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OB 2 > Chapter 23: Sonographic Assessment of the Fetal Head > Flashcards

Chapter 23: Sonographic Assessment of the Fetal Head Flashcards

1
Q

congenital absence of one or both eyes

A

anophthalmia

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2
Q

short broad head because of premature suture fusion

A

brachycephaly

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3
Q

congenital anomalies of the head caused by teratogens or development disruptions of the nervous system

A

cebocephaly

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4
Q

congenital brain anomaly resulting from a migrational defect of the occipital horns of the lateral ventricles leading to ventricular enlargement

A

colpocephaly

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5
Q

long narrow head

A

doliocephaly

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6
Q

abnormally formed organs

A

dysgenesis

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7
Q

malformation of an organ or structure

A

dysmorphic

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8
Q

dilatation or distention of a hollow structure

A

ectasia

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9
Q

nostrils

A

nares

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10
Q

either the rostral or caudal end of the neural tube

A

neuropore

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11
Q

graph

A

nomogram

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12
Q

disease characteristic

A

pathognomonic

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13
Q

posterior displacement of the maxilla and mandible

A

retrognathia

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14
Q

toward the cephalic or head end

A

rostral

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15
Q

substance that interferes with embryonic development

A

teratogen

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16
Q

central portion of the cerebellum between the hemispheres

A

vermis

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17
Q

axial biparietal diameter of brain

A

thalami
third ventricle
cavum septum pellucidi

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18
Q

axial cerebellum

A

cerebellum
cisterna magna
vermis

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19
Q

axial ventricles

A

ventricles
choroid plexus

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20
Q

coronal face

A

soft tissues of the nose, lips, chiin

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21
Q

sagittal profile

A

confirm correct symmetry of forehead, nose, lips, chin

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22
Q

Sonographic features of cleft lip/palate in axial view

A

linear defect through the maxilla/lip

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23
Q

Sonographic features of cleft lip/palate in coronal view

A

linear defect from nose to oral rim

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24
Q

abnormally shaped cephalic pole
absent neural tissue
loss of normal head contour
froglike eye appearance
spinal defects
omphalocele
clubfoot
cleft lip/palate
polyhydramnios

A

Sonographic features of meroanencephaly

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25
Q

single ventricle
prominent fused thalami
crescent-shaped frontal cortex
absent falx, corpus callosum, interhemispheric fissures
cyclopia
media cleft lip
hypotelorism
ethmocephaly
cebocephaly
microcephaly

A

sonographic features of alobar holoproscencephaly

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26
Q

posterior partial separation of hemispheres and ventricles
incomplete fusion of the thalami
rudimentary occipital horns
microcephaly

A

sonographic features of semilobar holoproscencephaly

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27
Q

absence of septum pellucidum
fusion of the frontal horns
variable fusion of the cingulated gyrus
Dandy-Walker complex
enlarged posterior fossa
high tentorium
upward displacement of the lateral sinuses
torcular herophili
vermian aplasia or hypoplasia
cystic dilation of the fourth ventricle
normal posterior fossa
enlarged cisterna magna
normal cerebellar vermis and fourth ventricle
arachnoid cyst
anterior displacement of the fourth ventricular and cerebellum
signs of Arnold-Chiari malformation
cisterna magna absent
Banana-shaped deformation of the cerebellum
lateral ventricular dilatation

A

sonographic features of lobar holoproscenphaly

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28
Q

Absent cavum septi pullucidi
wide high third ventricle
tear drop shaped ventricle
widened ventricular atria
laterally displaced ventricles
sunburst appearance of gyri and sulci
abnormal appearance of the cingulated and pericallosal arteries with color Doppler imaging

A

Sonographic features of Agenesis of Corpus Callosum

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29
Q

Neural plate development completes at _____ days

A

18-23

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30
Q

hypoechoic region within echogenic decidua identifies the _______

A

coeleomic cavity of the gestational sac

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31
Q

The neural tube differentiates into the primitive brain and spinal cord at _____

A

6 menstrual weeks

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32
Q

What 3 segments make up the brain?

