Prezzi Powerpoints Flashcards

1
Q

The fetal heart begins to beat at __-__ days of gestation

A

36
37

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2
Q

A heart rate using M-mode should be sonographically obtainable with endovaginal imaging when crown rump length measures __-__ mm

A

4
5

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3
Q

In the third trimester, an average fetal heart rate is ___ bpm, with a range of 110 to 180 bpm considered normal after first trimester.

A

150

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4
Q

An elevation in the fetal heart rate is term _____

A

tachycardia

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5
Q

A decreased in the fetal heart rate is term _____

A

bradycardia

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6
Q

The heart, which is fully formed at __ weeks, is imaged most often in a cross-sectional or axial view of the fetal chest just above the fetal stomach. This transducer placement will yield the standard _______ view. The apex of the heart will be angled to the ____ of the midline, with the base, _____ to the spine.

A

10
four chamber
left
closest

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7
Q

The normal fetal heart will fill approximately _____ of the fetal chest, with its apex forming a ___ degree angle with the fetal spine.

A

1/3
45

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8
Q

The chamber closest to the fetal spine is the:

A

left atrium

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9
Q

The ______ is within the right ventricle. Normal structure that appears as an echogenic focus.

A

moderator band

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10
Q

The ____ valve is between the right ventricle and the right atrium.

A

tricuspid

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11
Q

The ____ valve is between the left ventricle and the left atrium.

A

mitral

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12
Q

The four chamber view can be used to evaluate, the separation of the chambers, structures called _____

A

septums

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13
Q

The two atria are separated by the _____ septum.

A

atrial

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14
Q

The two ventricles are separated by the _____ septum.

A

ventricular

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15
Q

The ventricular septum should be uninterrupted and of equal thickness to the:

A

left ventricular wall

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16
Q

The atrial septum is open only at the _____

A

foramen ovale

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17
Q

Three vessel view

A

main pulmonary artery
ascending aorta
superior vena cava

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18
Q

The ______ outflow tract leads to the pulmonary artery and branches.

A

right ventricular

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19
Q

The ______ outflow tract leads to the aorta.

A

left ventricular

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20
Q

The normal pulmonary artery should be positioned ____ to the aorta and should be visualized crossing over it. That means, the aorta and pulmonary artery normally criss cross each other.

A

anterior

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21
Q

The normal umbilical cord contains:

A

two arteries and one vein

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22
Q

The _______ brings oxygen-rich blood from the placenta to the fetus

A

umbilical vein

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23
Q

The _____ travels superiorly and connects to the left portal vein

A

umbilical vein

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24
Q

Half of the blood goes to the liver through the _____, whereas the other half is shunted directly into the inferior vena cava via a small branch of the umbilical vein called the _____

A

left portal vein
ductus venosus

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25
Q

The existing oxygen -rich blood in the IVC travels to the heart and enters the:

A

right atrium

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26
Q

Blood can then travel across the ______, an opening in the lower middle third of the atrial septum and into the ______, or it can eneter the right ventricle through the _____.

A

foramen ovale
right atrium
tricuspid valve

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27
Q

The blood then leaves the right ventricle through the _____.

A

main pulmonary artery

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28
Q

Blood from the right ventricle can also flow through the _____ and into the descending aorta.

A

ductus arteriosus

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29
Q

The blood returning from the lungs through the pulmonary veins enters into the _____.

A

left atrium

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30
Q

Blood then travels from the left atrium into the left ventricle via the ______

A

mitral valve

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31
Q

From the left ventricle, it travels to the ascending aorta and into the aortic arch, where it exits into the ______, _____, and ______ on its way to the thorax, upper extremities, and head.

A

brachiocephalic artery
left common carotid artery
left subclavian artery

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32
Q

The blood will return from the head and upper torso via the _____ to the right atrium.

A

superior vena cava

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33
Q

The ______ return the deoxygenated blood from the fetus back to the placenta.

A

umbilical arteries

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34
Q

The ______ diverts blood from right to left atrium, bypassing the pulmonary circulation. It closes to become the _____

A

foramen ovale
fossa ovalis

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35
Q

The ______diverts blood from pulmonary artery to aorta, bypassing pulmonary circulation

A

ductus arteriosus

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36
Q

The ductus arteriosus diverts __% of umbilical vein blood away from the liver.

