Chapter 25: Fetal Echocardiography Flashcards

1
Q

without motion

A

akinetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

abnormal heart rate

A

arrythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

abnormal opening between the right and left atrium

A

atrial septal defect (ASD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

aka endocardial cushion defect

A

atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

primum-type ASD in the lower portion of the atrial septum without a ventricular defect component

A

partial atrioventricular septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

a heart with both primum type ASD and inlet-type VSD and a single common atrioventricular valve

A

complete atrioventricular septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

valves located between the atrium and the ventricles (tricuspid and mitral valves)

A

atrioventricular valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

slow heart rate

A

bradyarrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

narrowing of the aorta, either discrete or long segment

A

coarctation of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

apex of the heart points to the right chest

A

dextracardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

both great arteries arise from the morphologic right ventricle, with a VSD. There may be pulmonary stenosis and/or other lesions present

A

double-outlet right ventricle (DORV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

venous connection from the umbilical vein inserting into the inferior vena cava

A

ductus venosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

impaired of abnormal movement

A

dyskinetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

right heart abnormality with apical displacement of the tricuspid valve resulting in varying degrees of right atrial enlargement or diminished RV size and function, tricuspid regurgitation, and, possibly, pulmonary stenosis or atresia

A

ebstein anomaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

subset of cells found in the developing heart tube that will give rise to the heart’s atrioventricular valves and septae; critical to the proper formation of a four-chambered heart

A

endocardial cushion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

normal opening in the atrial septum allowing for blood flow from the right to left atrium during fetal life

A

Foramen Ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

accumulation of fluid in the chest and abdomen because of heart failure

A

hydrops, nonimmune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

underdevelopment of the left heart, in particular, the mitral valve, the left ventricle, and aorta; stenosis or atresia of the aortic and/or mitral valves

A

hypoplastic left heart syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

muscular projections into the ventricles that anchor the chordae tendinae of the AV valves

A

papillary muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

irregular extra contractions of the atria; may be conducted or blocked in relation to the ventricles

A

premature atrial contractions (PACs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

benign tumor of the heart. Most common fetal cardiac tumor. Associated with the genetic disorder tuberous sclerosis complex

A

Rhabdomyoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

underdevelopment of the right ventricle and the tricuspid valve

A

right ventricular hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

first section/side of the interatrial septum to form in the embryo

A

septum primum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

fast sustained heart beat / arrythmia. Not ventricular in origin; may originate from the atria, AV node, sinoatrial node, or as a result of an additional electrical bypass tract

