Oral Medicine Flashcards
All of the following are indications for Antibiotic Prophylaxis EXCEPT:
A. Previous infective endocarditis
B. Prosthetic cardiac valve (or prosthetic material used for cardiac valve repair)
C. Cardiac transplant w/ valvular regurgitation (leaky valve)
D. Unrepaired cyanotic heart disease
E. Mitral valve prolapse w/ valvular regurtitation/disjunction
E. Mitral valve prolapse w/ valvular regurtitation/disjunction
All of the following are indications for Antibiotic Prophylaxis EXCEPT:
A. Previous infective endocarditis
B. Prosthetic cardiac valve (or prosthetic material used for cardiac valve repair)
C. Rheumatic heart disease
D. Unrepaired cyanotic heart disease
E. Cardiac transplant w/ valvular regurgitation (leaky valve)
C. Rheumatic heart disease
Review Antibiotic Prophylaxis indications:
What are the 5T’s in regards to Cyanotic congenital heart defects?
Discuss Rx for infective endocarditis prophylaxis in regards to each of the following:
- First choice?
- Children, first choice?
- PCN allergy?
- Children PCN allergy?
- PCN allergy?
- Children, PCN allergy?
- Non-oral (IV or IM)?
- Children, non-oral?
Discuss the different blood pressure categories in regards to diastolic/systolic:
- Normal BP:
- Elevated BP:
- High BP (stage 1):
- High BP (stage 2):
- Hypertensive Crisis:
Discuss Blood Pressure in regards to each of the following:
- Allow a patient to rest for _____ minutes before measuring:
- Length should be ____% of the arm circumference, width should be _____% arm circumference.
- Record in both arm and use the arm that gives the higher reading.
List the medications for each of the following hypertensive categories:
- Alpha-Adrenergic blockers = (3)
- Alpha-Adrenergic Agonist (a2 in CNS) = (3)
- Direct Vasodilator = (2)
List the medications for each of the following hypertensive categories:
- Peripheral Adrenergic Inhibitors = (2)
- Beta-Adrenergic Blockers = what do these medications end in?
- Beta and Alpha Adrenergic blockers = (2)
List the medications for each of the following hypertensive categories:
- Calcium channel blockers = (4)
- Diuretics = (6)
List the medications for each of the following hypertensive categories:
- Direct Renin Inhibitor (DRI) = (1)
- Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitor (ACE inhibitors) = what do they end in?
- Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs) = what do they end in?
A patient with a blood pressure of 180/120 who is asymptomatic needs elective tx. What should you do?
A patient with a blood pressure of 180/120 who is asymptomatic needs emergency tx. What should you do?
A patient with a blood pressure of 180/120 who is symptomatic (blurred vision) needs emergency tx. What should you do?
Discuss each of the following Oral Manifestations associated w/ anti hypertensive medications:
- Dry mouth = ?
- Gingival Hyperplasia = ?
- Angioedema = ?
- Gingival bleeding = ?
What are 3 common symptoms of a patient with Diabetes Mellitus?
Discuss Diabetes Insipidus in regards to each of the following:
- What is the problem in pts with diabetes insipidus?
- Body cannot produce or react to _____ properly
- What are the 2 symptoms associated with Diabetes Insipidus?
Review Type I and Type II Diabetes:
Discuss the 2 types of Diabetes Measurements:
- Blood glucose
- HbA1c
Discuss the blood sugar and HbA1c measurements for each of the following categories:
- Normal
- Prediabetes
- Diabetes
Review each of the following medications for diabetes:
- Rapid-acting = ?
- Short-acting = ?
- Intermediate acting = ?
- Long-acting = ?
List all of the Diabetic Medications under each of the following categories:
- Sulfonylurea = (3) what do these end in?
- Biguanide = (1)
- Dipeptidyl Peptidase-4 Inhibitor = (3) what do these end in?
List all of the Diabetic Medications under each of the following categories:
- Thiazolidinedione = (2) what do they end in?
- Alpha-glucosidase Inhibitor = (2)
- SGLT2 Inhibitor = (3) what do they end in?
Discuss Hypoglycemia in regards to each of the following:
- What blood sugar level is considered hypoglycemic?
- What should you do if the patient is conscious?
- What should you do if the patient is unconscious?
- What are the symptoms of a hypoglycemic patient? (TIRED)
Discuss Hyperglycemia in regards to eac o the following:
- Blood glucose of hyperglycemia:
- What are the symptoms of a hyperglycemic patient? (SINFUL)
- What can hyperglycemia lead to?
Review the patient considerations for diabetes:
What are the oral manifestations of a diabetic patient?
Review the ASA Classification System:
Discuss each of the following in regards to COPD:
- Chronic Bronchitis = ?
- Emphysema = ?
List the medications for each of the following COPD categories:
- Anticholinergics = (2) what do these end in?