A

80

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37
Q

a group of anomalies characterized sonographically as a small or absent left ventricle

A

hypoplastic left heart syndrome

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38
Q

the leading cause of cardiac death in the neonatal period, with 95% dying within the first month of life if surgery is not performed

A

hypoplastic left heart syndrome

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39
Q

When HLHS is found in girls ______ must be suspected. There is also a connection with _____

A

Turner syndrome
trisomy 18

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40
Q

sonographic findings of HLHS

A

absent or small left ventricle
no communication between left atrium and left ventricle
aortic atresia
aortic stenosis
coarctation of the aorta

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41
Q

sonographically identified as a small or an absent right ventricle; most often results from pulmonary stenosis or pulmonary atresia, but it may result from stenosis or atresia of the tricuspid valve

A

hypoplastic right heart syndrome

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42
Q

sonographic findings of hypoplastic right heart syndrome

A

absent of small right ventricle
enlarged left ventricle
fetal hydrops (secondary to cardiac failure)
narrowing of the pulmonary valveab

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43
Q

abnormal opening in the septum between the two atria of the heart

A

atrial septal defect

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44
Q

sonographic findings of atrial septal defect

A

absence of part of the atrial septum

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45
Q

combination of both ASD and AVD

A

atrioventricular septal defect

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46
Q

results from the abnormal development of the central portion of the heart

A

atrioventricular septal defect

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47
Q

endocardial cushion defect

A

atrioventricular septal defect

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48
Q

AVSD is commonly associated with ____, ______, and _____

A

aneuploidy
trisomy 21
trisomy 18

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49
Q

sonographic findings of AVSD

A

absence of the atrial and ventricular septum

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50
Q

malformation of malpositioning of the tricuspid valve

A

Ebstein anomaly

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51
Q

In ebstein anomaly. the right ventricle is contiguous with the right atrium, a finding referred to as _____

A

“atrialized” right ventricle

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52
Q

Sonographic findings of Ebstein anomaly

A

malpositioned tricuspid valve
right and left atrial shunting
tricuspid regurgitation
enlarged right atrium
deviation of the atrial septum to the left
fetal hydrops (secondary to cardiac failure)

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53
Q

abnormal opening in the septum between the two ventricles of the heart

A

ventricular septal defect

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54
Q

sonographic findings of ventricular septal defect

A

absence of part of the ventricular septum

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55
Q

Most common form of cardiac defect

A

ventricular septal defect

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56
Q

fluid located around the heart

A

pericardial effusion

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57
Q

anechoic fluid surrounding the heart

A

pericardial effusion

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58
Q

narrowing of the aortic arch

A

coarctation of the aorta

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59
Q

The most common location of coarctation of the aorta is:

A

between the left subclavian artery and the ductus arteriosus

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60
Q

Sonographic findings of coarctation of the aorta

A

narrowing of the aortic arch
right ventricular enlargement
pulmonary artery enlargement

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61
Q

outflow tracts reversed; the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle and the aorta arises from the right ventricle

A

transposition of the great vessels

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62
Q

Most often seen within the left ventricle; thought to represent the calcification of the papillary muscle or chordae tendinae

A

echogenic intracardiac focus

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63
Q

sonographic findings of echogenic intracardiac focus

A

echogenic structure most commonly located in the left ventricle

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64
Q

most common fetal cardiac tumor

A

rhabdomyoma

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65
Q

Tumor located within the myocardium of the heart

A

rhabdomyoma

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66
Q

Rhabdomyoma is associated with ______

A

tuberous sclerosis

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67
Q

heart is located either partially or completely outside of the chest

A

ectopic cords

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68
Q

g group of anomalies that combine ectopic cordis and an existing omphalocele

A

Pentalogy of Cantrell

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69
Q

defined as an overriding aortic root, subaortic VSD, pulmonary stenosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

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70
Q

sonographic findings of Tetralogy of Fallot

A

overriding aortic root, VSD, pulmonary atresia, right ventricular hypertrophy

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71
Q

Functional fetal lung tissue does not typically exist until after ___ weeks

A

25

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72
Q

The normal L/S ratio is ___=___ and is significant for appropriate fetal lung development

A

2.0
2.5

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73
Q

An L/S ratio of less than ____ is significant for immature fetal lung development

A

2.0

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74
Q

L/S ratio is:

A

lecitihin to sphingomyelin ratio

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75
Q

As the lungs mature the level of lecithin _____ whereas the level of sphingomyelin _____

A

increases
decreases

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76
Q

Begins at 4-5 weeks of gestation, where two tiny buds branch off to form either side of the lungs

A

embryonic phase

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77
Q

Begins at 5-17 weeks of gestation when a barrier develops between the air and gas-carrying tissues

A

canalicular phase

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78
Q

Begins at the 26th week of gestation when the surfactant starts to develop, keeping the delicate lung tissues from sticking

A

Saccular phase

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79
Q

Final stage continues even after delivery, where the additional production of surfactant states, and bronchioles and air sacs (alveoli) grow

