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INBDE > Oral Medicine > Flashcards

Oral Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following are indications for Antibiotic Prophylaxis EXCEPT:

A. Previous infective endocarditis

B. Prosthetic cardiac valve (or prosthetic material used for cardiac valve repair)

C. Cardiac transplant w/ valvular regurgitation (leaky valve)

D. Unrepaired cyanotic heart disease

E. Mitral valve prolapse w/ valvular regurtitation/disjunction

A

E. Mitral valve prolapse w/ valvular regurtitation/disjunction

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2
Q

All of the following are indications for Antibiotic Prophylaxis EXCEPT:

A. Previous infective endocarditis

B. Prosthetic cardiac valve (or prosthetic material used for cardiac valve repair)

C. Rheumatic heart disease

D. Unrepaired cyanotic heart disease

E. Cardiac transplant w/ valvular regurgitation (leaky valve)

A

C. Rheumatic heart disease

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3
Q

Review Antibiotic Prophylaxis indications:

A
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4
Q

What are the 5T’s in regards to Cyanotic congenital heart defects?

A
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5
Q

Discuss Rx for infective endocarditis prophylaxis in regards to each of the following:

  • First choice?
  • Children, first choice?
  • PCN allergy?
  • Children PCN allergy?
  • PCN allergy?
  • Children, PCN allergy?
  • Non-oral (IV or IM)?
  • Children, non-oral?
A
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6
Q

Discuss the different blood pressure categories in regards to diastolic/systolic:

  • Normal BP:
  • Elevated BP:
  • High BP (stage 1):
  • High BP (stage 2):
  • Hypertensive Crisis:
A
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7
Q

Discuss Blood Pressure in regards to each of the following:

  • Allow a patient to rest for _____ minutes before measuring:
  • Length should be ____% of the arm circumference, width should be _____% arm circumference.
  • Record in both arm and use the arm that gives the higher reading.
A
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8
Q

List the medications for each of the following hypertensive categories:

  • Alpha-Adrenergic blockers = (3)
  • Alpha-Adrenergic Agonist (a2 in CNS) = (3)
  • Direct Vasodilator = (2)
A
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9
Q

List the medications for each of the following hypertensive categories:

  • Peripheral Adrenergic Inhibitors = (2)
  • Beta-Adrenergic Blockers = what do these medications end in?
  • Beta and Alpha Adrenergic blockers = (2)
A
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10
Q

List the medications for each of the following hypertensive categories:

  • Calcium channel blockers = (4)
  • Diuretics = (6)
A
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11
Q

List the medications for each of the following hypertensive categories:

  • Direct Renin Inhibitor (DRI) = (1)
  • Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitor (ACE inhibitors) = what do they end in?
  • Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs) = what do they end in?
A
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12
Q

A patient with a blood pressure of 180/120 who is asymptomatic needs elective tx. What should you do?

A patient with a blood pressure of 180/120 who is asymptomatic needs emergency tx. What should you do?

A patient with a blood pressure of 180/120 who is symptomatic (blurred vision) needs emergency tx. What should you do?

A
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13
Q

Discuss each of the following Oral Manifestations associated w/ anti hypertensive medications:

  • Dry mouth = ?
  • Gingival Hyperplasia = ?
  • Angioedema = ?
  • Gingival bleeding = ?
A
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14
Q

What are 3 common symptoms of a patient with Diabetes Mellitus?

A
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15
Q

Discuss Diabetes Insipidus in regards to each of the following:

  • What is the problem in pts with diabetes insipidus?
  • Body cannot produce or react to _____ properly
  • What are the 2 symptoms associated with Diabetes Insipidus?
A
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16
Q

Review Type I and Type II Diabetes:

A
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17
Q

Discuss the 2 types of Diabetes Measurements:

  • Blood glucose
  • HbA1c
A
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18
Q

Discuss the blood sugar and HbA1c measurements for each of the following categories:

  • Normal
  • Prediabetes
  • Diabetes
A
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19
Q

Review each of the following medications for diabetes:

  • Rapid-acting = ?
  • Short-acting = ?
  • Intermediate acting = ?
  • Long-acting = ?
A
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20
Q
A
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21
Q

List all of the Diabetic Medications under each of the following categories:

  • Sulfonylurea = (3) what do these end in?
  • Biguanide = (1)
  • Dipeptidyl Peptidase-4 Inhibitor = (3) what do these end in?
A
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22
Q

List all of the Diabetic Medications under each of the following categories:

  • Thiazolidinedione = (2) what do they end in?
  • Alpha-glucosidase Inhibitor = (2)
  • SGLT2 Inhibitor = (3) what do they end in?
A
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23
Q

Discuss Hypoglycemia in regards to each of the following:

  • What blood sugar level is considered hypoglycemic?
  • What should you do if the patient is conscious?
  • What should you do if the patient is unconscious?
  • What are the symptoms of a hypoglycemic patient? (TIRED)
A
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24
Q

Discuss Hyperglycemia in regards to eac o the following:

  • Blood glucose of hyperglycemia:
  • What are the symptoms of a hyperglycemic patient? (SINFUL)
  • What can hyperglycemia lead to?
A
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25
Q

Review the patient considerations for diabetes:

A
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26
Q

What are the oral manifestations of a diabetic patient?

A
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27
Q

Review the ASA Classification System:

A
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28
Q
A
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29
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30
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31
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32
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33
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34
Q
A
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35
Q

Discuss each of the following in regards to COPD:

  • Chronic Bronchitis = ?
  • Emphysema = ?
A
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36
Q
A
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37
Q

List the medications for each of the following COPD categories:

  • Anticholinergics = (2) what do these end in?
  • Beta-Adreniergic Agonist = (4)
A
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38
Q

List the medications for each of the following COPD categories:

  • Corticosteroids = (2) what do they end in?
  • Phosphodiesterase inhibitors = (1)
A
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39
Q

Review the patient considerations for COPD:

A
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40
Q

Discuss the oral manifestations of COPD:

A
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41
Q

(T/F)

Asthma is associated with globlet cell hyperplasia.

A
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42
Q

List the medications associated with each of the following Antiasthmatic categories:

  • Antihistamines = (2)
  • Beta-Adrenergic Agonist (bronchodilators) = (4)
A
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43
Q

List the medications associated with each of the following Antiasthmatic categories:

  • Corticosteroids = (3) what do these end in?
  • Decongestants = (1)
  • Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist = (2) what do these end in?
A
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44
Q

Discuss patient considerations for Asthma:

A
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45
Q

Discuss the Oral Manifestations of Asthma:

A
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46
Q

Review the indications/contraindications of Nitrous Oxide:

A
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47
Q

Review the indications/contraindications of administering Oxygen:

A
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48
Q

Discuss Steroids in regards to each of the following:

  • Hormone derived from _______.
  • How many aromatic rings are in the chemical structure of steroids?
A
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49
Q

Discuss Steroids in regards to each of the following:

  • Corticosteroids
  • Sex steroids
A
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50
Q

Discuss Cushing’s Syndrome in regards to each of the following:

  • Endogenous = ?
    • Primary shows an increase in what?
    • Secondary shows an increase in what?
    • Tertiary shows an increase in what?
A
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51
Q

Which of the following is associated with Tertiary Cushing’s Syndrome?

A. Elevated cortisol at adrenal cortex

B. Elevated ACTH at anterior pituitary

C. Elevated CRH at hypothalamus

A

C. Elevated CRH at hypothalamus

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52
Q

Which of the following is associated with Secondary Cushing’s Syndrome?

A. Elevated ACTH at anterior pituitary

B. Elevated cortisol at adrenal cortex

C. Elevated CRH at hypothalamus

A

A. Elevated ACTH at anterior pituitary

53
Q

Which of the following is associated with Primary Cushing’s Syndrome?

A. Elevated ACTH at anterior pituitary

B. Elevated cortisol at adrenal cortex

C. Elevated CRH at hypothalamus

A

B. Elevated cortisol at adrenal cortex

54
Q

Discuss Cushing’s Syndrome in regards to each of the following:

  • Exogenous = ?
    • If a patient has taken _____mg of exogenous cortisol for at least ____ weeks wishing the last ___ years, you should be suspicious for suppression of adrenal cortex function and possible crisis
A
55
Q

What are the 2 cardinal symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome?

