Final Review Flashcards
A linear structure coursing through an anechoic cyst separating cavities may be referred to as a:
Septation
After the Graafian follicle ruptures, the remaining structure is termed the:
Corpus luteum
All of the following are clinical findings associated with leiomyoma except:
A. Myometrial cysts
B. Infertility
C. Palpable pelvic mass
D. Menorrhagia
A
All of the following are considered risk factors for PID except:
A. IUD
B. Multiple sex partners
C. Post childbirth
D. Uterine leiomyoma
D
All of the following statements concerning PID are true except:
A. PID is typically a unilateral condition
B. PID can be caused by douching
C. PID can lead to tubo-ovarian abscess
D. Dyspareunia is a clinical finding in acute PID
A
An endometrioma most likely appears as a:
A. Simple, anechoic mass with through transmission
B. Complex mass with internal shadowing components
C. Most likely cystic mass with low level echoes
D. Solid, Hyperechoic shadowing mass
C
An individual who does not experience menarche before the age of 16 is said to be suffering from:
A. Primary amennorhea
B. Secondary amennorhea
C. Exosphytic amennorhea
D. Inherent amennorhea
A
ASherman syndrome is associated with:
A. Uterine leiomyoma
B. Endometrial polyps
C. Endometrial adhesions
D. Ovarian fibroma
C
Both the straight and spiral arteries are branches of the:
Radial artery
Causes of Postmenopausal bleeding include all of the following except:
A. ASherman syndrome
B. Endometrial atrophy
C. Endometrial hyperplasia
D. Intracavitary fibroids
A
During which phase of the endometrial cycle would the endometrium yield the three-line sign?
Late proliferative phase
FSH is produced by the:
Anterior pituitary gland
Having the same echogenicity means:
Isoechoic
The development of adhesions between the liver and the diaphragm as a result of PID is termed:
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
The cystic mass commonly noted with a pregnancy is the:
Corpus luteum
The common iliac veins combine to create the:
IVC
Pseudoprecocious puberty may be associated with all of the following except:
A. Ovarian tumor
B. Adrenal tumor
C. Liver tumor
D. Brain tumor
D
Synechiae with the uterus results from:
A. Scar tissue
B. Leiomyoma
C. Endometrial polyps
D. Endometrial hyperplasia
A
The anterior cul-de-sac is also referred to as the:
Vesicouterine pouch
The arteries that directly supply blood to the functional layer of the endometrium:
Spiral arteries
The best way to communicate with a patient who speaks a language other than your own is to use:
A trained medical interpreter
The breast cancer drug that inhibits the effects of estrogen in the breast is:
Tamoxifen
PID can lead to all of the following except:
A. Infertility
B. Polycystic ovarian disease
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Scar formation in the fallopian tube
B
Ovulation typically occurs on day ____ of the menstrual cycle.
14
Precocious puberty is defined as the development of pubic hair, breast, and the genitals before the age of
7
The malignant ovarian tumor with gastrointestinal origin is the:
Krukenberg tumor
The most common benign ovarian tumor is the:
Cystic teratoma
The most common initial clinical presentation of PID is:
Vaginitis
The muscles that may also be confused with the ovaries on a pelvic sonogram include the:
Piriformis and Iliopsoas muscles
The ovarian cyst associated with trophoblastic disease is the:
Theca luteum cyst
The ovarian mass that contains fat, sebum, and teeth is the:
Dermoid
The true pelvis is delineated from the false pelvis by the:
Linea terminalis
The vagina is located ______ to the uterus.
Inferior
The segment of the fallopian tube where fertilization typically occurs is the:
Ampulla
The second phase of the endometrial cycle is the:
Luteal phase
The right ovarian vein drains directly into the:
IVC
The recesses of the vagina are the:
Fornices
The periovulatory phase may also be referred to as the:
Late proliferative phase
The paired embryonic ducts that develop into the female Urogenital tract are the:
Müllerian ducts
The ovary is supplied by the:
Ovarian and uterine artery
What is the relationship of the lesser pelvis to the greater pelvis?
It is located more superiorly
What is the most likely pulsed Doppler characteristic of endometrial cancer?
Low impedance flow
What is the most common form of endometrial carcinoma?
Adenocarcinoma
What is the most common cancer to originate within an endometrioma?
Endometroid tumor
What is the brain tumor that is most likely associated with central precocious puberty?
Hypothalamic hamartoma
What is considered the most dependent part of the peritoneal cavity?
Pouch of Douglas
What is another name for the androblastoma?
