Final Review Flashcards
A linear structure coursing through an anechoic cyst separating cavities may be referred to as a:
Septation
After the Graafian follicle ruptures, the remaining structure is termed the:
Corpus luteum
All of the following are clinical findings associated with leiomyoma except:
A. Myometrial cysts
B. Infertility
C. Palpable pelvic mass
D. Menorrhagia
A
All of the following are considered risk factors for PID except:
A. IUD
B. Multiple sex partners
C. Post childbirth
D. Uterine leiomyoma
D
All of the following statements concerning PID are true except:
A. PID is typically a unilateral condition
B. PID can be caused by douching
C. PID can lead to tubo-ovarian abscess
D. Dyspareunia is a clinical finding in acute PID
A
An endometrioma most likely appears as a:
A. Simple, anechoic mass with through transmission
B. Complex mass with internal shadowing components
C. Most likely cystic mass with low level echoes
D. Solid, Hyperechoic shadowing mass
C
An individual who does not experience menarche before the age of 16 is said to be suffering from:
A. Primary amennorhea
B. Secondary amennorhea
C. Exosphytic amennorhea
D. Inherent amennorhea
A
ASherman syndrome is associated with:
A. Uterine leiomyoma
B. Endometrial polyps
C. Endometrial adhesions
D. Ovarian fibroma
C
Both the straight and spiral arteries are branches of the:
Radial artery
Causes of Postmenopausal bleeding include all of the following except:
A. ASherman syndrome
B. Endometrial atrophy
C. Endometrial hyperplasia
D. Intracavitary fibroids
A
During which phase of the endometrial cycle would the endometrium yield the three-line sign?
Late proliferative phase
FSH is produced by the:
Anterior pituitary gland
Having the same echogenicity means:
Isoechoic
The development of adhesions between the liver and the diaphragm as a result of PID is termed:
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
The cystic mass commonly noted with a pregnancy is the:
Corpus luteum
The common iliac veins combine to create the:
IVC
Pseudoprecocious puberty may be associated with all of the following except:
A. Ovarian tumor
B. Adrenal tumor
C. Liver tumor
D. Brain tumor
D
Synechiae with the uterus results from:
A. Scar tissue
B. Leiomyoma
C. Endometrial polyps
D. Endometrial hyperplasia
A
The anterior cul-de-sac is also referred to as the:
Vesicouterine pouch
The arteries that directly supply blood to the functional layer of the endometrium:
Spiral arteries
The best way to communicate with a patient who speaks a language other than your own is to use:
A trained medical interpreter
The breast cancer drug that inhibits the effects of estrogen in the breast is:
Tamoxifen
PID can lead to all of the following except:
A. Infertility
B. Polycystic ovarian disease
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Scar formation in the fallopian tube
B
Ovulation typically occurs on day ____ of the menstrual cycle.
14
Precocious puberty is defined as the development of pubic hair, breast, and the genitals before the age of
7
The malignant ovarian tumor with gastrointestinal origin is the:
Krukenberg tumor
The most common benign ovarian tumor is the:
Cystic teratoma
The most common initial clinical presentation of PID is:
Vaginitis
The muscles that may also be confused with the ovaries on a pelvic sonogram include the:
Piriformis and Iliopsoas muscles
The ovarian cyst associated with trophoblastic disease is the:
Theca luteum cyst
The ovarian mass that contains fat, sebum, and teeth is the:
Dermoid
The true pelvis is delineated from the false pelvis by the:
Linea terminalis
The vagina is located ______ to the uterus.
Inferior
The segment of the fallopian tube where fertilization typically occurs is the:
Ampulla
The second phase of the endometrial cycle is the:
Luteal phase
The right ovarian vein drains directly into the:
IVC
The recesses of the vagina are the:
Fornices
The periovulatory phase may also be referred to as the:
Late proliferative phase
The paired embryonic ducts that develop into the female Urogenital tract are the:
Müllerian ducts
The ovary is supplied by the:
Ovarian and uterine artery
What is the relationship of the lesser pelvis to the greater pelvis?
It is located more superiorly
What is the most likely pulsed Doppler characteristic of endometrial cancer?
Low impedance flow
What is the most common form of endometrial carcinoma?
Adenocarcinoma
What is the most common cancer to originate within an endometrioma?
Endometroid tumor
What is the brain tumor that is most likely associated with central precocious puberty?
Hypothalamic hamartoma
What is considered the most dependent part of the peritoneal cavity?
Pouch of Douglas
What is another name for the androblastoma?
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
What is another name for adhesions within the endometrial cavity?
Synechaie
What hormone maintains the thickness of the endometrium after ovulation?
Progesterone
What germ cell tumor is Meigs syndrome most likely associated?
Dygerminoma
What congenital malformation of the uterus is common and has a clear association with an increased risk for spontaneous abortion?
Separate uterus
What artery directly supplies blood to the basal layer of the endometrium?
Straight
What is the typical sonographic appearance of the endometrium during the secretory phase?
Hyperechoic and thick
What lab value would be most useful to evaluate in a patient with suspected internal hemorrhage?
Hematocrit
What midline, anterior pelvic structure may produce an acoustic shadow when scanning the female pelvis?
Pubic symphysis
What lab value would be most useful to evaluate in a patient with suspected internal hemorrhage?
Hematocrit
What midline, anterior pelvic structure may produce an acoustic shadow when scanning the female pelvis?
Pubic symphysis
What ovarian mass is associated with virilization?
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
What ovarian tumor will most likely have a moth eaten appearance on sonography?
Krukenberg tumor
What phase occurs on day 3 of the menstrual cycle?
Early proliferative
What structure produces hormones that directly act upon the endometrium to produce varying thicknesses and sonographic appearances?
Ovary
What temporary structure develops before the corpus luteum?
Corpus hemorrhagicum
What term relates to the number of pregnancies a patient has had?
Gravida
When does the CDC recommend that alcohol based hand rub to be combined with handwashing?
When your hands are visibly soiled
When the sonographic three line sign is present, the functional layer of the endometrium typically appears:
Hypoechoic
Which hormone maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy
HcG
Which of the following is an endocrinologic ovarian disorder?
A. ASherman syndrome
B. Ovulation induction
C. Endometriosis
D. PCOS
D
Which of the following is an inherited bleeding disorder that is characterized by low levels of a specific clotting protein in the blood?
