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OB 2 > Chapter 28: Sonographic Assessment of the Fetal Genitourinary System and Fetal Pelvis > Flashcards

Chapter 28: Sonographic Assessment of the Fetal Genitourinary System and Fetal Pelvis Flashcards

1
Q

From a volume dataset, static 3D images can display height, width, and depth of anatomy form an orthogonal planes

A

3D sonography

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2
Q

failure of development

A

agenesis

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3
Q

complete absence of a fetal body part

A

aplasia

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4
Q

congenital anomaly where the bladder is outside the body through a ventral wall defect inferior to the umbilical cord

A

bladder exstrophy

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5
Q

dilation of the renal calices

A

caliectasis

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6
Q

Half-Fourier acquisition single-shot turbo sign; a fast spin method to obtain the MRI dataset

A

HASTE

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7
Q

type of kidney where the upper poles fuse resulting in an appearance similar to a horseshoe

A

horseshoe kidney

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8
Q

serous fluid accumulation in a body cavity such as the scrotum

A

hydrocele

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9
Q

dilation of the renal pelvises and calices, usually caused by obstruction

A

hydronephrosis

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10
Q

underdevelopment or incomplete development of a body part

A

hypoplasia

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11
Q

obstructing membranes in the male urethra located posteriorly caused by the abnormal urethral development

A

posterior urethral valves

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12
Q

this group of findings, also called Potter syndrome or oligohydramnios sequence, includes renal conditions such as agenesis, obstructive processes, and acquired inherited cystic disease

A

Potter syndrome

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13
Q

failure of renal development

A

renal agenesis

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14
Q

semi-automated process to calculate volume using a 3D dataset

A

VOCAL

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15
Q

identification or one or both kidneys
normal or oligohydramnios
small thorax
dolichocephaly
absent bladder
adrenal gland flattened in the renal fossa
absent renal arteries with Color Doppler

A

Renal Agenesis

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16
Q

Causes for UPJ obstruction

A

ureteral insertion anomaly
ureteral valve scarring
peripelvic fibrous adhesions or bands
ureteric hypoplasia
ureteral kinks
aberrant crossing vessels

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17
Q

Most common posterior urethral valve type because of anterior fusing of the plicae colliculi, mucosal extending from the bottom of the veramontanum distally along the prostatic and membranous urethra

A

Type I

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18
Q

Least common posterior urethral valve type, vertical or longitudinal folds between the veramontanum and the proximal prostatic urethral bladder neck

A

Type II

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19
Q

Less common variant of posterior urethral valves types, a disk of tissue distal to the verumontanum through not attached, a small opening in the diaphragm-like structure

A

Type III

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20
Q

distention of the anterior abdominal wall
obstruction of the urinary tract
bilateral cryptochordism

A

triad of Prune Belly Syndrome

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21
Q

Megalurethra variant that is caused by hypoplasia of the corpus spongiosum, with bulging of the ventral urthra

A

scaphoid varian

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22
Q

Megalourethra variant that is caused hy dysplasia of both the corpus spongiosum and cavernosum, with circumferential dilation of the urethra

A

Fusiform variant

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23
Q

complete communication between the bladder and the umbilicus, resulting in urine leakage from the umbilicus

A

patent urachus

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24
Q

a cystic mass that forms along the ducts course but does not communicate with the bladder or umbilicus

A

urachal cyst

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25
Q

a blind-ended tract that communicates with the umbilicus but not with the bladder; can result in period discharge from the umbilicus

A

urachal sinus

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26
Q

a blind-ended tract from the bladder dome, but does not communicate with the umbilicus

A

urachal diverticulum

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27
Q

Most common fetal malformation

A

genitourinary system

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28
Q

anomalies associated with renal system dilation have a ____ predominance.

