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DELANO Flashcards

1
Q

Where is Bence Jones protein found?

A

Multiple myeloma in Urine

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2
Q

Where are mu receptors for Opiods found?

A

Brain stem

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3
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors (prils)?

A

Inhibits conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

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4
Q

What muscle protrudes the tongue?

A

Genioglossus

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5
Q

What is the ADA SCDI in charge of?

A

About Dental informatics (assists the dental profession, develops informatics standards and technical reports to assist the dental profession with hardware and software selection.

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6
Q

What is considered the values for Diabetes in regards to each of the following:

  • Fasting glucose level
  • HbA1C
  • Glucose Tolerance Test
A

Fasting glucose level 126 or higher

HbA1C 6.5 or higher

Glucose tolerance test (GTT) 200 or higher

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7
Q

Hyperparathyroidism (Brown Tumor) looks like what?

A

CGCG

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8
Q

What does White Sponge Nevus look like? (White plaque that cannot be wiped)

A

Lichen Planus (wikham striae)

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9
Q

Discuss Cleft Palate in regards to each of the following:

  • Develops in how many weeks in utero?
  • Lack of fusion between ________.
  • What skeletal classification does cleft palate tend to be?
A

Cleft Palate:

  • 6-8 weeks in utero
  • palatal shelves
  • Class III skeletal

Note: Cleft lip = 4-6 weeks in utero

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10
Q

What are the 4 defects of Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  1. Pulmonary valve stenosis (narrowing of the valve)
  2. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD) [hole between bottom heart chambers)
  3. Shifting of the body’s main artery (shifting of the aorta to the right)
  4. Right Ventricular Hypertrophy
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11
Q

Supine hypotensive crisis: may occur during late pregnancy due to compression of vena cava. Need to lean patient to the left to relieve vena cava

A

Place pregnant bitch in Left Lateral Decubitus position NOT Trendelenburg

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12
Q

Differentials of stafne bone cyst:

A

OKC, traumatic bone cyst, residual cyst,

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13
Q

High Mandibular plane angle would present as what?

A

Anterior open bite

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14
Q

Review Angles Classification:

A
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15
Q

Review Antibiotic prophylaxis w/ dose and times:

A
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16
Q

Humira MOA:

A

Treats immunosuppression for RA. Tx crohn’s disease, RA ect.. (MOA: TNF blocker, reduces inflammation) Humira (Adalimumab) = antirheumatic drug

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17
Q

Muscles that attach to mandible:

● Mandibular body:
○ External (lateral) surface – mentalis, buccinator, platysma, depressor labii inferioris, depressor anguli oris.
○ Internal (medial) surface – genioglossus, geniohyoid, mylohyoid and digastric.
● Mandibular rami – masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid and lateral pterygoid

A

○ External (lateral) surface – mentalis, buccinator, platysma, depressor labii inferioris, depressor anguli oris.

○ Internal (medial) surface – genioglossus, geniohyoid, mylohyoid and digastric.

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18
Q

What muscles elevate the tongue?

A

Palatoglossus = elevates back part of tongue

Mylohyoid = elevates hyoid and tongue

Geniohyoid = elevates hyoid and tongue during swallowing

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19
Q

Parasymphyseal fracture:

A

Symphyseal/parasymphyseal fracture was defined as fracture line in mandibular bone between the canine teeth.

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20
Q

Treatment of tmj dysfunction syndrome:

A

bite splint, heat compress, diet, exercise, icing, NSAIDs

(NEVER OCCLUSAL ADJUSTMENTS)

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21
Q

Force on denture compared to natural teeth:

A

Natural teeth each tooth individually affected. Denture teeth they all take force together. Dentures only use 1⁄4- the strength teeth can use

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22
Q

What does Sickle Cell look like radiographically?

A

STEP LADDER

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23
Q

Omeprazole MOA:

A

proton pump inhibitor. It inhibits the parietal cell H+ / K+ ATP pump, the final step of acid production. In turn, omeprazole suppresses gastric basal and stimulated acid secretion

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24
Q

Nitroglycerin MOA:

A

prevents angina, dilates coronary arteries , nitrate - conversion to nitric oxide - vasodilation of the coronary vessels

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25
Q

Sildenafil:

A

Sildenafil: enhances the effect of nitric oxide (NO) by inhibiting phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5), which is responsible for degradation of cGMP in the corpus cavernosum (same effects as nitroglycerin- not good to take together. Too much vasodilation)

Do NOT take Sildenafil and Nitroglycerine together

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26
Q

What CN’s are associated w/ dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)?

A

CN 7, 9, 10, 12

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27
Q

Signs of Parkinson diagnosis:

A

Signs of Parkinson dx (akinesia, bradykinesia (slow movement), tremor, vision loss, rigid muscles

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28
Q

How is Impetigo transmitted?

A

Touching

highly contagious skin infection that mainly affects infants and young children.

Appearance: reddish sore on face (nose, mouth, hands and feet)

note: sores can burst and develop honey colored crust

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29
Q

Is Herpetic Whitlow more common among dentists

A

Most common in dental hygienist and resp.
Therapist

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30
Q

Normal value of HbA1C in diabetes =?

A

less than 7

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31
Q

Achondroplasia:

A

Achondroplasia: disorder of bone growth that prevents the changing of cartilage (particularly in the long bones of the arms and legs) to bone. It is characterized by dwarfism, limited range of motion at the elbows, large head size (macrocephaly), small fingers, and normal intelligence.

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32
Q

Government agency ensuring equal distribution of health personnel:

A

health and human services (HHSA)

HRSA: healthcare for uninsured and dental for HIV+ (Ryan White)

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33
Q

Bulimia- which wouldn’t you prescribe?

A

APF - acidulated phosphate fluoride - separate question -
erosion of lingual max ant

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34
Q

Sedation and eating before procedure: (how long do you need to fast before sedation?)

A

6-8 hours

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35
Q

When should the first dental visit be for a child?