A. Stein-Leventhal disease
B. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis disease
C. Meigs disease
D. Von Willebrand disease
D
Which of the following is best defined as difficult or painful menstruation?
a. dysmenorrhea
b. dyspareunia
c. dysuria
d. menorrhagia
a
Which of the following is best described as an artifact that is produced by a strong reflector and results in a copy of the anatomy being placed deeper than the correct location?
a. reverberation
b. mirror image
c. acoustic shadowing
d. comet tail
b
Which of the following is described as excessive hair growth in women in areas where hair growth is normally negligible?
a. dyspareunia
b. hirsutism
c. meigs syndrome
d. polycystic ovary syndrome
b
Which of the following is not part of the colon that is located within the female pelvis?
a. ascending
b. descending
c. sigmoid
d. transverse
d
The uterine position in which the corpus tilts forward and comes in contact with the cervix describes:
within the right adnexa
Why are the postmenopausal ovaries more difficult to visualize sonographically?
they become smaller and lose their follicles
Which structure remains after the corpus luteum has regressed?
corpus albicans
Which of the following would be most likely associated with hirsutism?
a. polycystic ovarian syndrome
b. meigs syndrome
c. adenomyosis
d. adenomyomatosis
a
Which of the following would increase the risk of a patient developing endometrial cancer?
a. unopposed ERT
b. multiparity
c. osteoporosis
d. endometrial atrophy
a
Conditions such as poor maternal weight gain, previous FGR infant, maternal complications and inadequate symphysis to fundal height growth are suggestive of:
FGR
Select the description that does not characterize FGR
a. Fetal weight below 20 percentile
b. small parents
c. small AC/HC ratio
d. weight 2 standard deviations below gestational mean
b
A cause of intrauterine growth restriction is:
maternal hypertension
FGR affects the fetal blood flow by:
redirecting the blood flow to the brain
FGR can cause poor health for the fetus into adulthood. They include all except:
a. diabetes
b. hypertension
c. anorexia
d. obesity
c
Preeclampsia triad:
edema
maternal hypertension
protein in urine
Identify the first sonographically observed biophysical change seen with fetal hypoxia.
fetal breathing
Which of the following is a perinatal pathology associated with IUGR?
a. diabetes
b. hypoglycemia
c. hypertension
d. anemia
b
Choose the fetal cause of IUGR:
a. sibling with IUGR
b. maternal hypertension
c. placental abruption
d. Varicella zoster
d
Identify the doppler finding seen with asymmetric IUGR
Increased RI in aorta
Select the 2D sonographic finding of symmetric IUGR
biometric markers less than 10%
What percentile does the 26 week symmetric IUGR fetus fit into?
10th
Which of the following does the yolk sac and liver secrete?
a. AFP
b. PAPPA
c. HCG
d. progesterone
a
What type of cell division results in an individual with two genotypes?
mosaicism
The term describing a mutation caused by multiple genes
mosaicism
Name the lab values included in a quadruple screen
AFP
HCG
estriol
inhibin A
Select the clinical feature associated with Apert Syndrome
a. microcephaly
b. hydrocephalus
c. renal agenesis
d. cleft lip
b
The finding of a thick walled, key hole shaped bladder raises suspicion for which of the potters sequences?
IV
Select the sonographic marker for Trisomy 21
choroid plexus cyst
Which of the following shows an increase with trisomy 18?
a. nuchal translucency
b. AFP
c. estriol
d. HCG
a
How many chromosomes are found in a gamete?
23
Identify the x-linked disorder.
a. turners syndrome
b. meckel-gruber
c. color blindness
d. trisomy 21
c
Chromosome makeup of a Turner syndrome fetus
45XO
Advanced maternal age is ___ years or older at EDD
35
A group of clinically observable findings that often exist together is a:
syndrome
Nonrandom occurance of at least 3 associated defects
association
Any structural feature that is abnormal is an
anomaly
any abnormal number of chromosomes
aneuploid
normal number of chromosomes
euploid
Two complete sets of chromosomes
diploid
Three sets of complete chromosomes:
triploid
Only one of an individual chromosome is:
monosomy
Amniocentesis can be performed from ____ weeks onward
15
The most common aneuploid is _____ and the risk greatly increases with maternal age.
trisomy 21
Trisomy 18 is also known as:
Edwards
Trisomy 13 is also known as:
Pataus
Monosomy X is also known as:
Turners
PKD, encephalocele, microcephaly, and polydactyly is what syndrome:
Meckel-Gruber syndrome
A fetal brain with no recognizable cerebral cortex and defined thalami and cerebellum is:
hydranencephaly
A large herniation of the posterior fossa contents into the foramen magnum with hydrocephalus and myelomeningocele describes which type of Arnold-Chiari malformation
III
A markedly retroflexed neck is an indication of:
iniencephaly
A measurement of the lateral ventricular atrium should not exceed:
10 mm or 1 cm
A normal cisterna magna measurement is less than:
1 cm
A partial absence of the cranium is called which one of the following abnormalities?
a. iniencephaly
b. anencephaly
c. acrania
d. osteogenesis imperfecta
c
AFP is secreted by the
liver and yolk sac
Beta hCG levels plateau at _____________ weeks
9-11
Cerebellar hypoplasia with herniation into the spinal canal describes which of the following malformations?
Choose the head end of the neural tube
neuropore
Choose the sonographic appearance of a cephalocele
complex paracranial mass
Cranial anatomy is routinely visualized after how many gestational weeks?
12-14
Define brachycephaly
short broad head caused by premature fusion
Define dolichocephaly
a long narrow head
During a sonographic examination, a wide high third ventricle, teardrop-shaped ventricle, a widened ventricular atria, absent cavum septi pellucid, and a sunburst appearance of the gyri and suli were imaged in the fetal brain. What malformation do these findings support?
agenesis of the corpus callosum
During the sonographic examination on a first trimester pregnancy, a crescent-shaped complex fluid collection images between the gestational sac and the uterus. Select the most likely differential
subchorionic hemorrhage
Identify the term describing the abiltiy of embryonic cells to differentiate into any cell type
pluripotent
Identify the type of ectopic pregnancy that is surrounded by less than 5 mm of myometrium.
interstitial or cornual
Lissencephaly is an absence or paucity of gyri resulting in the characteristic appearance of:
a smooth cerebral surface after 20 weeks
Neural plate development completes at ________ days
18-23
correct method to measure a BPD
transverse, lateral outer to inner
Select the measurement fro the frontal to the occipital bone obtained at the level of the thalami
OFD
risk factors for an ectopic pregnancy
Previous ectopic pregnancy. Prior fallopian tube surgery. Previous pelvic or abdominal surgery.
sonographic features of semilobar holoprosencephaly
Incomplete fusion of the thalami, microcephaly, partial separation of the hemispheres and ventricles
The metencephalon and myelencephalon are part of the:
rhombencephalon
The most frequent anomaly noted with cleft palate or cleft lip is:
clubfoot
The most studied artery in the fetal brain is the:
MCA
What is the ratio of the BPD and the OFD called?
Cephalic Index
What portion of the femur does the sonographer measure to obtain the length?
osseus diaphysis
What weight is considered macrosomia?