A

proscencephalon
mesencephalon
rhombencephalon

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33
Q

forebrain

A

proscencephalon

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34
Q

midbrain

A

mesencephalon

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35
Q

hindbrain

A

rhombencephalon

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36
Q

Identification of the 3 segments can be made at ____ weeks

A

7-8

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37
Q

The proscencephalon becomes the ____ and _____

A

telencephalon
diencephalon

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38
Q

The forebrain develops into:

A

thalami
third ventricle
cerebral hemispheres
lateral ventricles

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39
Q

As the brain develops, the ______ takes its position in the posterior area of the lateral ventricles

A

choroid plexus

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40
Q

The _______ and ______ arise from the rhombencephalon.

A

metencephalon
myelencephalon

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41
Q

The upper portion of the fourth ventricle, pons, and cerebellum originate from the _______

A

metencephalon

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42
Q

The medulla and the rest of the fourth ventricle originate from the ______.

A

myelencephalon

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43
Q

The corpus callosum, cerebellar vermis, sulci and gyri, and migration of germinal matrix and myelination develop after _____ weeks.

A

15

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44
Q

Development of the corpus callosum completes approx at ______ weeks

A

18-20

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45
Q

The brain sulci and gyri image by ___ weeks

A

28

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46
Q

Critical period of brain development

A

3-16 weeks

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47
Q

Causes of congenital anomalies

A

lack of folic acid
exposure to toxoplasma gondii
exposure to high levels of radiation

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48
Q

measured at the level of the thalami and cavum septum pellucidi or columns of the fornix

A

Biparietal diameter

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49
Q

Proper placement for BPD

A

perpendicular to parietal bones and positioned at correct cephalocaudal position to intersect the third ventricle and thalami

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50
Q

3 sonographic rules for obtaining BPD

A

correct plane of section is through third ventricle and thalami
calvaria are smooth and symmetric bilaterally
position curses on outer edge of proximal skull to inner edge of distal skull

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51
Q

small head

A

microcephaly

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52
Q

A reliable indicator for _______ is a head perimeter two to three standard deviations or more below the mean for gestational age

A

microcephaly

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53
Q

forehead slopes and brain is small, with cerebral hemispheres affected to a greater extent than the diencephalic and rhombencephalic structures

A

microcephaly

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54
Q

_______ is frequently found in porencephaly, lissencephaly, and holoprosencephaly

A

microcephaly

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55
Q

Microcephaly may be associated with _____ and ______ factors.

A

environmental factors
genetic factors

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56
Q

large head

A

macrocephaly

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57
Q

HC two to three standard deviations above the mean for gestational age and se; enlarged ventricular system (hydrocephalus) or other intracranial anomalies

A

macrocephaly

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58
Q

enlarged ventricular system

A

hydrocephalus

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59
Q

Oblique cross section of the ___ is obtained at division of middle and anterior cerebral arteries, which lie anterior to cerebral peduncles.

A

ICA

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60
Q

major branch of circle of Willis in fetal brain

A

MCA

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61
Q

Carries more than 80% of cerebral blood flow

A

MCA

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62
Q

Fetal hypoxia worsens, ICA pulsatility index _____

A

decreases

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63
Q

MCA overlies the anterior ______ near base of skull

A

wing of Sphenoid bone

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64
Q

The correct angle of insonation for MCA is less than ___ degrees

A

15

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65
Q

bright echogenic, centrally placed vermis and two relatively nonechogenic hemispheres resembling a peanut indicates correct measurement level of:

A

cerebellar level

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66
Q

obtained through placement of calipers anteroposteriorly in the midline, between the vermis and the inner table of the occipital bone

A

measurement of cisterna magna

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67
Q

In regards to measurement of the cisterna magna, anything less than ____ mm is considered normal

A

10

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68
Q

Fetal biometry imaging is done between __ and ___ weeks

A

16
24

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69
Q

lateral ventricle can be be clearly seen using an endovaginal approach between __ and __ weeks