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
What is another name for adhesions within the endometrial cavity?
Synechaie
What hormone maintains the thickness of the endometrium after ovulation?
Progesterone
What germ cell tumor is Meigs syndrome most likely associated?
Dygerminoma
What congenital malformation of the uterus is common and has a clear association with an increased risk for spontaneous abortion?
Separate uterus
What artery directly supplies blood to the basal layer of the endometrium?
Straight
What is the typical sonographic appearance of the endometrium during the secretory phase?
Hyperechoic and thick
What lab value would be most useful to evaluate in a patient with suspected internal hemorrhage?
Hematocrit
What midline, anterior pelvic structure may produce an acoustic shadow when scanning the female pelvis?
Pubic symphysis
What lab value would be most useful to evaluate in a patient with suspected internal hemorrhage?
Hematocrit
What midline, anterior pelvic structure may produce an acoustic shadow when scanning the female pelvis?
Pubic symphysis
What ovarian mass is associated with virilization?
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
What ovarian tumor will most likely have a moth eaten appearance on sonography?
Krukenberg tumor
What phase occurs on day 3 of the menstrual cycle?
Early proliferative
What structure produces hormones that directly act upon the endometrium to produce varying thicknesses and sonographic appearances?
Ovary
What temporary structure develops before the corpus luteum?
Corpus hemorrhagicum
What term relates to the number of pregnancies a patient has had?
Gravida
When does the CDC recommend that alcohol based hand rub to be combined with handwashing?
When your hands are visibly soiled
When the sonographic three line sign is present, the functional layer of the endometrium typically appears:
Hypoechoic
Which hormone maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy
HcG
Which of the following is an endocrinologic ovarian disorder?
A. ASherman syndrome
B. Ovulation induction
C. Endometriosis
D. PCOS
D
Which of the following is an inherited bleeding disorder that is characterized by low levels of a specific clotting protein in the blood?
A. Stein-Leventhal disease
B. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis disease
C. Meigs disease
D. Von Willebrand disease
D
Which of the following is best defined as difficult or painful menstruation?
a. dysmenorrhea
b. dyspareunia
c. dysuria
d. menorrhagia
a
Which of the following is best described as an artifact that is produced by a strong reflector and results in a copy of the anatomy being placed deeper than the correct location?
a. reverberation
b. mirror image
c. acoustic shadowing
d. comet tail
b
Which of the following is described as excessive hair growth in women in areas where hair growth is normally negligible?
a. dyspareunia
b. hirsutism
c. meigs syndrome
d. polycystic ovary syndrome
b
Which of the following is not part of the colon that is located within the female pelvis?
a. ascending
b. descending
c. sigmoid
d. transverse
d
The uterine position in which the corpus tilts forward and comes in contact with the cervix describes:
within the right adnexa
Why are the postmenopausal ovaries more difficult to visualize sonographically?
they become smaller and lose their follicles
Which structure remains after the corpus luteum has regressed?
corpus albicans
Which of the following would be most likely associated with hirsutism?
a. polycystic ovarian syndrome
b. meigs syndrome
c. adenomyosis
d. adenomyomatosis
a
Which of the following would increase the risk of a patient developing endometrial cancer?
a. unopposed ERT
b. multiparity
c. osteoporosis
d. endometrial atrophy
a
Conditions such as poor maternal weight gain, previous FGR infant, maternal complications and inadequate symphysis to fundal height growth are suggestive of:
FGR
Select the description that does not characterize FGR
a. Fetal weight below 20 percentile
b. small parents
c. small AC/HC ratio
d. weight 2 standard deviations below gestational mean
b
A cause of intrauterine growth restriction is:
maternal hypertension
FGR affects the fetal blood flow by:
redirecting the blood flow to the brain
FGR can cause poor health for the fetus into adulthood. They include all except:
a. diabetes
b. hypertension
c. anorexia
d. obesity
c
Preeclampsia triad:
edema
maternal hypertension
protein in urine
Identify the first sonographically observed biophysical change seen with fetal hypoxia.
fetal breathing
Which of the following is a perinatal pathology associated with IUGR?
a. diabetes
b. hypoglycemia
c. hypertension
d. anemia
b
Choose the fetal cause of IUGR:
a. sibling with IUGR
b. maternal hypertension
c. placental abruption
d. Varicella zoster
d
Identify the doppler finding seen with asymmetric IUGR
Increased RI in aorta
Select the 2D sonographic finding of symmetric IUGR
biometric markers less than 10%
What percentile does the 26 week symmetric IUGR fetus fit into?