A

alveolar phase

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80
Q

5 phases of lung development

A

embryonic
pseudoglandular
canalicular
saccular
alveolar

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81
Q

underdevelopment of the lungs

A

pulmonary hypoplasia

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82
Q

caused by a decreased number of lung cells, airways, and alveoli

A

pulmonary hypoplasia

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83
Q

Pulmonary hypoplasia is a common finding with _____

A

oligiohydramnios

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84
Q

The most common lesion that occupies the chest, resulting in pulmonary hypoplasia is:

A

diaphramatic hernia

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85
Q

Pulmonary hypoplasia is associated with:

A

Potter syndrome

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86
Q

fluid surrounding the lungs

A

pleural effusion

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87
Q

also known as hydrothorax

A

pleural effusion

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88
Q

anechoic fluid surrounding the fetal lungs

A

pleural effusion

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89
Q

also referred to as congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation (CCAM)

A

cystic adenomatoid malformation

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90
Q

mass consisting of abnormal bronchial and lung tissue

A

CCAM

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91
Q

mass that has both cystic and solid components, however it can also appear completely echogenic

A

CCAM

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92
Q

lung mass with varying degrees of cystic and solid components, completely echogenic mass within the lungs

A

sonographic appears of CCAM

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93
Q

also referred to as bronchopulmonary sequestration

A

pulmonary sequestration

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94
Q

separate mass of nonfunctioning lung tissue with its own blood supply to

A

pulmonary sequestration

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95
Q

echogenic, triangular-shaped mass, typically located with the left side of the fetal chest

A

pulmonary sequestration

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96
Q

sonographic findings of pulmonary sequestration

A

echogenic triangular shaped mass in the fetal chest; pleural effusion may be present

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97
Q

most common reason for fetal cardiac malpostion

A

diaphragmatic hernia

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98
Q

results in abnormal opening in the fetal diaphragm that allows the herniation of abdominal contents into the chest cavity

A

diaphragmatic hernia

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99
Q

Most common location of diaphragmatic hernia

A

left side of chest

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100
Q

Left sided diaphragmatic hernia located on the left side is called:

A

Bockdalek hernia

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101
Q

Sonographic findings of diaphragmatic hernia

A

malposition of the heart
anechoic stomach bubble noted adjacent to the fetal heart in the four chamber view
other abdominal organs including the liver, pancreas, and spleen may be located within the chest

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102
Q

The fetal thymus is located anterior to the:

A

mediastinum

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103
Q

The thymus is apart of the immune system because it provides a place for the maturation of _____, which are specialized white blood cells

A

T cell

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104
Q

hypoechoic structure located in the anterior chest at the level of the sternum between the lungs

A

thymus

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105
Q

genetic disorder characterized by an absent or a hypoplastic thymus, which ultimately leads to impairment of the immune system and susceptibility to infection, as well as cognitive disorders, congenital heart defects, palate defects, and hormonal abnormalities

A

DiGeorge syndrome

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106
Q

The spine consists of five sections:

A

cervical
thoracic
lumbar
sacrum
coccyx

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107
Q

Each fetal vertebra consists of three echogenic ossification centers:

A

one centrum and two neural processes

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108
Q

The axial skeleton begins to form between the __ and ___ weeks.

A

6
8

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109
Q

The axial skeleton consists of the:

A

cranium
spine

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110
Q

hypoechoic line at structure that extends from the base of the cranium to the distal spine

A

spinal cord

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111
Q

_____ and ____ are the most common neural defects, occurring in 1 of every 1000 births

A

anencephaly
spina bifida

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112
Q

____ spina bifida is not associated with elevated MSAFP because of the skin covering

A

closed

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113
Q

It has been reported that __% of spina bifida cases can be detected with AFP screening in combination with sonography.

A

80

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114
Q

Distortion of the spine can be seen with:

A

hemivertebrae
myelomeningoceles
amniotic band syndrome
limb-body wall complex

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115
Q

a deformity of the spine in which there is an abnormal lateral curvature

A

scolisiosis

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116
Q

abnormal posterior curvatures of the spine

A

kyphosis

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117
Q

when the lower back, above the buttocks, curves inward too much; also konwn as swayback

A

lordosis

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118
Q

When the upper spine curves too far outward, forming a hump on the upper back

A

lordosis

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119
Q

deformity of the spine in which there is an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine

A

scoliosis

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120
Q

abnormal posterior curvature of the spine

A

kyphosis

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121
Q

also referred to as body stalk anomaly or short umbilical cord syndrome

A

limb body wall complex

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122
Q

Three postulated causes for limb body wall complex

A

vascular occlusion
amnion rupture
embryonic dysgenesis

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123
Q

most common sonographic findings of limb body wall complex

A

short or absent umbilical cord
ventral wall defects
limb defects
craniofacial defects
scoliosis
fetus will appear closely connected with the placenta

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124
Q

Because of the opening in the ventral wall, ____ levels of MSAFP can be detected in the second trimester in limb body wall complex

