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PSYCH 223 > Prenatal Development > Flashcards

Prenatal Development Flashcards

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1
Q

what is epigenetics

A

refers to the change in gene expression that do not change DNA and can be inherited

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2
Q

true or false - identical twins are dizygotic twins

A

false - they are monozygotic

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3
Q

what abnormality is caused by an extra 21st chromosome resulting in 47 total chromosomes

A

down syndrome

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4
Q

what are the three types of down syndrome

A

trisomy 21, translocation and Mosaicism

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5
Q

is PKU transmitted through the recessive or dominant gene

A

recessive

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6
Q

the accumulation of what amino acid is the cause of PKU

A

phenylalanine

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7
Q

what is the treatment for PKU

A

there is no cure but people can be put on low phenylalanine diets , which means avoiding meat, eggs, nuts and flour

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8
Q

true or false - Huntington disease is curable

A

false - it is fatal

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9
Q

what is the percentage chance that the child of a parent with Huntington disease will also contract it

A

50/50

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10
Q

what are three different ways of assisted human reproduction

A

fertility drugs, in vitro fertilization and artificial insemination

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11
Q

what is the first trimester

a) 13th-24th week
b) 12 weeks
c) after the 25th week

A

b

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12
Q

in what semester can you start to see all the anatomical features of the baby

A

second

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13
Q

what are the prenatal development stages

A

germinal, embryonic and fetal

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14
Q

when does the germinal stage occur

A

from implantation to fertilization aka the first two weeks

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15
Q

which stage does cell specialization occur

A

geminal

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16
Q

what are the three layers of an embryonic cell

A

ecto/endo/mesoderm

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17
Q

match the embryonic layer to where they could be found

1) hair, teeth, nails and nervous system

2) digestive and respiratory system

3) reproductory, circulatory system and muscles

A

1) ectoderm
2) endoderm
3) mesoderm

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18
Q

true or false -the placenta develops in the geminal stage

A

false - it develops in the embryonic stage

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19
Q

what happens during the 13th-21st week of development

A

neuronal proliferation and response to sound

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20
Q

in what stage is there the refinement of organs

A

fetal stage

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21
Q

which is NOT a recessive gene disorder

Tay-Sachs, PKU, Huntingtons and Cystic fibrosis

A

Huntingtons is a dominant disorder

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22
Q

what are the 4 sex linked disordered

A

red-green color blindness, hemophilia, fragile X syndrome and duchenne muscular dystrophy

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23
Q

if a man has an extra copy of an X chromosome, what is the result

A

Klinfelter’s syndrome

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24
Q

if a female has only one X chromosome, what is the result

A

Turner’s syndrome

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25
Q

which one of these has the largest critical period during gestation

a) heart
b) CNS
c) genitalia
d) eyes

A

b) CNS

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26
Q

what are the results of cytomegalovirus

A

deafness, brain damage and intellectual delay

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27
Q

true or false - rubella is caused by teratogens

A

true it is a viral infection

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28
Q

what is a vitamin that a woman is told to take as early as possible in their pregnancy

A

folic acid

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29
Q

what is the age ranges that can cause issues such as premature birth and higher infant mortality rates

A

older than 35, younger than 20

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30
Q

true or false - sickle cell anemia is the least common in black north americans

A

false - it is the most common

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31
Q

what is the most common fatal disease in children and young adults

A

cystic fibrosis

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32
Q

explain in brief what is the cause/outcome of the recessive gene disorders

A

Tay sachs - genetic neurological disease causing premature death

Cystic fibrosis - fatal disorder; mucus obstructs the lungs

Hemophilia - blood does not clot properly so there is an excessive amount of bleeding

Duchenne muscular dystrophy - chronic disorder; degeneration of muscles

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33
Q

what are some issues that arise from older fathers

A

genetic mutations, autism and schizophrenia

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34
Q

what is amniocentesis

A

it is a procedure used to withdraw foetal cells from amniotic fluid in order to determine if there is anything wrong with DNA

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35
Q

what is the safest way to have a fetal assessment

A

blood test for alpha fetoprotein assay

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36
Q

with dizygotic and monozygotic twins adoption studies, compare the DNA and environment

A

different DNA and same environment ; same DNA and different environment

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37
Q

what are some examples in differences between midwives and OBGYN’s

A

midwives - provide care for low risk pregnancy ; attend births everywhere ; less need for C-section
OBGYN - treat low and high risk pregnancies ; attend births only in hospital ; more need for C-section