> 4000g
Which anatomic landmarks help determine the correct level to measure the HC?
thalamus, falx, cavum septum pellucidum
Which cranial bones are the landmark for measurement of the BPD?
parietal bones
Which measurement is the most important indicator of fetal weight?
ac
What abnormality is most commonly associated with cystic hygroma?
Turner Syndrome
What central nervous system malformation is identifiable in the first trimester?
spina bifida
Which of the following demonstrates cystic dilatation of the fourth ventricle?
Dandy-Walker malformation
Most indicative sonographic feature of anencephaly?
frogeyes
Which of the following is among the most commonly used parameters for estimating fetal age and may be more accurate than the BPD late in pregnancy?
femur length
the congenital absence of one or both eyes
anophthalmia
Which term describes an abnormally fast heart rate?
tachycardia
Which of the following describes the protrusion of meniges through a spinal defect?
meningocele
rostral end of the neural tube
neuropore
a general term describing an abnormal heart rate
arrythmia
Which of the following is part of Ebstein anomaly?
apical displacement of the tricuspid valve
Name the congenital malformation in which the aorta arises from the right ventricle?
double outlet right ventricle
abnormal opening between the right and left atrium
atrial septal defect
Which anatomy images on the four chamber view?
left ventricle, right ventricle, left atrium, right atrium, and tricuspid and mitral valves
What doppler flow changes occur with sever coarction of the aorta?
reversed ductus arteriosus flow
A fetal heart with a large RA, small RV, apically displaced TV, hydrops, arrhythmia and abnormal right ventricular contraction raises suspicion for which heart defect?
Epstein anomaly
What heart defect has perimembranous ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, pulmonary artery hypoplasia, right ventricular hypertrophy, overriding aorta and right sided aorta in 25% of cases?
Tetralogy of Fallot
The embryonic heart is completely formed at the:
beginning of the 8th week
Fetal blood circulates within the embryo at:
3 weeks postconception
Fetal oxygenated blood circulation from the placenta enters the fetus through the:
umbilical vein to the hepatic circulation and left portal vein
Fetal blood from the IVC enters the heart:
IVC
In the fetus, left atrial blood passes through the _______________ into the left ventricle
mitral valve
The greatest concentration of oxygenated fetal blood is to the fetal:
cranium
A normal heart orientation is:
levocardia
In the normal fetal heart, which chamber is located closest to the fetal spine
left atrium
Fetal tachyarrhythmias are heart rates:
of more than 180 beats per minute
Tetralogy of Fallot includes:
VSD
Overriding aorta
pulmonary atresia or stenosis
An abnormally large right atrium and abnormally small right ventricle is an indication of:
Ebstein’s anomaly
The most common cardiac tumor is:
rhabdomyoma
DORV involves:
parallel aorta and pulmonary artery and VSD
The pulmonary valve receives blood from the
right ventricle
Ultrasound resolution limits of ______________ mm still prevent the identification of small VSD’s
1-2
A break in the skin surface directly over the spine is associated with:
myelomeningocele
Thoracic chest measurements (outer edge to outer edge) are obtained from a true transverse view at the level of the:
fetal heart
If the fetal heart (in transverse view) occupies more than 1/3 of the thorax, ______________ should be considered:
pulmonary hypoplasia
Fetal posterolateral neck thickening may be caused by what 3 things?
Failure of the lymphatic channels to communicate
Nuchal skin thickening
Turner syndrome
Abdominal circumference is considered more important as an indicator of _______________________ than as a indicator of fetal age.
weight
Exclude ______________ of the scalp when measuring from the leading edge of theparietal bone for a BPD.
skin/soft tissue
Macrosomia equates to a fetus over ______________ g.
4000
Ratio of the BPD to the OFD is_________________
cephalic index
The femur length can be reliably used after _________________weeks gestation.
14
The earliest successful BPD measurement can usually be obtained at week:
12
The BPD is measured at the level of the ______________, _______________ and _________________.
frontal horns of lateral ventricles, thalami and cavum septum pellucidum
The preferred measurement method for fetal growth is:
average of multiple measurements, three or more
A sonolucent area in the choroid plexus is known as _________________________
choroid plexus cyst
Many brain structures develop between week _____________________, resulting in this time frame being identified as the critical period of brain development.
3 and 16
The central portionof the cerebellum betwee the hemispheres is termed the ________________________
vermis
The forebrain is also known as the ______________________________.
prosencephalon
The great cerebral vein is also called_______________________.
vein of Galen
The most sever form of arnold-chiari malformation is ________________________
III
The presence of a single median bony orbit with a fleshy proboscis above it is ____________________________.
cyclopia
The third ventricle is positioned between the ________________________ and the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles.
thalami
_________________________ is a substance that interferes with embryonic development.
teratogen
_________________________ is the most severe form of holoprosencephaly.
alobar
________________________________ is the most common type of intracranial hemorrhage seen in the fetus.
intraventricular hemorrhage
A bell shaped chest and multiple fetal fractures are indicative of:
osteogenesis imperfecta
A break in the skin surface directly over the spine is associated with:
myelomeningocele
A cystic hygroma is the result of:
An abnormal accumulation of lymphatic fluid within the soft tissue
A large herniation of the posterior fossa contents into the foramen magnum with hydrocephalus and myelomeningocele describes which type of Arnold-Chiari malformation
III
MSAFP is _____ in spina bifida occulta.
elevated
An absent sacrum and coccyx is referred to as:
Caudal Regression Syndrome
An increased nuchal fold is most likely associated with:
Trisomy 21
A group of anomalies characterized by a small or an absent left ventricle is:
hypoplastic left heart syndrome
A coexisting pericardial effusion and a pleural effusion is consistent with the diagnosis of:
fetal hydrops
A heart positioned in the right chest with the apex pointing right is labeled _________________________
dextrocardia
A midline heart is termed _______________________.
mesocardia
A structure in the right ventricle, the ____________________ , should differentiate the right ventricle from the left ventricle.
moderator band
An EIF would most likely be associated with:
Trisomy 21
The ______________________ view of the heart is often used for the diagnosis of VSD
subcostal four chamber view
The blood returning from the lungs through the pulmonary veins enters into the:
left atrium
The condition in which the heart is located outside the chest wall is termed:
ectopia cordis
The fetal heart should consume most of the left side of the chest and lays with a normal angle of _________________ degrees to ________________ of midline.
45
left
The greatest concentration of fetal blood travels to the:
cranium
The mitral valve is located:
between the left ventricle and the left atrium
The moderator band is located within the:
right ventricle
The tricuspid valve is located:
between the right ventricle and the right atrium
The normal heart will fill approximately _____________ of the fetal chest.
1/3
The most common fetal cardiac tumor is the :
rhabdomyoma
The most common cause of cardiac malposition is:
diaphragmatic hernia
When hypoplastic left heart syndrome is found in girls, what syndrome should be suspected?
