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PACAT > Pre-Matriculation Microbiology Part II Summative Exam > Flashcards

Pre-Matriculation Microbiology Part II Summative Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Question:
Which factor of bacterial adherence is used to bind to host cell surface glycoproteins, glycosphingolipids, or glycosaminoglycans to establish a unique niche within the host?

Answer Choices:
1. Antigenic variation
2 Capsule
3 Endotoxin
4 Microbial adhesions

A

4 Microbial adhesions

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2
Q

Question:
How does a pathogen enter a host cell for replicative purposes?

Answer Choices
1. Adherence
2. Entry
3. Injury
4. Invasion

A
  1. Invasion
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3
Q

Question:
Which mechanism of pathogenicity involves antigenic diversity of bacterial capsule types?

Answer Choices:
1. Adherence
2. Entry
3. Immune evasion
4. Invasion

A
  1. Immune evasion
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4
Q

Question:
What allows the normal flora to protect the host from potential pathogens through mechanisms such as competition for nutrients?

Answer Choices:
1. Amensalism
2. Microbial antagonism
3. Mutualism
4. Protocooperation

A
  1. Microbial antagonism
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5
Q

Question:
Which infection occurs when the normal flora causes an infection by reaching a normally sterile site, such as the urinary tract, or by experiencing a disruption in the normal microbiota?

Answer Choices:
1. Acute infection
2. Chronic infection
3. Frank infection
4. Opportunistic infection

A
  1. Opportunistic infection
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6
Q

Question:
What set of principles is used to specifically identify the causative agent of an infectious disease?

Answer Choices:
1. Clinician’s law of parsimony
2. Hickam’s dictum
3. Koch’s postulates
4. Saint’s triad

A
  1. Koch’s postulates
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7
Q

Question:
What summarizes the foundational first tenet of Koch’s postulates?

Answer Choices:
1. A pathogen must cause disease only in humans.
2. A pathogen must not cause disease when inoculated into a susceptible animal.
3. Pathogens may cause several disease conditions.
4. The same pathogen must be present in every case of the disease.

A
  1. The same pathogen must be present in every case of the disease.
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8
Q

Question:
What category of risk factors for disease severity is associated with the sickle cell gene?

Answer Choices:
1. Age
2. Inherited trait
3. Lifestyle
4. Pre-existing condition

A
  1. Inherited trait
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9
Q

Question:
What category of risk factors for disease severity typically accompanies the age-related decline of adaptive immunity over the course of a lifetime?

Answer Choices:
1. Climate
2. Inherited traits
3. Lifestyle
4. Sex

A
  1. Lifestyle
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10
Q

Question:
What portal of entry is associated with exposure to norovirus, which can cause sudden onset of vomiting and diarrhea, leading to severe dehydration?

Answer Choices:
1. Blood
2. Gastrointestinal tract
3. Respiratory tract
4, Skin

A
  1. Gastrointestinal tract
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11
Q

Question:
What portal of entry is at the greatest risk for exposure to dust particles containing infectious microorganisms?

Answer Choices:
1. Gastrointestinal tract
2. Mucous membranes
3. Respiratory tract
4. Skin

A
  1. Respiratory tract
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12
Q

Question:
What is the term for the process where the host complement system coats a pathogen with complement proteins, enabling white blood cells to phagocytize the pathogen?

Answer Choices:
1. Degradation
2. Lysis
3. Opsonization
4. Phagocytosis

A
  1. Opsonization
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13
Q

Question:
What type of molecule contained within the capsule of some organisms can cleave antibodies, rendering them useless?

Answer Choices:
1. Coagulase
2. Hyaluronidase
3. Kinase
4. Protease

A
  1. Protease
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14
Q

Question:
Sideromycins are combinations of antibiotic compounds with siderophore analogs, which mimic bacterial siderophores. How is the antibiotic delivered to bacterial cells?

Answer Choices:
1. Sideromycins are small enough to pass through the phospholipid bilayer
2. Sideromycins cause the bacterial membrane to be permeable
3. Sideromycins enter the cell through bacterial iron transport proteins
4. Sideromycins influence secondary messengers inside the cell

A
  1. Sideromycins enter the cell through bacterial iron transport proteins
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15
Q

Question:
Iron has an essential role in enhancing pathogen colonization of the host and the severity of disease. What secreted substance is a virulence factor that enables pathogens to acquire and solubilize ferric iron from the host?

