonidine

D. Methyldopa

E. Two of the above

A

A. Guanethidine

Guanethidine = stimulates release of stored NE

Reserpine = depletes NE stores thus inhibiting release of NE

148
Q

Discuss Epinephrine Reversal:

***BOARDS***

149
Q

Discuss the Vasovagal Reflex in regards to each of the following:

  • What is the Vasovagal reflex and what are it’s effects?
  • What drug blocks this effect?
150
Q

Discuss the Circulatory System in regards to each of the following:

  • The human circulatory system is an open system? (T/F)
  • What are the 3 components of the human circulatory system?
151
Q

Discuss the circulatory system in regards to each of the following:

  • What is the main equation for Blood Pressure?
  • Systole = ?
  • Diastole = ?
  • Preload = ?
  • Afterload = ?
152
Q

All of the following are Diuretics EXCEPT?

A. Furosemide

B. Hydrochlorothiazide

C. Hydralazine

D. Spironolactone

A

C. Hydralazine

153
Q

Which of the following is a loop or high-ceiling diuretic?

A. Furosemide

B. Hydrochlorothiazide

C. Hydralazine

D. Spironolactone

A

A. Furosemide

154
Q

Which of the following diuretics causes Hyperkalemia?

A. Furosemide

B. Hydrochlorothiazide

C. Hydralazine

D. Spironolactone

A

D. Spironolactone

Note: Spironolactone is a K+ sparing diuretic which is why it can cause Hyperkalemia

155
Q

Which of the following diuretics causes Hypokalemia?

A. Furosemide

B. Hydrochlorothiazide

C. Hydralazine

D. Spironolactone

A

B. Hydrochlorothiazide

156
Q

Which of the following open K+ channels to cause vasodilation?

A. Spironolactone

B. Hydralazine

C. Verapamil

D. Diltiazem

E. Furosemide

A

B. Hydralazine

157
Q

Which of the following drugs induce gingival hyperplasia?

A. Furosemide

B. Hydrochlorothiazide

C. Verapamil

D. Spironolactone

A

C. Verapamil

Verapamil = calcium channel blocker

Thiazide diuretics = Hypokalemia

K+ sparring diuretics = Hyperkalemia

158
Q

Which of the following drugs induce Hyperkalemia?

A. Furosemide

B. Hydrochlorothiazide

C. Verapamil

D. Spironolactone

A

D. Spironolactone

Verapamil = calcium channel blocker

Thiazide diuretics = Hypokalemia

K+ sparring diuretics = Hyperkalemia

159
Q

Which of the following drugs induce Hypokalemia?

A. Furosemide

B. Hydrochlorothiazide

C. Verapamil

D. Spironolactone

A

B. Hydrochlorothiazide

Verapamil = calcium channel blocker

Thiazide diuretics = Hypokalemia

K+ sparring diuretics = Hyperkalemia

160
Q

Which of the following may cause hyperkalemia?

A. Loop diuretics

B. Thiazide diuretics

C. K+ sparing diuretics

D. Calcium channel blockers

A

C. K+ sparing diuretics

161
Q

Which of the following may cause hypokalemia?

A. Loop diuretics

B. Thiazide diuretics

C. K+ sparing diuretics

D. Calcium channel blockers

A

B. Thiazide diuretics

162
Q

Which of the following may induce gingival hyperplasia?

A. Loop diuretics

B. Thiazide diuretics

C. K+ sparing diuretics

D. Calcium channel blockers

***GAURENTEED BOARDS Q***

A

D. Calcium channel blockers

Calcium channel blockers: verapamil, diltiazem, amlodipine, nifedipine

163
Q

Discuss each of the following in regards to calcium channel blockers:

  • Calcium channel blockers may induce _______.
  • What are the 4 drugs that are calcium channel blockers?

***GAURENTEED BOARDS Q***

164
Q

Which of the following blocks the enzyme that converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II, the latter of which is a potent vasoconstrictor?

A. Diuretics

B. Calcium channel blockers

C. ACE inhibitors

D. ARBs

A

C. ACE inhibitors

ACE inhibitors = “prils”

165
Q

Which of the following are competitive antagonist at angiotensin II receptor blocking a potent vasoconstrictor?

A. Diuretics

B. Calcium channel blockers

C. ACE inhibitors

D. ARBs

A

D. ARBs

ACE inhibitors = “prils”

ARBs = “sartans”

166
Q

All of the following are Antianginals EXCEPT:

A. ACE inhibitors

B. Beta-blockers

C. Calcium channel blockers

D. Nitroglycerine

A

A. ACE inhibitors

167
Q

What does MONA stand for in regards to Antianginals?

A

Morphine

Oxygen

Nitroglycerine

Aspirin

168
Q

Which of the following antianginals reduce oxygen demands by relaxing the heart?

A. ACE inhibitors

B. Beta-blockers

C. Calcium channel blockers

D. Nitroglycerine

A

B. Beta-blockers

169
Q

Which of the following antianginals reduce oxygen demands by reducing peripheral resistance via vasodilation?

A. ACE inhibitors

B. Beta-blockers

C. Calcium channel blockers

D. Nitroglycerine

A

C. Calcium channel blockers

170
Q

Which of the following antianginals causes vasodilation of smooth muscle in _coronary arterie_s to increase oxygen supply?

A. ACE inhibitors

B. Beta-blockers

C. Calcium channel blockers

D. Nitroglycerine

A

D. Nitroglycerine

171
Q

Which of the following block Na/K ATPase to increase calcium influx and promotes positive inotropy in cardiac muscle cell only?