Turner Syndrome
Which of the following is considered to be the most common cardiac defect?
VSD
A right sided heart with the apex pointing left is called________________________________________________________________
dextroposition
What is the normal opening in the lower middle third of the atrial septum?
Foramen ovale
Which statement is true concerning the fetal outflow tract?
a. The normal pulmonary artery should be positioned posterior to the aorta and should be visualized passing under it.
b. The normal pulmonary artery should be positioned anterior to the aorta and should be visualized crossing over it.
c. The right ventricular outflow tract leads to the aorta.
d. The left ventricular outflow tract leads to the pulmonary artery
b
Which of the following best describes transposition of the great vessels?
a. the aorta arises from the left ventricle, and the pulmonary artery arises from the right ventricle
b. the aorta arises from the right ventricle, and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle
c. the aortic arch is narrowed and positioned anterior to the pulmonary vein
d. the presence of an omphalocele and ectopic cordis
b
Characteristics of rhizomelic limb bowing, frontal bossing, a low nasal bridge, a “trident” configuration of the hand, macrocephaly, hydrocephaly may be noted with:
achondroplasia
Shortening of the most distal portion of a fetal limb is:
mesomelia
The mermaid syndrome is rare and lethal and also know as:
sirenomelia
The exaggerated distance between the first toe and the second toe is:
sandal gap
The most common nonlethal skeletal dysplasia is:
achondroplasia
Upon sonographic interrogation of a 28 week pregnancy, you note that when pressure is applied to the fetal skull, the skull can be easily distorted. This is sonographic evidence of:
osteogenesis imperfecta
What abnormality results in limitation of the fetal limbs as a result of joint contractures?
arthrogryposis
What is the maternal dietary supplement that has been shown to significantly reduce the likelihood of the fetus suffering from a neural tube defect?
folate
Sonographic diagnosis of clubfoot?
Both feet are medially rotated and appear in the same plane as the tibia and fibula.
absent long bones with the hands and feet arising from the shoulders and hips describes:
phocomelia
A bell shaped chest and multiple fetal fractures are indicative of:
osteogenesis imperfecta
A disorder that results in abnormal bone growth and dwarfism is:
achondroplasia
A markedly retroflexed neck is an indication of:
iniencephaly
Absence of the radius is referred to as:
radial ray defect
Rhizomelia denotes:
a disproportion of the length of the proximal limb
Sirenomelia is commonly referred to as:
mermaid syndrome
Talipes equinovarus is associated with:
trisomy 21
The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is referred to as:
scoliosis
The condition associate with the absence of the sacrum and coccyx:
caudal regression syndrome
Which birth defect results in abdominal contents within the thorax?
congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Identify the aquired cause of pulmonary hypoplasia
rupture of membranes
Which of the following are findings of congenital diaphragmatic hernia?
abdominal contents visualized within the diaphragmatic area
abnormal number of digits
supernumerary or polydactyly digits
What dominant category does thanatophoric dyplasia fall into?
autosomal dominant
What gestational age has the least accurate long bone measurement?
a. 10 weeks
b. 20 weeks
c. 32 weeks
d. 38 weeks
d
Generalized edema in the subcutaneous tissue is termed _________________________
anasarca
Complete absence of a body part is _________________________
agenesis
__________________________ is a solitary cyst within the lung
bronchogenic cyst
______________________________________ is Replacement of normal lung by nonfunctioning cystic lung tissue
congenital multicystic adenomatoid malformation
Fetal weight below 10th percentile for gestational age is termed
IUGR
This group of findings, also called __________________________ , or ____________________includes renal conditions such as agenesis, obstructive processes, and acquired or inherited cystic disease
Potters syndrome
oligohydramnios sequence
Incomplete development of the lung tissue
pulmonary hypoplasia
Noncommunicating lung tissue that lacks pulmonary blood supply
pulmonary sequestration
______________________________ is the most common nonlethal skeletal dysplasia
achondroplasia
_____________________________ is a rare, lethal condition, resulting in absent mineralization of the skeletal bones.
thanatophoric dysplasia
______________________________ dysplasia is the most common lethal skeletal dysplasia.
thanatophoric dysplasia
______________________________ is a group of disorders that results in multiple fractures that can occur in utero.
osteogenesis imperfecta
Fluid surrounding the lungs is referred to as a _______________________________
pleural effusion
The most common lesion that occupies the chest, resulting in pulmonary hypoplasia, is the __________________________________
congenital diaphragmatic herniation
The most common sonographic appearance of pulmonary sequestration is an ________________________________________, typically located within the left side of the fetal chest.
triangular echogenic mass astride the left diaphragm
Ultrasound observance of fetal well-being is determined by all of the following except:
A. Body movements
B. Urine output
C. Spontaneous
D. Heart decelerations
D
Electronic fetal heart rate monitoring is performed by:
OCT
A fetal biophysical profile in utero observation includes all except:
a. NST
b. fetal tone
c. fetal breathing
d. gross body movements
a
In order to pass the fetal breathing portion of a BPP, the fetus must exhibit:
breath to breath intervals of less than 6 seconds
Fetal movements in pregnancy imply normalcy of the fetal:
CNS
Fetal movements of the trunk, large limbs, swallowing, face and hands are categorized as:
gross body movements
AFI is determined by:
measuring four quadrants in the deepest vertical pocket and totaling the values
The electronic fetal heart monitoring method that has a low false positive, low false negative and usually requires several hours to complete is:
OCT
Oligohydramnios is diagnosed when the amniotic fluid in four quadrants measures:
5.0 cm or less
A normal BPP score is 8 or 10. An equivocal score is:
6 or less
A cardiotachometer records:
patterns of fetal heart rate including baseline and changes
Acceleration is defined as:
increase of the fetal heart rate over the baseline of at least 15 beats per minute, and lasting at least 15 seconds associated with fetal movement
Startle means:
quick, generalized movements always initiated in limbs and sometimes spreading to the neck and trunk
Normal fetal tone is:
at least one episode of extension of extremities with return to position of flexion, or extension of spine with return to position of flexion is visualized in the 30 minute observation period
An AFI plus an NST is known as:
modified BPP
Regular patterns of fetal breathing are defined as:
40 to 60 breaths per minutes
BPP, AFI, and NST testing typically occurs:
once weekly
Independent limb movements occur at:
weeks 10-12
Fetal movement is mostly related to:
maturation of the CNS
Fetal breathing can be gauged with a real-time scanner by viewing the fetal abdomen in a longitudinal fashion, as well as by observing:
caudal-cephalad kidney movement
Monitoring the fetus in the second and third trimesters can be performed by the mother in the way of ______
fetal movements
______, a decrease in oxygen content of the blood accompanied by an increase in carbon dioxide, can be evaluated by antepartum testing
asphyxia
Two electronic fetal monitoring tests involving heart rate are ______ and ______
NST
OCT
The first maternal perception of fetal movement is known as ______
quickening
AFI is determined by measuring the depth of fluid of ___ quadrants.