A

elevated

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125
Q

________ has very similar sonographic findings to limb body wall complex and may actually be seen simultaneously

A

Amniotic band syndrome

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126
Q

A common sonographic findings of LBWC is:

A

short or absent umbilical cord

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127
Q

denotes the abnormal development of a structure

A

dysplasia

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128
Q

More than ___ skeletal dysplasias have been identified

A

271

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129
Q

Four most common skeletal dysplasia

A

achondroplasia
achondrogenesis
osteogenesis imperfecta
thanatoprhoic dysplasia

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130
Q

most common nonlethal skeletal dysplasia

A

achondroplasia

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131
Q

a type of dwarfism in which the proximal portions of the limbs, the humerus and femurs, are much shorter than the distal portion of the limbs

A

heterozygous achondroplasia

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132
Q

proximal portions of the limbs are much shorter than the distal portions of the limbs

A

rhizomelia

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133
Q

sonographic findings of heterozygous achondroplasia

A

micromelia
macrocrania
frontal bossing
flattened nasal bridge
trident hand

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134
Q

can occur when both parents are dwarfs, it is usually fatal within the first two years of life

A

homozygous achondroplasia

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135
Q

rare lethal condition, resulting in absent mineralization of the skeletal bones

A

achondrogenesis

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136
Q

severely shortened limbs

A

micromelia

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137
Q

sonographic findings of achondrogenesis

A

micromelia
absent mineralization of the skull, spine, pelvis, and limbs
large skull
narrow chest and distended abdomen
polyhydramnios

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138
Q

commonly known as brittle bone disease

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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139
Q

group of disorders that results in multiple fractures that can occur in utero

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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140
Q

The fractures in osteogenesis imperfecta are a result of decreased _____ and poor ______

A

mineralization
ossification

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141
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta ___ is the most severe form

A

II

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142
Q

when transducer pressure is applied to skull, the shape of the “soft” skull can be distorted

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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143
Q

“death-bearing” dysplasia

A

thanatophoric dysplasia

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144
Q

most common lethal dysplasia

A

thanatophoric dysplasia

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145
Q

fetus will have a cloverleaf skull with frontal bossing and hydrocephalus

A

thanatophoric dysplasia

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146
Q

cloverleaf skull
hydrocephalus
depressed nasal bridge
bell-shaped crest (narrow thorax)
polyhydramnios
redundant soft tissue
telephone-receiver long shaped bones

A

sonographic findings of thanatorphic dysplasia

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147
Q

Most common location of spina bifida

A

lumbosacral region

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148
Q

neural tube defect that occurs when the embryonic neural tube fails to close

A

spina bifida

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149
Q

Two groups of spina bifida

A

spina bifida occulta (closed)
spina bifida aperta (open)

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150
Q

may be referred to as spinal dysraphism, meningocele, myelomeningocele

A

spina bifida

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151
Q

open spina bifida

A

spina bifida aperta

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152
Q

Most common form of spina bifida

A

spina bifida aperta

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153
Q

The mass only contain spinal cord (meninges only)

A

meningocele

154
Q

spina bifida cystica

A

meningomyeloceles

155
Q

mass that contains meninges and nerve roots

A

spina bifida cystica

156
Q

closed spina bifida

A

spina bifida occulta

157
Q

No herniation of spinal contents outside spinal column

A

spina bifida occulta

158
Q

In the postnatal period, ______ is suspected when a sacral dimple, hemangioma, lipoma, or tuft of hair is identified in midline of newborn, directly over distal spine.

A

spina bifida occulta

159
Q

Spina bifida is associated with two yellow fruits

A

banana
lemon

160
Q

Spina bifida is often recognized by its associated cranial findings, a group of abnormalities called the ______ malformation.

A

Arnold-Chiari II

161
Q

The pressure of a large mass in the distal spine pulling on the spinal cord causes malformations of the _____ and ______ contents.

A

cranium
intracranial

162
Q

When the frontal bones becomes flattened (bifrontal concavity) and yield a lemon shaped cranium

A

“lemon sign”

163
Q

scalloping of the frontal bones

A

“lemon sign”

164
Q

The cerebellum will become displaced inferiorly and posteriorly and appear curved in appearance of spina bifida. This is referred to as the ____

A

“banana sign”

165
Q

syndrome associated with the absence of the sacrum and coccyx

A

caudal regression syndrome

166
Q

also referred to as sacral agenesis

A

caudal regression syndrome

167
Q

What has a strong associated with caudal regression syndrome?