A

supraventricular tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
cardiac malformation with a VSD anterior malaligned conal septum, varying degrees of pulmonary stenosis, and overriding aorta
Tetralogy of Fallot
26
cardiac malformation where the aorta rises from the morphologic right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the morphologic left ventricle
transposition of the great arteries
27
congenital/absence/closure of the tricuspid valve
tricuspid atresia
28
single semilunar valve providing both pulmonary artery and aortic arch flow
truncus arteriosus
29
A deficiency in the ventricular septum creating a communication and blood flow between the ventricles
ventricular septal defect
30
The ____, _____, and _____ all make up the cardiocascular system.
heart blood vessels blood cells
31
The cardiovascular system originates from:
mesodermal germ layer
32
Blood starts to circulate in the fetus within ____ weeks gestational age
5
33
The heart begins as a set of paired tubular structures known as ____
cardiogenic cords
34
The cardiogenic cords begin to fuse on the ___ day of development to form single heart tube
22
35
The single heart tube is a slightly bent structure consisting of an ______ and _____.
endocardial tube myoepicardial mantle
36
The ____ portion of the heart tube bends right and ventrally.
cephalic
37
The _____ portion of the heart tube bends leftward in dorsocranial manner
caudal
38
The cephalic and caudal portions of the heart tube result in the formation of:
arterioventricular loop (AV)
39
At ___ days the endocardial cushion begins to develop, separating atria and ventricles.
27
40
At ___ days the mitral and tricuspid valves are formed.
33
41
The _____ begins to form as primitive ventricles begin to dilate, causing fusion of the medial walls.
ventricular septum
42
The ______ forms between the 25th and 28th day and created an initial division between right and left portions of the atrium
septum primum
43
The great vessels
aorta pulmonary arteries
44
The great vessels arise from the common vessel of ______
truncus arteriosus
45
Arise from a series of primitive aortic arches
aortic and pulmonary arches
46
The aortic and pulmonary arches occur between __ and __ days postconception
19 30
47
The third pair of arches become the ______
internal carotid arteries
48
The fourth pair of arches become the _____
definitive aorta right subclavian artery
49
The sixth pair of arches become the ____
right and left pulmonary arteries
50
At the beginning of the ___ week, the heart is fully developed
8th
51
Oxygenated blood enters the fetus's circulation from placenta through the _____ and travels to hepatic circulation and ____ portal vein.
umbilical vein left
52
The majority of blood from the umbilical vein is shunted into ______, which bypasses hepatic circulation and enter IVC
ductus venosus
53
From the IVC, the blood enters the _____
right atrium
54
Oxygenated blood is preferentially streamed by the eustachian valve through the foramen ovale into the ____
left atrium
55
Blood in the LA flows through the _____ into the _____
mitral valve left ventricle
56
The LV ejection propels the blood through the ____ and into the _____
aortic valve aorta
57
_________ occurs, providing oxygen rich blood to the developing myocardium
coronary perfusion
58
The more highly oxygenated portion of the blood is shunted mainly to the _____ portion of the fetus via the ______ arteries arising from the aortic arch
cranial brachiocephalic
59
Indications for fetal echocardiography are based on documented ____ and ____ conditions associated with an increased fisk of CHD.
fetal parental
60
Fetal risk factors
presence of a major fetal extracardiac anomaly abnormal fetal cardiac screening increased nuchal translucency thickness chromosomal abnormality fetal arrhythmia
61
Parental risk factors
pregestation or gestational diabetes first degree relative with CHD maternal autoimmune disease teratogen exposure assisted reproductive techniques single umbilical artery
62
The fetal cardiac examination should be done between ___-___ weeks
18 22
63
The heart should occupy the majority of the ____ side of the fetal chest
left
64
The apex in a normal heart should be pointing to the ____.
left
65
The normal angle of the heart should be ___ degrees to left of midline, plus or minus 20 degrees
45
66
LA located closest to the fetal spine, RV wall located closest to the anterior chest wall
levocardia
67
The normal heart position is called
levocardia
68
3 abnormal positions of fetal heart
dextrocardia dextroposition mesocardia