4
Amniotic fluid cannot be measured in a pocket that contains ______
umbilical cord
The biophysical profile variables can ear a score of ____ if normal and a score of _____ if abnormal or do not meet the criteria.
8-10
6 or less
Breathing movements increase during periods of _____, but decrease with maternal ______.
hypercapnia
hyperventilation
Fetal movement is usually noted by the mother at _____ weeks
16-20
A fetal reactive NST is defined as ___ accelerations with a ___ minute span.
2
20
An increase of the fetal heart rate over the baseline of at least 10 beats per minute and lasting as least 10 seconds is considered normal for fetuses _____ weeks gestation.
before 32
The term _____ is applied to an NST that did not respond as expected in the alloted time span
nonreactive
Jerky contractions of the diaphragm or abrupt consistent displacement of the diaphragm, thorax, and abdomen are _____
hiccups
The _____ plane through the fetal chest best demonstrates fetal breathing
longitudinal
______ stimulation results in a significant reduction in the number of nonreactive NSTs and a decrease in the time required for a reactive test to occur
Vibroacoustic
A nonreactive fetus may respond to maternal _____, _____ stimulation, _____ manipulation of the maternal abdomen, and _______ ingestion to stimulate or awaken them.
movements
vibroacoustic
manual
orange juice
It has been noted that at 20 weeks the fetal heart rate increases with fetal ______
movements
Hiccups are caused by a contraction of the _____
diaphragm
During maternal hypoxemia, cessation of fetal _____ occurs.
asphyxia
Rhythmic bursts of regular jaw opening and closing at a rate of about one per second suggests _______ activity.
fetal breathing
The puerperium:
a. describes the postdelivery condition of the female external genitalia
b. starts immediately post delivery including the placenta and continues until the uterus retains its prenatal shape
c. is an infection of the placental site within the uterus
d. extends from placental delivery until the first normal menstruation
b
Lactation termination usually produces:
menstrual resumption
Sonography in the peurperium period is used for all except:
a. evaluating puerperal infection
b. postpartum hemorrhage
c. complications following cesarean delivery
d. to routinely determine whether the uterus has returned to prepregnancy state
d
Select the true statement regarding the postpartum uterus.
a. the internal os will be visualized as closed and well-delineated following placental delivery
b. the endometrium will measure 3 to 8 mm within 24 hours of delivery
c. free fluid in the endometrial cavity indicate intrauterine infection
d. Longitudinal uterine measurements range from 14 to 25 cm
d
During pregnancy, ovaries generally:
a. remain the same as prepregnancy state with the exception of a few more cysts in the first trimester
b. involute
c. enlarge owing to hormone production
d. developed a thickened outer cortex
a
A placenta that completely invades the uterine myometrium extending into the serosa is:
placenta percreta
Select the condition that is not likely to be related to postpartum hemorrhage
a. decreased hematocrit
b. shock
c. hypertension
d. hysterectomy
c
RPOC has a similar sonographic appearance to:
highly echogenic mass in the endometrial canal
Usually the first indication of uterine (puerperium) infection is:
uterine tenderness
The only infection that is not typically related to postpartum infection is:
salpingitis
Which of the following is not identified with uterine atony?
a. chorioamnionitis
b. prolonged labor
c. oligohydramnios
d. macrosomy
c
The most common signs of POVT are:
fever, right sided pelvic mass, and pelvic pain
Cesarean section delivery:
a. has an increased risk of infection
b. is mostly performed with a vertical incision
c. requires a low-frequency transducer when hematoma occurs adjacent to the bladder flap
d. accounts for approximately 13.8% of all U.S. deliveries
a
The most frequent site of postpartum thrombophlebitis is:
right ovarian vein
Endometritis:
a. is an infection of the endometrium that may extend to the myometrium, which may lead to postpartum bleeding
b. appears as an extremely thin endometrium and irregular walls
c. produces a fluid-filled endometium
d. causes a flaccid uterus post delivery
a
The postpartum period may also be called the _____
puerperium
Complications seen most frequently following cesarean section are _____ and _____ at the incision site
hematomas
abscesses
It is essential to remember to use a ______ pressure than when imaging the nongravid uterus
lighter
If a post C-section patient cannot tolerate transabdominal or transvaginal imaging, the _____ or ______ imaging method may visualize the C-section incision
translabial
transperineal
The adnexal ligaments of the postpartum patient are typically ____ immediately following delivery, usually returning to their pregravid states within _____
flaccid
1 month
Postpartum hemorrhage is considered over ___mL of blood with a vaginal delivery and over _____mL of blood in a cesarean delivery.
500
1000
The cause of placenta accreta, percreta, and increta is complete or partial absence of the _____
decidua basalis
Antepartum rupture of the uterus causes emergency delivery and ______
hysterectomy
Sonography helps identify the multiple intraplacental _____ that are indicators of placental invasion of the myometrium
lakes
The sonographic appearance of endometritis is that of a ____, irregular endometrium that may have _____ in the endocervical canal.
thick
fluid
Retained products of conception image as a ______ mass within an irregularly shaped uterus
echogenic
Sonographically, POVT images as a dilated anechoic to hypoechoic _____ structure extending superiorly from the adnexa.
tubular
Hematomas found in the bladder flap region are sonographically ______ with ill-defined borders that range in size from less than 1 cm to greater than 15 cm.
anechoic
A ____-frequency transducer is sometimes need to adequately assess postpartum cesarean section hematomas.
high
Infections following cesarean sections have appearances of anechoic, _____, _____, and with or without definite margins.
cystic
complex
OB sonography allows the clinician to assess the _____, _____, and _____ of the fetus.
development
growth
wellbeing
The major biological effects of ultrasound are believed to be _____ and -_____ forces, including cavitation.
thermal
mechanical
production and collapse of gas filled bubbles
cavitation
Sonographer can minimize thermal effects by:
not staying in one place too long
ALARA
as low as reasonably achievable
_____ is a higher ultrasound energy level and should be completed as quickly as possible to reduce thermal effects.
Doppler
systematic reflection on an analysis of morality. A study of what is good and bad and of moral duty and obligation
ethcs
A code of ethics has been adopted by the:
Society of Diagnostic Medical Sonography
concerns right and wrong conduct and good and bad character. The production of cherished values that relate to how a person interacts and lives in peace
Morality
directs the sonographer to not cause harm
nonmaleficiance
providing complete information and assuring comprehension and voluntary consent by a patient or subject to a required or experimental procedure
informed consent
the greater balance of clinical “goods” over “harms”. Meaning the exam must be justified and the clinical importance outweighs the possible harm caused by the exam
beneficiance
refers to a person’s capacity to formulate, express and carry out value based preferences
autonomy
truthfulness
veracity
the adherence to moral and ethical principles
integrity
the ethical principle that requires fair distribution of benefits and burdens
justice
the obligation of caregivers to protect clinical information about patients from unauthorized access
confidentiality
midline cranial defect in which there is herniation of the brain and meninges
cephalocele
rare, lethal anomaly of cranial development.
