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INBDE > Periodontics > Flashcards

Periodontics Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 components of the Periodontium?

***BOARDS***

A

Alveolar bone, PDL, Cementum and Gingiva

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2
Q

______ is generally considered the initiating factor in periodontal disease.

***BOARDS***

A

Microbial plaque

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3
Q

Discuss Periodontal Disease in regards to each of the following:

  • What is the initiating factor in periodontal disease? ***BOARDS***
  • Periodontal health = ?
  • Gingivitis = ?
  • Periodontitis = ?
A
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4
Q

What is the Pathogenesis in regards to Periodontal Disease? (3)

A
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5
Q

Occlusal wear from functioning contacts with opposing teeth is referred to as:

A. Erosion

B. Abrasion

C. Attrition

D. Abfraction

E. Hypersensitivity

***BOARDS 4 SURE***

A

C. Attrition

Attrition = tooth-tooth

Abrasion = tooth-crown

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6
Q

Loss of tooth structure by mechanical wear is referred to as:

A. Erosion

B. Abrasion

C. Attrition

D. Abfraction

E. Hypersensitivity

***BOARDS 4 SURE***

A

B. Abrasion

Attrition = tooth-tooth

Abrasion = crown-tooth

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7
Q

Which of the following is a result of exposure of dentinal tubules in root surfaces?

A. Erosion

B. Abrasion

C. Attrition

D. Abfraction

E. Hypersensitivity

***BOARDS 4 SURE***

A

E. Hypersensitivity

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8
Q

Which of the following is caused by acidic foods/beverages or gastric acid?

A. Erosion

B. Abrasion

C. Attrition

D. Abfraction

E. Hypersensitivity

***BOARDS 4 SURE***

A

A. Erosion

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9
Q

Loss of tooth structure in cervical areas due to tooth flexure is referred to as:

A. Erosion

B. Abrasion

C. Attrition

D. Abfraction

E. Hypersensitivity

***BOARDS 4 SURE***

A

D. Abfraction

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10
Q

Which of the following is measured from CEJ to the base of the pocket?

A. Probing pocket depth (PPD)

B. Clinical attachment loss (CAL)

C. Bleeding on probing (BOP)

A

B. Clinical attachment loss (CAL)

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11
Q

Which of the following is measured from the gingival margin to the base of the pocket?

A. Probing pocket depth (PPD)

B. Clinical attachment loss (CAL)

C. Bleeding on probing (BOP)

A

A. Probing pocket depth (PPD)

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12
Q

Which of the following is the best measure of inflammation in periodontal tissue?

A. Probing pocket depth (PPD)

B. Clinical attachment loss (CAL)

C. Bleeding on probing (BOP)

A

C. Bleeding on probing (BOP)

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13
Q

If the Probing Pocket Depth (PPD) is 4mm and there is 2mm of recession, what is the clinical attachment loss?

If the Probing Pocket Depth (PPD) is 6mm and there is 0mm of recession, what is the clinical attachment loss?

If the Probing Pocket Depth (PPD) is 9mm and there is there 3mm of gingiva above the CEJ, what is the clinical attachment loss?

A
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14
Q

Discuss Periodontal Exam in regards to each of the following:

  • Gingival recession = ?
  • Alveolar bone loss = ?
  • Suppuration = ?
  • Mobility = ?
  • Furcation = ?
A
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15
Q

Review the Oral Exam slide in regards to each of the following:

  • Home care = ?
  • Inflammation = ?
  • Destruction of periodontal tissues = ?
A
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16
Q

What does the Miller Classification classify?

A

Mobility

Miller = Mobility

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17
Q

Which of the following Miller classifications would be given if there is moderately more than normal mobility (1mm or less)?

A. Class 0

B. Class 1

C. Class 2

D. Class 3

A

C. Class 2

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18
Q

A tooth with a mobility greater than 1mm and can be vertically depressed in socket is which of the following Miller Classifications?

A. Class 0

B. Class 1

C. Class 2

D. Class 3

A

D. Class 3

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19
Q

Discuss Furcation in regards to each of the following:

  • Furcation = ?
  • Furcation involvement = ?
  • What are the 4 factors that can predispose a tooth to Furcation involvement?
A
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20
Q

What does Hamp Classification determine the level of?

A

Furcation

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21
Q

What instrument is used to measure Furcation?

A

Nabers probe

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22
Q

Which of the following Hamp classifications is associated with horizontal Furcation involvement (less than 3mm)?

A. Class 0

B. Class 1

C. Class 2

D. Class 3

A

B. Class 1

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23
Q

Which of the following Hamp classifications is associated with horizontal Furcation involvement > 3mm (greater than 3mm)?

A. Class 0

B. Class 1

C. Class 2

D. Class 3

A

C. Class 2

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24
Q

Which of the following Hamp classifications is associated with through-and-through Furcation involvement?

A. Class 0

B. Class 1

C. Class 2

D. Class 3

A

D. Class 3

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25
Q

What does the Glickman Classification tell you?

A

Furcation

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26
Q

Pocket formation into the FLUTE (incipient) falls under the Glickman Classification of ______.

A. Class 1

B. Class 2

C. Class 3

D. Class 4

A

A. Class 1

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27
Q

Pocket formation into the FURCA (cul-de-sack) falls under the Glickman Classification of ______.

A. Class 1

B. Class 2

C. Class 3

D. Class 4

A

B. Class 2

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28
Q

A through-and-through Furcation lesion falls under the Glickman Classification of ______.

A. Class 1

B. Class 2

C. Class 3

D. Class 4

A

C. Class 3

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29
Q

A through-and-through Furcation lesion that you can see through falls under the Glickman Classification of ______.