69
occurs when heart is located on the right side of the chest with apex pointing to the right
dextrocardia
70
heart being located on right side of chest, with apex pointing to the left
dextroposition
71
heart located in the middle portion of the chest, but with apex pointing along midline
mesocardia
72
apical four chamber view
transverse image of fetal chest
73
2 types of four chamber vie
apical subcostal
74
The RV appears slightly ____ than the left.
larger
75
The ____ is located closest to the anterior chest wall and contains the thick muscular moderator band
RV
76
valves located between the atria and the ventricles
MV TV
77
The IVS and interatrial septum are located:
between the atria and the ventricles
78
should contain normal opening for foramen ovale
atrial septum
79
obtained by angling the transducer slightly cephalad from apical view
subcostal four chamber view
80
Hockey stick appearance
ductal arch
81
The ductal arch consists of:
PA ductus arteriosus descending aorta
82
two transducer technologies to acquire data volume set
mechanical probe electronic 4d probe
83
ultrasound beam directed through area of interest in which static or spatiotemporal image correlation
mechanical probe
84
obtains either a single 4D volume or STIC subvolumes that are "stitched" together to form a single volume
electronic 4D probe
85
fetal heart rates greater than 180 bpm
tachyarrthymias
86
fetal heart rates less than 100 bpm
bradyarrythmias
87
2 types of premature atrial contraction
conducted nonconducted
88
ventricular contraction follows atrial contraction but with a subsequent pause in rhythm as sinus node resets
conducted premature atrial contraction
89
isolated deflection of atrial wall visualized without subsequent ventricular contraction as impulse was blocked by AV note
nonconducted premature atrial contraction
90
diagnosed when heart rate approximately between 180 and 300 bpm
supraventricular tachycardia
91
defined as an atrial rate between 300-400 beats; dropped ventricular beats at a set rate
atrial flutter
92
irregular atrial rate greater than 400 without a set conduction pattern to ventricles
atrial fibrillation
93
common drugs for SVT
digoxin flecainide sotalol
94
common drugs atrial flutter
digoxin sotalol
95
Fetuses that do not respond to medication for SVT or atrial flutter are at risk for:
development of high-output heart failure fetal nonimmune hydrops
96
heart rate below 100 bpms
bradyarrythmia
97
most severe form of bradyarrythmia
complete heart block (third-degree AV block)
98
complete dissociation between atrial and ventricular rates atrial rate will be normal complete lack of conduction ventricles 70 bpm or less
complete heart block
99
normal atrial rate
120-180 bpm
100
most common cardiac malformations
isolated VSDs
101
Ventricular septal defects account for approximately ___% of cardiac abnormalities
30
102
separate RV and LV chambers
IVS
103
IVS consists of _____ and _____ portions
muscular membranous
104
common in setting of malalignment disorders
perimembranous lesions
105
membranous defect allows both ventricles to eject into aorta
Tetraology of Fallot
106
Defects occurring in muscular portion of septum
inlet outlet trabecular apical
107
affect portion of septum extending from TV leaflest
inlet
108
occur in most superior portion of septum, close to aortic and pulmonary valves
outlet, subarterial, or conal defects
109
found in midportion of septum; also referred to as midmuscular or central defects
trabecular defects
110
occur close to apex of the heart past insertion point of moderator band
apical defects
111
The ____ appears as a dark, hypolucent area in septum.
VSD
112
anechoic area bordered by a sharply defined hyperechoic portion of the septum
"T" sign
113
5th most common cardiac anomaly
atrial septal defect
114
musculomembranous structure that divides the RA and LA
atrial septum
115
most common type of ASD
ostium secundum defect
116
second most common type of ASD
ostium primum
117
defect adjacent to either SVC or IVC; allows blood from SVC or IVC to pass through defect, causing a right to left shunt; may be present at ostium of coronary sinus
sinus venous ASDs
118
unusually large anechoic area in septum secundum close to foramen ovale; may be noted that flap insufficiently covers foramen
sinus venous ASD
119
lower portion of atrial septum immediately superior to AV valves is absent
ostium primum
120
involve a combination of malformations of the IAS, IVS, and the AV valves
Atrioventricular septal defects
121
also referred to as AV canal or endocardial cushion defects