A

12
13

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70
Q

ovoid structure largely filled with choroid plexus

A

lateral ventricles

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71
Q

Lateral ventricles image by __ weeks using a transabdominal approach

A

16

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72
Q

prominent echogenic area within lateral ventricle

A

choroid plexus

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73
Q

highly vascular epithelial proliferation arising within the ependyma of the ventricle that produces and reabsorbs cerebrospinal fluid

A

choroid plexus

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74
Q

fills a large portion of the developing brain; has the form of two smooth, curve tubes joined above the third ventricle

A

ventricular system

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75
Q

Coronal section anterior to posterior visualizes:

A

corpus callosum
ventricular system
normal interhemispheric relationships

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76
Q

hypoechoic area between skull and cerebral cortex; diminishes in size throughout gestation as cerebral cortical matter expands to fill cranial vault

A

subarachnoid space

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77
Q

posterior coronal images visualize:

A

occipital horns of the lateral ventricles
cerebellum images inferior to fourth ventricle and superior to cisterna magna

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78
Q

Corpus callosum nearly fully developed by __-__ weeks

A

18
20

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79
Q

The corpus callosum images as a prominent, semilunar structure composed of three parts, from front to back:

A

genu
body
splenium

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80
Q

The posterior fossa contains:

A

cerebellum
fourth ventricle
cisterna magna

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81
Q

bright echogenic arc separating caudate nucleus from the thalamus

A

caudothalamic groove

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82
Q

highly vascular tissue in ependyma of lateral ventricle

A

germinal matrix

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83
Q

Most intracranial hemorrhages originate in the _______ in the preterm neonate

A

germinal matrix

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84
Q

closely spaced orbits

A

hypotelorism

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85
Q

wide spaced orbits

A

hypertelorism

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86
Q

outline lens of eyes; circular area on front of globe

A

cilaris muscle and zonular fibers

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87
Q

branch of opthalmic artery; may image within fetal globe

A

hyaloid artery

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88
Q

basal turn of cochlea or superior semicircular canal found within petrous portion of temporal bone

A

pinna

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89
Q

eyes develop as lateral projections from the telencephalon called optic vesicles at approximately day ____

A

28

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90
Q

By the end of the first month the optic cups positioned at end of an ______

A

optic stalk

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91
Q

By __ days the eye is an eye

A

48

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92
Q

decreased interorbital distance

A

hypotelorism

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93
Q

Hyptolerosim is most commonly associated with ______

A

holoproscenphaly

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94
Q

increased orbital distance

A

hypertelorism

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95
Q

4 syndromes associated with hypertelorism

A

Apert
Crouzon
Noonan
Pena-shokeir
Pfeiffer

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96
Q

decreased orbit size

A

microphthalmia

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97
Q

orbital diameter smaller than the 5th percentile for GA

A

microphthalmia

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98
Q

absence of the eye

A

anophthalmia

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99
Q

Hypertelorism is often accompanied by:

A

orbital teratomas
anterior encephaloceles
median cleft face syndrome
cleft lip
agenesis of the corpus callosum

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100
Q

Microphthalmia can be an isolated anomaly associated with ______ and _____

A

chromosomal abnormalities
intrauterine infections

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101
Q

tongue extending beyond teeth or alveolar ridge

A

macroglossia

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102
Q

Macroglossia may be caused by ______ of tongue or ______

A

large size
hypotonia

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103
Q

Macroglossia associations

A

trisomy 21
Beckwith Weidemann syndrome
hypothyroidism
storage diseases
neurofibromatosis
genetic syndromes
sublingual masses

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104
Q

severely hypoplastic mandible

A

micrognathia

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105
Q

Micrognathia can be seen with:

A

Pierre-Robin sequence
hemifacial microsomia

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106
Q

Micrognathia associated malformations

A

skeletal dysplasias
aneuplodies
teratogen exposure

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107
Q

Mandible anomalies put the fetus at high risk for:

A

respiratory distress

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108
Q

Facial development begins with _____ cells mirgrating into the head and neck area forming brachial arches

A

neural crest

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109
Q

The 1st set of arches are called ______ and develop into the face

A

mandibular arches

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110
Q

The 2nd set of arches are called the ______ and develop into the muscles of the face

A

hyoid

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111
Q

The development of the face occurs during the ___ week

A

5th

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112
Q

The frontal nasal prominences form:

A

upper mouth
maxilla
nose

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113
Q

Paired mandibular processes merge, resulting in formation of the ______

A

lower face

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114
Q

Maxillary and one of five prominences forming nose develop into:

A

upper lip
incisors
primary palate

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115
Q

Most frequent craniofacial anomalies

A

cleft lip and palate

116
Q

Second most common congenital malformation

A

cleft lip and palate

117
Q

most frequent anomaly found with finding of CL or CP

A

clubfoot

118
Q

Isolated cleft lip and/or palate has a higher ______ incidence

A

female

119
Q

defect of posterior portion with an intact upper lip and anterior palate

A

cleft palate

120
Q

partial development of the brain

A

meroanencephaly

121
Q

most common neural tube defect

A

meroanencephaly

122
Q

fetus without a brain

A

anencephaly

123
Q

absence of the entire skull, including skull base; thus, only a thin layer, if any, covers the brain

A

acrania

124
Q

abnormally shaped cephalic pole, seen in late embryonic period (before week 10), altered appearance of brain cavities; decreased fluid content

A

acrania

125
Q

absent cranial vault, usually seen between 10-14 weeks, reduced crown rump length, exposed nueral tissue with lobulated appearance (exencephaly)

A

anencephaly

126
Q

loss of normal head contour with orbits marking the upper limit of the fetal face in the coronal plane

A

anencephaly

127
Q

froglike appearance

A

anencephaly

128
Q

associated malformations with anencephaly

A

spina bifida
CL/CP
clubfoot
omphalocele

129
Q

complete or near complete absence of the cerebral cortex

A

hydranencephaly

130
Q

causes of third trimester brain destruction

A

maternal toxoplasmosis
cytomegalovirus
herpes simplex
carbon monoxide exposure

131
Q

suspected when there is a large fluid collection in the head with no recognizable cerebral cortex

A

hydranencephaly

132
Q

rim of cerebral cortex around cystic cavity and enlargement of the third ventricle

A

severe hydrocephalus

133
Q

lack of flow in anterior and MCAs with normal posterior cerebral artery flow

A

hydranencephaly

134
Q

describes a variety of abnormalities of the brain and embryonic forebrain

A

holoprosencephaly

135
Q

results in a single centrally located ventricle and a missing falx

A

holoprosencephaly

136
Q

Holoprosencephaly can be caused by _______ and ______

A

poorly controlled maternal diabetes
teratogens

137
Q

worst kind of holoprosencephaly

A

alobar

138
Q

3 forms of holoprosencephaly

A

alobar
semilobar
lobar

139
Q

_____ holoprosencephaly shows no evidence of division, falx cerebri and interhemispheric fissures absent, and single common ventricle and fused thalami

A

alobar

140
Q

_____ holoprosencephaly demonstrates a partially separated brain

A

semilobar

141
Q

______ holoprosencephaly shows almost complete separation of the hemispheres although frontal horns of lateral ventricles are fused, as are the thalami

A

lobar

142
Q

holoprosencephaly associations

A

hypotelorism
CL and CP
nasal malformation
cyclopia

143
Q

embryonic connective mass between the oral cavity and the undersurface of the neural tube; thought to be responsible for both the division of the prosencephalon and the production of the nasofrontal process

A

prechordial mesoderm

144
Q

Nasofrontal process gives rise to _____, ____, and ______ bones and to the _____ and _____/

A

ethmoid
nasal
premaxillary
vomer
nasal septum

145
Q

most severe facial malformation, presence of a single bony median orbit with a fleshy probscis above it

A

cyclopia

146
Q

normally placed nose with one nostril

A

cebocephaly

147
Q

large neural commissure connecting two cerebral hemispheres

A

corpus callosum

148
Q

The corpus callosum begins development at ___ weeks

A

12

149
Q

The ______ originates from lamina terminalis at anterior portion of third ventricle

A

corpus callosum

150
Q

rare congenital disorder in which there is complete or partial absence of corpus callosum

A

agenesis of corpus callosum

151
Q

The corpus callosum completes developement at ___ weeks making early detection difficult

A

20

152
Q

“sunburst” lesion is associated with:

A

agenesis of corpus callosum

153
Q

refers to a continuum of abnormalities of the posterior fossa that are distinct entities themselves

A

Dandy-Walker malformation

154
Q

3 categories of Dandy Walker malformation

A

Dandy walker malformation
Dandy walker variant
mega cisterna magna

155
Q

What is the most severe form of DWC?