A. Class 1

B. Class 2

C. Class 3

D. Class 4

A

D. Class 4

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30
Q

Discuss Alveolar Bone Loss in regards to each of the following:

  • The normal distance from the CEJ to alveolar crest is how many mm?
  • Crest should be _____ to the line connecting CEJs of adjacent teeth.
  • Horizontal bone loss = ?
  • Vertical or angular bone loss = ?
A
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31
Q

A 3 wall infrabony defect is known as which of the following?

A. Hemiseptal

B. Crater

C. Trough

D. Circumferential

***BOARDS***

A

C. Trough

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32
Q

A 1 wall infrabony defect is known as which of the following?

A. Hemiseptal

B. Crater

C. Trough

D. Circumferential

***BOARDS***

A

A. Hemiseptal

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33
Q

A 4 wall infrabony defect is known as which of the following?

A. Hemiseptal

B. Crater

C. Trough

D. Circumferential

***BOARDS***

A

D. Circumferential

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34
Q

Which of the following is the most common infrabony defect?

A. Hemiseptal

B. Crater

C. Trough

D. Circumferential

***BOARDS***

A

B. Crater (2 wall defect)

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35
Q

Which of the following is known as a Trough?

A. 1 wall infrabony defect

B. 2 wall infrabony defect

C. 3 wall infrabony defect

D. 4 wall infrabony defect

***BOARDS***

A

C. 3 wall infrabony defect

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36
Q

Which of the following is known as a Crater?

A. 1 wall infrabony defect

B. 2 wall infrabony defect

C. 3 wall infrabony defect

D. 4 wall infrabony defect

***BOARDS***

A

B. 2 wall infrabony defect

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37
Q

Which of the following Miller Classifications (recession) is described as interdental bone or soft tissue loss or tooth malpositioning that is so severe that root coverage is not anticipated?

A. Class 1

B. Class 2

C. Class 3

D. Class 4

A

D. Class 4

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38
Q

Which of the following Miller Classifications (recession) is described as marginal tissue recession not extending to the mucogingival junction?

A. Class 1

B. Class 2

C. Class 3

D. Class 4

A

A. Class 1

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39
Q

Which of the following Miller Classifications (recession) is described as marginal tissue recession extending to or beyond the mucogingival junction w/ no bone or soft tissue loss?

A. Class 1

B. Class 2

C. Class 3

D. Class 4

A

B. Class 2

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40
Q

Which of the following Miller Classifications (recession) is described as marginal tissue recession extending to or beyond the mucogingival junction w/ bone or soft tissue loss that prevents total root coverage?

A. Class 1

B. Class 2

C. Class 3

D. Class 4

A

C. Class 3

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41
Q

What are the 3 C’s of Gingivitis?

A
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42
Q

Discuss Plaque-Induced Gingival Disease in regards to each of the following:

  • Most common
  • Result of interaction between ________ and _______.
  • What are the 3 things that can modify it?
A
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43
Q

Discuss Plaque-Induced Gingival Disease in regards to each of the following:

  • Modified by systemic factors
    • what are the 2 systemic factors?
  • Modified by what 3 medications? ***BOARDS***
  • Modified by what type of deficiency?
A
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44
Q

What are the 4 medications that have effects on the gingiva?

“CDC”

A
  • Calcium channel blockers, Dilantin and cyclosporine can induce gingival enlargement
  • Oral contraceptives
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45
Q

Discuss Non-Plaque-Induced Gingival Disease in regards to each of the following:

  • What are the 4 things that causes non-plaque-induced gingival disease?
  • ______ = non-hemorrhagic and firm ***KNOW***
A
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46
Q

Non-plaque-induced gingival disease is caused by all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Malnutrition

B. Infections

C. Trauma

D. Allergy

E. Hereditary gingival fibromatosis

A

A. Malnutrition

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47
Q

Discuss Periodontal Disease Severity in regards to CAL:

  • Slight = ____mm CAL
  • Moderate = ______mm CAL
  • Severe = _____mmCAL
A
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48
Q

Discuss Periodontal Disease Distribution in regards to each of the following:

  • Localized = ?
  • Generalized = ?
A
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49
Q

Discuss the Type of Periodontal disease in regards to each of the following:

  • Chronic periodontitis
    • Microbial deposits _____ with extent of destruction
  • Aggressive periodontitis
    • Microbial deposits _____ with extent of destruction
A
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50
Q

Discuss Necrotizing (ANUG, ANUP) in regards to Periodontal Disease:

  • What are the 4 symptoms of Necrotizing periodontitis ?
  • What are the 3 predisposing factors?
A
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51
Q

Review Periodontal Disease in regards to each of the following:

  • Distribution
  • Severity
  • Type
  • Disease
A
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52
Q

Discuss the composition of Dental Plaque in regards to each of the following:

  • Supragingival plaque = (aerobic or anaerobic?)
    • Tooth = (gram + or gram -?)
    • Outer surface of plaque = (gram + or gram -?)
  • Subgingival = (aerobic or anaerobic?)
    • Tooth = (gram + or gram -?)
    • Epithelium = (gram + or gram -?)
A
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53
Q

Discuss the Composition of Dental Plaque in regards to each of the following:

  • Organic constitutes = (4)?
  • Inorganic constitutes = (4)?
  • Supragingival components derive from _____.
  • Subgingival components derive from ______.
A
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54
Q

Discuss the FIRST step in dental plaque formation:

  • _____ formation
  • How quickly does this occur?
  • What does it consist of?
A
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55
Q

Discuss the SECOND step in dental plaque formation:

  • What occurs in the 2nd step?
    • how fast does this occur?
    • Initial adhesion is due to ________.
    • Firm attachment is due to _______.
A
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56
Q