10th
Which of the following does the yolk sac and liver secrete?
a. AFP
b. PAPPA
c. HCG
d. progesterone
a
What type of cell division results in an individual with two genotypes?
mosaicism
The term describing a mutation caused by multiple genes
mosaicism
Name the lab values included in a quadruple screen
AFP
HCG
estriol
inhibin A
Select the clinical feature associated with Apert Syndrome
a. microcephaly
b. hydrocephalus
c. renal agenesis
d. cleft lip
b
The finding of a thick walled, key hole shaped bladder raises suspicion for which of the potters sequences?
IV
Select the sonographic marker for Trisomy 21
choroid plexus cyst
Which of the following shows an increase with trisomy 18?
a. nuchal translucency
b. AFP
c. estriol
d. HCG
a
How many chromosomes are found in a gamete?
23
Identify the x-linked disorder.
a. turners syndrome
b. meckel-gruber
c. color blindness
d. trisomy 21
c
Chromosome makeup of a Turner syndrome fetus
45XO
Advanced maternal age is ___ years or older at EDD
35
A group of clinically observable findings that often exist together is a:
syndrome
Nonrandom occurance of at least 3 associated defects
association
Any structural feature that is abnormal is an
anomaly
any abnormal number of chromosomes
aneuploid
normal number of chromosomes
euploid
Two complete sets of chromosomes
diploid
Three sets of complete chromosomes:
triploid
Only one of an individual chromosome is:
monosomy
Amniocentesis can be performed from ____ weeks onward
15
The most common aneuploid is _____ and the risk greatly increases with maternal age.
trisomy 21
Trisomy 18 is also known as:
Edwards
Trisomy 13 is also known as:
Pataus
Monosomy X is also known as:
Turners
PKD, encephalocele, microcephaly, and polydactyly is what syndrome:
Meckel-Gruber syndrome
A fetal brain with no recognizable cerebral cortex and defined thalami and cerebellum is:
hydranencephaly
A large herniation of the posterior fossa contents into the foramen magnum with hydrocephalus and myelomeningocele describes which type of Arnold-Chiari malformation
III
A markedly retroflexed neck is an indication of:
iniencephaly
A measurement of the lateral ventricular atrium should not exceed:
10 mm or 1 cm
A normal cisterna magna measurement is less than:
1 cm
A partial absence of the cranium is called which one of the following abnormalities?
a. iniencephaly
b. anencephaly
c. acrania
d. osteogenesis imperfecta
c
AFP is secreted by the
liver and yolk sac
Beta hCG levels plateau at _____________ weeks
9-11
Cerebellar hypoplasia with herniation into the spinal canal describes which of the following malformations?
Choose the head end of the neural tube
neuropore
Choose the sonographic appearance of a cephalocele
complex paracranial mass
Cranial anatomy is routinely visualized after how many gestational weeks?
12-14
Define brachycephaly
short broad head caused by premature fusion
Define dolichocephaly
a long narrow head
During a sonographic examination, a wide high third ventricle, teardrop-shaped ventricle, a widened ventricular atria, absent cavum septi pellucid, and a sunburst appearance of the gyri and suli were imaged in the fetal brain. What malformation do these findings support?
agenesis of the corpus callosum
During the sonographic examination on a first trimester pregnancy, a crescent-shaped complex fluid collection images between the gestational sac and the uterus. Select the most likely differential
subchorionic hemorrhage
Identify the term describing the abiltiy of embryonic cells to differentiate into any cell type
pluripotent
Identify the type of ectopic pregnancy that is surrounded by less than 5 mm of myometrium.
interstitial or cornual
Lissencephaly is an absence or paucity of gyri resulting in the characteristic appearance of:
a smooth cerebral surface after 20 weeks
Neural plate development completes at ________ days
18-23
correct method to measure a BPD
transverse, lateral outer to inner
Select the measurement fro the frontal to the occipital bone obtained at the level of the thalami
OFD
risk factors for an ectopic pregnancy
Previous ectopic pregnancy. Prior fallopian tube surgery. Previous pelvic or abdominal surgery.
sonographic features of semilobar holoprosencephaly
Incomplete fusion of the thalami, microcephaly, partial separation of the hemispheres and ventricles
The metencephalon and myelencephalon are part of the:
rhombencephalon
The most frequent anomaly noted with cleft palate or cleft lip is:
clubfoot
The most studied artery in the fetal brain is the:
MCA
What is the ratio of the BPD and the OFD called?