A

uncontrolled maternal pregestational diabetes

168
Q

absent sacrum and possibly part of lumbar vertebra
possible abnormalities in the lower extremities

A

caudal regression syndrome

169
Q

a fetal anomaly characterized by fusion of the lower extremities, renal agenesis, and oligiohydramnios

A

sirenomelia

170
Q

may also be referred to as mermaid syndrome

A

sirenomelia

171
Q

Sirenomelia is almost always lethal because of ______

A

bilateral renal agenesis

172
Q

Defects that may be seen with sirenomelia

A

cardiac anomalies
genital absence
two vessel cord

173
Q

Sacrococcygeal is a______ tumor

A

germ cell

174
Q

germ cell layers

A

endoderm
mesoderm
ectoderm

175
Q

most common congenital neoplasm

A

sacrococcygeal teratoma

176
Q

Sacrococcygeal tumors are more frequently found in:

A

females

177
Q

Tumor that has the potential to grow inside of the pelvis and may cause obstruction of the urinary tract and destruction of the sacrum and pelvic bones

A

Sacrococcygeal teratoma

178
Q

_____ SCTs have a malignant potential

A

large

179
Q

complex mass extending from distal fetal spine; can be highly vascular; hydronephrosis may be present; fetal hydrops may be present; cardiomegaly

A

Sacrococcygeal teratoma

180
Q

includes bones of upper extremities, lower extremities, and pelvic girdle

A

appendicular skeleton

181
Q

First sonographic appearances of fetal limbs are referred to as:

A

limb buds

182
Q

The appendicular skeleton begins to form between the __ and __ menstrual week.

A

6
8

183
Q

Upper extremities of the appendicular skeleton

A

phalanges (fingers)
metacarpals
carpals
radius
ulna
humerus
clavicle
scapula

184
Q

Lower extremities of the appendicular skeleton

A

phalanges (toes)
metatarsals
tarsals
tibia
fibula
femur

185
Q

Measurements of long bones, especially the _____, are included in the OB sonogram

A

femur

186
Q

Sonographic determination of shortening of a limb is made when the long bones measure :

A

more than four standard deviations below the norm for gestational age

187
Q

absent hand

A

achieria

188
Q

shortening of distal segment of limb

A

acromelia

189
Q

absent limb

A

ameliai

190
Q

absent foot

A

apodia

191
Q

limitation of fetal motion

A

arthrogyroposis

192
Q

deviation of a finger

A

clinodactyl

193
Q

malformation of the bones of the foot in which the foot is most often rotated medially, and the metatarsals and toes lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula

A

clubfoot

194
Q

absent part of an extremity distal to the elbow or knee

A

hemimelia

195
Q

shortening of the middle segment of a limb

A

mesomelia

196
Q

shortening of an entire limb

A

micromelia

197
Q

having less than the normal number of digits

A

oligodactyl

198
Q

absent long bones with the hands and feet arising from the shoulders and hips

A

phocomelia

199
Q

having more than the normal number of digits

A

polydactyl

200
Q

shortening of the proximal segment of the limb

A

rhizomelia

201
Q

abnormal curved shape of the sole of the feet

A

rocker bottom feet

202
Q

exaggerated distance between the first toe and the second toe

A

sandal gap

203
Q

fusion of the digits

A

syndactyl

204
Q

fusion of the legs

A

sirenomelia (mermaid syndrome)

205
Q

clubhand

A

talipomanus

206
Q

increases space between the third finger and the fourth finger

A

trident hand

207
Q

the absence of underdevelopment of the radius

A

radial ray defect

208
Q

absent or hypoplastic radius, various defects in other systems

A

radial ray defect

209
Q

also referred to as talipes or talipes equinovarus

A

clubfoot

210
Q

malformation of the bones of the foot

A

clubfoot

211
Q

In clubfoot, the foot is most often _____ and rotated _____

A

inverted
medially

212
Q

Sonographic diagnosis can be made for clubfoot when the metatarsals and toes lie in the same plane as the ______ and _____

A

tibia and fibula

213
Q

Limb reduction can be caused by ______ syndrome.

A

amniotic band

214
Q

The sticky bands in amniotic band syndrome result from:

A

the rupture of the amnion

215
Q

amputation of fetal parts or severe edema in the affected area, thin linear bands may be seen, facial clefting

A

amniotic band syndrome

216
Q

Whenever any form of ______ is suspected, a thorough facial evaluation should be performed to assess for the associated facial abnormalities that often accompany this unfortunate brain malformation

A

holoprosencephaly

217
Q

a decrease in the size of the eye

A

microphalthmia

218
Q

fusion of the orbits

A

cyclopia

219
Q

absence of the eyes

A

anopthalmia

220
Q

close-set eyes (hypotelorism) and a nose with a single nostril

A

cebocephaly

221
Q

obtained from lateral canthus or orbit to medial canthus of same orbit

A

ocular diameter

222
Q

length between the orbits

A

interocular diameter

223
Q

includes both orbits; distance between lateral canthi of each eye

A

binocular diameter

224
Q

The corners of the eyes are referred to as _____ and _____

A

medial canthus
lateral canthus

225
Q

abnormal division in the lip

A

cleft lip

226
Q

abnormal development of the soft and/or hard palate of the mouth where there is a division in the palate