Discuss the THIRD step of dental plaque formation:

  • What occurs in the 3rd step?
    • How fast does this occur?
    • Firmly attached primary colonizers provide new receptors fo r attachment of other bacteria in a process called ______.
    • As bacteria grow and the biofilm matures, there is a shift from _______ to _______.
A
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57
Q

Discuss the Phases of Specific Bacteria in the formation of dental plaque:

  • Make sure to pay attention to the slide on the other side of this notecard.
A
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58
Q

Discuss Biofilm in regards to each of the following:

  • ______ run though the plaque mass permitting the passage of nutrients.
  • _______ refers to communication among bacteria in biofilm to encourage growth of beneficial species and discourage growth of competing species.
  • Biofilm bacteria are _________ than planktonic or free-swimming bacteria.
A
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59
Q

_______ refers to communication among bacteria in biofilm to encourage growth of beneficial species and discourage growth of competing species.

A

Quorum sensing

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60
Q

Review the different Microbial Complexes of dental plaque:

A
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61
Q

Which of the following is associated with BOP and deeper pockets?

A. Red complex

B. Orange complex

A

A. Red complex

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62
Q

All of the following are associated with the Red Complex EXCEPT:

A. P. gingivalis

B. T. denticola

C. Fusobacterium

D. T. forsythia

***GAURENTEED BOARDS Q***

A

C. Fusobacterium

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63
Q

What are the 3 bacteria associated with the Red Complex?

***GAURENTEED BOARDS Q***

A

P. gingivalis, T. Denticola and T. forsythia

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64
Q

All of the following are associated with the Orange Complex EXCEPT:

A. P. intermedia

B. P. gingivalis

C. Fusobacterium

D. Campyobacter rectus

***GAURENTEED BOARDS Q***

A

B. P. gingivalis

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65
Q

What are the 3 bacteria associated with the Organge Complex?

***GAURENTEED BOARDS***

A

Fusobacteria, P. intermedia, and Campylobacter rectus

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66
Q

Discuss the Plaque Hypothesis in regards to each of the following:

  • Non-specific = ?
  • Specific = ?
  • Ecological = ?
A
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67
Q

Which of the following is associated with Pregnancy gingivitis?

A. P. Gingivalis

B. A. Actinomycetemcomitans

C. T. Denticola

D. T. Forsythia

E. P. Intermedia

***BOARDS***

A

E. P. Intermedia

A. actinomycetemcomitans = Aggressive periodontitis

P. gingivalis = Chronic periodontitis

T. denticola = ANUG/ANUP

P. intermedia = Pregnancy gingivitis

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68
Q

Which of the following is associated with ANUG/ANUP?

A. P. Gingivalis

B. A. Actinomycetemcomitans

C. T. Denticola

D. T. Forsythia

E. P. Intermedia

***BOARDS***

A

C. T. Denticola

A. actinomycetemcomitans = Aggressive periodontitis

P. gingivalis = Chronic periodontitis

T. denticola = ANUG/ANUP

P. intermedia = Pregnancy gingivitis

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69
Q

Which of the following is associated with Agressive periodontitis?

A. P. Gingivalis

B. A. Actinomycetemcomitans

C. T. Denticola

D. T. Forsythia

E. P. Intermedia

***BOARDS***

A

B. A. Actinomycetemcomitans

A. actinomycetemcomitans = Aggressive periodontitis

P. gingivalis = Chronic periodontitis

T. denticola = ANUG/ANUP

P. intermedia = Pregnancy gingivitis

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70
Q

Which of the following is associated with Chronic periodontitis?

A. P. Gingivalis

B. A. Actinomycetemcomitans

C. T. Denticola

D. T. Forsythia

E. P. Intermedia

***BOARDS***

A

A. P. Gingivalis

A. actinomycetemcomitans = Aggressive periodontitis

P. gingivalis = Chronic periodontitis

T. denticola = ANUG/ANUP

P. intermedia = Pregnancy gingivitis

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71
Q

Which of the following bacteria contains protease that cleaves immunoglobulins and complement factors?

A. P. Gingivalis

B. A. Actinomycetemcomitans

C. T. Denticola

D. T. Forsythia

E. P. Intermedia

***BOARDS***

A

D. T. Forsythia

A. actinomycetemcomitans = Aggressive periodontitis

P. gingivalis = Chronic periodontitis

T. denticola = ANUG/ANUP

P. intermedia = Pregnancy gingivitis

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72
Q

Which of the following is a motile, gram-negative rod with polar flagellum?

A. C. rectus

B. F. nucleatum

C. P. intermedia

D. T. forsythia

A

A. C. rectus

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73
Q

Which of the following bacteria is a non motile, gram-negative rod that induces apoptosis of leukocytes and release of tissue-damaging substances from leukocytes?

A. C. rectus

B. F. nucleatum

C. P. intermedia

D. T. forsythia

A

B. F. nucleatum

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74
Q

Which of the following bacteria is associated with implants?

A. Actinmyces

B. S. mutans

C. S. salivarius

D. Pseudomonas and Staph

A

D. Pseudomonas and Staph

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75
Q

Which of the following bacteria is associated with coronal caries?

A. Actinmyces

B. S. mutans

C. S. salivarius

D. Pseudomonas and Staph

A

B. S. mutans

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76
Q

Which of the following bacteria is associated with healthy gingiva and root caries?

A. Actinmyces

B. S. mutans

C. S. salivarius

D. Pseudomonas and Staph

A

A. Actinmyces

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77
Q

Which of the following bacteria is the most common oral bacteria and resides on the tongue?