Cephalic Index
What portion of the femur does the sonographer measure to obtain the length?
osseus diaphysis
What weight is considered macrosomia?
> 4000g
Which anatomic landmarks help determine the correct level to measure the HC?
thalamus, falx, cavum septum pellucidum
Which cranial bones are the landmark for measurement of the BPD?
parietal bones
Which measurement is the most important indicator of fetal weight?
ac
What abnormality is most commonly associated with cystic hygroma?
Turner Syndrome
What central nervous system malformation is identifiable in the first trimester?
spina bifida
Which of the following demonstrates cystic dilatation of the fourth ventricle?
Dandy-Walker malformation
Most indicative sonographic feature of anencephaly?
frogeyes
Which of the following is among the most commonly used parameters for estimating fetal age and may be more accurate than the BPD late in pregnancy?
femur length
the congenital absence of one or both eyes
anophthalmia
Which term describes an abnormally fast heart rate?
tachycardia
Which of the following describes the protrusion of meniges through a spinal defect?
meningocele
rostral end of the neural tube
neuropore
a general term describing an abnormal heart rate
arrythmia
Which of the following is part of Ebstein anomaly?
apical displacement of the tricuspid valve
Name the congenital malformation in which the aorta arises from the right ventricle?
double outlet right ventricle
abnormal opening between the right and left atrium
atrial septal defect
Which anatomy images on the four chamber view?
left ventricle, right ventricle, left atrium, right atrium, and tricuspid and mitral valves
What doppler flow changes occur with sever coarction of the aorta?
reversed ductus arteriosus flow
A fetal heart with a large RA, small RV, apically displaced TV, hydrops, arrhythmia and abnormal right ventricular contraction raises suspicion for which heart defect?
Epstein anomaly
What heart defect has perimembranous ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, pulmonary artery hypoplasia, right ventricular hypertrophy, overriding aorta and right sided aorta in 25% of cases?
Tetralogy of Fallot
The embryonic heart is completely formed at the:
beginning of the 8th week
Fetal blood circulates within the embryo at:
3 weeks postconception
Fetal oxygenated blood circulation from the placenta enters the fetus through the:
umbilical vein to the hepatic circulation and left portal vein
Fetal blood from the IVC enters the heart:
IVC
In the fetus, left atrial blood passes through the _______________ into the left ventricle
mitral valve
The greatest concentration of oxygenated fetal blood is to the fetal:
cranium
A normal heart orientation is:
levocardia
In the normal fetal heart, which chamber is located closest to the fetal spine
left atrium
Fetal tachyarrhythmias are heart rates:
of more than 180 beats per minute
Tetralogy of Fallot includes:
VSD
Overriding aorta
pulmonary atresia or stenosis
An abnormally large right atrium and abnormally small right ventricle is an indication of:
Ebstein’s anomaly
The most common cardiac tumor is:
rhabdomyoma
DORV involves:
parallel aorta and pulmonary artery and VSD
The pulmonary valve receives blood from the
right ventricle
Ultrasound resolution limits of ______________ mm still prevent the identification of small VSD’s
1-2
A break in the skin surface directly over the spine is associated with:
myelomeningocele
Thoracic chest measurements (outer edge to outer edge) are obtained from a true transverse view at the level of the:
fetal heart
If the fetal heart (in transverse view) occupies more than 1/3 of the thorax, ______________ should be considered:
pulmonary hypoplasia
Fetal posterolateral neck thickening may be caused by what 3 things?
Failure of the lymphatic channels to communicate
Nuchal skin thickening
Turner syndrome
Abdominal circumference is considered more important as an indicator of _______________________ than as a indicator of fetal age.
weight
Exclude ______________ of the scalp when measuring from the leading edge of theparietal bone for a BPD.
skin/soft tissue
Macrosomia equates to a fetus over ______________ g.
4000
Ratio of the BPD to the OFD is_________________
cephalic index
The femur length can be reliably used after _________________weeks gestation.
14
The earliest successful BPD measurement can usually be obtained at week:
12
The BPD is measured at the level of the ______________, _______________ and _________________.
frontal horns of lateral ventricles, thalami and cavum septum pellucidum
The preferred measurement method for fetal growth is:
average of multiple measurements, three or more
A sonolucent area in the choroid plexus is known as _________________________
choroid plexus cyst
Many brain structures develop between week _____________________, resulting in this time frame being identified as the critical period of brain development.