A

cleft palate

227
Q

displaces orbits laterally, most common cause of hypertelorism

A

anterior cephalocele

228
Q

Most common cause of hypotelorism

A

holoprosencephaly

229
Q

increased distance between orbits

A

hypertelorism

230
Q

a condition in which there is no nose and a proboscis separating two close-set orbits; associated with holoprosencephaly

A

ethmocephaly

231
Q

Anomalies of the ears, including low-set ears, have been noted with trisomies:

A

13
18
21

232
Q

small ears; have a strong like with Down syndrome

A

microtia

233
Q

There is a notable like between the absence of the fetal nasal bone and _____

A

Down syndrome

234
Q

failure of ear to develop

A

anotia

235
Q

unusual protuberance of the tongue

A

macroglossa

236
Q

Macroglossia is most commonly associated with ______ and _____

A

Beckwith-Weidemann syndrome
Down syndrome

237
Q

The maxilla tends to shorter in fetuses with:

A

trisomy 21

238
Q

an oral teratoma

A

epignathus

239
Q

The fetal lip typically closes between __-__ weeks

A

7
8

240
Q

The palate typically closes by __ weeks

A

12

241
Q

abnormal closure or incomplete closure of lip and palate

A

cleft lip and cleft palate

242
Q

Cleft lip/palate is associated with:

A

holoprosencephaly
trisomy 13
amniotic band syndrome

243
Q

small mandible and recessed brain; associated with trisomy 13 and 18

A

micrognathia

244
Q

associated with Turner syndrome, fetal hydrops, aneuploidy, trisomy 21, 13, 18

A

Cystic hygromas

245
Q

also referred to as a lymphangioma

A

cystic hygroma

246
Q

results in abnormal accumulation of lymphatic fluid within the soft tissue

A

cystic hygromas

247
Q

Most common location of cystic hygroma

A

neck

248
Q

can be the cause of overtreatment of maternal Graves disease, iodine deficiency, or hypothyroidism

A

fetal goiter

249
Q

Nuchal fold measurement of __mm or larger is considered abnormal.

A

6

250
Q

Nuchal thickening, edema, or redundant skin in back of neck are common findings during second trimester in fetuses with ______.

A

Down Sydrome

251
Q

By ____ weeks, the neural plate has developed.

A

4.5

252
Q

Initially, the brain is divided into three primary vesicles:

A

prosencephalon
mesencephalon
rhombencephalon

253
Q

forebrain

A

prosencephalon

254
Q

midbrain

A

mesenecephalon

255
Q

hindbrain

A

rhombencephalon

256
Q

The _____ will become the fourth ventricle as well as the medulla oblongata and cerebellum.

A

rhombencephalon

257
Q

The prosencephalon matures into two other vesicles, the _______ and ______.

A

telencephalon
diencephalon

258
Q

The ______ forms the cerebral hemispheres, lateral ventricles, and third ventricle.

A

telencephalon

259
Q

The ______ will become the thalamus and hypothalamus.

A

diencephalon

260
Q

The ______ will become the midbrain, including superior parts of the brainstem.

A

mesencephalon

261
Q

The ______ may be seen as a cystic structure within the fetal head at 7-8 week.

A

rhombencephalon

262
Q

The brain is divided into two main parts, the _____ and the _____.

A

cerebrum
cerebellum

263
Q

The cerebrum is divided into left and right hemispheres by the ________.

A

interhemispheric fissure

264
Q

The ______ is located within the interhemispheric fissure.

A

falx cerebri

265
Q

The cerebral hemispheres are linked in the midline by the ______

A

corpus callosum

266
Q

The corpus callosum forms late in gestation but should be completely in tact between __ and __ weeks

A

18
20

267
Q

The absence of all or part of the corpus callosum is referred to as:

A

agenesis of the corpus callosum

268
Q

The _______ is a midline structure located in the anterior portion of the brain.

A

cavum septum pellucidum

269
Q

The ______ is a vital brain structure that has numerous functions and is a significant landmark

A

thalamus

270
Q

The ______ is a landmark for the BPD.

A

thalamus

271
Q

The skull consists of eight cranial bones known as _____

A

sutures

272
Q

Premature fusion of the sutures is termed _____

A

craniosynostosis

273
Q

The ventricular system is composed of ____ ventricles.

A

4

274
Q

Within the lateral ventricles, is the ______

A

choroid plexus

275
Q

The _______, which is mostly located within the atria of the lateral ventricles, is responsible for producing CSF.