primary abnormalities:
defect in occiput involving the foramen magnum
retroflexion of the spine
open spinal defects
ineincephaly
the dilation of the ventricular system without enlargement of the cranium
ventriculomegaly
congenital defect caused by an extra chromosome, which causes a deficiency in the forebrain. It is a malformation of the prosencephalon to differentiate into cerebral hemispheres and lateral ventricles between four and eight weeks
holoprosencephaly
result in a cystic dilation of the fourth ventricle with dysgenesis or complete agenesis of the cerebellar vermis and frequently hydrocephalus
Dandy Walker Malformation
when the neural tube fails to close after 6 weeks gestation
spina bifida
The banana sign is associated with:
spina bifida
Scalloping of the frontal bones is called the:
lemon sign
appears sonographically as an echogenic mass at the base of the cord between 8 and 12 weeks
bowel herniation
bowel protrusion outside the abdominal wall. Congenital fissure that remains open past 12 weeks in the wall of the abdomen just to the right of the umbilical cord
gastrochisis
abdominal wall defect where the liver bowel and stomach (abdominal organs) are typically located in the umbilical cord. Cannot be differentiated from normal physiological bowel migration until after 12 weeks.
omphalocele
The fetal bladder is seen between __-__ weeks gestation
10
12
seen as a very large bladder because the obstruction does not allow the bladder to empty properly
obstructive uropathy
a fluid filled structure with septations that typically surrounds the neck but may extend upward to the head of laterally to the body.
cystic hygroma
One of the most common abnormalities seen sonographically in the first trimester
cystic hygroma
Cystic hygroma is associated with which trisomies?
13
18
21
In fetuses detected with cystic hygroma in the second and third trimesters, _____ is the most common karyotype abnormalitery
Turners Syndrome
The _______ is the most common ovarian/pelvic mass seen in the first trimester of pregnancy
corpus luteum
A gestational sac without an embryo may represent:
a normal early IUP
abnormal IUP
pseudogestational sac in a patient with an ectopic pregnancy
a gestational sac in which the embryo fails to develop or stops developing at an early stage
anembryonic pregnancy
anembryonic pregnancy is also known as:
blighted ovum
when trophoblastic tissue overtakes the pregnancy and propagates through the uterine cavity
Gestational trophoblastic disease
snow storm appearance caused by the hydatidform mole, a soft tissue mass filling the uterine cavity
cluster of grapes
increased blood flow
gestational trophoblastic disease
embryonic bradycardia
<90 bpm
embryonic tachycardia
> 170 bpm
The amnion is best visualized transvaginally between the __ and __ week.
5
7
________ is located outside the central/fundal location of the uterus
ectopic pregnancy
One of the most emergent sonographic diagnoses
ectopic pregnancy
Approximally ___% of maternal deaths are related to ectopic pregnancy
10
Ectopics occur in the fallopian tube in ___% of cases
95
simultaneous intrauterine and extrauterine pregnancies
heterotopic pregnancies
______ pregnancy is in the fallopian tube at the cornua of the uterus
interstitial
The _____ pregnancy is the most life threatening because this area contains the parauterine and myometrial vasculature increasing the risk of massive hemorrhage
interstitial
_____ pregnancy is when the gestational sac is within the cervix.
Cervical
There is an increased risk of _______ with a cervical ectopic
complete hysterectomy
Cervical pregnancy frequently presents on ultrasound as a:
hourglass shaped uterues
______ pregnancy is when the pregnancy is within the ovary.
Ovarian
Ovarian pregnancy is very rare and accounts for less than __% of ectopic pregnancies.
3
The maximum thickness of the subcuteaneous lucency at the back of the neck in an embryo at 11-14 weeks
nuchal translucency
Markers for cardiac anomalies
increased nuchal translucency
tricuspid regurgitation
reversal of flow in the ductus venosus
the partial or complete absence of the cranium
acrania
the congenital absence of the brain and cranial vault
anencephaly
By 8 weeks three primary vesicles are seen within the fetal brain:
prosencephalon
rhombencephalon
mesencephalon
around 20 weeks of gestation a sonogram may demonstrate a cystic area within the cranium which is the _____
normal rhombencephalon
By 9 weeks the _____ has formed and the echogenic _____ tissue is seen in the lateral ventricles
midline falx
choroid plexus
Limb buds are recognizable during the ___ week of gestation
6th
Hands and feet develop later in the first trimester and are completely formed by the end of the ___ week
10
At ___ weeks calcifications of the clavicle begins, followed by ossification of the mandible, palate, vertebral column, and neural arches
8
Frontal cranial bones begin to calcify at __ weeks followed by the long bones
9
Palate fusion occurs late in the:
first trimester
____ and _____ are noted brightly echogenic structures by the 9th week
maxilla
mandible
The abdominal wall is developed by ___ weeks of gestation
6
The midgut descends into the fetal abdomen at about __ weeks
11
The embryonic heart beat starts beating at approximately ___ days
35
first trimester 5 week normal heart rate
92-109 bpm
first trimester 6 week heart rate normal
112-136 bpm
7 weeks normal first trimester heart rate
112-140 bpm
8 weeks normal first trimester heart rate
126-160 bp,
9 weeks normal first trimester heart rate
126-150 bpm
10 weeks normal first trimester heart rate
126-150 bpm
11 weeks normal first trimester fetal heart rate
120-150 bpm
12 weeks normal first trimester heart rate
125-160 bpm
Dizygotic twin pregnancies accounts for __% of all twins and are defined as ________.
