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year 1 > PRINCIPLES MICROBIOLOGY > Flashcards

PRINCIPLES MICROBIOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

what is the genus and what is the species:

Staphylococcus Aureus

A

genus - staphylococcus

species - aureus

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2
Q

do prion proteins have DNA or RNA

A

neither

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3
Q

what disease are prion proteins known to cause

A

mad cow disease - Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease

incurable

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4
Q

Why must surgical equipment used with prion proteins be destroyed

A

prion proteins not killed by sterilisation or disinfection

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5
Q

how is DNA stored in a bacterial cell (prokaryote)

A

contained within a tightly coiled double stranded chromosome (nucleoid)
+ extra circular rings of DNA in cytosol (plasmids)

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6
Q

what is the purpose of flagellae of bacterial cells

A

aid movement

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7
Q

what is the purpose of pili (fimbriae) of bacterial cell

A

adhesion

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8
Q

what are spirillum

A

tufts at each end of a bacterial cell to aid movement (flagellae)

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9
Q

what are spirochaete

A

spirals within periplasm that cause cork screw motion

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10
Q

what shape are coccus bacteria

A

round

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11
Q

what shape are bacillus bacteria

A

rod shaped

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12
Q

where does a gram stain stain

A

the cell wall

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13
Q

what colour does gram negative stain

A

pink

Negative stains piNk

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14
Q

what colour does gram positive stain

A

purple

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15
Q

describe the gram positive cell wall

A

thick layer of peptidoglycan

cytoplasmic phospholipid membrane

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16
Q

describe the gram negative cell wall

A

outer cytoplasmic membrane
middle thin layer of peptidoglycan cell wall
inner cytoplasmic membrane
Larger periplasmic space

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17
Q

why does mycobacterium tuberculosis not stain well

A

waxy coat

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18
Q

what does virulence mean

A

degree of pathogenicity - how easily organism can cause disease

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19
Q

how do bacteria replicate

A

binary fission

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20
Q

what do bacteria need to grow

A

food
moisture
correct temp and pH

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21
Q

what is the typical temperature and pH of a human pathogen

A

37 degrees

pH 7.4

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22
Q

what are the 4 phases of bacterial growth

A

Lag phase
log phase
stationary phase
death phase

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23
Q

describe the BR/DR in the 4 phases

A

lag phase - BR > DR
log phase - BR > DR
stationary phase - BR = DR
death phase - BR < DR

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24
Q

what is meant by the term microaerophilic

A

decreased oxygen and increased carbon dioxide

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25
Q

do gram positive produce exotoxins or endotoxins

A

exotoxins - propelled

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26
Q

do gram negative produce exotoxins or endotoxins

A

Negative produce eNdotoxins - attached to cell wall

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27
Q

why is gram negative sepsis slightly worse

A

endotoxins can be released from cell walls when they die

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28
Q

are gram negative or gram positive more susceptible to antibiotics?

A

gram positive - outside peptidoglycan layer acts as a target

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29
Q

what is the effect of bacterial toxins

A 
cause release of cytokines from immune cells
damage red and white blood cells
make BVs leaky
reduced clotting ability
reduced BP
sepsis and septic shock
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30
Q

what do gram positive bacilli (C. Diff, bacillus anthracis) form

A

spores

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31
Q

what occurs if fusiform bacteria cross the placenta

A

still births / cancer

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32
Q

describe the 3 steps in spore formation

A

1) chromosome condensation
2) septum formation
3) calcium dipicolinate accumulation in core

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33
Q

what does a spore consist of

A

cytoplasm + contents + cytoplasmic membrane - surrounded by exosporium

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34
Q

give 5 times when hand washing is necessary

A 
before patient contact
before aseptic task
after bodily fluid exposure
after patient contact
after contact with patient surroundings
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35
Q

what are the 2 types on fungi

A

moulds and yeasts

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36
Q

how do yeasts reproduce

A

budding

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37
Q

how do moulds reproduce

A

spores spread by air current

hyphae spread by invading organic tissue

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38
Q

when is asperigillus sp. mainly seen (mould)

A

immunocompromised patients (opportunistic)

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39
Q

what is the most common fungal infection in humans

A

candida spp. (yeast)

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40
Q

what do yeasts look like in a gram stain

A

large gram positive oval structures

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41
Q

do moulds stain?

A

no

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42
Q

what are protozoa

A

single celled parasites

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43
Q

Streptococci spp is …

How is it subdivided?

A

a gram positive cocci in strips
strep sounds like strip

haemolyisis

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44
Q

staphylococci app. is …

how is it subdivided?