atrioventricular septal defects
122
occur when endocardial cushions of heart fail to fuse properly
atrioventricular septal defects
123
consist of a large septal defect with both atrial and ventricular defects and a common AV valve that connects both atria to the ventricles
completes AVSDs
124
In a complete AVSD, the common AV valve consists of five leaflets:
anteriosuperior and posteroinferior leaflets bridge septal defects three lateral defects
125
mitral and tricuspid openings separate
partial AVSDs
126
least common form of AVSDs
intermediate
127
large, anechoic area encompassing the lower portion (primum) of atrial septum, upper portion of ventricular septum, normal location of MV and TV
complete AVSD
128
The aortic root normally lies with ______
annulus of MV and TV
129
most severe left-sided obstructive lesion
hypoplastic left heart syndrome
130
Basic components of hypoplastic left heart syndrome
hypoplastic LV aortic atresia hypoplasia of ascending aorta MV atresia and/or hypoplasia
131
most common cause of death from CHD in neonatal period
hypoplastic left heart syndrome
132
lesion arises from an intial mitral stenosis with subsequent decreased development of LVOT
hypoplastic left heart syndrome
133
What forms the apex of the heart in hypoplastic left heart syndrome?
Right ventricle
134
generally results from pulmonary atresia with an intact ventricular system
right ventricular hypoplasia/ pulmonary atresia
135
Classification of right ventricular hypoplasia
inlet portion apical trabecular portion infundibulum/conus
136
area of right ventricle that includes the tricuspid valve
inlet portion
137
right ventricle area that includes the area past the insertion of the tricuspid papillary muscles
apical trabecular portion
138
area of right ventricle that encompasses the area surrounding the pulmonary valve
infundibulum or conus
139
Partite system characterizations
tripartite bipartite unipartite
140
Tripartite
involving all regions (inlet, apical trabecular, infundibulum or conus)
141
bipartite
with inlet and outlet componenets
142
unipartite
inlet lesion only
143
identification of an unusually small RV, regurgitation of TV, small, hyperechoic PA, no blood flow; results in ductal dependent lesion
RV hypoplasia with pulmonary atresia
144
result in RV hypoplasia; lack of inflow from RA; progressive lesion that tends to worsen as pregnancy progresses; hyperechoic thickened valve; Doppler- no flow on either side of the valve
Tricuspid atresia
145
narrowing of aorta along aortic arch resulting in outflow obstruction
coarctation of the aorta
146
classifications of coarctation of aorta
preductal ductal postductal
147
Majority of coarctations are classified as
ductal or postductal
148
Complete interruption of aorta Type A lesions are located:
just distal to left subclavian
149
Complete interruption of aorta Type B lesions are located:
between left carotid and left subclavian
150
Complete interruption of aorta Type C lesions are located:
between innominate and left carotid
151
Normal ratio RV to LV size
1.25
152
Abnormal ratio RV to LV size affected wtih coarctation of the aorta
2.25
153
Normal ratio of PA diameter
1.25
154
Abnormal ratio of PA diameter size affected with coarctation of the aorta
approaching 2
155
Diagnosis of interrupted aortic arch
hypoplastic ascending aorta disproportionately small aortic root VSD generally present
156
most common form of cyanotic heart disease
Tetraology of Fallot
157
Four classic features of Tetraology of Fallot
perimembranous (conal) VSD overriding aorta pulmonary stenosis or atresia RV hypertrophy
158
If more than 50% of aorta overrides the RV _____ is more likely.
DORV
159
3 types of PA abnormalities
pulmonary stenosis pulmonary atresia with a patent ductus pulmonary atresia with major aortopulmonary collaterals
160
retrograde flow, with a lack of flow seen across the valve itself, usually associated with increased turbulence, RV hypertrophy may or may not be apparent
pulmonary atresia
161
Cardiac anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot
right-sided aortic arch aberrant left subclavian artery atrial septal or AVSD
162
Extracardiac anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot
tracheoesophageal fistula renal anomalies clefts single umbilical artery
163
Most common chromosomal anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot
DiGeorge syndrome trisomy 21
164
posterior and septal TV leaflets are apically displaced from their normal location at the AV junction into the RV; results in abnormally large RA and pathologically small RV; aberrant leaflets of TV may be variable adherent to ventricular wall