A

Dandy Walker malformation

156
Q

rare anomaly of the posterior fossa, complete or partial agenesis of cerebellar vermis, elevated tentorium

A

Dandy Walker malformation

157
Q

partial agenesis of vermis without a large dilated fourth ventricle

A

Dandy Walker variant

158
Q

normal cerebellar vermis and fourth ventricle

A

Mega cisterna magna

159
Q

a group of sporadic brain malformations that results from dysgenetic development of the roof of the rhombencephalon

A

DWC abnormalities

160
Q

superior displacement of the fourth ventricle, displacement of cerebellar vermis, compressed cisterna becomes potential space between dilated fourth ventricle and dura mater, hypoplastic anterolaterally displaced cerebrum images anterior to large posterior fossa cyst, possible hydrocephalus

A

Sonographic findings of DWC

161
Q

Diagnosis of DWC occur after week ___

A

18

162
Q

DWC associations

A

spina bifida
CP/CL
absence of the corpus callosum

163
Q

Measurement of the posterior fossa from the posterior cerebellum to the anterior, internal portion of the skull is less than __ mm in the normal fetal brain

A

10

164
Q

cerebral development disorder that involves disordered neuronal migration; results in unilateral and bilateral clefts in cerebral hemisphere that are lined by gray material within cerebal cortex

A

schizencephaly

165
Q

There is a strong association between absent ____ and absence of the ______ with schizencephaly.

A

CSP
corpus callosum

166
Q

rare cortical dysplasia resulting from impaired neuronal migration during the 12th and 16th weeks of gestation

A

lissencephaly

167
Q

Depending on the point in gestation where disruption takes place in lissencephaly, three different outcomes

A

completely lack sulci and gyri (lissencephaly)
very few gyri (pachygyria)
very small gyri (microgyria)

168
Q

Lissencephaly is associated with ____ and _____ predispositions.

A

environmental
genetic

169
Q

Lissecephaly is diagnosed beyond ___ weeks when there is an inability to identify sulcations.

A

28

170
Q

______ and _____ in the third trimester is an expected finding with lissencephaly.

A

hydramnios
IUGR

171
Q

Facial dysmorphism is associated with:

A

prominent forehead
short nose
broad and flat nasal bridge
protuberant upper lip

172
Q

Lissencephaly is associated with:

A

duodenal atresia
urinary tract abnormalities
congenital heart defects
cyptorchidism
inguinal hernia
clinodactyly
ear anomalies

173
Q

protrusions of the meninges and frequently of brain substance through a defect in the cranium

A

cephaloceles

174
Q

lesion containing brain tissue

A

encephalocele

175
Q

protrusion o f meninges only through the defect

A

cranial meninogoceles

176
Q

Occipital lesions make up __% of cephaloceles in caucasians of European descent

A

80

177
Q

The ________ region is the most common location for cephaloceles in southeastern asia populations

A

frontoethmoidal

178
Q

usually result from a defect in the neural tube closure; may also occur as part of a genetic or nongenetic syndrome;

A

cephaloceles

179
Q

Cephaloceles are associated with:

A

amniotic band syndrome
cerebellar dysgenesis
cryptophthalmose syndrome
Meckel syndrome

180
Q

paracranial mass not covered with bone

A

cephalocele

181
Q

results when a large portion of the brain extrudes through a defect

A

microcephaly

182
Q

develops because of impaired cerebrospinal fluid circulation; when brain tissue herniates, the result is a saclike complex mass caused by contained brain tissue

A

hydrocephalus

183
Q

Cranial cephaloceles are very often associated with _____

A

ventriculomegaly

184
Q

arise from the region of the neck, have multiple internal septations, and a thick wall, and are often associated with generalized soft tissue edema and hydrops