A

Upon first tooth eruption < 1yr old

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36
Q

Sertraline (SSRI) side effects:

A

nausea. Diarrhea. Constipation. Vomiting. difficulty falling asleep
or staying asleep. dry mouth xerostomia. Heartburn. loss of appetite

MOA = selectective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

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37
Q

Management of autism kid patient:

A

desensitization and sameness, voice control and compliment
parents, distraction

Sameness: tendency to do or think about the same things over and over

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38
Q

Problem in managing down syndrome patients:

A

they have macroglossia, delayed/missing teeth,
malocclusion, periodontitis, NO HIGH CARIES RISK, BUT HIGH PERIODONTAL RISK

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39
Q

Drug diversion:

A

Is a medical and legal concept involving the transfer of any legally prescribed controlled substance from the individual for whom it was prescribed to another person for any illicit use

Giving someone a drug that was prescribed to me

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40
Q

Emancipated minors and informed consent (my question was who are considered emancipated)

A

MMPP (married, military, parent or pregnant)

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41
Q

Adult Mesenchymal stem cell derivative:

A

(eg. bone,cartilage,muscles,fat cells, skeletal system) NOT mucosal tissue

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42
Q

Rate of extrusion of maxillary central:

A

50g force (4mm)

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43
Q

Disinfection of alginate -

A

Rinse with water, spray, rinse

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44
Q

Signs of cavernous sinus thrombosis:

A

Has a lot to do with the eyes

fever, pain and swelling but also with specific findings such
as proptosis, chemosis, periorbital swelling, and cranial nerve palsies.

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45
Q

Antibiotics and analgesics safe in liver cirrhosis patient:

A

NOT Tylenol, NOT tetracycline,

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46
Q

How to prevent candidiasis in asthma patients using inhaler:

A

rinse out mouth with water/brush teeth
after using inhaler. Also using a spacer to decrease the inhaler touching the oral cavity.

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47
Q

Factors influencing retention of post:

A

length, rigidity, antirotational features, ferrule. (active posts engage into dentin: more retentive but more fractures)

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48
Q

Corticoid (side effects):

A

Fluid retention, Swelling in legs, High blood pressure, upset stomach, weight gain, osteoporosis, increased risk of infections, high blood sugar, suppressed adrenal gland, immunosuppression, redistribution of fat (G.O. H.A.I.R.)

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49
Q

What medication is used for Benzodiazepines reversal?

A

Flumazenil

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50
Q

What malignancy is associated with Paget’s Disease?

A

Osteosarcoma

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51
Q

Dry socket treatment:

A

Control the pain with a dressing material (e.g., Alvogyl(eugenol)TM paste,
DRESSOL-XTM).

● Irrigate the site with chlorhexidine or saline.

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52
Q

Function of IgA in Saliva?

A

neutralizing toxins and removing pathogenic microorganisms (antibacterial)

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53
Q

Which microorganisms survive the longest on surfaces:

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

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54
Q

Granuloma vs periapical cyst:

A

Granuloma has no epithelial lining <2mm,

Periapical cyst: epithelial lining, >2mm.

Both look the same radiographically (mine was a question about histology,
squamous epithelial lining = periapical cyst)

Whereas a periapical granuloma comrprises inflamed granulation tissue, a periapical cyst represents an epithelium-lined cavity with an inflamed fibrovascular connective tissue wall.

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55
Q

What do you clean alginate with after taking an impression?

A

Discide

Discide ingredients: ammonium chloride and isoproply alcohol

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56
Q

Who regulates dental equipment?

A

FDA

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57
Q

predominant microorganisms in failed root canal:

A

Enterococcus Faecalis

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58
Q

Discuss Pierre Robin Sequence:

A
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59
Q

Do you need antibiotic prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis?

A

NO

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60
Q

What is the reversal drug for Opiods?

A

Naloxone

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61
Q

What is there a risk of when doing internal bleaching for a patient?

A. Internal resorption

B. External resorption

A

B. External resorption

Internal bleaching causes external resorption in 10%
of cases.

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62
Q

What medications can cause Orthostatic Hypotension:

A

diuretics, alpha blockers (prazosin, doxazosin) for prostatic hypertrophy, antihypertensive drugs, and calcium channel blockers

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63
Q

What anesthetic lasts the longest?

A

Bupivicaine HCL

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64
Q

What is the max Epi for an adult?

A

0.2mg

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65
Q

Why is Blue Nevus blue?

A

Tyndall effect

Tyndall effect, in which shorter wavelengths of incident light are scattered by the dermal melanocytes

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66
Q

cavernous sinus infection:

A

septic blood clot in cavernous sinuses due to an infections

Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a blood clot in the cavernous sinuses. It can be life-threatening. The cavernous sinuses are hollow spaces located under the brain, behind each eye socket. A major blood vessel called the jugular vein carries blood through the cavernous sinuses away from the brain.

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67
Q

histological findings of macroglossia? (3)

A

Vascular malformations, muscular enlargement, and tumors

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68
Q

What 2 pathologies are associated with a positive Nikolsky sign?

A

Pemphigus Vulgaris or Erythema Multiforme (stevens johnson)

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69
Q

What is the critical pH in which deminerization occurs?

  • Enamel:
  • Fluoroapetite:
  • Dentin:
A

Enamel teeth demineralize.5.5; Fluorapatite is 4.5; Dentin: 6.5

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70
Q

What is the pH of the oral cavity normally?

A

6.7-7.3

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71
Q
  1. PH after drinking soda: had a question about how long the acid lasts?
A

below 5.5. ~ 4-4.7,

30-40min

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72
Q

denosumab and bisphosphonates:

A

treat osteoporosis , RANKL inhibitors

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73
Q

case with precision or semi precision attachment in removable partial denture ???

A

They are indicated for a patient w/ high esthetic demands

Precision is more accurate and milled from alloy

Semi-precision are more resilient, both are more esthetic than the
traditional clasps.