Ebstein anomaly
165
Ebstein anomaly frequently causes severe dysfunction in utero:
cardiomegaly hydrops arrythmias
166
Maternal ingestion of _____ gives a 28 fold increase for developing the Ebstein anomaly.
lithium carbonate
167
Ebstein anomaly is associated with trisomies:
13 18 21
168
Prenatal diagnosis of Ebstein anomaly
RA enlargement with apical displacement of TV unusal tethering of TV leaflets severe levortation of heart Measurement of offset between septal leaflets of MV and TV (greater than 8 mm)
169
Two categories of Transposition of the Great Arteries
complete transposition or d-transposition congenitally corrected transposition (CCTGA) or l-transposition
170
In Transposition of the Great arteries the PA arises from the ____ and the aorta from the ____
LV RV
171
Connection between atria and ventricles is concordant; RA connects with RV; LA connects with LV; aorta comes off RV; PA comes off LV
complete transposition
172
Normal relationship of PA encircling central aorta lost; two vessels appear as either side-by-side circular structures or parallel vessels; in the three vessel view, only two vessels are viewed (aorta and SVC)
complete transposition of the great arteries
173
Both AV connections and ventriculoarterial connections discordant; RA connects to morphologic LV which connects to PA; LA connects to morphologic RV which connects to aorta
CCGTA
174
one of a group of rare conotruncal defects that account for approx 1% fetal cardiac lesions; truncoconal ridges that normally divide truncus arteriosus into aorta and pulmonary trunks fail to fuse, resulting in a single great vessel arising just above IVS; VSD uniformly present within upper portion of septum just below location of truncus;
truncus arteriosus
175
associated cardiac anomalies truncus arteriosus
valvular insufficiency or stenosis absent ductus arteriosus right-sided aortic arch
176
encompasses a group of disorders in which more than 50% of both aortic root and PA arise from morphologic RV, usually directly above a perimembranous VSD; discontinuity of normal fibrous connection of MV and aortic valves
Double-Outlet Right ventricle
177
Four main types of DORV
VSD Fallot TGA Noncommittal VSD
178
VSD type DORV
DORV with a subaortic VSD
179
Fallot type DORV
subaortic or double committed VSD and pulmonary stenosis
180
TGA type DORV
DORV with a subpulmonary VSD
181
Noncommittal VSD DORV
VSD is remote from either great vessel
182
DORV is strongly associated with _____
poorly controlled diabetes
183
Chromosomal abnormalities associated with DORV
DiGeorge syndrome trisomies 13 and 18
184
most common prenatally diagnosed cardiac tumor
rhabdomyoma
185
echogenic mass within RV or LV or within IVS; 60-80% of patients are diagnosed with tuberous sclerosis
rhabdomyoma
186
Most common arrythmia associated with rhabdomyoma
supraventricular
187
The heart begins beating a __ weeks postconception
3
188
_______, tubular structures are the first sign of heart development.
cardiogenic cords
189
The _____ forms as the tube bends.
AV loop
190
Endocardial cushions develop separating the atria and ventricles at approx ___ days
27
191
In the ___ week, the truncus arteriosus forms, twisting into their proper location
7
192
Fetal circulation has three bypasses:
ductus arteriosus foramen ovale ductus venosus
193
____ is the most common malformation
CHD
194
The best time to examine the fetal heart with ultrasound is between __ and __ weeks
18 22
195
The normal heart is at a ___ degree angle to the ____ of midline
45 left
196
_____, ______, and _____ describe abnormal positions of the fetal heart.
dextrocardia dextroposition mesocardia
197
You should obtain a minimum a ___ 2D views of the heart to determine normalcy./
5
198
________ imaging allows evaluating an unlimited number of views of the cardiovascular system
3-/4D
199
An ____ helps detect heart rhythm anomalies when the M-line is through the atria and the ventricle
M-mode
200
Fetal arrythmias may lead to:
nonimmune fetal hydrops
201
Septal defects occur in the ____, ____, or a combo of both (___)
IAS IVS AVSD
202
Either the RV or the LV may fail to develop, resulting in _____
HLHS RV hypoplasia
203
There are several types of aortic coarctation
preductual, ductal, postductal
204
_____ is the most common form of cyanotic heart disease
TOF
205
TOF is the result of five defects:
perimembranous VSD outlet of conal ventricular defect pulmonic stenosis PA hypoplasia RV hypertrophy
206
Main findings in Ebstein anomaly
apically placed TV large atrialized RV
