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Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 stages of Odontogenesis?

A
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2
Q

Which of the following occurs at 6 weeks in utero?

A. Initiation

B. Bud stage

C. Cap stage

D. Bell stage

E. Erupted tooth

A

A. Initiation

Initiation = 6 weeks

Bud = 8 weeks

Cap = 9 weeks

Bell = 11 weeks

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3
Q

Which of the following occurs at 11 weeks in utero?

A. Initiation

B. Bud stage

C. Cap stage

D. Bell stage

E. Erupted tooth

A

D. Bell stage

Initiation = 6 weeks

Bud = 8 weeks

Cap = 9 weeks

Bell = 11 weeks

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4
Q

Which of the following occurs at 9 weeks in utero?

A. Initiation

B. Bud stage

C. Cap stage

D. Bell stage

E. Erupted tooth

A

C. Cap stage

Initiation = 6 weeks

Bud = 8 weeks

Cap = 9 weeks

Bell = 11 weeks

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5
Q

Which of the following occurs at 8 weeks in utero?

A. Initiation

B. Bud stage

C. Cap stage

D. Bell stage

E. Erupted tooth

A

B. Bud stage

Initiation = 6 weeks

Bud = 8 weeks

Cap = 9 weeks

Bell = 11 weeks

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6
Q

Whihc of the following is associated with the Enamel Organ?

A. Initiation

B. Bud stage

C. Cap stage

D. Bell stage

E. Erupted tooth

A

C. Cap stage

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7
Q

Whihc of the following is associated with the Dental Placode?

A. Initiation

B. Bud stage

C. Cap stage

D. Bell stage

E. Erupted tooth

A

B. Bud stage

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8
Q

An issue during which stage of odontogeneis results in each of the following defects: cyst, odontoma, fusion and dens in dente?

A. Initiation

B. Bud stage

C. Cap stage

D. Bell stage

E. Erupted tooth

A

C. Cap stage

Initiation = congenitally missing and supernumerary

Bud stage = congenitally missing and supernumerary

Cap = cyst, odontoma, Gemination, fusion and dens in dente

Histodifferentiation = Amelogenesis imperfecta, Dentinogenesis imperfecta

Morphodifferentitation = size and shape abnormalities like peg laterals and macrodontia

Apposition = enamel hypoplasia, enamel pearls, concrescence

Maturation = enamel hypomineralization, fluorosis, tetracycline staining

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9
Q

An issue during which stage of odontogeneis results in each of the following defects: Amelogenesis Imperfecta and Dentinogenesis imperfecta?

A. Initiation

B. Bud stage

C. Cap stage

D. Histodifferentiation during Bell stage

E. Morphodifferentiation during Bell stage

A

D. Histodifferentiation during Bell stage

Initiation = congenitally missing and supernumerary

Bud stage = congenitally missing and supernumerary

Cap = cyst, odontoma, Gemination, fusion and dens in dente

Histodifferentiation = Amelogenesis imperfecta, Dentinogenesis imperfecta

Morphodifferentitation = size and shape abnormalities like peg laterals and macrodontia

Apposition = enamel hypoplasia, enamel pearls, concrescence

Maturation = enamel hypomineralization, fluorosis, tetracycline staining

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10
Q

An issue during which stage of odontogeneis results in each of the following defects: congenitally missing teeth and supernumerary teeth?

A. Initiation

B. Bud stage

C. Cap stage

D. Histodifferentiation during Bell stage

E. Morphodifferentiation during Bell stage

A

A. Initiation

B. Bud stage

Note: supernumerary and congenitally missing teeth occurs due to issue in initiation or bud stage

Initiation = congenitally missing and supernumerary

Bud stage = congenitally missing and supernumerary

Cap = cyst, odontoma, Gemination, fusion and dens in dente

Histodifferentiation = Amelogenesis imperfecta, Dentinogenesis imperfecta

Morphodifferentitation = size and shape abnormalities like peg laterals and macrodontia

Apposition = enamel hypoplasia, enamel pearls, concrescence

Maturation = enamel hypomineralization, fluorosis, tetracycline staining

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11
Q

An issue during which stage of odontogeneis results in each of the following defects: size and shape abnormalities like peg laterals and macrodontia?

A. Initiation

B. Bud stage

C. Cap stage

D. Histodifferentiation during Bell stage

E. Morphodifferentiation during Bell stage

A

E. Morphodifferentiation during Bell stage

Initiation = congenitally missing and supernumerary

Bud stage = congenitally missing and supernumerary

Cap = cyst, odontoma, Gemination, fusion and dens in dente

Histodifferentiation = Amelogenesis imperfecta, Dentinogenesis imperfecta

Morphodifferentitation = size and shape abnormalities like peg laterals and macrodontia

Apposition = enamel hypoplasia, enamel pearls, concrescence

Maturation = enamel hypomineralization, fluorosis, tetracycline staining

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12
Q

An issue during which stage of odontogeneis results in each of the following defects: enamel hypoplasia, enamel pearls, concrescence?

A. Apposition

B. Maturation

C. Cap stage

D. Histodifferentiation during Bell stage

E. Morphodifferentiation during Bell stage

A

A. Apposition

Initiation = congenitally missing and supernumerary

Bud stage = congenitally missing and supernumerary

Cap = cyst, odontoma, Gemination, fusion and dens in dente

Histodifferentiation = Amelogenesis imperfecta, Dentinogenesis imperfecta

Morphodifferentitation = size and shape abnormalities like peg laterals and macrodontia

Apposition = enamel hypoplasia, enamel pearls, concrescence

Maturation = enamel hypomineralization, fluorosis, tetracycline staining

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13
Q

An issue during which stage of odontogeneis results in each of the following defects: enamel hypomineralization, fluorosis, tetracycline staining?

A. Apposition

B. Maturation

C. Cap stage

D. Histodifferentiation during Bell stage

E. Morphodifferentiation during Bell stage

A

B. Maturation

Initiation = congenitally missing and supernumerary

Bud stage = congenitally missing and supernumerary

Cap = cyst, odontoma, Gemination, fusion and dens in dente

Histodifferentiation = Amelogenesis imperfecta, Dentinogenesis imperfecta

Morphodifferentitation = size and shape abnormalities like peg laterals and macrodontia

Apposition = enamel hypoplasia, enamel pearls, concrescence

Maturation = enamel hypomineralization, fluorosis, tetracycline staining

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14
Q

Discuss Initiation in regards to tooth development:

  • Oral epithelium = ?
  • Dental lamina = ?
  • Ectomesenchyme = ?
  • Defects = ?
  • Occurs during how many weeks in utero?
A
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15
Q

Discuss the Bud Stage in regards to tooth development:

  • Dental placode = ?
  • All primary and permanent molars arise from ______.
  • Permanent incisors, canines, and premolars arise from _______.
  • Condensing mesenchyme = ?
  • Defects = ?
  • How many weeks in utero?
A
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16
Q

Discuss the Cap Stage in regards to tooth development:

  • Enamel organ = ?
  • OEE = ?
  • IEE = ?
  • Stellate reticulum = ?
  • Enamel knot = ?
  • Dental papilla = ?
  • Dental follicle = ?
  • Defects = ?
  • How many weeks in utero?
A
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17
Q

Discuss Histodifferentiation in regards to the Bell Stage:

  • Transformation into distinct cell types
    • IEE = ?
    • Dental papilla = ?
    • Defects = ?
    • How many weeks in utero?
A
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18
Q

Discuss Morphodifferentiation in regards to the Bell Stage:

  • _____ and _____ of eventual crown is determined during this process.
  • Defects = ?
  • How many weeks in utero?
A
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19
Q

Discuss the Apposition stage of tooth development in regards to each of the following:

  • Odontoblasts = ?
  • Ameloblasts = ?
  • Cervical loop = ?
  • IEE + OEE = ?
  • Defects = ?
  • How many weeks in utero?
A
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20
Q

Discuss Maturation in regards to tooth development:

  • Deposition of _____ and _____
  • Calcification begins at _____ and proceeds ______.
  • Takes ___ years to complete for primary tooth crown.
  • Takes ___ years to complete for permanent tooth crown.
  • Defects = ?
  • How many weeks in utero?
A
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21
Q

Which of the following the following forms the pulp?

A. Ameloblasts

B. Odontoblasts

C. Central cells

D. Cementoblast

E. Fibroblasts

A

C. Central cells

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22
Q

Which of the following the following forms the enamel?

A. Ameloblasts

B. Odontoblasts

C. Central cells

D. Cementoblast

E. Fibroblasts

A

A. Ameloblasts

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23
Q

Which of the following forms the PDL of a tooth?

A. Ameloblasts

B. Odontoblasts

C. Central cells

D. Cementoblast

E. Fibroblasts

A

E. Fibroblasts

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24
Q

Which of the following forms the cementum of a tooth?

A. Ameloblasts

B. Odontoblasts

C. Central cells

D. Cementoblast

E. Fibroblasts

A

D. Cementoblast

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25
Q

Which of the following forms the dentin of a tooth?

A. Ameloblasts

B. Odontoblasts

C. Central cells

D. Cementoblast

E. Fibroblasts

A

B. Odontoblasts

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26
Q

Which of the following gives rise to Odontoblast and Central cells?

A. Enamel organ

B. Dental papilla

C. Dental follicle

D. All of the above

A

B. Dental papilla

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27
Q

Which of the following gives rise to the Enamel Organ?

A. Enamel organ

B. Dental papilla

C. Dental follicle

D. All of the above

A

A. Enamel organ

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28
Q

The Dental Follicle gives rise to each of the following EXCEPT:

A. Odontoblast

B. Cementoblast

C. Osteoblast

D. Fibroblast

E. All of the above

A

A. Odontoblast

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29
Q
A
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30
Q

Which of the following does the Dental Papilla give rise to?

A. Cementoblast

B. Ameloblast

C. Fibroblast

D. Odontoblast

E. Osteoblast

A

D. Odontoblast

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31
Q

Discuss when each of the following Primary teeth begin Calcification:

  • Centrals = ?
  • 1st molars = ?
  • Laterals = ?
  • Canines = ?
  • Second molars = ?

hint: There’s an easy way to remember this

A
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32
Q

Discuss when each of the following Permanent teeth begin calcification:

  • First molars
  • All anterior teeth except for maxillary laterals
  • Maxillary laterals
  • 1st PMs
  • 2nd PMs
  • 2nd Molars
A
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33
Q

Review the eruption sequence for Primary teeth:

“nxi”

A
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34
Q

Review the eruption sequence for Permanent teeth:

“MAIN”

A
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35
Q

______ is the most common supernumerary tooth.

A

Mesiodens

note: supernumerary teeth may block normal eruption of permanent teeth

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36
Q

Which of the following is the correct order from most prevalent to least prevalent Congenitally Missing Teeth?

A. Mandibular 2nd PMs > Max 2nd molars > Max laterals

B. Max laterals > Max 2nd molars > Mandibular 2nd PMs

C. Mandibular 2nd PMs > Max laterals > Max 2nd PMs

D. Max laterals > Mandibular 2nd PMs > Max 2nd molars

A

C. Mandibular 2nd PMs > Max laterals > Max 2nd PMs

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37
Q

Which of the following is the most common congenitally missing primary tooth?

A. Max 1st molars

B. Mandibular laterals

C. Mandibular 1st molars

D. Max laterals

A

D. Max laterals

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38
Q

Discuss Congenitally Missing Teeth in regards to each of the following:

  • What is the order from most prevalent to least prevalent congenitally missing permanent teeth?
  • Second PM = ?
  • Lateral = ?
  • What is the most common Congenitally missing primary tooth?
A
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39
Q

Which of the following anomalies occurs during the Cap Stage?

A. Microdontia

B. Gemination

C. Macrodontia

D. All of the above

A

B. Gemination

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40
Q

Which of the following anomalies occurs during the Bell Stage of odontogenesis?

A. Microdontia

B. Fusion

C. Gemination

D. Macrodontia

E. Two of the above

A

E. Two of the above

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41
Q

All of the following are associated with Microdontia EXCEPT:

A. Small teeth

B. Less than the normal amount of teeth

C. Down syndrome

D. Pituitary Dwarfism

E. Ectodermal dysplasia

A

B. Less than the normal amount of teeth

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42
Q

All of the following are associated with Microdontia EXCEPT:

A. Small teeth

B. Pituitary Dwarfism

C. Down syndrome

D. Hyperinsulinism

E. Ectodermal dysplasia

A

D. Hyperinsulinism

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43
Q

All of the following are associated w/ Macrodontia EXCEPT:

A. Big teeth

B. Pituitary gigantism

C. Pineal hyperplasia

D. Pituitary dwarfism

E. Hyperinsulinism

A

D. Pituitary dwarfism

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44
Q

All of the following are associated with Fusion EXCEPT:

A. Two buds merge into one tooth

B. More common in primary teeth

C. Almost always posterior teeth

D. Tooth count is one less than normal

E. All of the above are associated w/ Fusion

A

C. Almost always posterior teeth

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45
Q

All of the following are associated with Fusion EXCEPT:

A. Two buds merge into one tooth

B. More common in permanent teeth

C. Almost always anterior teeth

D. Tooth count is one less than normal

E. All of the above are associated w/ Fusion

A

B. More common in permanent teeth

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46
Q

All of the following is true regarding Gemination EXCEPT:

A. Tooth count is normal

B. One root buds into two crowns

C. Tooth count is one less

D. All of the above are true

A

C. Tooth count is one less

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47
Q

Which of the following is an abnormal bend in the root of a tooth?

A. Dens Evaginatus

B. Dens Invaginatus

C. Taurodontism

D. Dilaceration

A

D. Dilaceration

Note: Dilaceration is usually due to trauma to a primary tooth

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48
Q

Which of the following refers to an extra cusp?