A

male

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29
Q

Polycystic and horeshoes kidneys have a ____ predominance

A

female

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30
Q

The urinary system consists of:

A

kidneys
ureter
bladder

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31
Q

At ___ weeks kidneys attain normal position and blood flow is established

A

9

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32
Q

AT ___ weeks, the kidneys are visualized in 95% of all patients

A

22

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33
Q

Urinary system malformations can be detected as early as __-__ weeks

A

16
18

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34
Q

All urinary anomalies are visualized by __ to __ weeks

A

28
30

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35
Q

In the transverse plane, the kidneys visualize as:

A

hypoechoic ovoid masses

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36
Q

In the parasagittal plane, the kidneys visualized as

A

paraspinous and bean shaped

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37
Q

arranged in anterior and posterior rows around renal pelvis

A

renal pyramids

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38
Q

The length of the neonate kidney at 20 weeks:

A

2 to 3 cm

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39
Q

The length of the neonate kidney at nerm:

A

nearly 4 cm

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40
Q

Renal volume equation

A

length x width x height x 0.5233

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41
Q

echofree intrapelvic structure

A

bladder

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42
Q

The bladder can be seen as early as __ weeks but definitely by __ weeks

A

11
13

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43
Q

The fetal bladder fills and voids about:

A

once per hour

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44
Q

The amount of amniotic fluid volume has a direct correlation with:

A

renal function

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45
Q

Fetal urinary production begins at __ weeks

A

9

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46
Q

Fetal urine makes up __% of amniotic fluid by 20 weeks

A

90

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47
Q

amniotic fluid volume less than 500 mL; maximum vertical pocket less than 2 cm; amount of fluid index of less than 5 cm

A

oligohydramnios

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48
Q

classic physical appearance of a fetus that has pulmonary hypoplasia secondary to oligohydramnios

A

Potter Syndrome

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49
Q

Potter syndrome is typically caused by:

A

renal failure

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50
Q

flattened nose
recessed chin
epicanthal folds
low set abnormal ears

A

Potter facies

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51
Q

primary cause of fetal or neonatal death

A

pulmonary hypoplasia

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52
Q

congenital absence of one or both kidneys

A

renal agenesis

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53
Q

results from failure of embryonic kidney to form

A

renal agenesis

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54
Q

urinary tract anomalies of contralateral kidney = UPJ and VUJ

A

unilateral agenesis

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55
Q

existing kidney invariably larger because of compensatory hypertrophy; does not result in change in amniotic fluids levels or bladder filling

A

unilateral agenesis

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56
Q

oligohydramnios and empty bladder 16 weeks+

A

bilateral agenesis

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57
Q

incomplete renal development

A

renal aplasia

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58
Q

nonfunctioning kidney

A

renal dysplasia

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59
Q

Types of renal ectopia

A

pelvic kidney
horseshoe kidney
cross-fused ectopia

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60
Q

What renal agenesis is incompatible with life?

A

Bilateral renal agenesis

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61
Q

kidney that lies outside the renal fossa; found anywhere along embryologic migratory path

A

renal ectopia

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62
Q

____ kidneys present as:

A

smaller, malrotated, irregular shape

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63
Q

Most common location of ectopic kidneys

A

pelvis

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64
Q

remains in pelvis; inferior to renal fossa; superior to fetal ballder

A

pelvic kidney

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65
Q

most frequently reported anomalies associated with pelvic kidneys in males

A

hypospadias
cryptochordism

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66
Q

Most frequently reported anomalies associated with pelvic kidneys in females

A

bicornuate uterus; duplication hypoplasia, agenesis of the vagina

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67
Q

Ectopic kidneys can cause renal vascular _____ because of ectopic blood supply

A

hypertension

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68
Q

kidney located on opposite side from which its ureter enters the bladder

A

crossed renal ectopia

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69
Q

___ to ___ cross over more common with crossed renal ectopa

A

left
right

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70
Q

The upper pole of crossed ectopic kidney generally fuses to the ____ pole of normally located kidney