207
There are two types of TGA:
complete congenitally correted
208
the failure of the embryonic truncus to separate into aorta and pa
truncus arteriousus
209
has more than 50% of the aortic root and PA arising from the RV
DORV
210
most common solid, benign, cardiac mass seen in the fetus and may be because of tuberous sclerosis and nonimmune fetal hydrops
rhabdomyoma
211
The embryonic heart is completely formed at the:
beginning of the eighth week
212
Fetal blood circulates within the embryo at:
3 weeks postconception
213
Fetal oxygenated blood circulation from the placenta enters the fetus through the:
umbilical vein to the hepatic circulation and left portal vein
214
Fetal blood from the IVC enters the heart:
right atrium
215
In the fetus, left atrial blood passes through the ______ into the left ventricle
mitral valve
216
The greatest concentration of oxygenated fetal blood travels to the:
cranium
217
A normal heart orientation is:
levocardia
218
In the normal fetal heart, which chamber is located closest to the fetal spine?
left atrium
219
Fetal tachyarrythmias are heart rates:
more than 180 beats per minute
220
Digoxin, solatol, and flecainide are most often selected for fetal treatment of:
SVT
221
A defect of the inlet, outlet, trabecular, or apical portion of the fetal septum involves the:
muscular septum
222
A syndrome that includes aortic atresia, a small left ventricle, and mitral valve atresia is:
HLHS
223
Tetralogy of Fallot includes all except: a. perimembranous VSD b. right atrial hypertrophy c. pulmonic stenosis d. pulmonary artery hypoplasia
d
224
An abnormally large right atrium and abnormally small right ventricle with tricuspid regurgitation is an indication of:
Ebstein anomaly
225
What anomaly describes a single vessel overriding a VSD and regurgitant flow, and thickened stenotic valve indicate?
Truncus arteriosus
226
The most common cardiac tumor is:
rhabdomyoma
227
DORV involves: a. severe ASD b. a conotruncal defect with the aorta and pulmonary artery failing to divide c. more than 50% of both the aortic root and PA arise from the morphologic RV d. premature closure of the foramen ovale
c
228
Ostium primum and ostium secundum defects involve the:
atrial septum
229
The pulmonary valve receives blood from the:
right ventricle
230
Current ultrasound resolution limits of ____ mm may prevent the identification of small VSDs
1 to 2
231
Blood begins to circulate in the embryo at ___ weeks postconception, which is ___ weeks gestational age.
3 5
232
The fetal heart should consume most of the ____ side of the chest and lays with a normal angle of ____ degrees to the ____ of midline, plus or minus 20 degrees. The normal position of the heart is termed _____.
left 45 left levocardia
233
A right-sided heart with the apex pointing left is ______.
dextroposition
234
A heart positioned in the right chest with the apex pointing right is labeled _____.
dextrocardia
235
A midline heart is labeled _____
mesocardia
236
The standard first view in an echocardiogram is the ______ view.
apical four chamber
237
The subcostal fetal heart view is used for the _______ view, ______ view of the ventricles, and Doppler interrogation of the ______.
TV and MV M-mode AV valves
238
A long axis view of the ____ artery demonstrates the RVOT. A long axis view of the ____ demonstrates the LVOT.
PA aorta
239
The brachiocephalic, left common carotid, and left subclavian artery arise from the _____ arch, which has a ______ shape or appearance.
ductal candy cane
240
A fetal sustained heart rate of 100 bpm or less is called ______
bradyarrythmia
241
The most frequent cardiac malformation is ________, occurring in about 30% of live births.
ventricular septal defect
242
The three bypasses of the fetal heart that close at parturition are _______, _______, and _______.
ductus arteriosus ductus venosus foramen ovale
243
The 3D imaging mode used specifically for fetal cardiac imaging is _____
STIC
244
Tricuspid atresia results in ____ hypoplasia. It appears as a _______, ______ valve.
RV hyperechoic thickened
245
Narrowing of the aorta along the arch is _______ and results in possible _______ descending aortic flow distal to ductus arteriosus entrance.
coarctation high velocity
246
Complete TGA is ____ and _____ concordant connection; aorta originating from the ____; pulmonary artery originating from the ____.
atria ventricle RV LV
247
Endocardial cushion defect is also known as _______
AV canal/ atrioventricular septal defects
248
The ______ view of the fetal heart is often used for the diagnosis of VSD.