A

cystic hygromas

185
Q

rare defect in the occiput of the cranium involving the foramen magnum with marked retroflexion of the fetal head and frequently a shortened spine

A

iniencephaly

186
Q

Associated anomalies with ineincephaly

A

hydrocephalus
encephalocele
diaphragmatic hernia
omphalocele

187
Q

Iniencephaly often occurs during the __ week of gestation

A

3rd

188
Q

group of anomalies of the hindbrain prolapsing below level of foramen magnum

A

Arnold-chiari malformations

189
Q

mild, where cerebellar tonsils displace more than 4 mm into foramen magna and posterior fossa contains fourth ventricle

A

Type I Arnold-Chiari malformation

190
Q

congenital deformity characterized by displacement of cerebellar tonsils, parts of the cerebellum, fourth ventricle, pons, and medulla oblongata through the foramen magnum into the spinal canal

A

Type II Arnold-Chiari malformation

191
Q

most severe form, associated with large herniation of posterior fossa contents with myelomeningocele and hydrocephalus

A

Type III Arnold-Chiari malformation

192
Q

accompanies hypoplastic cerebellum with further herniation of brain into spinal canal

A

Type IV Arnold-Chiari malformation

193
Q

What is the “banana sign” associated with?

A

Type II Arnold Chiari malformation

194
Q

“lemon sign”

A

scalloping of frontal bones in axial section of head

195
Q

abnormalities associated with Type II Arnold-Chiari malformation:

A

callosal dysgenesis
small third ventricle
enlarged interthalamic adhesions
a “beaked” tectum
polmicrogyria
hetertopias
skull deformities
colpocephaly
ventriculomegaly

196
Q

abnormal increase in the volume of cerebral ventricles

A

ventriculomegaly

197
Q

Ventriculomegaly may be caused by:

A

intraventricular and/or extraventricular obstruction
relative decrease in the amount of brain substance
increases in cerebrospinal fluid production

198
Q

describes ventriculomegaly with increased intracranial pressure and head size; frequently associated with spina bifida

A

hydrocephalus

199
Q

enlargement of the ventricles and cerebrospinal fluid displacement of choroid plexus

A

dangling Choroid plexus

200
Q

Normal ventricle measurement

A

less than 10 mm

201
Q

Mild ventriculomegaly measurement

A

10-15 mm

202
Q

Severe ventriculomegaly measurement

A

more than 15 mm

203
Q

Severe ventriculomegaly is often associated with ______ malformation

A

intracranial

204
Q

congenital obstruction to flow of cerebrospinal fluid through aqueduct of Sylvius connecting the third and fourth ventricle

A

Aquaductal stenosis

205
Q

round sonolucent areas in substance of choroid plexus of lateral ventricles; usually transient and without clinical significance resolving before end of 2nd trimester

A

choriod plexus cysts

206
Q

Choroid plexus cysts are associated with:

A

trisomy 18 and other karyotypic abnormalities

207
Q

Cysts that demonstrate internal septations and echogenic thick walls

A

choroid plexus cysts

208
Q

destructive lesion of the brain that appears as one or several hypoechoic, cystic areas in the cerebral cortex, usually communicating with the ventricles

A

porencephaly

209
Q

areas of prior ICH or tissue necrosis resorption, bilateral symmetric process, usually only occur in third trimester,

A

Porencephalic cysts

210
Q

Porencephalic cysts are often associated with:

A

microcephaly

211
Q

Causes of porencephaly

A

congenital infections
intrauterine narrowing
ICA and MCA occlusion

212
Q

bleeding anywhere in the fetal cranium

A

intracranial hemorrhage

213
Q

most common hemmorhage seen in the fetus; usually 48-72 hours after birth

A

intracranial hemorrhage

214
Q

Intracranial hemorrhage may occur antenatally as a result of:

A

coagulopathy
amniocentesis
drug use
trauma

215
Q

hyperechogenic mass in the region of the germinal matrix or within lateral ventricles