A

lower

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71
Q

Crossed renal ectopic kidneys typically have a:

A

duplicated collecting system

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72
Q

most common renal fusion anomaly

A

horseshoe kidney

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73
Q

formed by fusion of lower poles in greater than 90% forming a U shape

A

horseshoe kidney

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74
Q

connection between two renal masses which are made up of parenchymal or fibrous tissue

A

isthmus

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75
Q

Horseshoe kidney most common location:

A

lower position

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76
Q

Up to 60% of fetuses with _______ have horseshoe kidneys

A

Turners syndrome

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77
Q

any blockage of urine flow in the urinary system; can occur anywhere along tract; one of the most common fetal anomalies detected on prenatal sonography; lowest correlation with chromosomal anomalies

A

obstructive uropathyies

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78
Q

Obstructive uropathies are most commonly associated with ___ or _______

A

transient or physiological urinary tract dilatation

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79
Q

Most kidneys with antenatal hydronephrosis of less than __mm prove to be normal at birth

A

10

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80
Q

After __ weeks it is common to see at least come dilatation of the central renal pelvis

A

24

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81
Q

dilation of renal pelvis

A

pelvicaliectasis

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82
Q

dilation of the calicyes

A

caliectasis

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83
Q

dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces

A

pelvocaliectasis

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84
Q

Hydronephrosis is considered severe if greater than __ mm in dilatation

A

15

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85
Q

Oligohydramnios is indicative of:

A

renal failure or death

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86
Q

most common cause of congenital obstructive hydronephrosis

A

ureteropelvic junction obstruction

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87
Q

Ureteropelvic junction obstruction occurs at the junction of ____ and ____

A

renal pelvis
ureter

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88
Q

severe unilateral hydronephrosis without ureteral dilatation and a normal bladder; normal amniotic fluids

A

ureteropelvic junction obstruction

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89
Q

ureter measuring greater than 7 mm from 30 weeks onward; can be classified as primary or secondary

A

megaureter

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90
Q

lack of peristalsis in a focal portion of distal ureter; defect caused by fibrosis or stenotic ureteral valves

A

primary nonfunctioning megaureter

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91
Q

result of obstruction at another location

A

secondary megaureter

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92
Q

cystic dilation of distal ureter within bladder; most cases associated with duplicated collecting system and ectopic ureter insertion

A

ureterocele

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93
Q

two renal collecting system units with or without separate ureters

A

renal duplication

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94
Q

upper pole common obstructed because of an ectopic ureter insertion or uterocele; lower portion frequently has associated VUR that results in intermittent pelvicalyceal dilatation

A

duplex kidney

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95
Q

any condition that blocks urinary flow from the bladder; characterized by an enlarged bladder and bilateral hydronephrosis

A

lower urinary tract obstruction

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96
Q

enlarged bladder

A

megacystis

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97
Q

Two most common causes of lower urinary tract obstruction are

A

PUV and dilated posterior urethra in male

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98
Q

anhydramnios; largely distended bladder fills entire abdomen and pelvis; chest circumference extremely small

A

urethral atresia

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99
Q

normal amniotic fluid volume; vertebral and lower extremity abnormalities; bladder exstrophy

A

caudal regression

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100
Q

dilated bladder early in gestation before 16 weeks; debris within cloaca; intraluminal calcifications within bowel loops

A

persistent cloaca

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101
Q

rare autosomal recessive; predominantly female condition; typically lethal within first year of life; nonobstructed, thin walled, dilated bladder, normal to high amniotic fluid volume, dilated bowel loops

A

MMIHS

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102
Q

Retrograde filling, dilatation of bladder, ureters, renal pelvis, bladder wall proximal to area of obstruction may become trabeculated and appear thickened (more than 2 mm)

A

MMIHS

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103
Q

Most common cause left urinary obstruction tract

A

posterior urethral valves

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104
Q

occurs exclusively in males; obstructing membrane in posterior urethra caused by redundant membrane folds; lead to varying degrees of hydronephrosis, hydroureter, megacystis, dilated posterior urethra, thickened bladder wall