38
Q

what are the three phases of stage 1 process of birth

A

dilation/effacement, active phase, transition

39
Q

what part of stage 1 is called the latent phase

A

dilation and effacement

40
Q

what is involved in stage 3 of the process of birth

A

delivery of placenta

41
Q

what is a healthy term baby

A

38-40 weeks

42
Q

true or false - doctors will try to induce birth when babies are post term

A

true

43
Q

what does APGAR stand for

A

appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respirations

44
Q

is the initial encounter between baby and mother a sensitive or critical period

A

it is a sensitive period

45
Q

what are the benefits of skin to skin contact

A

regulate heartbeat and temperature

46
Q

what are the 7 reflexes

A

sucking, rooting, moro, grasping, stepping, babinski and tonic neck

47
Q

briefly explain the rooting, moro, babinski and tonic neck reflexes

A

rooting - moving head when someone touches their cheek
moro - extend arms/legs and project their bum when “dropped”
babinski - wiggle the fingers when foot is stroked
tonic neck - extend the arm that the head is turning to and flex the other

48
Q

which of the senses is the least developed at birth

A

vision

49
Q

which of the senses is the most developed at birth

A

touch

50
Q

when does the crying peak and why

A

it peaks at 5-6 weeks ; it is called colic - it is because the digestive system has not developed 100% so there is pain

51
Q

what are three concerns during postpartum

A

maternal depression, postpartum depression and psychosis

52
Q

what kind of gene causes sickle cell anemia

A

recessive genes

53
Q

approximately how much of the world are carriers of sickle cell disease

A

5%

54
Q

what is the biological outcome of sickle cell diseases

A

red blood cells become half moon shaped and accumulate together which blocks the blood vessels, resulting in low oxygen supply

55
Q

what kind of gene causes Tay Sachs

A

recessive gene

56
Q

true or false - Tay Sachs is most common among Jewish and South Indian families

A

false - it is common among jewish and french canadians

57
Q

1 in ___ carries the recessive gene for Tay Sachs

A

27 people

58
Q

true or false - cystic fibrosis is caused by a dominant gene

A

false - recessive

59
Q

approximately how much of the population is born with cystic fibrosis

A

1 in every 3,500 children

60
Q

what is a possible treatment for cystic fibrosis

A

lung transplants

61
Q

females with two X chromosomes are ____ to show sex linked disorders

more likely/ less likely

A

more likely

62
Q

is red green blindness more common among Asians or Caucasians

A

Caucasians

63
Q

what is chorionic villus sampling and is it used more than amniocentesis

A

it is used less frequent
it is done within the first 9-12 weeks and it where a syringe is inserted into the placenta to remove the chorionic villi which are then tested

64
Q

what are kinship studies and what does it tell us

A

studies the distribution of a trait among relatives who differ in genetic closeness
- parents and children have the most overlap in genetic endowements

65
Q

true or false - male fetuses have a higher rate of a spontaneous abortion than female fetuses

A

true

66
Q

are sperm or ova bigger than the other

A

ova are much larger

67
Q

approximately how many couples have difficulties conceiving

A

1 in 6

68
Q

what are two causes of female infertility

A

pelvic inflammatory disease - come from a bacterial or viral infection (STDs)
endometriosis - the tissue that is supposed to shed during menstruation, accumulates in the abdomen causing lots of pain and infertility

69
Q

what is a blastocyst and in what stage of development does it occur

A

germinal; fluid filled ball of cells that must be implanted in the uterine wall

70
Q

when does miscarriages usually occur

A

within the first 3 months

71
Q

true or false - the lower parts of the body take precedence over the growth of the head

A

false - other way round

72
Q

what is the structure from which the nervous system develops

A

neural tube

73
Q

what is toxemia

A

it is a life threatening disease for pregnant women because of very high blood pressure

74
Q

what is the name of the drug used to treat insomnia and nausea in pregnant women that caused defects

A

thalidomide

75
Q

tertaogens are most harmful during the sensitive or critical period

A

critical period

76
Q

what is the drug that causes in an increase risk of stillbirth

A

cocaine

77
Q

what is DES and why is it bad to be precribed

A

it is a strong estrogen drug that was shown to cause cancer in offspring

78
Q

high doses of what vitamin are shown to result in birth defects

A

A and D

79
Q

what are some sexually transmitted diseases that can cause miscarriage and stillbirth

A

HIV/AIDS and syphillis

80
Q

what is the hormone that signals the mother that the baby is ready to be born

A

prostaglandins

81
Q

what vitamin is injected into the baby at birth for blood clotting

A

Vitamin K

82
Q

true or false - local anesthetic is given more frequently than general

A

true

83
Q

what are the two terms that refer to the baby not receiving enough oxygen

A

apoxia and hypoxia

84
Q

fine, downy hair is referred to as ____ and the oily substance on the skin is ___

A

lanugo and vernix

85
Q

approximately what percent of mothers will experience the baby blues after birth

A

80%

86
Q

if the baby scores a 7 and above on the APGAR scale, are they safe or in danger

A

safe

87
Q

if a baby scores below a 4 on the APGAR scale, are they safe or in danger

A

in danger

88
Q

when newborns are born are they far or nearsighted

A

nearsighted

89
Q

when does SIDS most commonly accur

A

during the baby’s first year

90
Q

what does PURPLE stand for

A

peak of, unexpected, resists, pain like, long, evening

PSYCH 223 (11 decks)

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