A. Actinmyces

B. S. mutans

C. S. salivarius

D. Pseudomonas and Staph

A

C. S. salivarius

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78
Q

Discuss Calculus in regards to each of the following:

  • What is calculus?
  • Precipitation of mineral salts into plaque usually occurs within _____ days.
  • Although calculus does not serve as a mechanical irritant to gingival tissues, it is always covered with a layer of _______ which serves as the primary irritant.
  • Supragingival calculus = ?
  • Subgingival calculus = ?
  • How can calculus be detected?
A
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79
Q

Discuss Materia Alba in regards to each of the following:

  • What is it?
  • Easily displaced with _____.
A
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80
Q

A brown extrinsic stain may indicate which of the following?

A. Usually on anterior teeth, poor OH

B. Drinking dark colored beverages, poor OH

C. Tobacco

D. CHX and stannous fluoride

E. Thin lines on cervical third, found in healthy mouths, consumption of iron

***BOARDS***

A

B. Drinking dark colored beverages, poor OH

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81
Q

A dark brown and black extrinsic stain may indicate which of the following?

A. Usually on anterior teeth, poor OH

B. Drinking dark colored beverages, poor OH

C. Tobacco

D. CHX and stannous fluoride

E. Thin lines on cervical third, found in healthy mouths, consumption of iron

***BOARDS***

A

C. Tobacco

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82
Q

A orange extrinsic stain may indicate which of the following?

A. Usually on anterior teeth, poor OH

B. Drinking dark colored beverages, poor OH

C. Tobacco

D. CHX and stannous fluoride

E. Thin lines on cervical third, found in healthy mouths, consumption of iron

***BOARDS***

A

A. Usually on anterior teeth, poor OH

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83
Q

A black extrinsic stain may indicate which of the following?

A. Usually on anterior teeth, poor OH

B. Drinking dark colored beverages, poor OH

C. Tobacco

D. CHX and stannous fluoride

E. Thin lines on cervical third, found in healthy mouths, consumption of iron

***BOARDS***

A

E. Thin lines on cervical third, found in healthy mouths, consumption of iron

84
Q

A Yellow-brown extrinsic stain may indicate which of the following?

A. Usually on anterior teeth, poor OH

B. Drinking dark colored beverages, poor OH

C. Tobacco

D. CHX and stannous fluoride

E. Thin lines on cervical third, found in healthy mouths, consumption of iron

***BOARDS***

A

D. CHX and stannous fluoride

85
Q

A Green and yellow extrinsic stain may indicate which of the following?

A. Occupational exposure of metallic dust

B. Chromogenic bacteria and poor OH

C. Tobacco

D. CHX and stannous fluoride

E. Thin lines on cervical third, found in healthy mouths, consumption of iron

***BOARDS***

A

B. Chromogenic bacteria and poor OH

86
Q

A Bluish-green extrinsic stain may indicate which of the following?

A. Occupational exposure of metallic dust

B. Chromogenic bacteria and poor OH

C. Tobacco

D. CHX and stannous fluoride

E. Thin lines on cervical third, found in healthy mouths, consumption of iron

***BOARDS***

A

A. Occupational exposure of metallic dust

87
Q

Discuss Malocclusion in regards to each of the following:

  • _____ can contribute to plaque retentive areas
  • Prominent roots and teeth associated w/ high frena often experience gingival _____.
  • Mesial drift or extrusion associated with missing teeth can lead to food impact ion and _______ retention.
A
88
Q

Discuss faulty restoration in regards to each of the following:

  • Overhangs, open margins, rough surfaces, open contacts can all create an environment conucive to _______ retention.
  • Overcontoured restorations are _____ for gingival health than undercontoured restorations. ***BOARDS***
A
89
Q

Subgingival margins, even when not faulty, are associated with _______, gingival inflammation and deeper pockets.

A
90
Q

Discuss Appliances in regards to gingival health:

  • RPDs may result in increased mobility of abutment teeth and increased ________.
  • Orthodontic therapy has also been shown to increase ______ and can create excessive forces on the periodontium
  • Periodontal health must be established before initiating _______ therapy.
  • Oral jewelry can also result in _____, _____ and ______.
A
91
Q

Discuss Self-Inflicted Injury in regards to each of the following:

  • Aggressive horizontal brushing can cause ______ and ______.
  • Improper use of toothpicks and fingernail bitting can damage _______.
A
92
Q

Review Neutrophils in regards to periodontal health:

  • ____ line of defense.
  • Defective neutrophil chemotaxis leads to _______.
A
93
Q

Which of the following is associated with IgE?

A. Neutrophils

B. Eosinophils

C. Macrophages

D. Mast cells

E. Lymphocytes

***BOARDS***

A

D. Mast cells

94
Q

Which of the following are Antigen-presenting cells that regulate immune response via cytokine release (like IL-8)?

A. Neutrophils

B. Eosinophils

C. Macrophages

D. Mast cells

E. Lymphocytes

A

C. Macrophages

95
Q

Discuss Lymphocytes in regards to each of the following:

  • B cells become ________ and make _____.
  • T helper cells (CD4) help in _____.
  • T cytotoxic cells (CD8) kill _____.
  • NK cells are T cells that can recognize and kill _____ and _____ cells.
A
96
Q

Which of the following pro inflammatory mediators is responsible for collagen destruction?

A. IL-1

B. IL-6

C. PGE2

D. TNFa

E. MMPs

A

E. MMPs

MMPs = matrix metallic proteinase

97
Q

All of the following are Anti-inflammatory Mediators EXCEPT:

A. IL-6

B. IL-4

C. IL-10

D. TIMPs

E. All of the above are Anti-inflammatory mediators

A

A. IL-6

98
Q

List all 3 of the Anti-inflammatory Mediators:

A

IL-4, IL-10 and TIMPs

99
Q

Which of the following Proinflammatory Mediators is associated with bone resorption?