Answer Choices:
1. Fibrinolysin
2. Lipoteichoic acid
3. Siderophore
4. Superoxide dismutase

A
  1. Siderophore
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16
Q

Question:
To what do major histocompatibility complex class II (MHC II) molecules bind?

Answer Choices:
1. Products generated from a viral infection
2. Products generated intracellularly
3. Products originated extracellularly
4. Products recognized by CD8+ T cells

A
  1. Products originated extracellularly
17
Q

Question:
What T cell is responsible for preventing viral production and release by eliminating the host cell before completion of viral protein synthesis and assembly?

Answer Choices:
1. CD4+
2. CD8+
3. Th2
4. Th17

A
  1. CD8+
18
Q

Question:
What form of B cell activation is evoked by proteins and results in a strong response that includes the production of memory cells?

Answer Choices:
1. Cell-mediated immunity
2. Passive immunity
3. T-dependent
4. T-independent

A
  1. T-dependent
19
Q

Question:
What is one of the roles of antigen-presenting cells (such as macrophages) within the T-dependent branch of B cell activation of humoral immunity?

Answer Choices:
1. Bind antigen to IgM monomer
2. Ingest, process, and present antigen to helper T cells
3. Secrete antibodies
4. Trigger cytokines

A
  1. Ingest, process, and present antigen to helper T cells
20
Q

Question:
The primary risk related to organ transplantation is rejection of the donor organ, which is caused by an immune response to glycoproteins on the grafted tissue that the recipient’s immune system identifies as foreign. What type of antigen are these proteins?

Answer Choices:
1. Alloantigens
2. Autoantigens
3. Exogenous antigens
4. Neoantigens

A
  1. Alloantigens
21
Q

Question:
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes recognize tumor-specific antigens that form as result of tumor mutations. What are these antigens called?

Answer Choices:
1. Alloantigens
2. Autoantigens
3. Exogenous antigens
4. Neoantigens

A
  1. Neoantigens
22
Q

Question:
What type of antigen introduced into the body during immunizations stimulates B lymphocytes to produce disease-specific antibodies?

Answer Choices:
1. Autoantigens
2. Endogenous antigens
3. Exogenous antigens
4. Neoantigens

A
  1. Exogenous antigens
23
Q

Question:
What antibody function can involve antibodies binding to and causing aggregation of organisms?

Answer Choices:
1. Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity
2. Complement-mediated lysis
3. Neutralization
4. Phagocytosis

A
  1. Neutralization
24
Q

Question:
In a healthy person, which immunoglobulin molecule is responsible for preventing pathogens from invading epithelial cells?

Answer Choices:
1. IgA
2. IgE
3. IgG
4. IgM

A
  1. IgA
25
Q

Question:
Based on the structure of the IgM oligomer, how many apoptosis inhibitors of macrophage (AIM) molecules can an oligomer theoretically carry?

Answer Choices:
1. 1
2. 3
3. 5
4. 8

A
  1. 5
26
Q

Question:
Protein A, made by Staphylococcus aureus, has high affinity to the heavy chain of the constant region of most IgG molecules. Which part of IgG molecules does Protein A bind with the highest affinity?

Answer Choices:
1. Fab
2. Fc
3. Fv
4. Hinge region

A
  1. Fc
27
Q

Question:
A person who recently experienced pharyngitis caused by streptococcal infection has now developed acute glomerulonephritis. What type of antigen is involved?

Answer Choices:
1. Autoantigen
2. Neoantigen
3. Tumor antigen
4. Viral antigen

A
  1. Autoantigen
28
Q

Question:
What is the first rapid event to occur after an antibody binds its target antigen?

Answer Choices:
1. Blocking and neutralizing of the antigen
2. Clonal expansion of the B cell that generates that antibody
3. Formation of memory B cells
4. Recruitment and engulfment of the antigen-antibody complex

A
  1. Blocking and neutralizing of the antigen
29
Q

Question:
To what do major histocompatibility complex class I (MHC I) molecules bind?

Answer Choices:
1. Phagocytized products
2. Products generated intracellularly
3. Products located within vacuoles
4. Products originated extracellularly

A
  1. Products generated intracellularly
30
Q

Question:
What activated T helper cell is central to the destruction of parasites through eosinophils and mast cells?

Answer Choices:
1. CD4+
2. Th1
3. Th2
4. Th17

A
  1. Th2

PACAT (20 decks)

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