A

a gram positive cocci in clusters
aerobic but facultative

in the STAPH room the teachers stand in clusters

coagulase test

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45
Q

enterococci sp is …

A

a gram positive cocci

aerobic but facultative

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46
Q

what is alpha haemolysis

What colour is it

A

partial haemolysis

caused by enzymes that denature haemoglobin inside RBCs causing a GREEN decolorisation around colony

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47
Q

what is beta haemolysis

What colour is it

A

complete haemolysis

caused by enzymes that lyse the RBC completely causing CLEAR/YELLOW around the colony

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48
Q

what is gamma haemolysis

give an example

A 
no haemolysis (red appearance)
enterococci
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49
Q

what are the most pathogenic strep species

A

Beta haemolytic

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50
Q

give 2 examples of alpha-haemolytic strep

A 
strep pneumonia (pneumococcus)
strep viridans
51
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae is …

A 
alpha haemolytic
gram positive
cocci
in short chains or pairs (diplococci)
most common cause of pneumonia
52
Q

strep viridians is …

A

alpha haemolytic
gram positive
cocci
in chains

53
Q

what are the 2 groups of beta haemolytic strep

A 
group A (strep. progenies) - most infectious
group B
54
Q

give 3 things caused by strep pyogenes

A

strep throat ( tonsillitis or scarlet fever if rash also present)
skin and soft tissue infection - necrotising fascitis
puerperal sepsis - fatal infection in pregnant and recently post natal women

55
Q

give 2 examples of enterococcus

A

enterococcus faecalis
enterococcus faecium
normal bowel commensals

56
Q

what type of enterococcus can cause outbreaks in hospitals

A

enterococcus faecium - VRE (vancomycin resistant enterococci)

57
Q

what is the most common cause of skin, soft tissue, bone, joint and wound infections

A

staph aureus

58
Q

what causes toxic shock

A

staph aureus

59
Q

how is staphylococci divided/identified

A

coagulase positive - staph aureus (golden)

coagulase negative - all others (white) e.g. staph epidermidis

60
Q

what does MSSA stand for

A

methicillin sensitive staph aureus

sensitive to flucloxacillin

61
Q

what does MRSA stand for

A

methicillin resistance staph aureus
resistant to all penicillins, flucloxacillin and all cephalosporins
alteration of PBP2 (penicillin binding protein 2)

62
Q

how does staph epidermidis stick to plastic and other artificial material in body

A

produces a surface polysaccharide slime
infection of prosthetic joint/valve/IV catheter
normal commensal of skin

63
Q

what is Panton-Valentine leukocidin

A

toxin produced by some strains of staph. aureus which causes damage to WBCs
associated with necrolytic skin infection

64
Q

how do endotoxins work

A

interact with macrophages to stimulate immune response and cytokine release
cytokines cause adverse effects of sepsis and travel to hypothalamus

65
Q

what is released in response to cytokines and from where

A

prostaglandin E - hypothalamus

66
Q

what does prostaglandin E do

A

increases the body’s thermal set point - shivering stimulated

67
Q

what goes in the black bin bags

A

domestic waste

68
Q

what goes in the orange bin bags

A

clinical waste

69
Q

what is an FFP3 mask and when is it used

A

filter mask

airborne precaution

70
Q

what is another airborne infection precaution

A

negative pressure room

71
Q

what occurs in sepsis

A 
leaky blood vessels
loss of fluid into tissues
hypotension / hypovolaemia
tachycardia
poor tissue perfusion
72
Q

why is haemorrhage more likely in sepsis

A

clotting factors activated - blood clotting in tiny vessels

uses up clotting factors

73
Q

what kind of symmetry do adenoviruses show

A

icosahedral symmetry

74
Q

how many subunits in icosahedral symmetry

A

3
1 for apex
1 for centre of face
1 for edges

75
Q

how many subunits in helical symmetry

A

1 repeated unit

76
Q

give the 6 steps in the replicated of a virus

A

1) attachment to cell
2) entry into cell
3) uncoating of viral nucleic acid
4) nucleic acid and protein synthesis
5) assembly
6) release - budding / cell lysis

77
Q

what is the Varicella - zoster virus

A

remains latent before reactivating in dorsal root ganglia (shingles)

78
Q

Neisseria spp. are …

A

aerobic
gram negative
cocci in pairs

e.g. neisseira meningitides - most common cause of bacterial meningitis

79
Q

coliform are…

A 
rod shaped
aerobic but facultative
gram negative
large
bacilli
non-spore forming
80
Q

what are the 2 types of coliform

A 
O antigens (cell wall)
H antigens (flagella)
81
Q

give 6 types of coliform

A 
E. Coli
Klebsiella 
Enterobacter
Proteus
Salmonella
Shigella
82
Q

what is the first line treatment for coliforms

A

gentamicin

83
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginois
legionella pneumophila
are …

A

gram negative
bacilli
strict aerobes

84
Q

haemophillus influenza is …

A

small
gram negative
bacillus
aerobes

85
Q

H. Pylori is …

A

gram negative
small
curved bacilli
microaerophilic

86
Q

campylobacter spp is…

A

gram negative
spiral
bacilli
microaerophilic

87
Q

clostridium spp are…

A

gram positive
bacilli
produces spores
strict anaerobe

88
Q

bacteriodes spp. are …

A

gram negative
bacilli
strict anaerobes

89
Q

what is the first line treatment for anaerobes?