A. IL-1

B. IL-6

C. PGE2

D. TNFa

E. MMPs

A

A. IL-1

100
Q

Discuss each of the following Stages in regards to Pathogenesis of Gingivitis:

  • Stage 1 = ?
  • Stage 2 = ?
  • Stage 3 = ?
  • Stage 4 = ?
A
101
Q

Discuss Short term and long term goals in regards to periodontal disease:

A
102
Q

Discuss the Preliminary Phase (0) of periodontal disease:

A
103
Q

Discuss the non-surgical phase of periodontal disease:

  • _____ control and _____.
  • Periodontal re-evaluation = should occur how long after completing of phase 1? ***BOARDS***
A
104
Q

Discuss the Surgical phase of periodontal disease:

  • Reduce or eliminate ______, correct ______, regenerate ______ or place ______.
A
105
Q

Discuss the Restorative Phase in regards to periodontal disease:

A
106
Q

Which of the following should occur 4-8 weeks after SRPs?

A. Perio maintenance

B. Perio re-evaluation

***BOARDS***

A

B. Perio re-evaluation

107
Q

Which of the following should occur 3 months after SRPs?

A. Perio maintenance

B. Perio re-evaluation

***BOARDS***

A

A. Perio maintenance

108
Q

Discuss each of the following phases in regards to periodontal disease:

  • (0) Preliminary phase = ?
  • (1) Non-surgical phase = ?
  • (2) Surgical phase = ?
  • (3) Restorative phase = ?
  • (4) Maintenance Phase = ?
A
109
Q

Unchangeable background characteristics, increases likelihood of disease (gender, genetics):

A. Risk factor

B. Risk determinant

C. Risk indicator

D. Risk marker or predictor

***BOARDS***

A

B. Risk determinant

110
Q

Quantitative association with disease (previous history, attachment level):

A. Risk factor

B. Risk determinant

C. Risk indicator

D. Risk marker or predictor

***BOARDS***

A

D. Risk marker or predictor

111
Q

Not causally associated with the disease (stress, osteoporosis may influence periodontal disease):

A. Risk factor

B. Risk determinant

C. Risk indicator

D. Risk marker or predictor

***BOARDS***

A

C. Risk indicator

112
Q

Causally associated with the disease (smoking leads to periodontal disease):

A. Risk factor

B. Risk determinant

C. Risk indicator

D. Risk marker or predictor

***BOARDS***

A

A. Risk factor

113
Q

All of the following are Risk Factors for periodontal disease EXCEPT:

A. Smoking

B. Diabetes

C. Osteoporosis

D. Pathogenic bacteria

E. Microbial tooth deposits

A

C. Osteoporosis

114
Q

All of the following are Risk Determinants for periodontal disease EXCEPT:

A. Genetics

B. Stress

C. Age

D. Gender

E. Socioeconomic status

A

B. Stress

115
Q

All of the following are Risk Indicators for periodontal disease EXCEPT:

A. HIV/AIDS

B. Osteoporosis

C. Infrequent dental visits

D. Smoking

E. Stress

A

D. Smoking

116
Q

All of the following are Risk Markers for periodontal disease EXCEPT:

A. Previous history of periodontal disease

B. Microbial tooth deposits

C. CAL

D. BOP

E. All of the above are Risk Markers for periodontal disease

A

B. Microbial tooth deposits

117
Q

What is a prognosis?

A
118
Q

Review each of the following regarding periodontal disease:

  • Prognosis
  • Clincial factors
  • Systemic factors
  • Local factors
  • Anatomic factors
  • Prosthetic and Restorative factors
A
119
Q

_____ is the most important factor in determining the prognosis of periodontal disease.

***PROBABLY ONLY Q YOULL GET ON PROGNOSIS FOR BOARDS***

A

CAL

120
Q

Discuss scaling and root planing:

A
121
Q

Which of the following is used on Tenacious Calculus?

A. Sickle Scalers

B. Cutettes

C. Ultrasonic Scalers

A

C. Ultrasonic Scalers

122
Q

Which of the following is used on for Subgingival calculus?

A. Sickle Scalers

B. Cutettes

C. Ultrasonic Scalers

A

B. Cutettes

123
Q

Which of the following is used on for Supragingival calculus?

A. Sickle Scalers

B. Cutettes

C. Ultrasonic Scalers

A

A. Sickle Scalers

124
Q

Which of the following Curettes is used on anterior teeth only?

A. Gracey 1-2 and 3-4

B. Gracey 5-6

C. Gracey 7-8 and 9-10

D. Gracey 11-12

E. Gracey 13-14

***BOARDS***

A

A. Gracey 1-2 and 3-4

125
Q

Which of the following Curettes is used on Posterior Mesial surfaces?

A. Gracey 1-2 and 3-4

B. Gracey 5-6

C. Gracey 7-8 and 9-10

D. Gracey 11-12

E. Gracey 13-14

***BOARDS***

A

D. Gracey 11-12

126
Q

Which of the following Curettes is used on Posterior teeth Distal surfaces?

A. Gracey 1-2 and 3-4

B. Gracey 5-6

C. Gracey 7-8 and 9-10

D. Gracey 11-12

E. Gracey 13-14

***BOARDS***

A

E. Gracey 13-14

127
Q

Which of the following Curettes is used on anteriors and premolars?

A. Gracey 1-2 and 3-4

B. Gracey 5-6

C. Gracey 7-8 and 9-10

D. Gracey 11-12

E. Gracey 13-14

***BOARDS***

A

B. Gracey 5-6

128
Q

Which of the following Curettes is used on Posteriors, facial and lingual?