3 and 16
The central portionof the cerebellum betwee the hemispheres is termed the ________________________
vermis
The forebrain is also known as the ______________________________.
prosencephalon
The great cerebral vein is also called_______________________.
vein of Galen
The most sever form of arnold-chiari malformation is ________________________
III
The presence of a single median bony orbit with a fleshy proboscis above it is ____________________________.
cyclopia
The third ventricle is positioned between the ________________________ and the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles.
thalami
_________________________ is a substance that interferes with embryonic development.
teratogen
_________________________ is the most severe form of holoprosencephaly.
alobar
________________________________ is the most common type of intracranial hemorrhage seen in the fetus.
intraventricular hemorrhage
A bell shaped chest and multiple fetal fractures are indicative of:
osteogenesis imperfecta
A break in the skin surface directly over the spine is associated with:
myelomeningocele
A cystic hygroma is the result of:
An abnormal accumulation of lymphatic fluid within the soft tissue
A large herniation of the posterior fossa contents into the foramen magnum with hydrocephalus and myelomeningocele describes which type of Arnold-Chiari malformation
III
MSAFP is _____ in spina bifida occulta.
elevated
An absent sacrum and coccyx is referred to as:
Caudal Regression Syndrome
An increased nuchal fold is most likely associated with:
Trisomy 21
A group of anomalies characterized by a small or an absent left ventricle is:
hypoplastic left heart syndrome
A coexisting pericardial effusion and a pleural effusion is consistent with the diagnosis of:
fetal hydrops
A heart positioned in the right chest with the apex pointing right is labeled _________________________
dextrocardia
A midline heart is termed _______________________.
mesocardia
A structure in the right ventricle, the ____________________ , should differentiate the right ventricle from the left ventricle.
moderator band
An EIF would most likely be associated with:
Trisomy 21
The ______________________ view of the heart is often used for the diagnosis of VSD
subcostal four chamber view
The blood returning from the lungs through the pulmonary veins enters into the:
left atrium
The condition in which the heart is located outside the chest wall is termed:
ectopia cordis
The fetal heart should consume most of the left side of the chest and lays with a normal angle of _________________ degrees to ________________ of midline.
45
left
The greatest concentration of fetal blood travels to the:
cranium
The mitral valve is located:
between the left ventricle and the left atrium
The moderator band is located within the:
right ventricle
The tricuspid valve is located:
between the right ventricle and the right atrium
The normal heart will fill approximately _____________ of the fetal chest.
1/3
The most common fetal cardiac tumor is the :
rhabdomyoma
The most common cause of cardiac malposition is:
diaphragmatic hernia
When hypoplastic left heart syndrome is found in girls, what syndrome should be suspected?
Turner Syndrome
Which of the following is considered to be the most common cardiac defect?
VSD
A right sided heart with the apex pointing left is called________________________________________________________________
dextroposition
What is the normal opening in the lower middle third of the atrial septum?
Foramen ovale
Which statement is true concerning the fetal outflow tract?
a. The normal pulmonary artery should be positioned posterior to the aorta and should be visualized passing under it.
b. The normal pulmonary artery should be positioned anterior to the aorta and should be visualized crossing over it.
c. The right ventricular outflow tract leads to the aorta.
d. The left ventricular outflow tract leads to the pulmonary artery
b
Which of the following best describes transposition of the great vessels?
a. the aorta arises from the left ventricle, and the pulmonary artery arises from the right ventricle
b. the aorta arises from the right ventricle, and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle
c. the aortic arch is narrowed and positioned anterior to the pulmonary vein
d. the presence of an omphalocele and ectopic cordis
b
Characteristics of rhizomelic limb bowing, frontal bossing, a low nasal bridge, a “trident” configuration of the hand, macrocephaly, hydrocephaly may be noted with:
achondroplasia
Shortening of the most distal portion of a fetal limb is:
mesomelia
The mermaid syndrome is rare and lethal and also know as:
sirenomelia
The exaggerated distance between the first toe and the second toe is:
sandal gap
The most common nonlethal skeletal dysplasia is:
achondroplasia
Upon sonographic interrogation of a 28 week pregnancy, you note that when pressure is applied to the fetal skull, the skull can be easily distorted. This is sonographic evidence of:
osteogenesis imperfecta
What abnormality results in limitation of the fetal limbs as a result of joint contractures?
arthrogryposis
What is the maternal dietary supplement that has been shown to significantly reduce the likelihood of the fetus suffering from a neural tube defect?
folate