A

typical antenatal hemmorhage

216
Q

3 types of cerebral AVMs

A

isolated AVM
AVM with vein of Galen Ectasia
varix of vein

217
Q

elongated cystic structure at level of cistern of vein of Galen in third trimester represents the dilated, end-to-end arteries and veins without intervening capillaries

A

Aneurysm

218
Q

cardiac overload seen with aneurysm of the Vein of Galen associations:

A

cardiomegaly
hepatosplenomegaly
soft tissue edema
polyhydramnios
nonimmune hydrops

219
Q

The neural tube segments that become the brain are the _______, _______, and _______

A

prosencephalon
mesencephalon
rhombencephalon

220
Q

The BPD level anatomy includes axial images of the :

A

thalami
third ventricle
smooth calvarial wall
brain/calvarium symmetry

221
Q

_______ is a small head in proportion o the fetal face

A

Microcephaly

222
Q

A large fetal head is ______

A

macrocephaly

223
Q

The MCA carries __% of flow to the brain structures

A

80

224
Q

Axial measurements of the cerebellum correlate to gestational age on a ___ to ___ ratio

A

one
one

225
Q

A measurement of greater than __ mm of the ventricles obtained at the level of the atrium would be considered abnormal

A

10

226
Q

________ exists with holoprosencephaly, cephaloceles, craniosynostosis, median cleft syndrome, and trisomy 18

A

hypertelorism

227
Q

A tongue extending beyond the maxilla

A

macroglossia

228
Q

Macroglossia has been found with _____ and ______

A

trisomy 21
Beckwith-Weidemann syndrome

229
Q

hypoplastic mandible

A

micrognathia

230
Q

Micrognathia is associated with _____, ______, ______, and ______ syndroms.

A

Pierre Robin syndrome
trisomy 18
trisomy 13
musculoskeletal

231
Q

_____ are the most common facial abnormality

A

clefts

232
Q

absence of the skull and cerebral hemispheres

A

meroenancephaly and anencephaly

233
Q

demonstrates bulging fetal orbits with a froglike appearance on the imgage

A

meroenencephaly

234
Q

Polyhydramnios, facial bones, and increased fetal activity are seen within the ______ fetus

A

meranencephalic

235
Q

absence of the skull and may or may not have coexisting brain tissue

A

acrania

236
Q

a destructive lesion of the brain resulting in a large anechoic area within the cranial vault surrounded by midbrain and basal ganglia

A

hydranencephaly

237
Q

_______, seen with trisomy 13, is an abnormal development of the fetal brain

A

Holoprosencephaly

238
Q

failure of all or part of the corpus callosum to develop

A

agenesis of the corpus callosum

239
Q

demonstrates a large cisterna magna, with an enlarged fourth ventricle and flattened cerebellar hemispheres

A

DWC

240
Q

Abnormal clefting of the brain

A

schizencephaly

241
Q

A smooth brain

A

lissencephaly

242
Q

_______ syndrome results in lack of sacral development

A

Caudal regression

243
Q

The herniation of intracranial contents through a cranial defect

A

cephalocele

244
Q

the displacement of the posterior fossa brain structures through the foramen magna into the cervical canal

A

Arnold-Chiari malformations

245
Q

Large ventricles, ______, are the result of multiple causes and are often called _______

A

ventriculomegaly
hydrocephalus

246
Q

The choroid plexus:
a. invaginates into the ventricles
b. is hyperechoic
c. is positioned in the anterior ventricle
d. initially takes up approximately 1/3 of the cerebral hemisphere

A

a

247
Q

The metecephalon and myelencephalon are part of the:
a. myelencephalon
b. prosencephalon
c. rhombencephalon
d. mesencephalon

A

c

248
Q

The corpus callosum, cerebellar vermis, sulci, gyri, migration of the germinal matrix, and myelination, develop after:

A

15 weeks gestation

249
Q

BPD is measured at the level of the ______ and columns of fornix

A

thalami

250
Q

What is the alternative measurement to BPD?