A

posterior urethral valve

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105
Q

landmark on floor of prostatic urethra near entrance of seminal vesicles

A

verumontanum

106
Q

thick-walled dilated bladder, dilated prostatic urethra, proximal to point of obstruction, known as “keyhole sign”

A

posterior urethral valves

107
Q

rare congenital cause of urinary tract dilatation, 4x more common in twin pregnancies, 97% male predominance

A

Prune Belly Syndrome

108
Q

result of transient or permanent urethral obstruction, results in connective tissue and smooth muscle abnormalities of abdominal wall; characteristic laxaty of abdominal wall

A

Prune Belly Syndrome

109
Q

lack or normal abdominal wall musculature and testicular descent

A

Prune belly syndrome

110
Q

large thin-walled bladder, enlarged abdomen, bilateral hydroureter and hydronephrosis, renal dsyplasia, patent urachus, thorax small hypoplastic lungs

A

Prune belly Syndrome

111
Q

rare form of left urinary tract obstruction; causes extreme dilatation of penile urethra because of dysgenesis or corpus cavernosum and spongiosum of penis

A

megalourethra

112
Q

megacystis with or without hydroureter and hydronephrosis; cystic dilation of urethra

A

megalurethra

113
Q

variant of megalourethra that is generally less severe, normal amniotic fluid volume, preserved renal function, mortality rate 13%

A

scaphoid variant

114
Q

variant of megalourethra that results in oligohydramnios, higher incidence of renal failure, pulmonary hypoplasia, mortality rate of 66%

A

fusiform variant

115
Q

Hereditary PKD

A

ARPKD
ADPKD

116
Q

Nonhereditary PKD

A

MCDK
obstructive cystic dysplasia
simple renal cysts

117
Q

also known as infantile polycystic kidney disease

A

autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease

118
Q

most common cystic disease in pregnancy

A

autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease

119
Q

Four subtypes of ARPKD based on timing of defect

A

perinatal
neonatal
infantile
juvenile

120
Q

most common subtype of ARPKD

A

infantile

121
Q

caused by gene mutation of short arm of chromosome 6

A

autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease

122
Q

bilaterally enlarged, homogenously echogenic kidneys; poor corticomedullary differentiation; keep reniform appearance; numerous acoustic interfaces of dilated tubules account for overall echogenic appearance; severe oligohydramnios; may not be evident before 24 weeks

A

ARPKD

123
Q

most common inherited kidney disease

A

autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

124
Q

genes localized to short arm on chromosome 16 (85%) or genes localized to long arm chromosome 4

A

autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

125
Q

typically begins in adulthood; often asymptomatic for 30-40 years; numerous cysts interspersed in cortex and medulla of bilaterally enlarged kidneys, loss of reniform shape; amniotic fluids and bladder normal

A

ADPKD

126
Q

Organs that may contain cysts in ADPKD

A

liver
pancreas
spleen
central nervous system

127
Q

developmental renal disorder characterized by structural disorganization of renal tissues resulting in multiple noncommunicating cysts separated by dysplastic parenchyma; results from early ureteropelvic atresia and abnormal ureteric bud formation

A

multicystic dysplastic kidney disease

128
Q

____ is the most common anomaly found in conjunction with multicystic displastic kidney disease

A

VUR

129
Q

multiple large anechoic cysts, reniform shape absent, renal pelvis and proximal ureter are absent or atretic; compensatory hypertrophy in contralateral kidney

A

multicystic dysplastic kidney disease

130
Q

most common cause of nonhereditary fetal renal cystic dysplasia and hyperechoic kidneys

A

obstructive cystic dysplasia

131
Q

secondary to an early obstruction of fetal GU tract, progressive disease, can be unilateral, bilateral, or segmental