A. Gracey 1-2 and 3-4

B. Gracey 5-6

C. Gracey 7-8 and 9-10

D. Gracey 11-12

E. Gracey 13-14

***BOARDS***

A

C. Gracey 7-8 and 9-10

129
Q

Which of the following has two cutting edges and is Semicircle in cross section?

A. Sickle Scalers

B. Universal curettes

C. Gracey curettes

A

B. Universal curettes

130
Q

Which of the following has two cutting edges and is Triangle in cross section?

A. Sickle Scalers

B. Universal curettes

C. Gracey curettes

A

A. Sickle Scalers

131
Q

Which of the following has one cutting edges and is semicircle in cross section?

A. Sickle Scalers

B. Universal curettes

C. Gracey curettes

A

C. Gracey curettes

132
Q

Which of the following ultrasonic scalers vibrate in an elliptical pattern (rounded)?

A. Magnetostictive ultrasonic

B. Piezoelectric ultrasonic

A

A. Magnetostictive ultrasonic

133
Q

Which of the following ultrasonic scalers vibrate in a linear pattern?

A. Magnetostictive ultrasonic

B. Piezoelectric ultrasonic

A

A. Magnetostictive ultrasonic

134
Q

Which of the following strokes should be used when Scaling?

A. Light feeling stroke used with probes and explorers

B. Short, strong pull stroke to remove hard deposits

C. Light to moderate pull stroke used for final smoothing

D. Light intermittent strokes with tip parallel to the tooth surface and in constant motion

***BOARDS***

A

B. Short, strong pull stroke to remove hard deposits

135
Q

When using an ultrasonic you should be using which of the following strokes?

A. Light feeling stroke used with probes and explorers

B. Short, strong pull stroke to remove hard deposits

C. Light to moderate pull stroke used for final smoothing

D. Light intermittent strokes with tip parallel to the tooth surface and in constant motion

***BOARDS***

A

D. Light intermittent strokes with tip parallel to the tooth surface and in constant motion

136
Q

When root planing you want to _____

A. Light feeling stroke used with probes and explorers

B. Short, strong pull stroke to remove hard deposits

C. Light to moderate pull stroke used for final smoothing

D. Light intermittent strokes with tip parallel to the tooth surface and in constant motion

***BOARDS***

A

C. Light to moderate pull stroke used for final smoothing

137
Q

When doing Exploratory strokes you should ______.

A. Light feeling stroke

B. Short, strong pull stroke to remove hard deposits

C. Light to moderate pull stroke used for final smoothing

D. Light intermittent strokes with tip parallel to the tooth surface and in constant motion

***BOARDS***

A

A. Light feeling stroke used with probes and explorers

138
Q

Discuss each of the following:

  • Prophy cup and brush
  • Prophy jet
A
139
Q

Discuss Flap Design in regards to each of the following:

  • ____wide/narrow____ base to ensure adequate blood supply.
  • Incision ______, not over bony defects or eminences.
  • _____ corners.
  • Vertical releases at _____.
  • Avoid _____ structures.
  • Post-operative plaque control is the _______ after periodontal surgery.

***BOARDS***

A
140
Q

Which of the following involves the gingiva/mucosa, submucosa, and periosteum?

A. Split or partial thickness flap

B. Full thickness flap

A

B. Full thickness flap

141
Q

Which of the following is used for mucogingicval surgery?

A. Split or partial thickness flap

B. Full thickness flap

A

A. Split or partial thickness flap

142
Q

Which of the following is used for Osseous surgery and periodontal regeneration to permit primary closure as well as in apically repositioned flaps?

A. Split or partial thickness flap

B. Full thickness flap

A

B. Full thickness flap

143
Q

Whenever alveolar bone is exposed like in full thickness flaps, expect about ____ of bone resorption and remodeling.

A. 1mm

B. 2mm

C. 3mm

D. 4mm

A

A. 1mm

144
Q

Discuss Papilla preservation flap in regards to each of the following:

  • Conventional flap = ?
  • Papilla preservation flap = ?
A
145
Q

Which of the following is described as though base of pocket to alveolar crest in regards to full thickness flaps?

A. Internal or reverse bevel

B. Sulcular or crevicular incision

C. Interdental or interproximal incision

A

B. Sulcular or crevicular incision

146
Q

Which of the following is described as about 1mm from the gingival margin, removes pocket lining yet conserves outer gingiva in regards to full thickness flaps?

A. Internal or reverse bevel

B. Sulcular or crevicular incision

C. Interdental or interproximal incision

A

A. Internal or reverse bevel

147
Q

Which of the following is described as removes the collar of tissue around the tooth you created with the first two incision in regards to full thickness flaps?

A. Internal or reverse bevel

B. Sulcular or crevicular incision

C. Interdental or interproximal incision

A

C. Interdental or interproximal incision

148
Q

Discuss Full Thickness Flaps in regards to each of the following:

  • What are the 3 horizontal incisions?
  • Internal or reverse bevel = ?
  • Sulcular or crevicular incision = ?
  • Interdental or interproximal incision = ?
  • Modified Widman flap = ?
  • Apically repositioned flap = ?
A
149
Q

Discuss Periodontal Pack in regards to each of the following:

  • Usually consists of _____.
  • Leave in place for ____ week(s).
  • Why are packs placed?
  • Packs do ____ enhance healing ***BOARDS***
A
150
Q

Discuss Gingival Surgery in regards to each of the following:

  • Gingivectomy = ?
  • Gingivoplasty = ?
A
151
Q

Discuss Distal Wedge gingival surgery in regards to each of the following:

  • What is Distal Wedge gingival surgery?
  • Maxillary = ?
  • Mandiular = ?