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74
Q

Patient with multiple myeloma, what blood test to get:

A

CBC (complete blood test),

What you’ll find in a CBC of a pt w/ multiple myeloma: beta 2 microglobin (elevated in cancers involving bone marrow), M-spike (cancer makes the M-spike proteins).
Bence jones in urine.

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75
Q

Ketoacidosis in diabetic patients:

A

Ketoacidosis- DM1 body breaks down fat for energy, ketosis, metabolic acidosis, hyperglycemia

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76
Q

Type I vs Type 2 diabetes:

A

Type 1: immune system is attacking and destroying the insulin-producing cells in your pancreas. (that’s why you need insulin)

Type 2: (insulin resistance) you make insulin but receptors can’t respond to it.

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77
Q

Clammy and sweating pt is diabetic and scared of needle after LA;

A

unconscious give IM(dextrose) [pt is having hypoglycemic attack]

If they are conscious give glucose tab or orange Joosh

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78
Q

What is most effective on a patient undergoing Cardiac arrest?

A. Chest compressions

B. AED

A

B. AED

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79
Q

Apical abscess in pregnant pt severe pain 3 rd trimester:

  • A. begin pulpectomy
  • B. give sedative
  • C. filling
  • D. delay tx after pregnancy
A

A. begin pulpectomy

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80
Q

. Implant distance from inferior alveolar nerve:

A. 1.5mm

B. 2mm

C. 3mm

D. 5mm

A

B. 2mm

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81
Q

Hypoglycemia in type 1 diabetic symptoms and complications:

A

Sweaty, dizzy, pale, disoriented, rapid heart rate, confusion

Hypoglycemic = TIRED

  • Tachycardia
  • Irritability
  • Restless
  • Excessive hunger
  • Diaphoresis (sweaty)
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82
Q

Interventional study?

A

GOOGLE

Purpose

Interventional studies are often prospective and are specifically tailored to evaluate direct impacts of treatment or preventive measures on disease. Each study design has specific outcome measures that rely on the type and quality of data utilized.

Interventional study (clinical trial) A type of clinical study in which participants are assigned to groups that receive one or more intervention/treatment (or no intervention) so that researchers can evaluate the effects of the interventions on biomedical or health-related outcomes.

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83
Q

Primordial cyst?

A

Cyst formed where a tooth should have been from the
enamel organ, common third molar area

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84
Q

Least likely complication of la injection:

A. trismus

B. infection

C. hematoma

D. ecchymosis

A

D. ecchymosis

  • infection IS a complication of injection.
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85
Q

Gow gates technique: (what nerves does this technique anesthetize?)

A

inferior alveolar and its terminal branches (incisive and mental), lingual, mylohyoid, auriculotemporal, and the buccal nerve 75% of the time

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86
Q

What is the main nerve for TMJ innervation:

A

Auriculotemporal (branch of V3)

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87
Q

What is the radiopacity at the midline of the maxilla?

A

ANS (Anterior Nasal Spine)

Rhinolith is the calcification in the nasal cavity. The question wasn’t asking about the Rhinolith… It stated at Midline of maxilla

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88
Q

What’s the order of removing PPE?

A

gloves, eye protection, gown, mask. None of the other answer choices start w/ gloves so just remember gloves first.

Gloves –> Goggles –> Gown –> Mask

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89
Q

Deficiency of _____ is associated w/ cleft palate.

A

Vitamin B & Folic acid

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90
Q

Function of clopidogrel(Plavix)/aspirin?

A

(blocks platelet aggregation) (enhances effect)

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91
Q

MOA of statin drugs?

A

decreases amount of cholesterol made by liver

inhibition of HMG-CoA (hydroxymethylglutaryl-coenzyme A) reductase, the rate-limiting enzyme in the cholesterol biosynthesis pathway

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92
Q

What HbA1c should be for dental treatment:

A

below 7

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93
Q

Which of the following is associated with a NON-Vital tooth?

A. Condensing Osteitis

B. Osteosclerosis

A

A. Condensing Osteitis

  • Osteosclerosis: unknown cause, 90% in MD, mostly 1st molar region; radiopaque with NO radiolucent rim, uniform, apex of VITAL tooth (most common) or inter-radicular
  • Condensing Osteitis: teeth with inflamm/pulpal necrosis, mostly MD premolar-molar region, well defined + no border/rim, often NONVITAL or infected tooth, widened PDL
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94
Q

What p (stats) measures:

A

probability that two variables are unrelated (P.05 accept the null hypothesis -> not significant)

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95
Q

Which of the following is a False Positive (FP)?

A. Type 1 error

B. Type 2 error

A

A. Type 1 error

Type 1 error = FP

Type 2 error = FN

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96
Q

Primary stress bearing site for maxillary denture?

A

Palate, Alveolar ridge

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97
Q

Fentanyl is ______ times more potent than morphine

A

Fentanyl is 100x more potent than morphine

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98
Q

A ground glass radiographic presentation is associated with ______.

A

Fibrous Dysplasia

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99
Q

What is the main cause of ankylosis in primary teeth?

A

Trauma

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100
Q

What are the contraindications for a Hawley Retainer?

A
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101
Q

Which teeth are most likely to have additional canals/ only one canal?

A

Mx central/lateral/canine= 1 canal always

Mx 1st PM: most have 2 canals instead of one

Mx 2nd pm: most have 1 canal but can have 2

Md incisors/canine: most have 1 but can have 2

Md 1st PM: most have 1 canal but can have 2

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102
Q

Guided tissue regeneration best for what type of defect?

A

3 and 4 wall boney defects

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103
Q

Which 1⁄3 is most likely to be under reduced for a veneer prep?

A

Not sure answer but incisal third is the guess

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104
Q

How long do you etch enamel and dentin?

A

Dentin = 15 seconds (20 seconds max)

Enamel = 20-30 seconds

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105
Q

What are mesenchymal cells and what do they give rise to?

A

Undifferentiated cells that give rise to blood vessels, lymph vessels, bone and muscle

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106
Q

What are the acronyms to remember each of the following:

  • Hypoglycemia
  • Hyperglycemia
A

Hypoglycemia = TIRED

Hyperglycemia = SINFUL

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107
Q

What content causes Myeloneuropathy in denture adhesive?