A. Dens Evaginatus

B. Dens Invaginatus

C. Taurodontism

D. Dilaceration

A

A. Dens Evaginatus

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49
Q

Which of the following presents as a vertically elongated pulp chamber along w/ short roots?

A. Dens Evaginatus

B. Dens Invaginatus

C. Taurodontism

D. Dilaceration

A

C. Taurodontism

Note: Taurodontism is linked to Type IV Amelogenesis imperfecta

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50
Q

Whihc of the following is most common in permanent maxillary laterals?

A. Dens Evaginatus

B. Dens Invaginatus

C. Taurodontism

D. Dilaceration

A

B. Dens Invaginatus (Dens in Dente)

Note: you need a radiograph to diagnose

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51
Q

Which of the following is caused by invagination of the inner enamel epithelium (IEE)?

A. Dens Evaginatus

B. Dens Invaginatus

C. Taurodontism

D. Dilaceration

A

B. Dens Invaginatus (Dens in Dente)

note: caries can progress very quickly through tunnel

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52
Q

Which of the following present as thin to no enamel, but dentin and pulp are normal?

A. Enamel Hypoplasia

B. Enamel Hypocalcification

C. Amelogenesis Imperfecta

D. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

A

C. Amelogenesis Imperfecta

Note: Amelogenesis imperfecta is an intrinsic alteration of enamel

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53
Q

Which of the following is usually due to traumatic injury to a primary tooth?

A. Dens Evaginatus

B. Dens Invaginatus

C. Taurodontism

D. Dilaceration

A

D. Dilaceration

Dilaceration: abnormal bend in root

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54
Q

Which of the following is associated with Congenital Syphilis?

A. Enamel Hypoplasia

B. Enamel Hypocalcification

C. Amelogenesis Imperfecta

D. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

A

A. Enamel Hypoplasia

Congenital Syphilis = mulberry molars and Hutchinson’s incisors

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55
Q

Whihc of the following is associated with Blue Sclera?

A. Enamel Hypoplasia

B. Enamel Hypocalcification

C. Amelogenesis Imperfecta

D. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

A

D. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

Dentinogenesis Imperfecta = short roots, bell-shaped crowns, and obliterated pulps

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56
Q

Which of the following presents as short roots, bell-shaped crowns and obliterated pulps?

A. Enamel Hypoplasia

B. Enamel Hypocalcification

C. Amelogenesis Imperfecta

D. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

A

D. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

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57
Q

Which of the following is associated with Bulbous crowns in radiographs?

A. Enamel Hypoplasia

B. Enamel Hypocalcification

C. Amelogenesis Imperfecta

D. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

A

D. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

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58
Q

Hutchinson’s incisors and Mulberry molars are associated with which of the following?

A. Enamel Hypoplasia

B. Enamel Hypocalcification

C. Amelogenesis Imperfecta

D. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

A

A. Enamel Hypoplasia

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59
Q

Abnormal mineralization resulting in white spots is indicative of which of the following?

A. Enamel Hypoplasia

B. Enamel Hypocalcification

C. Amelogenesis Imperfecta

D. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

A

B. Enamel Hypocalcification

Enamel Hypoplasia = Hutchinson’s incisors and Mulberry molars

Enamel Hypocalcification = White spots

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60
Q

A periapical infection or trauma to a primary tooth causes an inflammatory response that messes up the ameloblasts of the developing permanent tooth. This may result in which of the following conditions?

A. Enamel Hypoplasia

B. Enamel Hypocalcification

C. Amelogenesis Imperfecta

D. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

A

A. Enamel Hypoplasia

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61
Q

All of the following is associated with Enamel Hypoplasia EXCEPT:

A. Turner’s hypoplasia

B. Congenital syphilis

C. White spots

D. Mulberry molars

E. All of the above are associated with enamel hypoplasia

A

C. White spots

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62
Q

Discuss Enamel Hypoplasia in regards to each of the following:

  • Turner’s hypoplasia = ?
  • Congenital Syphilis = ?
  • What stage of development does this occur?
A
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63
Q

Discuss Enamel Hypocalcification in regards to each of the following:

  • What stage in development does this occur?
  • What is the clinical presentation of Enamel Hypocalcification?
A
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64
Q

Discuss Amelogenesis Imperfecta in regards to each of the following:

  • What stage of development does this occur?
  • What type of genetic condition is this?
  • Intrinsic alteration of _____.
  • What teeth are affected?
  • What is the clinical/radiographic presentation?
  • Tx = ?
A
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65
Q

Discuss Dentinogenesis Imperfecta in regards to each of the following:

  • What stage of odontogenesis does this occur?
  • Autosomal _____.
  • Intrinsic alteration of _____.
  • Clinical/Radiographic presentation?
  • _____ crowns in radiographs due to constricted _____.
  • What occurs with the eyes of these patients?
  • Tx?
A
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66
Q

The union of two adjacent teeth by cementum only is known as _____.

A. Dentin dysplasia

B. Dilaceration

C. Regional Odontodysplasia

D. Concrescence

E. Enamel Pearl

A

D. Concrescence

note: concrescence is linked to hypercementosis and is most common with maxillary molars

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67
Q

A chunk of enamel blocking attachment of Sharpey’s fibers is known as which of the following?

A. Dentin dysplasia

B. Dilaceration

C. Regional Odontodysplasia

D. Concrescence

E. Enamel Pearl

A

E. Enamel Pearl

Note: these patients will automatically have a periodontal pocket… This only occurs in molars and will not come off w/ scaling

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68
Q

Which of the following is known as Ghost Teeth?

A. Dentin dysplasia

B. Dilaceration

C. Regional Odontodysplasia

D. Concrescence

E. Enamel Pearl

A

C. Regional Odontodysplasia

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69
Q

Which of the following is associated with Chevron pulps?

A. Dentin dysplasia (type I)

B. Dentin dysplasia (type II)

C. Regional Odontodysplasia

D. Concrescence

E. Enamel Pearl

A

B. Dentin dysplasia (type II)

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70
Q

Which of the following is associated with Short roots?