***BOARDS***

A
152
Q

Which of the following mucogingival surgeries is done for root coverage?

A. Free gingival graft

B. Connective tissue graft

C. Fenectomy

D. Frenotomy

E. Vestibuloplasty

***BOARDS 4 SURE***

A

B. Connective tissue graft

153
Q

Which of the following mucogingival surgeries is done to widen band of keratinized tissue?

A. Free gingival graft

B. Connective tissue graft

C. Fenectomy

D. Frenotomy

E. Vestibuloplasty

***BOARDS 4 SURE***

A

A. Free gingival graft

154
Q

Discuss Free Gingival Graft in regards to each of the following:

  • Minimum width?
  • Attached gingiva helps _____.
  • Ideal thickness of graft is _____mm
  • A “free” graft by definition is transplanted without a nourishing blood supply so it must undergo ____________.
A
155
Q

Discuss Connective Tissue Graft in regards to each of the following:

  • Harvest the inner connective tissue only and not the ______.
  • Donor sites should always have enough _______.
  • ____ is the most common donor site for both FGG and CTG.
A
156
Q

Discuss Osseous Surgery in regards to each of the following:

  • Visualization of bony architecture allows clinician to determine ________.
  • Positive architecture = ?
  • Flat architecture = ?
  • Negative architecture = ?
A
157
Q

Discuss Osseous Surgery in regards to each of the following:

  • Ostectomy = ?
  • Osteotomy = ?
  • After ostectomy, peaks of bone often remain at the line angles called ______ which predispose to periodontal pockets in these areas.
A
158
Q

Discuss Clinical Crown Lengthening:

A

Clinical Crown lengthening is a form of ostectomy that is done to gain ferrul. Gingivectomy is done to accomplish clinical crown lengthening.

159
Q

Discuss the Mechanisms of Healing after surgery in regards to each of the following:

  • Regeneration = ?
  • Repair = ?
  • Reattachment = ?
  • New attachment = ?
A
160
Q

Which of the following is defined as not completely restoring architecture and function, involving healing by scar or formation of long JE?

A. Regeneration

B. Repair

C. Reattachment

D. New attachment

A

B. Repair

161
Q

Which of the following is defined as the reunion of epithelial and connective tissue with root surface after incision or injury?

A. Regeneration

B. Repair

C. Reattachment

D. New attachment

A

C. Reattachment

162
Q

Which of the following is defined as completely restoring architecture and function?

A. Regeneration

B. Repair

C. Reattachment

D. New attachment

A

A. Regeneration

163
Q

Which of the following is defined as embedding of new PDL fibers into new cementum that has been previously deprived of its original attachment?

A. Regeneration

B. Repair

C. Reattachment

D. New attachment

A

D. New attachment

164
Q

Discuss Periodontal Regeneration in regards to each of the following:

  • Guided Tissue Regeneration (GTR) = regenerates what 3 things?
  • Barrier membrane?
  • Bone graft?
  • Biologic agent?
  • 3 B’s?
A
165
Q

Discuss Wound Healing in regards to each of the following:

  • These cells populate a wound area during the healing process from fastest to slowest:
    • Epithelial cells
    • CT cells
    • PDL cells
    • Bone cells
A
166
Q

Discuss Root Surface Treatment:

  • Chelating agents like _____ and ______ can expose the collagen fibrils through demineralization and may improve new attachment.
A
167
Q

Which of the following bone grafts is form another human, usually a cadaver?

A. Autograft

B. Allograft

C. Xenograft

D. Alloplast

A

B. Allograft

168
Q

Which of the following bone grafts is synthetic or inorganic?

A. Autograft

B. Allograft

C. Xenograft

D. Alloplast

A

D. Alloplast

169
Q

Which of the following bone grafts is from yourself?

A. Autograft

B. Allograft

C. Xenograft

D. Alloplast

A

A. Autograft

170
Q

Which of the following bone grafts is from another animal, usually a cow?

A. Autograft

B. Allograft

C. Xenograft

D. Alloplast

A

C. Xenograft

171
Q

Which of the following convert neighboring progenitor cells into osteoblast?

A. Osteoconductive

B. Osteoinductive

C. Osteogenic

A

B. Osteoinductive

172
Q

Which of the following make bone?

A. Osteoconductive

B. Osteoinductive

C. Osteogenic

A

C. Osteogenic

173
Q

Which of the following is a scaffold?

A. Osteoconductive

B. Osteoinductive

C. Osteogenic

A

A. Osteoconductive

174
Q

Which of the following is considered the best because it has all three (osteoconductive, osteoinductive and osteogenic)?

A. Autograft

B. Allograft

C. Xenograft

D. Alloplast

A

A. Autograft

175
Q

Review Additive and Subtractive periodontal surgeries:

A
176
Q

Which of the following is regeneration indicated?

A. 1 and 2 wall defects

B. 3 and 4 wall defects

C. Hamp class II

D. Miller class I

A

B. 3 and 4 wall defects

177
Q

Which of the following is resection indicated?

A. 1 and 2 wall defects

B. 3 and 4 wall defects

C. Hamp class II

D. Miller class I

A

A. 1 and 2 wall defects

178
Q

Which of the following is ideal for regenerating infrabony defects?

A. 1 and 2 wall defects

B. 3 and 4 wall defects

C. Hamp class II

D. Miller class I

E. Deep narrow 3-wall

A

E. Deep narrow 3-wall

179
Q

Which of the following is ideal for regenerating Furcation defects?