A

Excess ZINC

Pts who use excess denture adhesive are at risk for over ingestion of Zinc.

Myeloneuropathy is caused by Copper deficiency

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108
Q

What type of test is done to detect Bence Jones protein?

A

Urinalysis

Bence Jones protein = Multiple Myeloma

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109
Q

What is Adalimumab (Humira) used to tx and what’s it’s MOA:

A

Rheumatoid Arthitis (and other autoimmune inflammatory disorders like Crohns)

neutralization of TNF-alpha bioactivity and the induction of apoptosis of TNF-expressing mononuclear cells.

A drug commonly used to treat rheumatoid arthritis (RA), adalimumab (also known as Humira), has long been thought to exert its anti-inflammatory effects through specific binding to Tumor Necrosis Factor-α (TNF α), preventing it from interacting with TNF receptors.

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110
Q

Structures coming from infraorbital foramen:

A

V2 (maxillary), infraorbital vein/artery

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111
Q

(T/F)

High BMI is linked to higher prevalence of cancer.

A

True

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112
Q

Discuss Fetal Alcohol Syndrome:

A
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113
Q

Factors that can affect contrast of an x-ray:

A

Kvp and FIltration

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114
Q

Vertical angulation of PID (x-ray tube) can lead to what on x-ray:

A

Elongation (vertical angulation to small)

Foreshortening (vertical angulation to large)

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115
Q

What causes “reverse smile line” on pano:

A

chin too high

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116
Q

Butterfly rash over bridge of nose is characteristic of:

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

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117
Q

Review Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia (PCOD):

A

Presents in middle aged African women in the mandibular anteriors:

  • VITAL teeth
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118
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia presentation:

A

almost always unilateral, brief sharp pain, trigger zones

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119
Q

What characterizes pain stimulated by A-delta fibers:

A

Sharp, transient first pain

120
Q

Submandibular gland wraps around posterior edge of what muscle?

121
Q

Why would a mucocele appear blue:

A

Blue color is due to vascular congestion, cyanosis of the tissue
above, and accumulation of fluid below.

122
Q

Cause of geographic tongue:

A

unknown cause, no treatment.

Saw a bootcamp question that stress and allergy can trigger it?

Mayo Clinic: may be a link between geographic tongue and psoriasis and between geographic tongue and lichen planus

Google: The cause of geographic tongue is unknown. Several factors have been proposed as possible causes such as emotional stress, psychological factors, habits, allergies, diabetes and hormonal disturbances. However, none of these factors have been conclusively linked to geographic tongue.

123
Q

What can happen if defects introduced at certain stages of tooth development (initiation, cap, bell, etc):

124
Q

Cavernous sinus infection can lead to what:

A

Eye problems

decreased drainage from the facial vein and superior and inferior ophthalmic veins resulting in facial and periorbital edema, ptosis, proptosis, chemosis, discomfort and pain with eye muscle movement, papilledema, retinal venous distention, and loss of vision. 3,4,5,6 cranial nerves and facial artery

Structures that pass through Cavernous Sinus: CN 3, 4, V1, V2, 6

125
Q

MOA of topical fluoride:

A

forms fluorapatite from Ca2+ and PO4 (fluoride replaces hydroxide)

126
Q

What is “proximate cause” in court of law is:

A

proximate cause is an event sufficiently related to an injury that the courts deem the event to be the cause of that injury

127
Q

What could be the cause if you get the crown back from the lab and it does not seat all the way:

A

possible contacts are too tight, intaglio surface is too tight, intaglio surface cast had voids - NOT a
reason it’s not seating is “not enough occlusal clearance”

128
Q

How long do you need to cure composite according to shade:

A

darker the shade longer the cure time

Order of lightest to darkest: A1 (lightest) > A2 > A3 (darkest shade)

note: the lower the number the more bright (1>2)

129
Q

Which cranial nerves give sensory to tongue?

A

Sensory = 5, 9, 10

130
Q

Which muscle do most patients experience pain with when they have TMJ pain:

131
Q

If you stain a crown, what color properties do you change?

132
Q

Which FPD is contraindicated for anterior:

A. Ovate

B. Modified ridge lap

C. Hygienic

A

C. Hygienic (also contraindicated for post mx)

Anterior = modified ridge lap and Ovate (requires surgery but most esthetic)

Posterior = Hygienic (post mand) and Conical (molars)

133
Q

What can be a consequence of non-vital bleaching:

A

cervical root resorption

134
Q

Endo/perio dx and their respective signs/symptoms:

A

lateral percussion to know if it’s perio.
Always endo first

135
Q

A J -shaped lesion like the one below indicates ______.

A

Vertical root fracture

136
Q

How is Mumps transmitted?

A

Respiratory

Mumps is a viral infection that affects salivary glands below and infront of ear… usually parotid gland

137
Q

Erythema multiforme lesions and what they look like?

A

Targetoid (bulls-eye) lesions

138
Q

An unproductive cough can be due to what medication?

A

ACE inhibitor

What would you do if they have an unproductive cough? Switch to -sartan (ARB)

139
Q

Movement for extruding Maxillary incisor in mm/time?

A

1mm/week with 50g of force

140
Q

What cell type is affected in HIV?

A

CD4 T cells

141
Q

Beta Blockers MOA:

A

Slows heart rate and also Vasodilation

Beta blockers block Epi = slows heart rate

Beta blockers also cause Vasodilation

142
Q

The facial vein drains into ______.

A

Internal jugular vein

143
Q

Why did this endo fail? (Silver points were used) :

A

Silver points corrode when in contact with blood and interstitial fluid and cannot be condensed like Gutta purcha so it doesn’t seal that great and could cause microleakage

144
Q

Agenesis is associated with which of the following?

