prepare for the PSA instagram Flashcards

1
Q

55W wants to stop smoking. Has COPD, HTN, epilepsy, AF and IBS,
select the condition that makes bupropion the most unsuitable

A

epilepsy as reduces seizure threshold due to NA and dopamine reuptake i
dont use in preg or breasftfee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

34w thick white vag discharge. ph swab 4.1

prescribe one drug that will treat this and dx

if over 4.5 thats when yu think abotu bv or trich

A

candidiasis

fluconazole 150mg PO stat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

28M asthma rev
on salbut 100mcg 2 puff PRN - not using
budesonide 200mcg 2 puff BCD

what decision do you do

A

decrease budenoside to 200mcg 1 puff BD - 25-50 % reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

64M left heel ache on run. worse climbing what drug caused this

A

ciprofloxacin

or steriods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

myopathy caused by what drugs (3)

A

amiodarone
colchine
statins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

22W freq of asthma sx - reg usng salbut inhaler

A

montelukast 10mg PO OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

63m on salbut - obstrucitve picture
diurnal variation in peak flow
COPD
what next

A

LABA and a ICS - so salmetrol and fluticasone brocnhodialtor therapy

3rd line LABA and LAMA and ICS - trimbow inhaler

COPD treatment summary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

lmwh reversal

A

anti factor Xa and protamine sulpahte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

fondaparinux reversal

A

montior clincially and rfvilla/pcc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is rifaximin and when is it used

A

prophylactic agent against hepatic encephalopathy by diminishing ammonia-producing gut flora populations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what drug is used for acute episodes in alcoholic hepatitis

A

glucocorticoids (e.g. prednisolone) are often used during acute episodes of alcoholic hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

propjylacic abx for treatment

A

azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

dose/concentration

A

volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

levongestrel used after how many hours

A

72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when do you need a double dose of levongestrel

A

if BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

often levongestrel causes vomiting if that happens within 3hours what should happen

A

need another dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

can you start hormonal contraception straight afte r levongestrel

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when is ullipristal - 120hours CI

A

asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

incubation periods of gonorrhoea

A

2-5d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

incubation of chlamydia

A

7-21 days

21
Q

what is lymphogranuloma verenum and fetaures

A

comp of chlamydia

painless ulcer, inguinal lymphadenopathy and protocolitis in men normally treated with doxy

22
Q

options for treatment for chlamydia

A

doxy
axithromycin

23
Q

syphillis tx

A

benzathine benzylpenicllin 2.4million units IM stat

24
Q

triptan moa

A

Triptans are a class of drugs used to treat migraines that work by stimulating 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT) receptors in the brain. Their mechanism of action includes

25
Q

are triptans allowe in IHD

A

no as they cause vasospasm increasing risk of MI

26
Q

sx of serotonin syndrome - HARM pneumonic

A

hyperthermia
autonomic
excitability
rigidity
myoclonus

neuroleptic malignant syndrome - slower onset and often a raised CK

27
Q

1% cream means

A

1g in 100ml

28
Q

1:1000 means

A

1g in 1000ml solution

29
Q

what drugs cause gingival hyperplasia

A

phenytoin
tacrolimus
CCBs

so many people on sertrlaine and never hear about it so therefore cannot be side effect

30
Q

most important info to provide a paitent on bisphosphonates

A

they need regualar dental check ups to montior for jaw necrosis

31
Q

drug least likely to cause dyspepsia

alendronic
amiodarone
fluoxetine
naproxen
pred

A

amiodarone

32
Q

what veg can turn urine red

A

rehubarb
beetroot

33
Q

grapefruit has severe interactions with what drugs

A

ciclosporin
tacrolimus
simvastatin
clopidogrel

34
Q

cranberry severe interaction with what drug

A

warfarin

35
Q

person on tranylcypromine for depression - he is advised not to eat particular foods to prevent a hypertensive crisis
what can he not have of below

fresh eggs
grapefurit juice
tinned meat
marmite
yoghurt

A

marmite

as tyramine rich like mature cheese , salami and bovril oxo and alcohols , boad bean pods ( dopa)

MOAI interations

36
Q

what drugs cause venous ulceration?

A

nicorandil, corticosteroids, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

ACEi contraindicated in critical limb ischaemia

37
Q

bisacodyl what type of laxative

A

stimulant

38
Q

what medication should be continued through illness in case of adrenal dependency

A

steriods

39
Q

when is propiothiuraicl used

A

pregnancy for hypothyroidism

40
Q

ADRs for steriods - mneumonic - steriods

A

S = Stomach ulcers
* T = Thin skin
* E = oEdema
* R = Right and left heart failure
* O = Osteoporosis
* I = Infection (including candida)
* D = Diabetes (especially
hyperglycaemia)
* S – Cushing’s Syndrome

41
Q

ADRs for NSAIDS

A

ADRs – NSAIDs (Ibuprofen, Diclofenac)
* N = No urine (i.e. renal failure)
* S = Systolic dysfunction (i.e. heart failure)
* A = Asthma
* I = Indigestion (any cause)
* D = Dyscrasia (clotting abnormality)

42
Q

is aspirin contraindicated in RF, HR or asthma

A

no

43
Q

statins side effects

A
  • Myalgia
  • Abdominal pain
  • Increased ALT/AST (mild)
  • Rhabdomyolysis (can also be mildly increased CK)
44
Q

high potassium drugs

A
  • ACEi, ARB, spiro/eplerenone/amiloride
  • Heparin and LMWH
  • Tolvaptam
  • Co-trimoxazole
45
Q

low potassium drugs

A

Diuretics
* IV Antifungals (esp. amphotericin)
* Cisplatin
* Glucocorticoids / mineralocorticoids
(typically only if excess)
* Beta2-agonists
* (Rarely) aminoglycosides such as
gentamicin and amikacin

46
Q

low magnesium

A
  • Thiazide / thiazide-like diuretics
  • Loop diuretics
  • Proton pump inhibitors (usually within 1st year of treatment)
  • Exchange resins (e.g. calcium resonium)
  • Ciclosporin
  • IV bisphosphonates (e.g. during treatment of hypercalcaemia)
  • IV Antifungals
  • IV Aminoglycosides
47
Q

drugs that can raise blood sugar or worsen diabetic control

A
  • Steroids
  • Antipsychotic drugs
  • Thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics
  • (Loop diuretics less likely)
  • Beta-blockers
  • Tacrolimus
48
Q

4 drugs increasing risk of osteoporosis

A

Steroids
* PPIs at high doses can increase risk of fractures, especially in elderly
over long courses
* Long-term androgren suppression (e.g. LHRH agonists such as buserelin, goserelin for prostate cancer)
* There are other rarer causes (including methotrexate)