A. Dentin dysplasia (type I)

B. Dentin dysplasia (type II)

C. Regional Odontodysplasia

D. Concrescence

E. Enamel Pearl

A

A. Dentin dysplasia (type I)

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71
Q

Discuss Dentin Dysplasia in regards to each of the following:

  • Autosomal ______.
  • Intrinsic alteration of _______.
  • How many teeth are affected?
  • Type I Dentin Dysplasia = ?
  • Type II Dentin Dysplasia = ?
  • Tx?
A
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72
Q

Discuss Regional Odontoplasia in regards to each of the following:

  • What does Regional Odontoplasia look like radiographically? ***BOARDS***
  • How many teeth are affected and what does this condition do to those teeth?
  • Tx?
A
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73
Q

Discuss Concrescence in regards to each of the following:

  • Union of two adjacent teeth by ______ only.
  • What are the most common teeth affected?
  • What can concrescence interfere with?
  • Concrescence is linked to _____.
A
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74
Q

Discuss Enamel Pearls in regards to each of the following:

  • __________ blocking attachment of _______ fibers
  • What do patients w/ this condition automatically have?
  • Scaling?
  • What teeth does enamel pearls only occur in?
A
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75
Q

All of the following are true of Primary tooth anatomy EXCEPT:

A. Thinner enamel than permanent teeth

B. Bigger pulps than permanent teeth

C. Whiter than permanent teeth

D. Occlusal directed enamel rods

E. All of the above are true

A

E. All of the above are true

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76
Q

All of the following are true of Primary tooth anatomy EXCEPT:

A. Thinner enamel than permanent teeth

B. Bigger pulps than permanent teeth

C. Wider F-L and longer incisal-gingival

D. Occlusal directed enamel rods

E. All of the above are true

A

C. Wider F-L and longer incisal-gingival

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77
Q

Discuss Primary tooth anatomy in regards to permanent teeth:

A
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78
Q

Whihc of the following primary teeth is the widest anterior Facial-Lingual?

A. Primary maxillary centrals

B. Primary maxillary laterals

C. Primary maxillary canine

D. Primary mandibular centrals

E. Primary mandibular centrals

A

C. Primary maxillary canine

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79
Q

Which of the following primary teeth is the widest anterior Mesial-Distal?

A. Primary maxillary centrals

B. Primary maxillary laterals

C. Primary maxillary canine

D. Primary mandibular centrals

E. Primary mandibular centrals

A

A. Primary maxillary centrals

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80
Q

Which of the following primary teeth is the is the only anterior tooth where Width > Height?

A. Primary maxillary centrals

B. Primary maxillary laterals

C. Primary maxillary canine

D. Primary mandibular centrals

E. Primary mandibular centrals

A

A. Primary maxillary centrals

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81
Q

Which of the following primary teeth is the widest Facial-Lingual of all primary teeth?

A. Primary maxillary centrals

B. Primary maxillary laterals

C. Primary maxillary canines

D. Primary maxillary 1st molars

E. Primary maxillary 2nd molars

A

E. Primary maxillary 2nd molars

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82
Q

Which of the following primary teeth resembles the crown of the permanent maxillary 1st molar?

A. Primary maxillary centrals

B. Primary maxillary laterals

C. Primary maxillary canines

D. Primary maxillary 1st molars

E. Primary maxillary 2nd molars

A

E. Primary maxillary 2nd molars

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83
Q

Which of the following primary teeth resembles the crown of the permanent maxillary 1st premolar?

A. Primary maxillary centrals

B. Primary maxillary laterals

C. Primary maxillary canines

D. Primary maxillary 1st molars

E. Primary maxillary 2nd molars

A

D. Primary maxillary 1st molars

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84
Q

Which of the following primary teeth has the most prominent MF cervical ridge?

A. Primary maxillary centrals

B. Primary maxillary laterals

C. Primary maxillary canines

D. Primary maxillary 1st molars

E. Primary maxillary 2nd molars

A

D. Primary maxillary 1st molars

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85
Q

Which of the following primary teeth is the widest mesial-distal?

A. Primary mandibular 1st molars

B. Primary mandibular 2nd molars

C. Primary maxillary canines

D. Primary maxillary 1st molars

E. Primary maxillary 2nd molars

A

B. Primary mandibular 2nd molars

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86
Q

Which of the following is the most unique primary tooth?

A. Primary mandibular 1st molars

B. Primary mandibular 2nd molars

C. Primary maxillary canines

D. Primary maxillary 1st molars

E. Primary maxillary 2nd molars

A

A. Primary mandibular 1st molars

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87
Q

Which of the following primary teeth resembles the crown of the permanent mandibular 1st molar?

A. Primary mandibular 1st molars

B. Primary mandibular 2nd molars

C. Primary maxillary canines

D. Primary maxillary 1st molars

E. Primary maxillary 2nd molars

A

B. Primary mandibular 2nd molars

Primary Max 2nd molar = permanent max 1st molar

Primary Mand 2nd molar = permanent mand 1st molar

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88
Q

Which of the following primary teeth is the smallest facial-lingual?

A. Primary mandibular centrals

B. Primary mandibular laterals

C. Primary maxillary canines

D. Primary maxillary centrals

E. Primary maxillary laterals

A

A. Primary mandibular centrals

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89
Q

Which of the following is the only primary tooth with a cusp of Carabelli, oblique ridge and DL groove?

A. Primary mandibular 1st molars

B. Primary mandibular 2nd molars

C. Primary maxillary canines

D. Primary maxillary 1st molars

E. Primary maxillary 2nd molars

A

E. Primary maxillary 2nd molars

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90
Q

Which of the following is the last primary tooth to erupt?

A. Primary mandibular 1st molars

B. Primary mandibular 2nd molars

C. Primary maxillary canines

D. Primary maxillary 1st molars

E. Primary maxillary 2nd molars

A

E. Primary maxillary 2nd molars

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91
Q

Discuss the unique characteristics of the Primary Maxillary Central Incisor: (3)

A
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92
Q

Discuss all of the unique facts about the Primary Maxillary Canine: (4)

A
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93
Q

Discuss all of the unique characteristics of the Primary Maxillary 1st Molar: (3)

A
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94
Q

Discuss all of the unique characteristics about the Primary Maxillary 2nd Molar: (4)

A
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95
Q

Discuss all of the unique characteristics about the Primary Mandibular Central Incisor: (2)

A
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96
Q

Discuss all of the unique characteristics about the Primary Mandibular 1st Molar: (8)

97
Q

Discuss all of the unique characteristics about the Primary Mandibular 2nd Molar: (4)

98
Q

Which of the following is used for primary incisors with proximal caries that approximates or involves the incisal edge?

A. Amalgam

B. Composite

C. Stainless steel crown

D. Strip crown

A

D. Strip crown

99
Q

Discuss Amalgam for Primary teeth:

  • How deep does the prep need to be in mm?
  • Extends into _______ pits and fissures.
  • Isthmus width is 1/3 _______ dimension.
100
Q

Discuss composite for Primary teeth:

  • Preparation may be more _____ than amalgam.
  • Requires dry, isolated field
  • Most common areas of failure is at ________.
101
Q

Discuss the use of Stainless Steel Crowns for primary teeth:

  • For teeth affected by extensive caries, especially past the _______.
  • How much occlusal reduction in mm?
  • How do you seat this crown? (Buccal to lingual or lingual to buccal?)
  • Cervical bulge provides _______.
  • Allows primary tooth to _____ until exfoliation.
102
Q

Discuss the use of a Strip Crown on primary teeth?

  • For _________ with ______ tha approximate or involves the incisal edge.
  • Why is this a good choice if there is adequate tooth structure remaining?
  • Celluloid crown = ?
  • How many mm of incisal reduction?
  • _____ dictates preparation design.
103
Q

Which of the following is the only indication for a Strip crown?