70
dichorionic, diamniotic
Dizygotic twins arise from:
two separately fertilized ova
____ and _____ twins appear as two separated gestational sacs
dichorionic diamniotic
_____-_____ twins appear to be contained within a single gestational/chorionic sac; two amnions two yolk sacs and two embryos are identified
monochorionic
diamniotic
_____-_____ twin gestation is one gestational sac, one yolk sac and one amniotic membrane and two embryos within a single amniotic cavity. Has a high mortality rate of approximately 50%
monochorionic
monoamniotic
multiple pregnancies within the chorionic sac
monochorionic
Most common presentation for complications in the first trimester
bleeding or spotting
most common reason for bleeding in the first trimester is
subchorionic hemorrhage
The ______ is formed at 23 days when the primary yolk sac is pinched off by the extra embryonic coelom
secondary yolk sac
The embryonic phase is weeks __-__
4
10
During the ______ phase all major internal and external structures begin to develop
embryonic
most accurate measurement for determining gestational age
crown rump length
The CRL can be obtained as early as ____ weeks using transvaginal ultrasound
5.5
The CRL measurement is considered the most accurate through the ___ weeks
12
In early pregnancy, the gestational sac size grows at a rate of __mm/day
1
An embryo with cardiac activity should be identified transvaginally when the gestational sac measures __-__ mm
16
20
To calculate the mean sac diameter of a gestational sac, you use the following formula:
length x width x height /3
The initial heart beat occurs between __-__ weeks
5.5
6
Ectopic pregnancies demonstrate a ___ HCG than intrauterine pregnancies.
lower
The serum level of beta HCG is dramatically _____ with Gesetational trophoblastic disease
elevated
HCG is a normal 7 week pregnancy doubles every ___ days
3.5
A normal gestation sac can be consistently demonstrated with transabdominal scanning when the HCG is ____mIU/ml
1800
At __-__ weeks HCG levels plateau and subsequently decline while gestation continues
9
10
In trisomy __ HCG levels are increased and they plateau much later and fall much more slowly
21
An IUP can be visualized sonographically during the ___ week
5th
_____ is on the myometrium or burrowing side of conception
decidua basalis
the interface between the decidual capsularis and the echogenic, highly vascular endometrium
double decidual sac sign
____ is the earliest intragestational sac anatomy seen
yolk sac
Visualization of the _____ predicts a viable pregnancy
yolk sac
The diameter of a normal yolk sac should never exceed __mm
6
Implantation of the blastocyst into the uterus decidua is completed within ___ days after fertilization
12
The ______ that separates the amniotic cavity and chorionic cavity is routinely seen after 5.5 weeks
amniotic membrane
Cranial neural folds and closure of the neuropore are completed by 7 weeks, forming a _____
cranial vault
At __ weeks the brain may appear to have a single fluid filled vesicle
7
the number of pregnancies including the present one
gravida
describes all possible pregnancy outcomes 4 numbers (number of full term pregnancies, number of premature births, early pregnancy losses, number of living children)
parity
The first trimester is until:
13 weeks 6 days
The second trimester is __ weeks to __ weeks __ days
14
26
6
Third trimester is ___ weeks until ____
27
term
Pregnancy duration is ___ days or ___ weeks
280
40
Naegules rule
EDD-LNMP-3months + 7 days
LNMP = EDD - 3 months + 7 days
_____ is the first day of pregnancy
conception
dates the pregnancy with the first day of the last menstrual period as the beginning of gestation
gestational age
Gestational age would add __ weeks onto the conceptual age
2
The ____ is formed 12 days after conception during the implantation process
zygote
from the time of implantation until the end of the 10th menstrual age: baby is called:
embryo
After 10 weeks, the embryo is called a ____
fetus
Trophoblastic cells secrete:
HCG
____ causes the endometrium to convert to decidua.
HCG
a glycogen-rich mucosa that nourishes the early pregnancy
decidua
The blastocyst typically enters the uterues __-__ days after fertilization
4
5
Implantation into the uterine decidua is completed within __ days after fertilzation
12
______ is the first site of formation of red blood cells that will nourish the embryo
Primary yolk sac
____ and ____ are the two most common clinical techniques for obtaining living fetal cells or fetal cell products from the pregnant uterus for prenatal diagnosis
amniocentesis
chorionic villus sampling
sampling of fluid within the amniotic sac
amniocentesis
this type of amniocentesis is maternal age related. Risk increases for chromosomal abnormalities after the age of 35. This category accounts for 65% to 80% of requests for prenatal diagnosis
genetic amniocentesis
this type of amniocentesis is done to test fluid if delivery is planned sooner than 39 weeks to help determine if the fetal lungs are mature enough for birth
lung maturity
Abnormally high MSAFP is associated with:
neural tube defects
Gestational adjusted MSAFP values greater than ___ times the normal limit raises suspicion for birth defects or multiple fetuses
2.5
MSAFP levels below the mean levels for a given gestational age have been associated with an increased risk for:
trisomy
a prenatal test where a sample of chorionic villi is removed from the placental for testing. Samples of the trophoblastic tissue is used for genetic diagnosis
chorionic villus sampling
CVS testing is normally performed between __-__ weeks.
9
12
PUBS is also called:
cordocentesis
sampling of the blood through the umbilical cord
PUBS or cordocentesis
technique involving insertion of a needle through the vagina into the extra-amniotic cavity as early as 6 weeks for investigation of early fetal physiology and pathophysiology
coelocentesis
the sampling of fluid from the posterior cul-de-sac to differentiate types of effusions such as clear fluid versus blood or pus
culdocentesis
an endovaginal procedure where a catheter is inserted and contrast is injected to evaluate endometrial polyps, Asherman syndome, and tubal patency
hysterosalpingography
the functioning layer of the endometrium in the gravid woman
decidua
the area between the myometrium and the placenta
retroplacental
mucous tissue surrounding the umbilical cord
Wharton jelly
_____ connects to the fetus and the placenta, and it serves as a lifeline of the fetus
Umbilical cord
Three vessels of the umbilical cord
two arteries
one vein
carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta
arteries
brings oxygenated blood back from the placenta to the fetus
vein
Umbilical cord originates from the fusion of the _____ and ______ at approximately 7 weeks gestation
yolk sac stalk
omphalomesenteric duct
umbilical cord abnormalities include:
cord insertion
knots
nuchal cord
single umbilical artery
prolapse/vasa previa
The placenta is composed of a maternal portion arising from the ______ and a fetal portion arising from a section of the _____
endometrium
chorionic sac
The _____ is the link between the mother and fetus
placenta
Normal cord insertion into the placenta is approximately in the ______
central portion
Insertion near the margin of the placenta
battledore placenta
Insertion below the edge of the placenta is
velamentous insertion
Placental thickness greater than ___ cm prior to 24 weeks gestation is considered abnormal
4
Placental thickness increases with:
gestational age
The placenta is responsible for the _____, ____, and _____ functions of the fetus
nutritive
respiratory
excretoy
used to describe the appearance of the placenta based on the amount of placental calcifications
placental grading
placental calcifications are rarely seen before ___ weeks gestation
37
Placental thinning is <___cm
2
Placental thinning associations
maternal hypertension
preeclampsia
placental infarctions
intrauterine growth restriction
Thick placentas of greater than ___cm may be nonspecific and are usually associated with a normal outcome