A. 1 and 2 wall defects

B. 3 and 4 wall defects

C. Hamp class II

D. Miller class I

E. Deep narrow 3-wall

A

C. Hamp class II

180
Q

Which of the following is ideal for regenerating recession defects?

A. Miller class 3

B. Miller class 2

C. Hamp class II

D. Miller class I

E. Deep narrow 3-wall

A

D. Miller class I

181
Q

Discuss antibiotics in regards to Periodontitis:

  • Antibiotics aim to decrease _______ in the periodontal pocket.
  • Should only be used as an adjunct to _______ during phase 1.
  • Only use antibiotics for _______ and _______ periodontitis.
  • What two types of antibiotics should not be given at the same time?
A
182
Q

Which antibiotic concentrate in GCF?

A

Tetracyclines

183
Q

What is the most effective perio tx in regards to antibiotics?

A

Amoxicillin (500mg TID) + Metronidazole (250mg TID) for 14 days

  • Duration is more important than dose - the longer the better
  • Avoid alcohol w/ MTZ
184
Q

Discuss Local Delivery Antibiotics (LDA) in regards to each of the following:

  • When are LDAs indicated?
  • What are the 3 LDAs?
A
185
Q

Which of the following Local Antibiotics in the brand name for Chlorhexidine gluconate?

A. Arrestin

B. Atridox

C. PerioChip

***BOARDS***

A

C. PerioChip

186
Q

Which of the following Local Antibiotics in the brand name for Minocycline?

A. Arrestin

B. Atridox

C. PerioChip

***BOARDS***

A

A. Arrestin

187
Q

Which of the following Local Antibiotics in the brand name for Doxycycline?

A. Arrestin

B. Atridox

C. PerioChip

***BOARDS***

A

B. Atridox

Arrestin = Minoclycline

Atridox = Doxycycline

PerioChip = Chlorhexidine gluconate

188
Q

Discuss Host Modulation Therapy in regards to Periodontitis:

  • Host modulation therapy aims to ________ of the host immune response
  • Should only be used as an adjunct to ______ during phase 1.
  • _______ Periodontits
  • What drugs are in this category?
A
189
Q

Which of the following Host Modulation Therapies inhibit osteoclasts?

A. NSAIDs

B. Bisphosphonates

C. Subantimicrobial Dose Doxycycline (SSD)

D. Emdogain

E. PDGF

A

B. Bisphosphonates

190
Q

Which of the following Host Modulation Therapies inhibits MMPs (collagenases)?

A. NSAIDs

B. Bisphosphonates

C. Subantimicrobial Dose Doxycycline (SSD)

D. Emdogain

E. PDGF

A

C. Subantimicrobial Dose Doxycycline (SSD)

191
Q

Which of the following Host Modulation Therapies inhibit prostaglandins?

A. NSAIDs

B. Bisphosphonates

C. Subantimicrobial Dose Doxycycline (SSD)

D. Emdogain

E. PDGF

A

A. NSAIDs

192
Q

Discuss Locally Administered Host-Modifying Agents in regards to each of the following:

  • What do these surgical adjuncts do?
  • Emdogain = ?
  • PDGF = ?
A
193
Q

Discuss Occlusal Correction in regards to periodontal disease:

  • Sometimes the root of the problem is _______.
  • Traumatic occlusion = ?
A
194
Q

Which of the following is caused by normal occlusal forces on a Reduced Periodontium?

A. Primary occlusal trauma

B. Secondary occlusal trauma

C. Fremitus

D. All of the above

A

B. Secondary occlusal trauma

195
Q

Which of the following is caused by normal occlusal forces on a Normal Periodontium?

A. Primary occlusal trauma

B. Secondary occlusal trauma

C. Fremitus

D. All of the above

A

A. Primary occlusal trauma

196
Q

________ is the vibration of teeth upon closing.

A

Fremitus

197
Q

Discuss Occlusal Therapy in regards to periodontitis:

  • Occlusal therapy should be delayed until after ______ is resolved.
  • Occlusal adjustment (coronoplasty) = ?
  • Interocclusal appliance (bite guard) = ?
A
198
Q

Discuss Splinting in regards to periodontitis:

  • Improving patient comfort and function by ______.
  • Not indicated for ______ or ______ unless it bothers the patient.
A
199
Q

Discuss Furcation Correction in regards to periodontitis:

  • Sometimes a furcation involvement makes _________ near impossible
  • Furcation Plasty = ?
  • Tunneling = ?
  • Root Amputation/ Root Resection = ?
  • Hemisection/Premolarization = ?
A
200
Q

Discuss Toothbrushing in regards to each of the following:

  • Bass method = ?
  • _______ brushes do not tend to traumatize gingival tissues
  • How often do you need to replace your tooth brush?
A
201
Q

Sulcular brushing where bristles are placed at gingival margin at a 45 degree angle to the tooth, the bristles extend about 0.5mm subgingivally to effectively disrupt plaque buildup in the cervical area. This method of toothbrushing is referred to as ______.

A

Bass method

202
Q

Discuss Flossing in regards to each of the following:

  • Curve floss into a _____shape against the side of the tooth
  • Rub the floss gently up and down along the side of each tooth
  • Dont forget to floss _______.
A
203
Q

Waterpiks are designed to flush out gross food debris and ________ on the gingiva, NOT ______ on the tooth surface.

A
204
Q

Periodontits (chronic) is most prevalent in which of the following?

A. Hispanic females

B. African males

C. Hispanic males

D. Asian males

E. African females

***GAURENTEED BOARD Q***

A

B. African males

205
Q

Discuss each of the following in regards to periodontitis:

  • Perio Re-evaluation should be how long after phase 1 non-surgical therapy?
  • Perio Maintenance should be every ______ for the first year.
A

INBDE (18 decks)

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