- Beta-Adreniergic Agonist = (4)
List the medications for each of the following COPD categories:
- Corticosteroids = (2) what do they end in?
- Phosphodiesterase inhibitors = (1)
Review the patient considerations for COPD:
Discuss the oral manifestations of COPD:
(T/F)
Asthma is associated with globlet cell hyperplasia.
List the medications associated with each of the following Antiasthmatic categories:
- Antihistamines = (2)
- Beta-Adrenergic Agonist (bronchodilators) = (4)
List the medications associated with each of the following Antiasthmatic categories:
- Corticosteroids = (3) what do these end in?
- Decongestants = (1)
- Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist = (2) what do these end in?
Discuss patient considerations for Asthma:
Discuss the Oral Manifestations of Asthma:
Review the indications/contraindications of Nitrous Oxide:
Review the indications/contraindications of administering Oxygen:
Discuss Steroids in regards to each of the following:
- Hormone derived from _______.
- How many aromatic rings are in the chemical structure of steroids?
Discuss Steroids in regards to each of the following:
- Corticosteroids
- Sex steroids
Discuss Cushing’s Syndrome in regards to each of the following:
- Endogenous = ?
- Primary shows an increase in what?
- Secondary shows an increase in what?
- Tertiary shows an increase in what?
Which of the following is associated with Tertiary Cushing’s Syndrome?
A. Elevated cortisol at adrenal cortex
B. Elevated ACTH at anterior pituitary
C. Elevated CRH at hypothalamus
C. Elevated CRH at hypothalamus
Which of the following is associated with Secondary Cushing’s Syndrome?
A. Elevated ACTH at anterior pituitary
B. Elevated cortisol at adrenal cortex
C. Elevated CRH at hypothalamus
A. Elevated ACTH at anterior pituitary
Which of the following is associated with Primary Cushing’s Syndrome?
A. Elevated ACTH at anterior pituitary
B. Elevated cortisol at adrenal cortex
C. Elevated CRH at hypothalamus
B. Elevated cortisol at adrenal cortex
Discuss Cushing’s Syndrome in regards to each of the following:
- Exogenous = ?
- If a patient has taken _____mg of exogenous cortisol for at least ____ weeks wishing the last ___ years, you should be suspicious for suppression of adrenal cortex function and possible crisis
What are the 2 cardinal symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome?
Review Addison’s Disease:
Discuss Addisonian Crisis in regards to each of the following:
- ______ are critically low.
- Stress leads to hypotension, vomiting and possible lethal ________.
- Activate EMS, monitor vital signs, start IV saline solution and give IV _________.
***BOARDS***
Review the patient considerations for Adrenal Insufficiency:
Discuss Bisphosphonates in regards to each of the following:
- Prevent bone resorption by inducing ______ to undergo _____
- Increases _____
- Slows _____
- Impairs ____ healing
- May lead to _________
What are the 4 main uses for Bisphosphonates?
Discuss each of the following Bisphosphonate medications in regards to type, use and potency:
- Etidronate
- Tiludronate
Discuss each of the following Bisphosphonate medications in regards to type, use and potency:
- Clodronate
- Pamidronate
Discuss each of the following Bisphosphonate medications in regards to type, use and potency:
- Alendronate
- Risedronate
Discuss each of the following Bisphosphonate medications in regards to type, use and potency:
- Risedronate
- Ibandronate
Discuss each of the following Bisphosphonate medications in regards to type, use and potency:
- Zolendronate
Discuss Pharmacokinetics in regards to Bisphosphonates:
- Oral has much lower bioavailability than IV
- High binding affinity to ______, _______, and ______ in the intestinal tract.
- Attracted to hydroxyapatite binding sites on bony surfaces undergoing active turn over.
- Concentrates high in __________ bone than cortical bone
- Half-life of this drug can vary from ____hours for ibandronate to _____ years for alendronate
Discuss the Pharmacodynamics in regards to Bisphosphonates:
- Synthetic analogue of ______ that has a high affinity for calcium
- Reduces osteoclast ______ and ______.