A. Permanent incisors with proximal caries

B. Permanent molars with proximal caries

C. Primary incisors with proximal caries

D. Primary molars with proximal caries

A

C. Primary incisors with proximal caries

Strip crown = primary incisors only

104
Q

Furcation radiolucency is a sign of _______ for a primary pulp.

105
Q

Review the Endodontic Signs and Symptoms for Primary teeth:

106
Q

Discuss Indirect Pulp caps for primary teeth in regards to each of the following:

  • What are the two materials that can be used in a primary tooth indirect pulp cap?
107
Q

Discuss Direct Pulp Caps of primary teeth in regards to each of the following:

  • What are the indications for direct pulp capping a primary tooth?
  • What material is used?
  • What can that material cause in primary teeth?
108
Q

Discuss Pulpotomies on primary teeth in regards to each of the following:

  • Indications = ?
  • How do you arrest pulpal hemorrhage?
  • ______ application for 5 minutes.
  • Calcium hydroxide?
  • What materials are used for primary pulpotomy?
109
Q

Discuss Pulpectomy of primary teeth in regards to each of the following:

  • Indications?
  • Usually contraindicated in what teeth and why? ***BOARDS***
  • What material is used?
110
Q

Discuss Extractions of primary teeth in regards to each of the following:

  • Indications?
  • Contraindications? (BOARDS)
111
Q

What is the treatment for a primary first molar with furcation involvement?

A. Direct pulp cap

B. Pulpotomy

C. Pulpectomy

D. EXT

112
Q

What is the treatment for a primary 2nd molar with furcation involvement?

A. Direct pulp cap

B. Pulpotomy

C. Pulpectomy

D. EXT

A

C. Pulpectomy

113
Q

What is the treatment for a primary first molar without furcation but with other endo symptoms?

A. Direct pulp cap

B. Pulpotomy

C. Pulpectomy

D. EXT

A

B. Pulpotomy

114
Q

Which of the following spaces is lost around 11-12 years of age?

A. Primate space

B. Leeway space

C. Interdental space

A

B. Leeway space

115
Q

Which of the following spaces is lost around 6 years of age?

A. Primate space

B. Leeway space

C. Interdental space

A

A. Primate space

116
Q

Which of the following is most frequently caused by growth of dental arches?

A. Primate space

B. Leeway space

C. Interdental space

***BOARDS***

A

C. Interdental space

117
Q

Which of the following is associated with the ugly duckling stage?

A. Primate space

B. Leeway space

C. Interdental space

A

C. Interdental space

118
Q

Discuss each of the following spaces:

  • Primate space
  • Leeway space
  • Interdental space
119
Q

Which of the following is a retroactive tx?

A. Space management

B. Space maintenance

C. Space regaining

A

C. Space regaining

120
Q

Which of the following is a proactive tx?

A. Space management

B. Space maintenance

C. Space regaining

A

A. Space management

121
Q

Which of the following is a reactive tx?

A. Space management

B. Space maintenance

C. Space regaining

A

B. Space maintenance

122
Q

Discuss the premature loss of Primary incisors (A’s, B’s):

  • Is this a big deal?
  • Tx?
123
Q

Discuss the premature loss of Primary Canines (C’s):

  • Cause lingual collapse of which teeth?
  • Tx?
124
Q

Discuss the premature loss of Primary 1st molars:

  • Tx?
125
Q

Discuss the premature loss of primary second molars (E’s):

  • Tx?
126
Q

Premature loss of a primary second molar w/ an unerupted permanent 1st molar requires which of the following space maintainers?

A. LLHA

B. Nance

C. Distal shoe

D. Band and loop

A

C. Distal shoe

127
Q

Discuss eruption timing variations in regards to each of the following:

  • Lower second molar ahead of 2nd PM = ?
  • Upper canine ahead of or along side 1st PM = ?
  • Assymetry between right and left sides = ?
128
Q

(T/F)

The average tooth pierces the gingiva with 2/3 root formation.

129
Q

Discuss the amount of root development in regards to each of the following:

  • Space maintenance is not necessary if no bone remaining between ____ and _____ tooth.
  • Eruptive movement begins on _____ completion
  • Average tooth pierces bone with _____ root formation.
  • Average tooth pierces gingiva with _____ root formation.
130
Q

(T/F)

The average tooth pierces bone with two-thirds root formation.

A

True

Average tooth pierces bone with 2/3 root formation

Average tooth pierces gingiva with 3/4 root formation

131
Q

If the primary molar is lost after the age of 7yrs:

A. Eruption of premolar is delayed

B. Eruption of premolar is accelerated

A

B. Eruption of premolar is accelerated

132
Q

If the primary molar is lost before the age of 7yrs:

A. Eruption of premolar is delayed

B. Eruption of premolar is accelerated

A

A. Eruption of premolar is delayed

133
Q

(T/F)

Space closure most occurs within the first 6 months after tooth loss.

134
Q

Discuss space closure in regards to each of the following:

  • Most occurs within the first ______ months after tooth loss
  • Tipping not bodily movement.
  • Active eruption of a neighboring tooth tends to ___increase/decrease___ amount of space loss.
135
Q

What is ectopic eruption?

A

Permanent tooth erupting in wrong path

136
Q

Discuss the ectopic eruption of Incisors (1’s) in regards to each of the following:

  • Lingual eruption = ?
  • Lateral eruption = ?
137
Q

Discuss Ectopic Eruption of Premolars (4’s and 5’s) in regards to each of the following:

  • Distal eruption = ?
  • Buccal or lingual eruption = ?
138
Q

Discuss Ectopic Eruption of Molars (6’s) in regards to each of the following:

  • Mesial eruption = ?
    • Tx?
  • More common in ____maxilla/mandible____.
139
Q

What are the signs that a primary molar is ankylosed?

A
  • Out of occlusion (since other teeth continue normal eruption)
  • Hallow sound when tapped
  • No mobility
  • Radiographic loss of PDL space
140
Q

Discuss Ankylosed Primary Molars in regards to each of the following:

  • Prevalence
    • african americans? Caucasians?
    • More common in the ___maxilla/mandible____.
    • Which of the following is more common?
      • A. E’s
      • B. D’s
  • How can you tell clinically if a primary molar is ankylosed?
  • Tx?
141
Q

All of the following the features of healthy gingiva in children EXCEPT:

A. Rounded and rolled margins

B. Flabby

C. Reddish

D. Coral pink

E. Lack of stippling

A

D. Coral pink

142
Q

All of the following the features of healthy gingiva in children EXCEPT:

A. Rounded and rolled margins

B. Flabby

C. Reddish

D. Stippling

E. Lack of stippling

A

D. Stippling

143
Q

All of the following the features of healthy gingiva in children EXCEPT:

A. Knife edge margins

B. Flabby

C. Reddish

D. Lack of stippling

E. Deeper sulcus

A

A. Knife edge margins

144
Q

Discuss the features of healthy gingiva in children in regards to each of the following:

  • Color = ?
  • Contour = ?
  • Consistency = ?
  • Texture = ?
  • Sulcus = ?
145
Q

Discuss gingivitis in children in regards to each of the following:

  • Induced by _____.
  • Parental participation in oral hygiene until age _____ due to lack of manual dexterity
  • Mouth breathing, crowded teeth, erupting teeth, and braces may further aggravate inflamed gingiva.
  • Peaks at _____.
146
Q

Discuss Acute Necrotizing UIcerative Gingivitis (ANUG) in regards to each of the following:

  • Acute = ?
  • Necrotizing = ?
  • Ulcerative = ?
  • Gingivitis = ?
  • Tx?
147
Q

Discuss Reduced Attached Gingiva (RAG) in regards to each of the following:

  • Most common cause of inadequate attached gingiva is ______ eruption path.
  • Tx?
148
Q

Discuss Eruption Cyst in regards to each of the following:

  • Most common in ____.
  • Most common around what teeth?
  • What is the clinical presentation?
  • Radiograph will confirm the diagnosis
  • Tx?
149
Q

Which of the following is treatment for High Frenum causing a diastema of the centrals?

A. Close space first then frenectomy

B. Frenectomy first then close space

***BOARDS***

A

A. Close space first then frenectomy

150
Q

Discuss High frenum in regards to each of the following:

  • May be associated with _______.
  • Tx?
151
Q

All of the following are true regarding localized aggressive periodontitis in children EXCEPT:

A. Involves 1st permanent molars and permanent incisors

B. Increase A. Actinymycetemcomitans

C. Most common in African american children

D. Tx includes debridement

E. All of the above are true

A

D. Tx includes debridement

152
Q

Which of the following only involves Primary Molars?

A. Localized aggressive periodontitis in children

B. Generalized aggressive periodontitis in children

C. Prepubertal periodontitis

A

C. Prepubertal periodontitis

153
Q

Discuss periodontitis in children in regards to each of the following:

  • Loss of attachment and bone
  • Localized aggressive periodontitis:
    • What teeth does this involve?
    • What bacteria is increased?
    • What is the most common population?
    • Tx?
  • Generalized aggressive periodontitis:
    • involves what teeth?
    • increased plaque and calculus
    • Tx?
  • Prepubertal periodontitis:
    • Involves what teeth?
    • Most common in what population
    • Tx?
154
Q

All of the following are true regarding dental trauma in children EXCEPT:

A. More often in children with a deep bite

B. Maxillary anteriors are most common

C. More common in boys than girls

D. More often in children with increased overjet > 6mm

***BOARDS***

A

A. More often in children with a deep bite

155
Q

Discuss Dental Trauma in Children:

  • More common in what gender?
  • Most common with what teeth?
  • Most common with increased ______.

***BOARDS***

156
Q

All of the following are major traumatic dental injuries EXCEPT:

A. Luxations

B. Avulsions

C. Alveolar fractures

D. Pulpal involvement

E. Crown-root fractures

A

D. Pulpal involvement

157
Q

Review Traumatic Dental Injuries (TDI):

  • Minor injuries
  • Moderate injuries
  • Major injuries
158
Q

Discuss the importance of medical history in regards to Dental trauma in children:

  • Coagulation disorders
  • Tetanus coverage
  • Rule out ______.
  • Radiographs at incident and follow ups ____, ____, and ____ months after trauma.
159
Q

Discuss Concussion and Subluxation of Primary teeth in regards to each of the following:

  • Tx?
  • Recommend what type of diet?
  • Reinforce OHI
  • Teeth with open apices are more likely to _______ after trauma
  • Follow-ups
160
Q

Discuss the Intrusion of Primary Teeth in regards to each of the following:

  • Tx?
  • May damage permanent teeth:
    • Hypoplasia = during which stage of odontogenesis?
    • Hypocalcification = during which stage of odontogenesis?
    • Dilaceration = during _____ formation.
161
Q

Discuss Extrusion of primary teeth in regards to each of the following:

  • The greater the distance of luxation the greater the chance of ________ and ________.
  • What is the tx if extruded > 3mm = ?
  • If patient is seen before formation of Periapical blood clot = Tx?
162
Q

Discuss the Avulsion of primary teeth in regards to each of the following:

  • Replantation of primary teeth has a ______ prognosis.
  • If < 30min = Tx?
  • If > 30min = Tx?
163
Q

Discuss Crown Fracture of primary teeth in regards to each of the following:

  • Enamel = Tx?
  • Enamel and dentin = Tx?
  • Enamel, dentin, and pulp = Tx?
    • Pulpotomy if tooth is ________
    • Pulpectomy if tooth is ________
    • Extract if __________
164
Q

A child presents to your office with a crown fracture of a primary tooth involving the pulp. What is the recommended tx if the tooth is still vital?

A. Restore

B. Pulpotomy

C. Pulpectomy

D. EXT

A

B. Pulpotomy

165
Q

A child presents to your office with a crown fracture of a primary tooth involving the pulp. What is the recommended tx if the tooth is non-vital?

A. Restore

B. Pulpotomy

C. Pulpectomy

D. EXT

A

C. Pulpectomy

166
Q

A child presents to your office with a crown fracture of a primary tooth involving the pulp. What is the recommended tx if the tooth exhibits pathological root resorption?

A. Restore

B. Pulpotomy

C. Pulpectomy

D. EXT

167
Q

Discuss Root Fracture of Primary teeth in regards to each of the following:

  • Why is this rare in children?
  • If apical half = Tx?
  • If coronal half = Tx?
168
Q

A child presents to your office with a root fracture of a primary tooth involving the coronal 1/2?

A. No Tx

B. Rigid splint or EXT

C. Pulpectomy

D. Pulpotomy

A

B. Rigid splint or EXT

169
Q

A child presents to your office with a root fracture of a primary tooth involving the apical 1/2?

A. No Tx

B. Rigid splint or EXT

C. Pulpectomy

D. Pulpotomy

170
Q

Discuss Mouth Guards in regards to each of the following:

  • What are mouthguards helpful in preventing?
  • Stock mouth guards = ?
  • Mouth-formed mouth guards = where can you buy these and what are the 3 different types?
  • Custom-fabricated mouth guards = where can you buy these?
    • Vacuum-formed = ?
    • Pressure-laminated = ?
171
Q

Internal root resorption (IRR) is associated with which of the following?

A. odontoblastic layer in pulp is damaged

B. cementoblastic layer in PDL is damaged

A

A. odontoblastic layer in pulp is damaged

172
Q

External root resorption (ERR) is associated with which of the following?

A. odontoblastic layer in pulp is damaged

B. cementoblastic layer in PDL is damaged

A

B. cementoblastic layer in PDL is damaged

173
Q

Discuss Root Resorption in regards to each of the following:

  • Internal Root Resorption (IRR) = ?
  • External Root Resorption (ERR) = ?
    • Surface = ?
    • Replacement = ?
    • Inflammatory = ?
    • Cervical (CRR) = ?
    • Apical (ARR) = ?
174
Q

(T/F)

Dentist are required by law to report suspected child abuse and neglect, even if there is no proof.