A. Digoxin

B. Propanolol

C. Digitalis

D. ACE inhibitors

E. Two of the above

A

E. Two of the above

Anti-congenstive heart failure drugs = Digoxin and Digitalis

172
Q

Which of the following types of anti-arrhythmics are beta blockers?

A. Type 1a anti-arrhythics

B. Type 1b anti-arrhythics

C. Type II anti-arrhythics

D. Type III anti-arrhythics

E. Type IV anti-arrhythics

A

C. Type II anti-arrhythics

173
Q

Which of the following types of anti-arrhythmics are Calcium channel blockers?

A. Type 1a anti-arrhythics

B. Type 1b anti-arrhythics

C. Type II anti-arrhythics

D. Type III anti-arrhythics

E. Type IV anti-arrhythics

A

E. Type IV anti-arrhythics

174
Q

Which of the following types of anti-arrhythmics are sodium channel blockers lengthens refractory period to slow heartbeat?

A. Type 1a anti-arrhythics

B. Type 1b anti-arrhythics

C. Type II anti-arrhythics

D. Type III anti-arrhythics

E. Type IV anti-arrhythics

A

A. Type 1a anti-arrhythics

175
Q

Which of the following types of anti-arrhythmics is a Na channel blocker that shortens refractory period to hasten heartbeat?

A. Type 1a anti-arrhythics

B. Type 1b anti-arrhythics

C. Type II anti-arrhythics

D. Type III anti-arrhythics

E. Type IV anti-arrhythics

A

B. Type 1b anti-arrhythics

176
Q

Which of the following types of anti-arrhythmics is a K+ channel blocker?

A. Type 1a anti-arrhythics

B. Type 1b anti-arrhythics

C. Type II anti-arrhythics

D. Type III anti-arrhythics

E. Type IV anti-arrhythics

A

D. Type III anti-arrhythics

177
Q

Which of the following antidepressants is used for manic depression (bipolar disorder)?

A. Haloperidol

B. Chlorpromazine

C. Clozapine

D. Lithium

E. Fluoxetine

***BOARDS***

A

D. Lithium

178
Q

Which of the following is a dopamine and serotonin blocker?

A. Haloperidol

B. Chlorpromazine

C. Clozapine

D. Lithium

E. Fluoxetine

A

C. Clozapine

179
Q

Which of the following is a D2 blocker that is used to tx Tardive Dyskinesia?

A. Haloperidol

B. Chlorpromazine

C. Clozapine

D. Lithium

E. Fluoxetine

A

A. Haloperidol

180
Q

All of the following are SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)?

A. Fluoxetine

B. Phenelzine

C. Citalopram

D. Trazadone

A

B. Phenelzine

Phenelzine = MAOI

181
Q

Which of the following is an SNRI/TCA (serotonin and NE reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants)?

A. Fluoxetine

B. Phenelzine

C. Citalopram

D. Trazadone

E. Amitriptyline

A

E. Amitriptyline

182
Q

Which of the following is a 2nd generation antispychotics used to tx schizophrenia?

A. Haloperidol

B. Phenothiazines

C. Clozapine

D. Phenylzine

E. Fluoxetine

A

B. Phenothiazines

183
Q

What are the 3 drugs used to Tx Schizophrenia?

A

Haloperidol, phenothiazines, clozapine

184
Q

What are the two classes of anxiolytics/sedatives?

185
Q

Discuss Benzodiazepines in regards to each of the following:

  • Mechanism of action?
  • Ideal drug for _____ in the dental setting.
  • Propylene glycol can induce ______ in large veins.
  • What are the 3 drugs?
186
Q

Discuss Barbiturates in regards to each of the following:

  • Mechanism of action?
  • Barbs are contraindicated in patients with ______ because they will aggravate the disease.
  • Barb overdose causes _______.
187
Q

Discuss General Anesthetics in regards to each of the following:

  • The more soluble the agent in blood, the more _____.
  • Stage 1?
  • Stage 2?
  • Stage 3?
  • Stage 4?
  • What drug and what is that drug associated with?
188
Q

Which of the following stages of general anesthesia is associated with delirium?

A. Stage I

B. Stage II

C. Stage III

D. Stage IV

A

B. Stage II

189
Q

Which of the following stages of general anesthesia is associated with surgical anesthesia?

A. Stage I

B. Stage II

C. Stage III

D. Stage IV

A

C. Stage III

190
Q

Which of the following stages of general anesthesia is associated with analgesia/better felling?

A. Stage I

B. Stage II

C. Stage III

D. Stage IV

A

A. Stage I

191
Q

Which of the following stages of general anesthesia is associated with medullary paralysis?

A. Stage I

B. Stage II

C. Stage III

D. Stage IV

A

D. Stage IV

192
Q

Discuss Parkinson’s Disease in regards to each of the following:

  • What is the main pathway?
  • Parkinson’s disease is due to _______ in the brain.
  • Discuss the 2 drugs used for Parkinson’s Disease and how they work together.
193
Q

Which of the following is the precursor to dopamine that is able to cross the blood brain barrier?

A. Carbidopa

B. Levodopa

A

B. Levodopa

194
Q

Parkinson’s Disease is due to a _______ deficiency in the brain.

195
Q

Which of the following blocks DOPA decarboxylase, allowing L-DOPA to cross the BBB where it can be converted to dopamine once in the brain?

A. Carbidopa

B. Levodopa

A

A. Carbidopa

196
Q

_____ is the precursor to Dopamine.

A

Levodopa (L-DOPA)

INBDE (18 decks)

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