A

obstructive cystic dysplasia

132
Q

urinary tract obstruction with significant oligohydramnios, moderately enlarged kidneys with small to medium capsular or peripheral parenchymal cysts, cortex typically echogenic, thinned, and irregular with loss of corticomedullary differentiation

A

obstructive cystic dysplasia

133
Q

single nonseptated cyst with well defined borders and no communication with the renal pelvis and no communication with the renal pelvis

A

simple renal cyst

134
Q

unilateral, well-defined, solid or partially cystic mass, large, involving at least half of the kidney, arise from kidney or renal fossa, increased blood flow, occur exclusively in third trimester

A

congenital mesoblastic nephroma

135
Q

most common benign mesenchymal renal neoplasm

A

congenital mesoblastic nephroma

136
Q

ovoid, triangular, or heart shaped structures in suprarenal region of fetus

A

adrenal glands

137
Q

hypoechoic, central medulla, hypoechoic thick outer cortex

A

adrenal glands

138
Q

most common malignant tumor in neonates; more than 90% develop in adrenal glands; hyperechoic, can range from cystic to solid, variable size

A

neuroblastomas

139
Q

echogenic iliac crests separated from echogenic sacrum by hypoechoic sacroiliac joints

A

bony pelvis

140
Q

Two major abnormalities in the female reproductive system

A

internal pelvic masses
sacrococcygeal teratomas

141
Q

most common congenital neoplasm

A

sacrococcygeal teratoma

142
Q

most common soft tissue tumor in children; occurs in GU tract and abdominal cavity; large echogenic soft tissue mass

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

143
Q

normal embryonic remnant; fibrous cord that connects urinary bladder to allantois

A

urachus

144
Q

During the 5th month of fetal development the bladder descends into fetal pelvis pulling urachius with it, this results in formation of the ______

A

urachal canal

145
Q

The urachus becomes the ______

A

median umbilical ligament

146
Q

Most common urachal anomalies

A

urachal sinus and cyst

147
Q

The least common urachal anomaly is:

A

fully patent urachus

148
Q

severe congenital anomaly that results from failure of mesenchymal cells to migrate between ectoderm of abdomen and cloaca, causing eversion of bladder on abdominal surface

A

bladder exstrophy

149
Q

wide ramus pubis, low-set umbilicus, dimunitive genitalia, exteriorization of bladder,

A

bladder exstrophy

150
Q

soft tissue mass extending from lower anterior wall, with nonvisualization of the fetal bladder, mass inferior to umbilical cord insertion, normal kidneys and AFV

A

bladder exstrophy

151
Q

complex condition that includes bladder exstrophy, common embryologic origin but presents with multiple additional anomalies

A

cloacal exstrophy

152
Q

common sinus present in embryologic development, normally divides to form rectum, bladder, and genitalia

A

cloaca

153
Q

result of anomalous development of cloacal membrane

A

cloacal exstrophy

154
Q

transitory structure composed of endoderm and ectoderm which overlies embryonic cloaca

A

cloacal membrane

155
Q

abdominal wall defect with unsuccessful close of GU tract

A

cloacal exstrophy

156
Q

Most severe anomaly in spectrum, also referred to as OEIS complex

A

cloacal exstrophy

157
Q

absent bladder, large midline intraumbilical anterior wall defect, omphalocele, lumbosacral anomalies, lower extremity defects, renal anomalies, ascites, widened iliac bones, narrow thorax, hydrocephalus, single umbilical artery

A

cloacal exstrophy

158
Q

downward, or more obtuse angle of tubercle

A

female

159
Q

upward, or acute angle of tubercle

A

male

160
Q

abnormal development of corpus spongiosum, and cavernous urethra, incomplete fusion of ureogenital folds

A

hypospadias

161
Q

urethral opening abnormally located on ventral surface of penis and may terminate near glans penis, any point along penile shaft, at anterior margin or scrotum, in the perineum