***BOARDS***

175
Q

Discuss Child Abuse and Neglect in regards to each of the following:

  • What ages are children most commonly abused or neglected?
    • Physical = ?
    • Emotional = ?
    • Neglect = ?
  • Dentist are required by law to report suspected child abuse and neglect, even if there is no proof. ***BOARDS***
176
Q

All of the following are examples of a Potentially Cooperative child EXCEPT:

A. Defiant

B. Uncontrolled

C. Timid

D. Whining

E. All of the above are Potentially Cooperative children

A

E. All of the above are Potentially Cooperative children

177
Q

Discuss Cooperative children in regards to each of the following:

  • What are the qualities of a cooperative child?
178
Q

Discuss the qualities of Potentially Cooperative children:

  • Capable of appropriate behavior, but are ________.
  • Defiant = ?
  • Uncontrolled = ?
  • Timid = ?
  • Tense-cooperative = ?
  • Whining = ?

***BOARDS***

179
Q

What are the 5 examples of a Potentially Cooperative child?

A

Defiant, uncontrolled, timid, tense-cooperative, whining

180
Q

Discuss uncooperative children in regards to each of the following:

  • Communication, comprehending or willing?
  • Examples = (2)?
181
Q

Which of the following is associated with a definitely positive child according to the Franklin Rating Scale?

A. Frankl 1

B. Frankl 2

C. Frankl 3

D. Frankl 4

A

D. Frankl 4

182
Q

Which of the following Frankl classifications is associated with a Co-operative/Reserved child?

A. Frankl 1

B. Frankl 2

C. Frankl 3

D. Frankl 4

A

C. Frankl 3

183
Q

Which of the following Frankl classifications is associated with a Interested/enjoyed child?

A. Frankl 1

B. Frankl 2

C. Frankl 3

D. Frankl 4

A

D. Frankl 4

184
Q

Which of the following Frankl classifications is associated with a Uncooperative/reluctant child?

A. Frankl 1

B. Frankl 2

C. Frankl 3

D. Frankl 4

A

B. Frankl 2

185
Q

Which of the following Frankl classifications is associated with a Negative resistance?

A. Frankl 1

B. Frankl 2

C. Frankl 3

D. Frankl 4

A

B. Frankl 2

186
Q

Which of the following Frankl classifications is associated with a positive acceptance?

A. Frankl 1

B. Frankl 2

C. Frankl 3

D. Frankl 4

A

C. Frankl 3

187
Q

Which of the following Frankl classifications is associated with a definitely positive?

A. Frankl 1

B. Frankl 2

C. Frankl 3

D. Frankl 4

A

D. Frankl 4

188
Q

Which of the following Frankl classifications is associated with a definitely negative?

A. Frankl 1

B. Frankl 2

C. Frankl 3

D. Frankl 4

A

A. Frankl 1

189
Q

The first dental visit for a child should be at the age of _______.

A. 6 months

B. 1 year

C. 1.5 years

D. 2 years

E. 3 years

190
Q

A No-Treatment dental visit with an emphasis on introducing the dental setting and common instruments:

A. Anticipatory guidance

B. Functional inquiry

C. Familiarization

D. Knee-to-knee exam

A

C. Familiarization

191
Q

Which of the following is known as a questionnaire or interview that allows you to learn chief complaint and estimate the behavior of a child?

A. Anticipatory guidance

B. Functional inquiry

C. Familiarization

D. Knee-to-knee exam

A

B. Functional inquiry

192
Q

Which of the following is age-appropriate counseling for patients and their parents focused on prevention?

A. Anticipatory guidance

B. Functional inquiry

C. Familiarization

D. Knee-to-knee exam

A

A. Anticipatory guidance

193
Q

All of the following are true regarding Knee-to-Knee Exams EXCEPT:

A. For infants < 2 years old

B. Clinician and parent in a knee-to-knee position with the child’s head in the parents lap

C. Clinician and parent in a knee-to-knee position with the child’s head in the dentists lap

D. All of the above are true

A

B. Clinician and parent in a knee-to-knee position with the child’s head in the parents lap

194
Q

Discuss Knee-to-Knee Exams in regards to each of the following:

  • Knee-to-Knee exams are done on ______ that are less than ______ years old.
  • Where is the child’s head in a knee-to-knee exam?

***BOARDS***

195
Q

What are the Five Domains of Pediatric Patient Management?

196
Q

Which of the five domains of pediatric patient management does punishment fall under?

A. Physical domain

B. Pharmacological domain

C. Reward-oriented domain

D. Aversive domain

E. Linguistic domain

A

D. Aversive domain

197
Q

Which of the five domains of pediatric patient management does communication fall under?

A. Physical domain

B. Pharmacological domain

C. Reward-oriented domain

D. Aversive domain

E. Linguistic domain

A

E. Linguistic domain

198
Q

Which of the five domains of pediatric patient management does papoose board, belt and tape fall under?

A. Physical domain

B. Pharmacological domain

C. Reward-oriented domain

D. Aversive domain

E. Linguistic domain

A

A. Physical domain

199
Q

Which of the five domains of pediatric patient management does reinforcement fall under?

A. Physical domain

B. Pharmacological domain

C. Reward-oriented domain

D. Aversive domain

E. Linguistic domain

A

C. Reward-oriented domain

200
Q

Which of the five domains of pediatric patient management does anesthetics, sedatives and nitrous oxide fall under?

A. Physical domain

B. Pharmacological domain

C. Reward-oriented domain

D. Aversive domain

E. Linguistic domain

A

B. Pharmacological domain

201
Q

(T/F)

Reinforcement should always be taken slow and specific to the desirable behavior.

202
Q

Discuss Behavior Shaping in regards to each of the following:

  • Slowly develop behavior by reinforcing successive approximations to a desired goal.
  • Ask to open wide = patient only opens a bit = ?
  • Reinforcement should always be _____ and specific to the desirable behavior
203
Q

All of the following are examples of Aversive Conditioning EXCEPT:

A. Punish with the purpose of extinguishing or improving negative behavior

B. For timid and tense-cooperative children

C. Speaking in firm tones (voice control)

D. Hand-over-Mouth - gently place hand over patient’s mouth to gain attention of uncontrolled patients

A

B. For timid and tense-cooperative children

204
Q

Aversive Conditioning is a technique used on which of the following?

A. Timid children

B. Tense-cooperative

C. Uncontrolled

D. All of the above

A

C. Uncontrolled

205
Q

The Hand-over-Mouth technique is used on which of the following type of patients?

A. Timid children

B. Tense-cooperative

C. Uncontrolled

D. All of the above

A

C. Uncontrolled

206
Q

Discuss Aversive Conditioning in regards to each of the following:

  • What is it?
  • Not for _____ and _______ children.
  • Voice control = ?
  • Hand-over-Mouth (HOM) = ? ***BOARDS***
207
Q

What are the 3 ADHD medications we need to know?