4
Early maturation of the placenta is associated with
hypertension
the presence of more or more placental accessory lobes
succenturiate lobe
ring-shaped placenta that attaches circumferentially to the myometrium
annular placenta
refers to the placenta extending beyond the chorionic plate with attachment of the placental membranes to the fetal surface of the placenta
placenta extrachorialis
refers to a placenta with a thickened rolled chorioamniotic membrane
circumvallate placenta
placenta is in the lower part of the uterus covering the internal os
placenta previa
inferior margin of the placenta is within 2 cm of the internal os
low lying placenta
chorionic villi will adhere directly to but do not invade the myometrium
placenta accreta
most common location of placenta accreta
lower uterine segment
chorionic villi will invade the myometrium
placenta increta
chorionic villi will invade through the myometrium into the uterine serosa and potentially into the surrounding tissue
placenta percreta
benign vascular malformation of the placenta arising from the primitive chorionic mesenchyme
chorioangioma
placental tumor that is very rare and are usually benign but can also be highly malignant
teratoma
the premature separation of all or part of the placenta from the myometrium
placental abruption
3 classications of placental abruption
marginal separation
partial separation
complete separation
the designation given to several disorders arising from either normal or abnormal fertilization of an ovum, resulting in neoplastic changes in the trophoblastic elements of a developing blastocyst
Gestational Trophoblastic Disease
characterized by chorionic villia that are markedly hydropic and swollen, and proliferation of the trophoblast cell results in excessive production of beta HCG levels
complete or partial hydatidform mole
similar to invasive moles and are capable of metastasizing. 50% arise after a molar pregnancy
choriocarcinoma
rare placental vascular anomaly characterized by mesenchymal stem villous hyperplasia
placental mesenchymal disease
right umbilical portal vein rather than the left side remains open
peristent right umbilical vein
focal dilation of the umbilical vein
umbilical vein varix
complete absence of the umbilical cord
body stalk
very short cord
limb body wall complex
cord insertion within a centimeter of the margin
marginal (battledore) insertion
umbilical vessels separate and course between the amnion and the chorion
velamentous cord insertion
some of the velamentous fetal vessels run in the lower uterine segment unprotected by Wharton jelly. The run over or near the region of the internal os
vasa previa
echolucent area within the umbilical cord with the yolk sac defined as a separate structure
umbilical cord cyst
results from transient fluid accumulation because of the coiling process on herniation of bowel interfering with fluid exchange; fetus may be more likely to be abnormal if a cyst is located near the placental or fetal extremity of the cord or if the cyst persist beyond 12 weeks gestation
umbilical cord cyst
cord is wrapped around the neck of the fetus
nuchal cord
cord delivers before the fetus
prolapse cord
have no increased risk of chromosomal anomalies; they are usually located near the cord insertion of the fetal abdomen
true umbilical cyst
have epithelial lining and represent localized edema of the Wharton jelly or aneurysm of an umbilical vein or artery; show positive association to structural and chromosomal defects
pseudocyst (umbilical cyst)
Long umbilical cord
> 55 cm
Maternal infections associated with TORCH
toxoplasmosis
other infections
Rubella
cytomegalovirus
herpes
most common maternal disorder
diabetes mellitus
Type I diabetes mellitus
insulin dependent
juvenile onset
Type II diabetes mellitus
non-insulin dependent
adult onset
Gestational diabetes
diabetes diagnosed for the first time during pregnancy
Congenital anomalies in infants of diabetic mother
skeletal
central nervous system
cardiac
renal
gastrointestinal system
The glucose intolerance test is performed between __ and __ weeks gestation
24
28
the development of maternal antibodies to the surface antigens of the fetal red blood cells
Rh Isoimmunization
Rh isoimmunization is associated with _____
thick placenta
a condition characterized by rapid destruction of the fetal red blood cells
erythrblastosis fetalis
When a Rh-negative mother carries a Rh positive fetus it can result in fluid overload known as:
fetal hydrops
______ precents Rh isoimmunization
Rhogam injection
affects the hemoglobin molecule in the blood; inherited
sickle cell disease
caused by premature red blood blood cell death
anemia
signs of sickle cell disease
fetal death
short femurs
IUGR
increased umbilical and uterine artery S/D ratio
high blood pressure during pregnancy and usually resolves upon parturition
pregnancy induced hypertension
hypertension
proteinuria
edema
toxemia/preeclampsia
consists of all the complications of preeclampsia and seizures or coma
eclampsia
Hypertension during pregnancy may also occur with the development of:
toxemia
term used to describe both 3D and 4D imaging
volume ultrasound
the automatic or manual acquisition and display of a series of 2D ultrasound
3D ultrasound
the continuously updated display of volume information, also known as real time or live 3D ultrasound
4D ultrasound
the smallest unit of a 2D image
pixel
the smallest unit of a 3D image
voxel
the tool used to measure the volume of an object
VOCAL
the technique used to acquire and display a volume data set of the fetal heart
STIC
the display of multiple planes at 90 degrees to each other
orthogonal
where the orthogonal planes intersect on a 3D image
reference dot
the display of parallel images similar to CT and MRI
tomographic imaging
removes unwanted structures
eraser or scalpel
displays bony structures
maximum, skeletal or xray rendering
demonstrates fluid filled structures
inversion/minimum mode
used in conjuction with power Doppler
glass body or transparency
determines how smooth a surface appears
surface smooth
adds texture to enhance details
surface texture
displays the structure as if it’s illuminated by light
gradient light
3d ultrasound is considered ____
static
the ultrasound transducer makes a single sweep through the area of interest and the obtained volume is stored and viewed
3D ultrasound
4D ultrasound is:
live or real time 3D
The transducer sweeps back and forth continuously acquiring volume data
4D ultrasound
Important functions of amniotic fluid:
allows the fetus to move freely in the amniotic cavity
maintains intrauterine temperature
protects developing fetus from injury
Amniotic fluid is produced by:
umbilical cord
the membranes
the lungs
skin
kidneys
The amount of amniotic fluid is regulated by:
fluid exchange within the lungs
production of fluid
removal of fluid by swallowing
membranes and cord
Fetal production of urine and the ability to swallow begins between __ and ___ weeks gestation
8
11
Normal AFI
10-20 cm
Low values of AFI
5-10 cm
Increased AFI
20-24 cm
decreased amniotic fluid
oligohydramnios
oligohydramnios is characterized by:
<5cm with largest pocket measuring 2 cm or less
oligohydramnios is associated with:
infantile polycystic kidney disease
renal agenesis
dysplastic kidneys
chromosomal abnormalities
increased amniotic fluid
polyhydramnios
polyhydramnios is characterized by:
> 24 cm with the largest vertical pocket measuring 8cm or more
Polyhydramnios is associated with:
cystic hygroma
coarcation of the aorta
anencephaly
consist of multiple fibrous strands of amnion that develop in utero and may entangle in fetal parts to cause malformations and amputations
amniotic band syndrome
non-floating bands crossing through the amniotic cavity
amniotic sheets
the disparity between the amounts of serous fluid being produced and absorbed. It leads to accumulation of fluid or edema within the fetus
hydrops
Hydrops can be represented by:
pleural effusion
ascites
pericardial effusion
skin edema
anasarca