A. Hypodontia

B. Oligodontia

A

B. Oligodontia

Hypodontia < 6 teeth missin

Oligodontia = 6 or more teeth missing

145
Q

Age when tetracycline is the worst:

A

When the fetus is 14 weeks in utero (maturation stage)

AND

Do not give children 8yrs and younger

146
Q

What penicillin can you give a patient with Liver Cirrhosis?

A

Penicillin VK

147
Q

Recycled amalgam is picked up by what agency?

A

EPA (environmental protection agency)

148
Q

Broken condyle, which direction does it go?

A

anterior (toward affected side)

149
Q

This study shows that women taking __________ are at increased risk for dry socket and postoperative pain after extraction of a third molar.

A

Oral contraceptives

150
Q

What is the longest acting NSAID?

A. Ibuprophen

B. Aspirin

C. Naproxen

D. Diclofenac

A

C. Naproxen

“Long Nap”

151
Q

Best way to diff between endo vs perio?

A

lateral percussion

152
Q

All these nerves are associated with sensory of tongue except :

A. CN V

B. CN IX

C. CN X

D. CN XII

A

D. CN XII

CN VII also does NOT provide sensory

153
Q

All of the following provide taste to the tongue EXCEPT:

A. CN V

B. CN VII

C. CN IX

D. CN X

A

A. CN V

CN VII = taste ant 2/3

CN IX = taste post 1/3

CN X = taste base of tongue

154
Q

What muscle depresses the tongue?

A. Palatoglossus

B. Hyoglossus

C. Styloglossus

D. Genioglossus

A

B. Hyoglossus

Hyoglossus = depresses tongue (CN XII)

Palatoglossus = elevates tongue (CN X)

Syloglossus = retracts tongue (CN XII)

Genioglossus = protrudes tongue (CN XII)

155
Q

Best sedation for nervous patient?

A

Up to 10 mg diazepam 1 hour before the appointment (if NO2
not an option)

156
Q

A patient presents with low T3 T4 but high TSH what would you suspect?

A

Cretinism (Myxedematous) = kids

Hashimotos = adults

157
Q

What nerve goes through the image below?

A

Mental nerve

158
Q

Which one is not mesoderm?

A. Mucous membrane

B. Skeletal muscle

C. Cartilage

D. Bone

A

A. Mucous membrane

Mesoderm = cartilage (looked it up on google)

160
Q

What’s good about varnish?

A

Substantivity (dental plaque)

161
Q

Least likely to have 2 canals?

A. Maxillary lateral incisor

B. Mandibular lateral incisor

A

A. Maxillary lateral incisor

162
Q

Pregant woman in dental chair isn’t felling good, what could be the cause?

A

Supine hypotensive syndrome

163
Q

(T/F)

Smokers bleed more than regular people.

A

False

Smokers bleed less

164
Q

Know what a lingual plate and lingual bar look like:

165
Q

Supernumerary vs transposition. Pay attention if they give you a question on this.

A

Transposition is two teeth switching positions in a dental
arch. Example: canine switches places with lateral incisor.

166
Q

Which organization works on getting health care providers out to limited access areas?

A

NHSC

National Health Service Corps (Luis Guzman)

167
Q

What does not help osseointegration?

A. IL-1

B. IL-4

C. IL-10

D. TIMPs

168
Q

How many chest compressions a min when giving CPR to an adult?

169
Q

What are the 6 side effects of Steroids?

170
Q

What are the side effects of Amphetamines?

171
Q

What are the arrows pointing to in the radiograph below?

172
Q

What color does CHX stain teeth?

173
Q

What type of drug is Plavix (clopidogrel) and what’s the MOA?

A

Antiplatelet: competes w/ ADP

Google: Clopidogrel is an inhibitor of platelet activation and aggregation through the irreversible binding of its active metabolite to the P2Y12 class of ADP receptors on platelets.

174
Q

What type of medications are these and what are there MOAs?

  • Coumadin
  • Heparin
  • Eliquis
  • Dabigatrin
175
Q

What does clotting factor 5 do?

A

Factor V (FV) is a procoagulant molecule that interacts with other clotting proteins including activated factor X and PT to increase the production of thrombin, the key hemostatic enzyme that converts soluble fibrinogen to a fibrin clot

176
Q

What is the MOA for each of the following: (both have same MOA)

  • Eliquis (Apixaban)
  • Xarelto (Rivaroxaban)
A

Inhibits Factor Xa

177
Q

What is the MOA of Heparin?

A

Blocks Factor II and X

  • Pulls thrombin and antithrombin together (blocking factor II)
  • Know Heparin MOA: Heparin binds to antithrombin III and accelerates inhibition of factor Xa.
179
Q

Review the Kennedy classifications in regards to RPDs.

181
Q

What does the Chorda Tympani innervate?

A

Taste on Anterior 2/3 of tongue (CNVII)

182
Q

What is the radiographic appearance of Fibrous Dysplasia and what syndrome is associated with it?

A

Ground glass; McCune Albright Syndrome

183
Q

Photo of either pyogenic granuloma vs lateral gingival cyst: know the difference

Lateral periodontal cyst is at the bottom of this notecard (Pyogenic Granuloma is on the other side of the notecard)

184
Q

What is the difference between each of the following in regards to location and type of tissue:

  • HSV
  • Aphthous ulcers
A

HSV = keratinized tissue = lips, tongue, attached gingiva, palate

Aphthous ulcers = NON-keratinized tissue

185
Q

Medical emergency sequence MI, what do you do after you administer 3rd nitroglycerin (tricky because they didn’t mention anything about oxygen)

A. Oxygen

B. Aspirin

C. Call 911

A

B. Aspirin

186
Q

Review alcohol interaction with different drugs:

187
Q

Inferential Statistics:

A

Inferential statistics use measurements from the sample of subjects in the experiment to compare the treatment groups and make generalizations about the larger population of subjects.

188
Q

The lingual vein drains into _______.

A

Internal Jugular Vein

Note: Internal Jugular Vein drains majority of the face

189
Q

HSV-1 clinical signs:

A

lesions on keratinized surfaces, fever blister, prodromal stage

Fever blister = Cold sore

The Prodromal Stage: This is the phase where herpes symptoms start showing, indicating the onset of an infection.