A

hypospadias

162
Q

deep scrotal midline cleft caused by partial fusion of labrioscrotal folds

A

bifid scrotum

163
Q

downward curvature of penis

A

penile chordee

164
Q

caused by atresia of corpus spongiosum distal to hypospadic urethral opening

A

penile chordee

165
Q

small, ventrally curved penis with penoscrotal transposition

A

tulip sign

166
Q

complex process that involves tranabdominal descent at 10-15 weeks gestation, and transinguinal descent which occurs at 26-35 weeks gestationt

A

testicular descent

167
Q

undescended testes, failure of testes to complete migratory descent into scrotum

A

cryptochordism

168
Q

most common genial abnormality in children

A

cryptochordism

169
Q

Men with cryptochordism are 10-40x more likely to develop ______

A

testicular cancer

170
Q

accumulation of serous fluid beneath tunica vaginalis

A

hydrocele

171
Q

Increasing scrotal volume is indicative of:

A

inguinoscrotal hernia

172
Q

Inguinoscrotal hernias are primarility ___ sided

A

right

173
Q

heterogenous mass with peristalsis within the scrotum

A

inguinoscrotal hernia

174
Q

echogenic or calcified intrascrotal solid masses, do not show peristalsis

A

intrascrotal extension of meconium peritonitis

175
Q

combination of hyperactive cremaster reflex and loose attachment of parietal layer of tunica vaginalis to outer scrotal tissues

A

antenatal testicular torsion

176
Q

hypoechoic appearance and testicle measures large, “double-ring hemorrhage” sign

A

acute phase of antenatal testicular torsion

177
Q

hemorrhagic fluid outside tunica vaginalis and between visceral and parietal layers

A

“double-ring” hemorrhage

178
Q

testis becomes small, very echogenic, may calcify, with lack of blood supply

A

chronic phase of antenatal testicular torsion

179
Q

develop in response to maternal hormonal stimulation, hypothyroidism, or diabetes, typically seen in third trimester, may be simple or complex

A

fetal ovarian cyst

180
Q

most common intra-abdominal tumor in females

A

fetal ovarian cyst

181
Q

Any cyst greater than __ cm more likely to be complicated by torsion, intracystic hemorrhage, or intestinal obstruction

A

5

182
Q

Torsion occurs more frequently in the ____ ovary.

A

right

183
Q

presence of a calcified mass within an ovarian mass

A

teratoma
autoamputation of torsed ovary

184
Q

Complex ovarian cysts may take up to ___ months following birth to resolve

A

16

185
Q

dilation of the vagina

A

hydrocolpus

186
Q

cystic dilatation of vagina and uterus resulting from accumulation of fluid proximal to point of obstruction

A

hydrometrocolpos

187
Q

congenital condition in which development of chromosomal, or anatomical sex is atypical

A

Disorder of sex development

188
Q

CAH 46XX, most common, degree of virilization clitoromegaly to normal male penis with no palable undescended testes, fully developed uterus, fallopian tubes, upper vagina, joining a common urogenital sinus

A

congenital adrenal hypoplasia

189
Q

The gender assignment for patients with congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

female

190
Q

46 XY, normal female phenotype, amennorhea presents at puberty, results from a point mutation in the androgen receptor gene

A

androgen insensitivity syndrome

191
Q

female assignment

A

orchiectomy

192
Q

male assignment

A

orchiopexy

193
Q

Oligohydramnios is common with:

A

renal malformation

194
Q

_______ includes renal agenesis, ADPKD, and ARPKD, and acquired obstructive and multicystic kidney disease

A

Cystic kidney disease

195
Q

_______ is a nonspecific finding of obstruction somewhere within urinary system

A

fetal hydronephrosis

196
Q

In the event of ______, the adrenal gland moves into the renal fossa.