A

choroid plexus

276
Q

The third ventricle connects to the fourth ventricle inferiorly by means of a long tubelike structure called the ______

A

aqueduct of sylvius or the cerebral aqueduct

277
Q

The cerebellum is located in the ______

A

posterior fossa

278
Q

The cerebellum consists of two hemispheres that are coupled in the midline by the ________

A

cerebellar vermis

279
Q

The normal _______ is dumbbell shaped in the posterior cranium of the fetus.

A

cerebellum

280
Q

________, located in the posterior fossa of the cranium, is the largest cistern in the head.

A

cisternal magna

281
Q

anechoic area posterior to the cerebellum between the cerebellar vermis

A

cisternal magna

282
Q

Head circumference is taken at the same time as the _____.

A

BPD

283
Q

_______ measurement is measured in the transaxial plane at the level of the atrium.

A

Lateral ventricle

284
Q

The normal lateral ventricle does not typically does not measure more than ___ mm at the level of the atrium.

A

10

285
Q

The cerebellum grows at a rate of __ mm per week between 14-21 weeks and thus correlates with gestational age

A

1

286
Q

____ is obtained at the same level as the BPD and HC.

A

OFD

287
Q

For the ____, one caliper is placed in the anterior midline in the middle of the frontal bone, whereas the other is placed in the middle of the echogenic line of the occipital bone.

A

OFD

288
Q

Cisterna magna measurement should not measure more than ___ mm or less than __mm in the transcerebellar plane.

A

10
2

289
Q

BFD/OFD x 100

A

cephalic index

290
Q

small head

A

microcephaly

291
Q

associated with:
TORCH infections
Trisomy 13 and 18
Meckel-Gruber Syndrome
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

A

microcephaly

292
Q

enlarged head circumference

A

macrocephaly

293
Q

associated with:
hydrocephalus
hydranencephaly
intracranial tumors
familial inheritance
Beckwidth-Wiedemann syndrome

A

macrocephaly

294
Q

round skull shape

A

brachycephaly

295
Q

associated with:
craniosynostosis
trisomy 18 and 21

A

brachycephaly

296
Q

cephalic index more than 85

A

brachycephaly

297
Q

an elongated narrow head shape

A

dolichocephaly

298
Q

may also be referred to as scaphocephaly

A

dolichocephaly

299
Q

associated with:
craniosynostosis

A

dolichocephaly

300
Q

cephalic index less than 75

A

dolichocephaly

301
Q

The _______ cells are the cells that produce the pregnancy hormone HCG

A

trophoblastic

302
Q

The gestational sac is also referred to as the _____

A

chorionic sac

303
Q

The sperm unites with the egg in the distal one third of the fallopian tube, usually the _____

A

ampulla

304
Q

The ________ regresses during week 4 and the chorionic sac is formed.

A

primary yolk sac

305
Q

A mature ovum is released through ovulation at around day ___ of the menstrual cycle because the graafian follicle ruptures and liberates the ovum into the peritoneal cavity

A

14

306
Q

On day __ or __ of the menstrual cycle, the blastocyst begins to implant into the decidualized endometrium at the level of the fundus.

A

20
21

307
Q

By ___ days, complete implantation has occurred.

A

28

308
Q

Conception usually takes place within ___ hours after ovulation

A

24

309
Q

_______ age or ______ age is used by obstetricians to date a pregnancy

A

menstrual
gestational

310
Q

The ______ is visible during the latter half of the first trimester as a tortuous structure connecting the fetus to the developing placenta.

A

umbilical cord

311
Q

The developing _____ may be noted at the end of the first trimester as a well-defined, crescent shaped mass of tissue along the margins of the gestational sac.

A

placenta

312
Q

The placenta is formed by the _______, the maternal contribution and the ________ the fetal contribution

A

decidua basalis
chorion frondosum

313
Q

a functional cyst that is maintained during the first trimester by HcG, which is produced by the developing placenta

A

Corpus Luteum

314
Q

Most common pelvic mass associated with pregnancy

A

corpus luteum cyst

315
Q

also referred to as extrauterine pregnancy

A

ectopic pregnancy

316
Q

Most common location of ectopic pregnancy

A

ampullary portion of the fallopian tube

317
Q

______ is used to treat ectopic pregnancies.

A

methotrexate

318
Q

classic clinical triad of ectopic pregnancy

A

pain
vaginal bleeding
palpable abdominal/pelvic mass

319
Q

coexisting EUP and IUP

A

heterotopic pregnancy

320
Q

Optimal measurement timing of NT

A

between 11 weeks and 13 weeks 6 days

321
Q

An NT measurement greater than __ mm is considered abnormal between 11 and 13 weeks 6 days.