190
Q

What is the MOA of Antipsychotics?

A

D2 and 5HT (serotonin) blocker

191
Q

What is the protocol/precautions for an HIV pt?

A

standard precautions (Basically none)

193
Q

Maximum amount of Epi for:

  • Normal patient:
  • Cardiac patient:
A

Normal pt = 0.2

Cardiac pt = 0.04

194
Q

Discuss Reserpine:

A

sympatholytic, Depletes NE storage to tx hypertension

This agent binds and inhibits catecholamine pump on the storage vesicles in central and peripheral adrenergic neurons, thereby inhibiting the uptake of norepinephrine, dopamine serotonin into presynaptic storage vesicles. This results in catecholamines and serotonin lingering in the cytoplasm where they are destroyed by intraneuronal monoamine oxidase, thereby causing the depletion of catecholamine and serotonin stores in central and peripheral nerve terminals. Depletion results in a lack of active transmitter discharge from nerve endings upon nerve depolarization, and consequently leads to a decreased heart rate and decreased arterial blood pressure as well as sedative effects.

195
Q

Opaque porcelain (too opaque, which layer is too thick)?

196
Q

Autoclave spore test how often:

A

once a week

197
Q

Classify Immunoglobulins in regards to each hypersensitivity rxn:

198
Q

Naproxen side effects:

A

side effects of naproxen are confusion, headache, ringing in the ears (tinnitus), changes in vision, tiredness, drowsiness, dizziness and rashes

199
Q

Orbicularis oris innervation?

200
Q

LA toxicity:

A

agitation, confusion, dizziness, drowsiness, dysphoria, auditory changes, tinnitus, perioral numbness, metallic taste, and dysarthria. Without adequate recognition and treatment, these signs as symptoms can progress to seizures, respiratory arrest, and/or coma

201
Q

What is CPP-ACP:

A

CPP–ACP is a milk product which helps in remineralization and prevents dental caries

202
Q

Hyperthyroidism and what drugs do you use:

A

PTU, corticosteroids, beta blockers, potassium iodide

203
Q

Levothyroxine MOA:

A

Synthetic T4

Synthroid (levothyroxine) is a man-made version of T4,

204
Q

What are Coedines side effects?

A

Same as MORPHINE

  • Myosis
  • Out of it
  • Respiratory depression
  • Hypotension
  • Infrequency (constipation)
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Euphoria/dysphoria
205
Q

What are the fluoride levels in fluoridated water?

A

Fluoride levels in water: 0.7-1.2ppm

206
Q

Question about definition of senile caries?

A

Caries noted particularly in old age when supporting tissues have receded, occurs in cementum, usually on proximal surfaces of the teeth; involving both cementum and dentin, a slowly progressing chronic lesion of the root surface involving plaque and microbial invasion.

207
Q

Definition of Choristoma VS Hamartoma?

A

Choristoma: Benign tumor made of Excess of normal tissue in an abnormal location

Hamartoma: excess of normal tissue in normal place

Google: Choristoma is a rare benign tumour consisting of microscopically normal tissue derived from germ cell layers foreign to that body site. Choristomas are classified according to their type of tissue. They sometimes arise within the skin or oral cavity, and can also occur in internal organs.

208
Q

Mechanism of action of anti-seizure drugs:

A

Na+ channel blockers

209
Q

Advil (ibuprofen) → is it specific or nonspecific, and what does it block?

options were
cyclooxygenase production or prostaglandin synthesis

A

NON-specific and Blocks cyclooxygenase (COX) production

It directly inhibits COX which is required for the synthesis of prostaglandins.

It does NOT directly inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

210
Q

Shiny amalgam: indicates what?

options were over triturated, under triturated, insufficient
condensing, … ?

A

(ADA health topic says: overtitration leads to shiny amalgam)

211
Q

Patient with COPD and dental treatment modification :

A

NO LA alterations, prefer more upright, consider pulse oximeter range 88-95%, No Nitrous with severe COPD, may need supplemental o2, watch out if patient is taking steroids, may have dry mouth, candidiasis, may have GERD

212
Q

Contact dermatitis:

A. Type I Hypersensitivity

B. Type II Hypersensitivity

C. Type III Hypersensitivity

D. Type IV Hypersensitivity

A

D. Type IV Hypersensitivity

213
Q

Gave a right IA injection, now patient can’t close their right eye → what cranial nerve was affected?

A

Facial nerve (CN VII)

214
Q

Structures that undergo endochondral ossification (“all except” question:

A. ethmoid bone

B. sphenoid

C. occipital

D. long bones

E. Maxilla

A

E. Maxilla

215
Q

What to do if you’re extracting #20 on a patient, you give IA nerve block and patient is showing signs of anesthesia (lip) but #20 is still sensitive to endo ice. What do you do next?

A. give another IA nerve block

B. use articaine for buccal infiltration on 20

C. mental nerve block

A

B. use articaine for buccal infiltration on 20

216
Q

Ketoacidosis is most common in which of the following?

A. Diabetes Type I

B. Diabetes Type II

A

A. Diabetes Type I

217
Q

Veneer prep margin: options:

A. shoulder,

B. chamfer

C. chamfer with a bevel

A

B. chamfer

218
Q

Medication Related Osteonecrosis of the Jaw (MRONJ):

A

Fosamax (Alendronate)

219
Q

Most common site for MRONJ :

A

posterior mandible

220
Q

Local anesthetic cartridges measured by 1.7cc → how much epi is in 2 cartridges of 1:100,000 epi?

A

Answer choices are in mg, or mcg (should be 0.036mg)
Cc = mL, 1 carp of 1:100 = 0.018 so 2 carps = 0.036

0.018 for 1 carpule of 1.8ml

221
Q

Allodynia?