A

metronidazole

90
Q

give 3 examples of clostridium spp

A

C. difficile - diarrhoea
C. Tetani - tetanus
C. Perfringens - gas gangrene

91
Q

what do gram negative bacteria release when they die

A

lipopolysaccharides - form a ligand:receptor communication with toll-like receptor 4 (found on macrophage surface)

92
Q

what are beta lactam antibiotics

A

contain beta lactam structure in their molecular structure

penicillins, co-amoxiclavs, cephalosporins

93
Q

what are mycobacteria stained by

A

acid-alcohol fast bacilli

94
Q

what is genetic variation in bacteria and what are the 3 ways it can occur

A

mutation and gene transfer
transformation
conjugation
transduction

95
Q

what is transformation

A

when DNA released from dead bacteria is taken up by living bacteria and incorporated into plasmids of nucleoid

96
Q

what is conjugation

A

sex plus is produced by one bacteria through which plasmid DNA can be transferred

97
Q

what is transduction

A

when viruses infect bacteria and transfer bits of DNA from one bacterium to another

98
Q

What would a bacteria that produces beta lactamase be resistant to

A

amoxicillin

99
Q

What would a bacteria that produces extended spectrum beta lactamase be resistant to

A

all penicillins and cephalosporins

100
Q

What would a bacteria that produces carbapenemase be resistant to

A

all penicillins
all cephalosporins
all carbapenems

101
Q

how does penicillin work

A

ACTS ON CELL WALL

inhibit cell wall synthesis by preventing cross linking of peptidoglycan subunit

102
Q

how do cephalosporins work

A

ACT ON CELL WALL
bactericidal
inhibit cell wall synthesis

103
Q

how do glycopeptides work

e.g. vancomycin, tercoplanin

A

ACT ON CELL WALL
bactericidal
bind to end of growing pentapeptide chain preventing cross linking and therefore weakening cell wall
gram positive only

104
Q

why can persistor cells not be targeted by antibiotics

A

enclosed within a biofilm so can’t be targeted in a dormant/inactive state

105
Q

give examples of 3 types of penicillin

A

benzylpenicillin - penicillin G (IV)
phenoxymethyl penicillin - penicillin V (oral)
benzathine penicillin - IM, long acting

106
Q

what is the functional group of penicillin

A

beta-lactam ring

107
Q

what is co-amoxiclav

A

amoxicillin + clavulanic acid - inhibits action of beta-lactamase enzyme so that amoxicillin can work where it wouldn’t normally

108
Q

how do macrolides work

e.g. erythromycin, clarithromycin, azithromycin

A

INHIBIT PROTEIN SYNTHESIS
bacteriostatic - protein synthesis can resume once the antibiotic is removed
taken into bacterial cell by AT, bind to 50S subunit and prevent tRNA from binding at receptor sites

109
Q

how do tetracyclines work

e.g. tetracycline, doxycycline

A

INHIBIT PROTEIN SYNTHESIS
bacteriostatic
taken into bacterial cell by AT, bind to 30S subunit and prevent tRNA from binding at receptor sites

110
Q

how do aminoglycosides work

e.g. gentamicin

A

INHIBIT PROTEIN SYNTHESIS
bactericidal - binding to ribosome is lethal
taken into bacterial cell by AT, bind to 30S subunit and prevent tRNA from binding at receptor sites

111
Q

when should vancomycin be avoided

A

kidney failure

112
Q

how are macrolides excreted

A

via liver, biliary tract and into faeces

113
Q

how is gentamicin excreted

A

kidneys

114
Q

what 2 things does gentamicin cause damage to

A

kidneys

vestibulocochlear nerve CN VII

115
Q

how does metronidazole work

A

ACTS ON BACTERIAL DNA
causes DNA strand breakage
anaerobic infections and some protozoal

116
Q

how does trimethoprim work

A

ACTS ON BACTERIAL DNA

inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis

117
Q

how is trimethoprim excreted

A

kidneys

118
Q

what is co-trimoxazole

A

trimethoprim + sulphamethoxazole

119
Q

how do fluoroquinolones work
e.g. ciprofloxacin
levofloxacin

A

ACT ON BACTERIAL DNA
prevent supercoiling of bacterial DNA
bactericidal

120
Q

what is used for atypical cover

A

clarithromycin

121
Q

Amoxicillin covers …
Gentamicin covers …
Metronidazole …

A

gram positive
gram negative
anaerobes

122
Q

(most) enterococci sensitive to …

A

co-trimoxazole

(most) amoxicillin

123
Q

what is pseudomonas aeruginosa treated with

A

ciprofloxacin

resistant to most antibiotics and gram negative

year 1 (45 decks)

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