A

3

322
Q

Most common abnormalities associated with abnormal NT

A

trisomy 18 and 21
Turner syndrome

323
Q

In the first trimester, HCG maintains the ______ so that it can continue to produce progesterone

A

corpus luteum cyst

324
Q

HCG can be detected in maternal blood as early as ___ days menstrual age.

A

23

325
Q

The laboratory test to detect pregnancy is ____

A

HCG

326
Q

A ________, the earliest definitive sign of an IUP, should generally be visualized between ____ and ____ mIU per ML with transvaginal sonography.

A

gestational sac
1000
2000

327
Q

Normal HcG levels ____ every 48 hours in the first trimester.

A

double

328
Q

The period given to describe the earliest sonographic detection of an IUP

A

discriminatory zone

329
Q

By adding 30 to the MSD, sonographers can obtain as estimate for:

A

gestational age in days

330
Q

Limb buds are identified between __-__ weeks

A

7
8

331
Q

__-__ weeks physiologic bowel herniation may be visualized.

A

9
12

332
Q

Physiologic bowel herniation should resolve by __ weeks

A

12

333
Q

The yolk sac is located within the ______

A

chorionic cavity

334
Q

At 5.5 weeks the _______ is the first structure seen in the gestational sac.

A

secondary yolk sac

335
Q

The yolk sac is connected to the embryo by the ______

A

vitelline duct

336
Q

The most accurate sonographic measurement of pregnancy is the ____

A

CRL

337
Q

Decidual reactions occurs between weeks __ and __

A

3
4

338
Q

During decidual reaction, the endometrium appears:

A

thickened and echogenic

339
Q

First definitive sign of an IUP is identification of the gestational sac in the _______

A

decidualized endomtrium

340
Q

If physiologic bowel herniation is not resolved by ___ weeks, a follow up is warranted.

A

12

341
Q

Measurement of the _______ is the earliest sonographic measurement that can be obtained

A

gestational sac

342
Q

By 6 weeks, the embryo can be seen located within the _____ adjacent to the yolk sac with transvaginal sonography

A

amniotic cavity

343
Q

The heart rate of the embryo at 6 weeks is:

A

between 100-110 bpm

344
Q

Mean sac diameter equation

A

L x W x H /3

345
Q

The first trimester is defined as weeks __ - ___

A

1
12

346
Q

The second trimester is defined as weeks ___-___

A

13
26

347
Q

the third trimester is defined as weeks ___-___

A

27
42

348
Q

Normal pregnancy lasts for ___ months, ____ weeks, or _____ days.

A

9
40
280

349
Q

Month 0

A

weeks 1-4

350
Q

Month 1

A

weeks 5-8

351
Q

Month 2

A

weeks 9-12

352
Q

Month 3

A

weeks 13-17

353
Q

month 4

A

18-21

354
Q

month 5

A

22-25

355
Q

month 6

A

26-30

356
Q

month 7

A

31-34

357
Q

month 8

A

35-38

358
Q

month 9

A

39-42

359
Q

reduction in blood return to the maternal heart caused by the gravid uterus compressing the maternal IVC

A

supine hypointensive syndrome

360
Q

TV transducers should undergo ______ disinfection

A

high level

361
Q

Patient prep TA

A

full bladder

362
Q

most often used during early pregnancy, offers better resolution

A

TV probe

363
Q

Relevant OB labs

A

estriol
HcG
Maternal serum AFP
triple and quadruple screen

364
Q

denotes the number of times a woman has been pregnant

A

gravidity

365
Q

denotes the number of pregnancies that led to the birth of a fetus at or beyond 20 weeks or an infant who weight at least 500g

A

parity

366
Q

artifacts in OB imaging

A

comet-tail
reverberation
shadowing
posterior acoustic enhancement
ring down

367
Q

3 breech presentations

A

complete
incomplete
Frank

368
Q

fetal legs flexed at hip and there is flexion of the knees

A

complete breech

369
Q

fetal buttocks are closest to the cervix

A

Frank breech

370
Q

most common fetal presentation

A

cephalic

371
Q

Presentation of the fetus is determined by identifying fetal anatomy closest to ______

A

internal os of the cervix

372
Q

Large ovarian cysts or masses can lead to:

A

ovarian torsion

373
Q

______ is common during late pregnancy secondary to large size of uterus

A

hydronephrosis

374
Q

The most common pelvic mass associated with pregnancy is:

A

corpus luteum cysts

375
Q

Measurements in the first trimester

A

YS
GS
CRL
NT

376
Q

The purpose of the BPP

A

investigate for signs of fetal hypoxia and assess overall fetal well being

377
Q

The BPP exam last ___ minutes

A

30

378
Q

The highest possible score of a BPP without NST is:

A

8

379
Q

The highest possible score of a BPP with NST is:

A

10

380
Q
A