A

Normally touching your skin doesn’t hurt, if you get sun burn though it will hurt to touch your skin

Something that doesn’t usually cause pain is causing pain = allodynia

222
Q

Alginate disinfection first step:

A

wash with water, then disinfect, then wash again

223
Q

Cells in root resorption :

  • External
  • Internal
A

External = cementoblastic layer

Internal = odontoblastic layer

224
Q

Bisphosphonates side effects:

A

may include bone, joint or muscle pain. Side effects of the oral tablets may include nausea, difficulty swallowing, heartburn, irritation of the esophagus (tube connecting the throat to the stomach) and gastric ulcer.

225
Q

Bisphosphonate active ingredient name :

A

pyrophosphate

226
Q

BRONJ is increased as the duration of bisphosphonate therapy exceeds 3 years.

A

A 3-month drug holiday is recommended for patients taking oral bisphosphonates for longer than 3 years.

227
Q

INR multiple questions -

Normal ppl INR?

Warfarin pts normal INR?

A

In healthy people an INR of 1.1 or below is considered normal. An INR
range of 2.0 to 3.0 is generally an effective therapeutic range for people taking warfarin for disorders such as atrial fibrillation or a blood clot in the leg or lung. In certain situations, such as having a mechanical heart valve, you might need a slightly higher INR

228
Q

What is Coumadins MOA?

A

Blocks clotting factors 2,7, 9, 10 (inhibits synthesis of vitamin K)

Google: COUMADIN and other coumarin anticoagulants act by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors, which include Factors II, VII, IX and X, and the anticoagulant proteins C and S.

229
Q

Aspirin: MOA: (acetylsalicylic acid)

A

inhibit COX 1 and 2 irreversibly

  • Inhibit TXA2 synt (platelet aggreg)
230
Q

Do we premedicate for prosthetic joint anymore?

231
Q

Zoledronic Acid – bisphosphonate MOA-

A

Zolendronic acid inhibits osteoclastic activity and induces osteoclast apoptosis.

232
Q

Penicillin VK:

A. Oral medication

B. IV medication

A

A. Oral medication

233
Q

Discuss each of the following in regards to Reserpine:

  • What is it used for?
  • Usually taken in conjunction with what medication
  • MOA?
A

Reserpine - treatment of high blood pressure, usually in combination with a thiazide diuretic or vasodilator.

Large clinical trials have shown that combined treatment with reserpine plus a thiazide diuretic reduces mortality of people with hypertension.

MOA- irreversibly blocks the H+ .inhibits uptake and reduces stores of the monoamine neurotransmitters norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin and
histamine in the synaptic vesicles of neurons

234
Q

Discuss each of the following:

  • Value:
  • Chroma:
  • Hue:
  • Which is most critical?
A

value: brightness (most critical)
chroma: saturation
hue: color

235
Q

Predominant cell in gingivitis?

A

neutrophils and T cells

236
Q

What does Erysipelas effect?

A. Skin

B. Gingiva

237
Q

MOA of Benzodiazepines:

A

Increase GABA

Benzodiazepines work by enhancing a very important neurotransmitter called GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) at the GABA A receptor

238
Q

CEREBRAL PALSY DEFINITION:

A 
Cerebral palsy (CP) is a group of disorders that affect a
person's ability to move and maintain balance and posture.
239
Q

What is associated with Scarlet Fever? (Hint: SSSS)

240
Q

What is the tx for Status Elipticus?

A

A seizure that lasts longer than 5 minutes, or having more than 1 seizure within a 5 minutes period, without returning to a normal level of consciousness between episodes is called status epilepticus. This is a medical emergency that may lead to permanent brain damage or death.

241
Q

Discuss each of the following in regards to Facebow:

  • Arbitrary Facebow
  • Kinematic Facebow
A

Arbitrary – max to skull via ext. meatus.

Kinematic- placed on hinge of axis of Mand.

242
Q

Discuss Periodontitis in regards to each of the following:

  • Stage
  • Grade
243
Q

COLLAGEN FORMATION IN HEALING OF BONE TAKES PLACE IN ______.

244
Q

DIFF BET CERAMIC ONLAY AND GOLD ONLAY -

A

DIFF BET CERAMIC ONLAY AND GOLD ONLAY - gold: 0,5 at margin, 1,0 non contact areas,
1,5 contact areas. – ceramic :minimum 1,5 thickness

245
Q

GINGIVECTOMY THE EPITHELIUM FORMS FROM ______.

A. Primary intention

B. Secondary intention

A

B. Secondary intention

Primary intention = sutures used to close incision

246
Q

Which of the following only has 1 cutting edge (blade)?

A. Universal Currettes

B. Gracey Curretes

C. Sickle scaler

A

B. Gracey Curretes

247
Q

What do the School Child Program do for kids?

A

Fluoride varnish

248
Q

What two things are involved in Substantivity in regards to microbial in plaque?

A

CHLORHEXIDINE..SUBSTANTIVITY (antiplaque)- 0.12% chlorhexidine is retained in the oral
cavity for at least 4 hours.

+

Fluoride varnish

249
Q

Which of the following is used as mouth rinse?

A. CHX

B. Stannous

C. NaF

250
Q

What does each of the following do to the dose response curve?

  • Competetive antagonist
  • Non-competitive antagonist
A

Competetive = shift to RIGHT

Non-Competetive = shift DOWN

POTENCY – is the power of a drug to specific concentration EFFICACY- is about Effect of a drug function binding

AFFINITY- is the Attractiveness to the receptor

252
Q

Discuss each of the following in regards to the Dose Response Curve:

  • Efficacy
  • Affinity
  • Potency
253
Q

What disease is associated with Verruca Vulgaris:

254
Q

What ion is in MTA?

255
Q

How do you measure Attached gingiva?

How do you measure Clincal Attachment Loss?

A

Free gingival groove to mucogingival junction

256
Q

How long do you splint each of the following horizontal fractures?