subcostal four chamber
249
Tubular structures called _______ are the first development of the fetal heart.
cardiogenic cords
250
Chamber dilation proximal to an atretic valve is known as ______
aortic root dilatation
251
The ______ is the most common solid, benign cardiac mass seen in the fetus.
rhabdomyoma
252
The correct flow direction through the foramen ovale is _____ to _____.
right atrium left atrium
253
A structure in the right ventricle, the ________, should differentiate the right ventricle from the left ventricle.
tricuspid valve
254
The structure that separates the right and left ventricular chambers is the ______
muscular moderator band
255
The foraminal flap should be seen opening into the _____ atrium.
left
256
Tetralogy of Fallot is the result of five defects: a _______, _______, _______, _______, ________.
perimembranous VSD outlet of conal ventricular defect pulmonic stenosis PA hypoplasia RV hypertrophy
257
______ is a condition in which the aortic root and pulmonary artery arise from the right ventricle.
Double outlet right ventricle
258
Failure of the embryonic truncus to separate into the aorta and pulmonary artery is known as:
truncus arteriosus
259
The fetal heart begins beating ___________________ weeks post conception
3
260
A coexisting pericardial effusion and a pleural effusion is consistent with the diagnosis of:
nonimmune fetal hydrops
261
What is transposition of the great arteries?
connection between the atria and ventricles is concordant, meaning that the RA connects to the RV, and the LA connects with the LV. The aorta, however, comes off the RV and the PA comes off the LV.
262
When hypoplastic left heart syndrome is found in girls, what syndrome should be suspected?
Turner syndrome
263
A heart rate using M-mode should be sonographically obtainable with EV when the CRL measures?
4-5 mm
264
Blood returning from the IVC enters the:
right atrium
265
What is the opening located right anteromedially within the diaphram?
foramen of Morgagni
266
A group of anomalies characterized by a small or an absent left ventricle is:
hypoplastic left heart syndrome
267
A group of anomalies characterized by a small or an absent right ventricle is:
right ventricular hypoplasia
268
What is an opening within the septum that separates the right and left ventricles?
ventricular septal defect
269
The narrowing of the aortic arch is indicative of:
coarctation of the aorta
270
An EIF is most often seen within the:
left ventricle
271
An EIF would most likely be associated with:
trisomy 13 and 21
272
The most common fetal cardiac tumor is the :
rhabdomyoma
273
sonographic features of pentology of cantrell
condition that involves five anomalies: anterior abdominal wall defect, anterior diaphragmatic hernia, sternal cleft, ectopia cordis and intracardiac abnormalities
274
The normal heart will fill approximately _____________ of the fetal chest.
1/3
275
The condition in which the heart is located outside the chest wall is termed:
ectopic cordis
276
The moderator band is located within the:
right ventricle
277
The most common cause of cardiac malposition is:
diaphragmatic hernia
278
The tricuspid valve is located:
between the right atrium and right ventricle
279
The embryonic heart begins as;
two tubes called the cordiogenic cords
280
The mitral valve is located:
between the left atrium and left ventricle
281
What is the most common cardiac defect?
VSD
282
What is the normal opening in the lower middle third of the atriual septum?
Foramen Ovale
283
What structure shunts blood into the IVC from the umbilical vein?
ductus venosus
284
The blood returning from the lungs through the pulmonary veins enters into the:
left atrium
285
The greatest concentration of fetal blood travels to the:
cranium
286
An abnormally large right atrium and abnormally small right ventricle with tricuspid regurgitation is an indication of:
Ebstein Anomaly
287
________________________ is a normal heart orientation
Levocardia
288
Blood begins to circulate in the embryo at _____________________ post conception, which is ______________________ weeks gestational age.
3 5
289
The fetal heart should consume most of the left side of the chest and lays with a normal angle of _________________ degrees to ________________ of midline.
45 left
290
A right sided heart with the apex pointing left is called_________________________
dextroposition
291
A heart positioned in the right chest with the apex pointing right is labeled __________________________
dextrocardia
292
A midline heart is termed _______________________.
mesocardia
293