A

HC

251
Q

The most studied artery in the fetal brain is the:

A

MCA

252
Q

A normal cisterna magna measurement is less than:

A

1cm

253
Q

The most frequent anomaly noted with a cleft palate or cleft lip is:

A

clubfoot

254
Q

Fetuses with hypoplastic mandible anomalies are at risk of acute neonatal:

A

respiratory distress

255
Q

Sonographic features of meroanencephaly include:
a. frog-like appearance
b. CL
c. hydranencephaly
d. acrania

A

a

256
Q

A fetal brain with no recognizable cerebral cortex and defined thalami and cerebellum is:

A

hydranencephaly

257
Q

Agenesis of the corpus callosum reveals all except:
a. wide high third ventricle
b. laterally displaced ventricles
c. absent cavum septi pellucidi
d. hypertelorism

A

d

258
Q

Dandy-Walker malformation consists of:
a. hypertrophy of the third ventricle
b. marked cystic dilation of the fourth ventricle
c. marked cystic dilation of the lateral ventricles
d. enlargement of the anterior horns

A

b

259
Q

Lissencephaly is an absence or paucity of gyri resulting in the characteristic appearance of:
a. a smooth cerebral surface after 20 weeks
b. absent sulci after 20 weeks
c. an enlarged CM
d. a decreased lateral ventricular measurement

A

a

260
Q

A markedly retroflexed neck is an indication of:

A

iniencephaly

261
Q

A correct measurement of the BPD involves placing two cursors at the:
a. inner margins of the cranium
b. outer margins of the cranium
c. outer edge of the proximal skull to the inner edge of the distal skull
d. inner edge of the parietal bones

A

c

262
Q

A long narrow head is:

A

dolichocephaly

263
Q

Enlargement of the ventricles and cerebrospinal fluid displacement of the choroid plexus results in a condition called:

A

dangling choroid plexus

264
Q

Bleeding anywhere in the fetal cranium is known as all except:
a. intraparenchymal hemorrhage
b. subdural hematoma
c. germinal matrix hemorrhage
d. petechial hemorrhage

A

d

265
Q

A measurement of the lateral ventricular atrium should not exceed:
a. 1 cm
b. 1 mm
c. 8 m
d. 2 cm

A

a

266
Q

The forebrain is also known as the:

A

prosencephalon

267
Q

Many brain structures develop between week __________, resulting in this time frame being identified as the critical period of brain developemtn

A

3
16

268
Q

The great cerebral vein is also called:

A

The vein of Gallen

269
Q

The third ventricle is positioned between the _____ and the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles

A

thalami

270
Q

A microcephalic fetus may demonstrate ______ ventricles.

A

enlarged

271
Q

The best angle of insonation to obtain peak velocity of the MCA is less than ____ degrees.

A

15

272
Q

A decreased interorbital distance

A

hypotelorism

273
Q

Between _____ weeks of gestation, te transverse cerebellar diameter measured in millimeters correlates 1:1 with gestation age

A

16
24

274
Q

Holoprosencephaly is divided into _____, _______, and ______ varieties, defined by the degree of separation of the cerebral hemispheres

A

alobar
semilobar
lobar

275
Q

_______ is a cerebral developmental disorder that involves disordered neuronal migration

A

schizencephaly

276
Q

Protrusions of the meninges and frequently of brain substance through a defect in the cranium is ______

A

cephaloceles

277
Q

The term for small head is

A

microcephaly

278
Q

To obtain the MCA peak velocity, image the fetal head in a ______ plane.

A

transverse

279
Q

The presence of a single median bony orbit with a fleshy proboscis above it is ______

A

cyclopia

280
Q

Arnold-chiari malformations often have accompanying _______.

A

spina bifida

281
Q

The BPD maintains its closest correlation with gestational age in the ____ and _______ trimester.

A

first
early second

282
Q

________ is an abnormal increases in the volume of the cerebral ventricles

A

ventriculomegaly

283
Q

A sonolucent area in the choroid plexus is known as ______

A

choroid plexus cysts

284
Q

Macrocephaly is defined as a head circumference _____ standard deviations ______ the mean for gestational age and sex.

A

2-3
above

285
Q

The tongue extending beyond the teeth or alveolar ridge is

A

macroglossia

286
Q
A

OB 2 (17 decks)

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