  • Coronal ?
  • Mid-root?
  • Apical?
  • Subluxation?
  • Avulsion?
  • Extrusion?
  • Lateral luxation?
A

Coronal = rigid splint (6-12 weeks)

Mid-root = 3 weeks

Apical = 2 weeks

Subluxation = 2 weeks

Avulsion = 1-2 weeks

Extrusion = 3 weeks

Lateral luxation = 3 weeks

Intrusion open apex = allow to erupt

Intrusion closed apex = reposition, flexible splint, RCT

257
Q

What antibiotic is used in gingival sulcus?

A

Doxycycline

258
Q

Where are malignant melanomas usually located in the oral cavity? (2)

A

Hard palate and gingiva

259
Q

Identify the name of the lesion below?

260
Q

Identify the name of the radiopacity in the maxillary sinus:

A

Antral Cyst (dome shaped in sinus)

261
Q

What kind of effect does drinking alcohol on warfarin have?

A

Increased risk of major bleeding

262
Q

What part of LA is bad for a patient with hyperthyroidism?

263
Q

What is the typical location of a Granular Cell Tumor?

A

Anterior Tongue

264
Q

What is the difference between dental plaster vs dental stone?

A

Plaster= impressions or orto models, low expansion, sets quickly.

Stone= diagnostic casts, abrasion resist, for dies

265
Q

In a 14 year old skeletal class III patient, what decreases eventually?

A. SnA (won’t change),

B. SnB

C. ANB

D. y axis

266
Q

Maximum number of cartridges in 57 kg women - 2% lido with 1:100k epi?

hint: start with calculating epi

A

11 carpules

0.2mg max epi for ASA I

  1. 018mg of epi per carp of lido
  2. 2 / 0.018 = 11 carpules
267
Q

What is the maximum for each of the following:

  • Max Epi for ASA I
  • Max Epi for cardiac pt
  • Max LA w/o Epi
  • Max LA for children
  • Max LA w/ Epi
A

Max Epi for ASA I = 0.2mg

Max Epi for cardiac pt = 0.04mg

Max LA w/o Epi = 4.4mg/kg

Max LA for children = 4.4mg/kg

Max LA w/ Epi = 7mg/kg

268
Q

How much Epi is in 1 carpule of 2% Lidocaine w/ 1:100k epi?

  • How much epi is in 1 carpule of 1:200k epi?
  • 1:50k epi?
A

1: 100k epi = 0.018mg
* Just divide 0.018 by 2
1: 200k epi = 0.009
1: 50k epi = 0.0

269
Q

Calculate each of the following in regards to 1.8ml 2% Lidocaine 1:100k epi:

  • How many mg of epi per carpule?
  • How many mg of LA per carpule?
A

Epi = 0.018mg

LA = 18mg

271
Q

What syndrome are the arrows below pointing at?

A

Eagle syndrome (calcified stylohyoid)

272
Q

What’s the importance of bleeding in RPDs?

A

done on posterior movable mucosa tissue to prevent food entrapment, on major connector

273
Q

What is indium used for in prosthodontics?

A

It is used to make veneers and crowns harder (stronger)

“Those Indians are hard mother fuckers”

Role of indium - Indium is a hardening component of classic high gold content alloys for use with ceramic veneers. Reduced gold and palladium based alloys are also primarily “hardened” using Indium.

274
Q

What 2 test can you do on alcoholics?

A

INR and PT

275
Q

Propanolol MOA:

A

Propranolol is a non-selective beta receptor antagonist. This means that it does not have preference to Beta-1 or Beta-2 receptors. It competes with sympathomimetic neurotransmitters for binding to receptors, which inhibits sympathetic stimulation of the heart.

276
Q

Why shouldn’t you take penicillin and tetracyclines together?

A

Cancel each other out

277
Q

What tx do you do for Furcations?

278
Q

What muscle of mastication is most associated with condylar fractures?

A

Lateral pterygoid

279
Q

Chronic ranula treatment:

A

Initial tx = marsupialization

Chronic (recurrent) tx = remove gland w/ ranula

removal of the lesion along with the associated major salivary gland with insignificant recurrence (removal of sublingual gland with it for chronic, Marsupialization for initial treatment )

280
Q

Nausea vomiting associated with opioid bc stimulation of:

A

stimulation of visceral mechanoreceptors and chemoreceptors. Stimulation medulla

281
Q

Heavy duty gloves used for?

A. Cleaning

B. chemical handling

C. normal procedures

D. rx of immunocompromised individuals

A

A. Cleaning

282
Q

Fluoride question of a patient in low fluoride area. Age and fluoride concentration given. How much supplemental will you prescribe.

283
Q

Non-working side interference?

284
Q

Meperidine antagonist. Meperidine is a narcotic so an antagonist would be what reversal medication?

285
Q

How to increase the contrast of an image?

A. Decrease kVp

B. Increase kVp

C. Decrease filter

D. Increase density

A

A. Decrease KVP

kVp = decreases contrast

Filter = increases contrast

286
Q

Know what antibiotic to use for NUG -

A

Metronidazole + Amoxicillin

287
Q

What does PICO stand for?

A

Population, Intervention, Comparison Outcome

288
Q

What muscles attach to the larynx?

A

Aretynoids and cricothyroid

note: anything with aretynoid in the name attaches to larynx

289
Q

What are the 3 best antibiotics used for cellulitis?

A

antibiotic for cellulitis: The best antibiotic to treat cellulitis include dicloxacillin,
cephalexin, trimethoprim with sulfamethoxazole, clindamycin, or doxycycline antibiotics.

290
Q

The CDC classifies each of the following as reusable dental instruments EXCEPT:

A. Critical

B. Semi-critical

C. Non-critical

A

C. Non-critical

291
Q

What’s the best crown for a patient with occlusal wear?

292
Q

What is the name of the appliance below?

A

Nance appliance (acryclic button)

293
Q

What type of lesion is on the picture below?

A

Varix (purple)

294
Q

What are examples of vector born diseases?

A

Malaria (protozoan), mosquitoes, ticks,
and fleas

295
Q

My question was what tissues are derived from mesenchyme?

A

Bone, cartilage, muscle, neural cells and skin cells

INBDE (18 decks)

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