A
56
Q

Review Addison’s Disease:

A
57
Q

Discuss Addisonian Crisis in regards to each of the following:

  • ______ are critically low.
  • Stress leads to hypotension, vomiting and possible lethal ________.
  • Activate EMS, monitor vital signs, start IV saline solution and give IV _________.

***BOARDS***

A
58
Q

Review the patient considerations for Adrenal Insufficiency:

A
59
Q

Discuss Bisphosphonates in regards to each of the following:

  • Prevent bone resorption by inducing ______ to undergo _____
    • Increases _____
    • Slows _____
    • Impairs ____ healing
    • May lead to _________
A
60
Q

What are the 4 main uses for Bisphosphonates?

A
61
Q

Discuss each of the following Bisphosphonate medications in regards to type, use and potency:

  • Etidronate
  • Tiludronate
A
62
Q

Discuss each of the following Bisphosphonate medications in regards to type, use and potency:

  • Clodronate
  • Pamidronate
A
63
Q

Discuss each of the following Bisphosphonate medications in regards to type, use and potency:

  • Alendronate
  • Risedronate
A
64
Q

Discuss each of the following Bisphosphonate medications in regards to type, use and potency:

  • Risedronate
  • Ibandronate
A
65
Q

Discuss each of the following Bisphosphonate medications in regards to type, use and potency:

  • Zolendronate
A
66
Q

Discuss Pharmacokinetics in regards to Bisphosphonates:

  • Oral has much lower bioavailability than IV
  • High binding affinity to ______, _______, and ______ in the intestinal tract.
  • Attracted to hydroxyapatite binding sites on bony surfaces undergoing active turn over.
  • Concentrates high in __________ bone than cortical bone
  • Half-life of this drug can vary from ____hours for ibandronate to _____ years for alendronate
A
67
Q

Discuss the Pharmacodynamics in regards to Bisphosphonates:

  • Synthetic analogue of ______ that has a high affinity for calcium
  • Reduces osteoclast ______ and ______.
  • ____________ increase potency of the drug by inhibiting farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase
  • Osteoblast activity and bone healing may decrease with chronic use
A
68
Q

Discuss Medication-Related Osteonecrosis of the Jaws (MRONJ) in regards to each of the following:

  • What Medications cause MRONJ = _________, ________ or bevacizumab
  • Osteonecrosis = _____ due to lack of blood supply (which is why EXT is contraindicated)
  • Mandible/Maxilla prevalence
  • Posterior/Anterior prevalence
A
69
Q

Discuss the Diagnosis of MRONJ:

A
70
Q

Review the patient considerations for MRONJ:

A
71
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A
72
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A
73
Q
A
74
Q

Which of the following contains a factor 8 deficiency, hematoma risk following IAN block in regards to clotting factor defects:

A. Von Willebrand disease

B. Hemophilia A

C. Hemophilia B

D. Hemophilia C

E. Vitamin K deficiency

***BOARDS***

A

B. Hemophilia A

75
Q

Which of the following contains a factor 11 deficiency in regards to clotting factor defects:

A. Von Willebrand disease

B. Hemophilia A

C. Hemophilia B

D. Hemophilia C

E. Vitamin K deficiency

***BOARDS***

A

D. Hemophilia C

76
Q

Which of the following contains a factor 9 deficiency in regards to clotting factor defects:

A. Von Willebrand disease

B. Hemophilia A

C. Hemophilia B

D. Hemophilia C

E. Vitamin K deficiency

***BOARDS***

A

C. Hemophilia B

Hemophilia A = factor 8 deficiency

Hemophilia B = factor 9 deficiency

Hemophilia C - factor 11 deficiency

77
Q

Which of the following contains a vWF deficiency in regards to clotting factor defects:

A. Von Willebrand disease

B. Hemophilia A

C. Hemophilia B

D. Hemophilia C

E. Vitamin K deficiency

***BOARDS***

A

A. Von Willebrand disease

78
Q

Vitamin K deficiency can lead to all of the following clotting factor deficiencies EXCEPT:

A. Clotting Factor II

B. Clotting Factor VII

C. Clotting Factor VIII

D. Clotting Factor IX

E. Clotting Factor X

***BOARDS***

A

C. Clotting Factor VIII

79
Q

What clotting factor is associated with Vitamin K deficiency?