A
  1. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
  2. Atomoxetine (Strattera)
  3. Amphetamine (Adderall)
208
Q

(T/F)

ADHD is more common in females than males.

***BOARDS***

209
Q

Discuss ADHD in regards to each of the following:

  • Inattentive (AD) and hyperactive (HD)
  • More common in (boys/girls?) ***BOARDS***
  • Most commonly first appears at what ages?
  • What are the 3 most common psychostimulant medications?
210
Q

What are the symptoms of a patient suffering from Autism?

***BOARDS***

A

Autism

  • Repetative behavior
  • Heightened sense of light and sound
211
Q

Discuss Autism in regards to each of the following:

  • What is autism?
  • What are the symptoms of Autism? ***BOARDS***
212
Q

What is the maximum amount (mg/kg) local anesthestic that can be given to children?

213
Q

Discuss Local Anesthesia in Children in regards to each of the following:

  • _______mg/kg is the maximum recommended dose of anesthetic for children.
  • IAN innervates what teeth?
  • PSA innervates what teeth?
  • ASA innervates what teeth?
214
Q

The most common complication w/ nitrous sedation in children is nausea. Nitrous Oxide is contraindicated in children with asthma.

A. First statement is true, second is false

B. First statement is false, second is true

C. Both statements are true

D. Both statements are false

A

A. First statement is true, second is false

215
Q

Discuss Nitrous Sedation in Children in regards to each of the following:

  • Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) is the concentration required to render _____% of patients immobile
  • MAC of nitrous oxide is ______%
  • Protocol:
    • Fill bag with oxygen and place hood on patient’s nose with flow rate of ______ L/min.
    • Increase nitrous in ____% increments up to about ____% for operative procedures.
    • ________ is the most common complications.
    • Diffusion Hypoxia = ?
  • Contraindications:
    • < ___years old
    • ________ patients
    • ______ episodes (mild to moderate asthma is okay)
216
Q

Discuss the Four Plateaus of Stage I Anesthesia in regards to each of the following:

  • Paresthesis = ?
  • Vasomotor = ?
  • Drift = ?
  • Dream = ?
217
Q

Which of the following is not one of the Four Plateaus of Stage I Anesthesia?

A. Paresthesia

B. Disinhibition

C. Vasomotor

D. Drift

E. Dream

A

B. Disinhibition

218
Q

Fluoride Drops are indicated in children ages ______.

A. 3yrs or younger

B. > 3yrs

C. > 6yrs

A

A. 3yrs or younger

219
Q

Fluoride Mouth Risnse is indicated in children ages ______.

A. 3yrs or younger

B. > 3yrs

C. > 6yrs

220
Q

Fluoride tablets and lozenges are indicated in children ages ______.

A. 3yrs or younger

B. > 3yrs

C. > 6yrs

221
Q

Discuss Fluoride for Children in regards to each of the following:

  • Prescription only
  • For children at risk for caries who live in ________ area.
  • What kind of fluoride is used on children 3yrs or younger?
  • What kind of fluoride is used on children > 3yrs?
  • What kind of fluoride is used on children > 6yrs?
    • ____% NaF solution weekly
    • ____% NaF solution daily
222
Q

(T/F)

Thumb sucking is very common up to the age 4.

223
Q

All of the following are effects of prolonged thumb sucking EXCEPT:

A. Increased overjet

B. Anterior open bite

C. Maxillary expansion

D. Posterior crossbite

E. All of the above are effects of prolonged thumb sucking

A

C. Maxillary expansion

224
Q

All of the following are effects of prolonged thumb sucking EXCEPT:

A. Increased overjet

B. Anterior open bite

C. Maxillary constriction

D. Posterior crossbite

E. All of the above are effects of prolonged thumb sucking

A

E. All of the above are effects of prolonged thumb sucking

225
Q

All of the following are effects of prolonged thumb sucking EXCEPT:

A. Increased overbite

B. Anterior open bite

C. Maxillary constriction

D. Posterior crossbite

E. All of the above are effects of prolonged thumb sucking

A

A. Increased overbite

226
Q

All of the following are effects of prolonged thumb sucking EXCEPT:

A. Increased overjet

B. Anterior open bite

C. Maxillary constriction

D. Anterior crossbite

E. All of the above are effects of prolonged thumb sucking

A

D. Anterior crossbite

227
Q

At what age should intervention with appliance therapy be recommended for thumbsucking?

A

Age 5 or 6

228
Q

Discuss Thumbsucking in regards to each of the following:

  • Very common up to age _____
  • Depends on what 3 factors?
  • What are the 4 effects that can result from thumbsucking?
  • When is intervention w/ appliance therapy recommended?
  • Crib = ?
  • Bluegrass = ?

***HIGH YIELD***

229
Q

Which of the following are present at birth?

A. Natal teeth

B. Neonatal teeth

A

A. Natal teeth

230
Q

Which of the following erupt within first 30 days?

A. Natal teeth

B. Neonatal teeth

A

B. Neonatal teeth

231
Q

Baby tooth causing ulceration on ventral tongue is known as ________ disease.

A

Riga-Fede disease

232
Q

Discuss Natal and Neonatal Teeth in regards to each of the following:

  • Natal teeth = ?
  • Neonatal teeth = ?
  • Most common are primary _____________ (which are the first teeth to erupt anyway)
  • Riga-Fede Disease = ?
  • May cause _____ difficulties.

***HIGH YIELD***

233
Q

A child’s first dental visit should be by the age of _____.

A. 1 years old

B. 2 years old

C. 2 and 5 years old

D. 6 years old

A

A. 1 years old

234
Q

A pea of toothpaste should be used between the age of _______.

A. 1 years old

B. 2 years old

C. 2 and 5 years old

D. 6 years old

A

C. 2 and 5 years old

235
Q

A smear of toothpaste is used before the age of _____.

A. 1 years old

B. 2 years old

C. 2 and 5 years old

D. 6 years old

A

B. 2 years old

236
Q

Any dmft on a patient younger than the age ________ is considered Early Childhood Caries (ECC).

A. 4 yrs

B. 5yrs

C. 6yrs

D. 7yrs

E. 8yrs

237
Q

Discuss Early Childhood Caries (ECC) in regards to each of the following:

  • Also called ______.
  • Any dmft on patient younger than age _______.
  • Breastfeeding before bed should stop after ___________.
  • Other causes:
    • Constipation = ?
    • Ear infections = ?
  • Recommendations:
    • Infants should drink from a cup as they approach age _____
    • First dental visit by age _____
    • Smear of toothpaste before age ______
    • Pea of toothpaste between age _____ and ______

***FORSURE BOARDS Qs***

238
Q

Infants should drink from a cup as they approach age _____.

A. 1 years old

B. 2 years old

C. 2 and 5 years old

D. 6 years old

A

A. 1 years old

INBDE (18 decks)

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