- ____________ increase potency of the drug by inhibiting farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase
- Osteoblast activity and bone healing may decrease with chronic use
Discuss Medication-Related Osteonecrosis of the Jaws (MRONJ) in regards to each of the following:
- What Medications cause MRONJ = _________, ________ or bevacizumab
- Osteonecrosis = _____ due to lack of blood supply (which is why EXT is contraindicated)
- Mandible/Maxilla prevalence
- Posterior/Anterior prevalence
Discuss the Diagnosis of MRONJ:
Review the patient considerations for MRONJ:
Which of the following contains a factor 8 deficiency, hematoma risk following IAN block in regards to clotting factor defects:
A. Von Willebrand disease
B. Hemophilia A
C. Hemophilia B
D. Hemophilia C
E. Vitamin K deficiency
***BOARDS***
B. Hemophilia A
Which of the following contains a factor 11 deficiency in regards to clotting factor defects:
A. Von Willebrand disease
B. Hemophilia A
C. Hemophilia B
D. Hemophilia C
E. Vitamin K deficiency
***BOARDS***
D. Hemophilia C
Which of the following contains a factor 9 deficiency in regards to clotting factor defects:
A. Von Willebrand disease
B. Hemophilia A
C. Hemophilia B
D. Hemophilia C
E. Vitamin K deficiency
***BOARDS***
C. Hemophilia B
Hemophilia A = factor 8 deficiency
Hemophilia B = factor 9 deficiency
Hemophilia C - factor 11 deficiency
Which of the following contains a vWF deficiency in regards to clotting factor defects:
A. Von Willebrand disease
B. Hemophilia A
C. Hemophilia B
D. Hemophilia C
E. Vitamin K deficiency
***BOARDS***
A. Von Willebrand disease
Vitamin K deficiency can lead to all of the following clotting factor deficiencies EXCEPT:
A. Clotting Factor II
B. Clotting Factor VII
C. Clotting Factor VIII
D. Clotting Factor IX
E. Clotting Factor X
***BOARDS***
C. Clotting Factor VIII
What clotting factor is associated with Vitamin K deficiency?
***BOARDS***
Clotting factors 2, 7, 9, 10 = Vitamin K deficiency
Which of the following anticoagulants directly bonds to thrombin (factor IIa)?
A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
B. Heparin
C. Apixaban (Eliquis)
D. Dabigatrin
D. Dabigatrin
Which of the following anticoagulants blocks reduction recycling of vitamin K (blocking factors, II, VII, IX and X)?
A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
B. Heparin
C. Apixaban (Eliquis)
D. Dabigatrin
A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
Which of the following anticoagulants inhibits factor Xa?
A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
B. Heparin
C. Apixaban (Eliquis)
D. Dabigatrin
C. Apixaban (Eliquis)
Which of the following anticoagulants pulls thrombin and anti-thrombin together (blocking factor II)?
A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
B. Heparin
C. Apixaban (Eliquis)
D. Dabigatrin
B. Heparin
What are the 3 oral manifestations of bleeding disorders?
Need for increased amount of a substance to achieve the desired effect:
A. Substance abuse
B. Dependence
C. Tolerance
D. Withdrawal
C. Tolerance
Recurrent use of a substance over the past 12 months with subsequent adverse consequences:
A. Substance abuse
B. Dependence
C. Tolerance
D. Withdrawal
A. Substance abuse
Group of symptoms that emerge upon abstinence of a habitually used substance:
A. Substance abuse
B. Dependence
C. Tolerance
D. Withdrawal
D. Withdrawal
Uncontrollable need for use of a substance despite adverse consequences:
A. Substance abuse
B. Dependence
C. Tolerance
D. Withdrawal
B. Dependence
Review Marijuana:
Discuss Opiods in regards to each of the following:
- Manufactured from ______ plant
- Primary effects are _______, modest sedation and euphoria
- Abuse can lead to pupil _____ and _______ depression
- ________ is a reversal agent
- Prescription drug monitoring program (PDMP) recommended and ________ number required to prescribe
Review the Drug names and types of Opiods:
HIV is caused by an enveloped RNA retrovirus that infects cells with __________.
A. CD4 receptor
B. CD8 receptor
***BOARDS***
A. CD4 receptor
Review HIV in regards to each of the following:
- Transmission
- Staging
- Diagnosis
Which of the following is a symptom of Hypothyroidism?
A. Lingual thyroid
B. Macroglossia
C. Accelerated tooth eruption
D. Sialoliths
***BOARDS***
B. Macroglossia
Hyperthyroidism: lingual thyroid, accelerated tooth eruption, sialoliths (propylthiouracil)
Which of the following “tones” DOWN blood calcium levels?
A. PTH
B. Calcitonin
B. Calcitonin
How can you remember the symptoms of Hyperparathyroidism?
Stones, Bones, Groans and Moans
Which of the following cancers has the highest chance to metastize to the thyroid?
A. Breast cancer
B. Kidney cancer
C. Prostate cancer
D. Colorectal cancer
B. Kidney cancer
What does MEN2B stand for and what are the 3 things associated with it?
Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2 (MEN2B)
- Multiple neuromas
- Medullary thyroid carcinoma
- Pheochromocytoma of adrenal gland
note: Pheochromocytoma is a tumor that secretes hormones
What medications are absolutely contraindicated in pregnant women?
***BOARDS***
- Aspirin
- NSAIDs (in 3rd trimester)
- Tetracycline or doxycycline
- BENZOS ARE BAD (diazepam, lorazepam etc.)
note: just prescribe pregnant ppl tylenol