***BOARDS***

A

Clotting factors 2, 7, 9, 10 = Vitamin K deficiency

80
Q

Which of the following anticoagulants directly bonds to thrombin (factor IIa)?

A. Warfarin (Coumadin)

B. Heparin

C. Apixaban (Eliquis)

D. Dabigatrin

A

D. Dabigatrin

81
Q

Which of the following anticoagulants blocks reduction recycling of vitamin K (blocking factors, II, VII, IX and X)?

A. Warfarin (Coumadin)

B. Heparin

C. Apixaban (Eliquis)

D. Dabigatrin

A

A. Warfarin (Coumadin)

82
Q

Which of the following anticoagulants inhibits factor Xa?

A. Warfarin (Coumadin)

B. Heparin

C. Apixaban (Eliquis)

D. Dabigatrin

A

C. Apixaban (Eliquis)

83
Q

Which of the following anticoagulants pulls thrombin and anti-thrombin together (blocking factor II)?

A. Warfarin (Coumadin)

B. Heparin

C. Apixaban (Eliquis)

D. Dabigatrin

A

B. Heparin

84
Q
A
85
Q
A
86
Q

What are the 3 oral manifestations of bleeding disorders?

A
87
Q

Need for increased amount of a substance to achieve the desired effect:

A. Substance abuse

B. Dependence

C. Tolerance

D. Withdrawal

A

C. Tolerance

88
Q

Recurrent use of a substance over the past 12 months with subsequent adverse consequences:

A. Substance abuse

B. Dependence

C. Tolerance

D. Withdrawal

A

A. Substance abuse

89
Q

Group of symptoms that emerge upon abstinence of a habitually used substance:

A. Substance abuse

B. Dependence

C. Tolerance

D. Withdrawal

A

D. Withdrawal

90
Q

Uncontrollable need for use of a substance despite adverse consequences:

A. Substance abuse

B. Dependence

C. Tolerance

D. Withdrawal

A

B. Dependence

91
Q
A
92
Q

Review Marijuana:

A
93
Q

Discuss Opiods in regards to each of the following:

  • Manufactured from ______ plant
  • Primary effects are _______, modest sedation and euphoria
  • Abuse can lead to pupil _____ and _______ depression
  • ________ is a reversal agent
  • Prescription drug monitoring program (PDMP) recommended and ________ number required to prescribe
A
94
Q

Review the Drug names and types of Opiods:

A
95
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96
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97
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111
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112
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118
Q

HIV is caused by an enveloped RNA retrovirus that infects cells with __________.

A. CD4 receptor

B. CD8 receptor

***BOARDS***

A

A. CD4 receptor

119
Q
A
120
Q

Review HIV in regards to each of the following:

  • Transmission
  • Staging
  • Diagnosis
A
121
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A
122
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A
123
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of Hypothyroidism?

A. Lingual thyroid

B. Macroglossia

C. Accelerated tooth eruption

D. Sialoliths

***BOARDS***

A

B. Macroglossia

Hyperthyroidism: lingual thyroid, accelerated tooth eruption, sialoliths (propylthiouracil)

124
Q

Which of the following “tones” DOWN blood calcium levels?

A. PTH

B. Calcitonin

A

B. Calcitonin

125
Q

How can you remember the symptoms of Hyperparathyroidism?

A

Stones, Bones, Groans and Moans

126
Q

Which of the following cancers has the highest chance to metastize to the thyroid?

A. Breast cancer

B. Kidney cancer

C. Prostate cancer

D. Colorectal cancer

A

B. Kidney cancer

127
Q

What does MEN2B stand for and what are the 3 things associated with it?

A

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2 (MEN2B)

  • Multiple neuromas
  • Medullary thyroid carcinoma
  • Pheochromocytoma of adrenal gland

note: Pheochromocytoma is a tumor that secretes hormones

128
Q

What medications are absolutely contraindicated in pregnant women?

***BOARDS***

A
  • Aspirin
  • NSAIDs (in 3rd trimester)
  • Tetracycline or doxycycline
  • BENZOS ARE BAD (diazepam, lorazepam etc.)

note: just prescribe pregnant ppl tylenol

INBDE (18 decks)

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