A

renal agenesis

197
Q

The internal structures of the fetal kidneys are not reliably assessed before __-__ weeks

A

14 16

198
Q

______ includes renal agenesis, AKPKD, and ARPKD, and acquired obstructive and multicystic kidney disease

A

Potter sequence

199
Q

______ is usually a secondary condition related to oligohydramnios found within renal anomalies

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia

200
Q

______ may demonstrate a mass similar to the omphalocele; however, this mass is inferior to the bladder

A

Bladder exstrophy

201
Q

_______ are a common finding in the male fetus.

A

Hydroceles

202
Q

In the first trimester, fetal kidneys appear ____ to the surrounding anatomy.

A

isoechoic

203
Q

When the second-trimester fetal renals are difficult to visualize, what method will assist in imaging them>

A

color and/or Power Dopper

204
Q

The fetal bladder should be visualized by:

A

11-13 weeks

205
Q

The fetal bladder fills and voids approximately once every:

A

60 minutes

206
Q

Bladder wall thickness cannot be visualized clearly without:

A

ascites

207
Q

Oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid volume of less than __cc, as indicated by a maximum vertical pocket of less than 2 cm or an AFI of less than __cm on ultrasound.

A

500, 5

208
Q

_____ is a condition that a fetus has pulmonary hypoplasia secondary to oligohydramnios, typically owing to renal failue

A

Potter syndrome

209
Q

In the case of unilateral agenesis, the existing kidney is invariably larger than in a fetus with two kidneys owing to:

A

compensatory hypertrophy

210
Q

Renal ectopia is a condtion:
a. that is incompatible with life
b. where the bilateral kidneys are cystic
c. of aplastic kidneys
d. where a kidney is positioned outside of the renal fossa

A

d

211
Q

Horseshoe kidney has the highest prevalence in fetuses with :

A

Turner Syndrome

212
Q

Severe fetal hydronephrosis is an ADPRD over:

A

15 mm

213
Q

The prognosis is poor for a fetus with all except:
a. bilateral hydronephrosis
b. pulmonary hypoplasia
c. isoechoic renal echogenicity
d. bladder obstruction

A

c

214
Q

In a 30 week fetus, megaureter is diagnosed when the ureter measures greater than:

A

7mm

215
Q

A uterocele is most commonly associated with:

A

a duplicated collecting system

216
Q

Predominantly female renal and/or bladder anomalies include:
a. crossed renal ectopia
b. obstructive uropathy
c. polycystic kidneys
d. Prune belly syndrome

A

c

217
Q

Causes of UPJ include all except:
a. utereral kinks
b. peripelvic adhesions
c. aberrant crossing renal vessels
d. bladder dilation

A

d

218
Q

Mesoblastic nephromas are mostly:
a. related to oligohydramnios
b. related to polyhydramnios
c. related to a poor prognosis
d. small

A

b

219
Q

The fetal adrenals are best imaged in the:

A

third trimester

220
Q

Labels related to disorders of sex development include all except:
a. sex chromosome genotype
b. pseudo-hermaphroditism
c. ambiguous genitalia
d. intersex

A

b

221
Q

Choose the type of kidney that causes hypertension:
a. echogenic
b. enlarged
c. pelvic
d. horseshoe

A

c

222
Q

The most common fetal malformation involves the _____ system.

A

genitourinary

223
Q

In a transverse plane, fetal kidneys are _____ shape.

A

ovoid

224
Q

The _____ arteries will assist in locating the fetal bladder.

A

umbilical

225
Q

The amount of amniotic fluid observed has a direct correlation to the ______ of the fetus.

A

renal function

226
Q

The presence of ______ after 16 weeks gestation raises suspicion for a malfunctioning GU system.

A

oligohydramnios

227
Q

Renal _____ is the congenital absence of one or both kidneys.

A

agenesis

228
Q

______ renal ectopia is a kidney located on the opposite side from which its ureter inesrts into the bladder

A

crossed

229
Q

A pelvic kidney is located _____ to the renal fossa and _____ to the bladder.

A

inferior
superior

230
Q

Pelvic dilation in the third trimester means the renal pelvis is dilated over ____

A

7 mm

231
Q

____ is the permanent or intermittent retrograde flow of urine from the bladder into the upper urinary tract.

A

VUR

232
Q

Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease affects both kidneys and is also known as ______ polycystic kidney disease.

A

infantile

233
Q

A single, nonseptated cyst with well-defined borders and no communication between the renal pelvis descibes a ____ renal cyst.

A

simple

234
Q

The most basic conventional grading system for hydronephrosis characterizes the kidneys as ____, _____, or ____.

A

mild
moderate
severe

235
Q

Bladder exstrophy demonstrates as a soft tissue mass extending from the _____ wall, with nonvisualization of the normal fetal bladder

A

lower anterior

236
Q

______ kidneys are the most common renal fusion anomaly

A

horseshoe

237
Q

A posterior urethral valve is an obstructing _____ in the posterior urethra caused by redundant membranous folds

A

membrane

238
Q

The most common cause of congenital obstructive hydronephrosis is ____ obstruction.

A

UPJ

239
Q

_____ is the failure of the testes to complete the migratory descent into the scrotum

A

Cryptochordism

240
Q

Megacystitis

A

enlarged bladder

241
Q

Pelviecatasis is dilation of the _____ and _____

A

pelvis
calyces

242
Q
A
243
Q

Which of the following is associated with sirenomelia?
A. ADPKD
B. Bilateral renal agenesis
C. Infantile polycystic kidney disease
D. MCDK

A

B

244
Q

Wha tis the common cause of a bladder outlet obstruciton in the male fetus?

A

Posterior urethral valves

245
Q

The most common malignant adrenal pediatric tumor is the:

A

Neuroblastoma

246
Q

The “lying-down” adrenal sign would be seen in all of the following situations except;
A. Unilateral renal agenesis
B. Bilateral renal agenesis
C. Potter syndrome
D. Pyelactasis

A

D

247
Q

What is the most common cause of hydronephrosis in the neonate and the most common form of fetal renal obstruction?

A

UPJ obstruction

248
Q

Which of the following would result in compsentory hypertrophy?
A. Unilateral renal agenesis
B. Bilateral renal agenesis
C. Pelvic kidney
D. Horseshoe kidney

A

A

249
Q

Which of the following describes hypospadias?
A. OEIS complex with presence of hydrocele
B. Chronic obstruction of renal pelvis and calicyes
C. Underdevelopment of the scrotum in the presence of a hydrocele
D. An abnormal ventral curvature of the penis

A

D

250
Q

Fluid surrounding the testicle is referred to as:

A

Hydrocele

251
Q

Fusion of the lower poles of the kidney describes:

A

Horseshoe kidneys

252
Q

Obstruction at the level of the UPJ would lead to dilation of the:

A

Renal pelvis and calicyes

253
Q

The most common location of an ectopic kidney is within the:

A

Pelvis

254
Q

Prune belly syndrome is caused by:

A

Enlarged bladder

255
Q

Cryptorchidism describes

A

Undescended testicles

256
Q

What is the most common renal tumor?

A

Mesoblastic nephroma

257
Q

An obstruction of the UVJ would lead to dilation of the:

A

Ureter and renal collecting system

258
Q

Before 9 weeks the fetal kidneys are located within the:

A

Pelvis

259
Q

Which of the following is the most common renal anomaly?
A. Horseshoe kidney
B. Pelvic kidney
C. Renal agenesis
D. Duplicate collecting system

A

D

260
Q

Failure of the kidneys to form is called:

A

Renal agenesis

261
Q

Whic of the following would be the most likely cause of bilateral, enlarged echogenic fetal kidneys and oligohydramnios?
A. ARPKD
B. MCDK
C. Renal cystic dysplasia
D. ADPKD

A

D

OB 2 (17 decks)

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