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PACAT > Pre-Matriculation Microbiology Part I Summative Exam > Flashcards

Pre-Matriculation Microbiology Part I Summative Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Question:
What structure in Gram-positive bacteria is responsible for retention of crystal violet during the Gram staining process?

Answer Choices:
1. Chitin
2. Membrane-bound organelles
3. Nucleus
4. Peptidoglycan

A
  1. Peptidoglycan
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2
Q

Question:
What fungi exist in a unicellular state?

Answer Choices
1. Hyphae
2. Mold
3. Mycelia
4. Yeast

A
  1. Yeast
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3
Q

Question:
The pathology of Staphylococcus aureus depends on the area of colonization. For example, colonizing the lungs can cause pneumonia.

What is an additional manifestation of an S. aureus infection?

Answer Choices:
1. Ear infection
2. Urinary tract infection
3. Impetigo
4. Throat infection

A
  1. Impetigo
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4
Q

Question:
What can cause mild to life-threatening gastrointestinal infections?

Answer Choices:
1. Bordetella pertussis
2. Candida albicans
3. Escherichia coli
4. Streptococcus pyogenes

A
  1. Escherichia coli
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5
Q

Question:
What arrangement has flagella on both polar ends of an organism?

Answer Choices:
1. Amphitrichous
2. Lophotrichous
3. Monotrichous
4. Peritrichous

A
  1. Amphitrichous
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6
Q

Question:
What protein structure allows for the transfer of DNA between two bacterial cells, and what is this transfer called?

Answer Choices:
1. Cilia; conjugation
2. Fimbriae; transduction
3. Flagella; transduction
4. Pili; conjugation

A
  1. Pili; conjugation
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7
Q

Question:
Where is peptidoglycan located within the Gram-negative cell wall?

Answer Choices:
1. Cytoplasm
2.Lipopolysaccharide
3. Outer membrane
4. Periplasmic space

A
  1. Periplasmic space
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8
Q

Question:
What molecule promotes adhesion within the Gram-positive cell wall?

Answer Choices:
1.Lipopolysaccharide
2. O antigen
3. Porins
4. Teichoic acid

A
  1. Teichoic acid
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9
Q

Question:
What is the phospholipid bilayer immediately adjacent to the cell wall that encloses the cytoplasm?

Answer Choices:
1. Cytoskeleton
2. Plasmid
3. Plasma membrane
4. Ribosome

A
  1. Plasma membrane
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10
Q

Question:
What is located in a cell’s nucleoid?

Answer Choices:
1. Circular chromosomes of double-stranded DNA
2. Membrane-bound organelles
3. Nucleus
4. Plasmids

A
  1. Circular chromosomes of double-stranded DNA
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11
Q

Question:
What does cytosine bond with within deoxyribonucleic acid?

Answer Choices:
1. Adenine
2. Guanine
3. Thymine
4. Uracil

A
  1. Guanine
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12
Q

Question:
Ribonucleic acid generally exists in what form?

Answer Choices:
1. Circular
2. Double-stranded
3. Single-stranded
4. Plasmid

A
  1. Single-stranded
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13
Q

Question:
What transcription factor stops RNA polymerase from continuing the prokaryotic gene transcription process?

Answer Choices:
1. Activator
2. Inducer
3. Operator
4. Repressor

A
  1. Repressor
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14
Q

Question:
What is the term for the prokaryotic grouping of genes that encode for a protein associated with similar functionality?

Answer Choices:
1. Activator
2. Inducer
3. Operon
4. Transcription factor

A
  1. Operon
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15
Q

Question:
What type of mutation may be caused by addition or removal of a single nucleotide pair and results in the polymerization of a stretch of incorrect amino acids until a stop codon is reached?

Answer Choices:
1. Frameshift
2. Inversion
3. Missense
4. Nonsense

A
  1. Frameshift
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16
Q

Question:
Insertion or deletion of a certain quantity of base pairs will not cause a frameshift mutation if it does not shift the reading frame. For this to occur, the number of base pairs must be divisible by what number?

Answer Choices:
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

A
  1. 3
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17
Q

Question:
What is the term for bacterial uptake of DNA from the environment within a competent cell?

Answer Choices:
1. Conjugation
2. Replication
3. Transduction
4. Transformation

A
  1. Transformation
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18
Q

Question:
What is the term for the one-way passage of genetic material from donor to recipient?

Answer Choices:
1. Asexual reproduction
2. Binary fission
3. Horizontal gene transfer
4. Replication

A
  1. Horizontal gene transfer
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19
Q

Question:
In hospitals, outbreaks of Staphylococcus aureus have been linked to nasal carriers or employees with active lesions. Since elimination of nasal carriage is often impractical, what is a more expedient defense to transmission of Staphylococcus aureus?

Answer Choices:
1. Administration of mupirocin to patients
2. Implementation of a mandatory mask policy
3. Mandatory employee screenings
4. Washing hands

A
  1. Washing hands
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20
Q

Question
What is the primary cause of symptoms associated with scalded skin syndrome?

Answer Choices
1. Bacterial release of toxin
2. Catalase
3. Coagulase
4. Toxic shock syndrome

A
  1. Bacterial release of toxin
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21
Q

Question:
As a form of food poisoning, what accounts for the virulence of the enterotoxin produced by S. aureus?

Answer Choices:
1. Acute osteomyelitis
2. Beta-lactamase
3. Gram-positive classification
4. Heat resistance

A
  1. Heat resistance
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22
Q

Question:
In addition to beta-lactamases, what enables the resistance of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) to methicillin, penicillin, and similar drugs?

Answer Choices:
1. Catalase
2. Coagulase
3. Exfoliatin toxin
4. Penicillin binding protein

A
  1. Penicillin binding protein
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23
Q

Question:
When a patient presents with fever, fatigue, and stiff neck, which manifestation of Streptococcus pneumoniae is likely?

Answer Choices:
1. Otitis media
2. Sinusitis
3. Pneumococcal meningitis
4. Pneumococcal pneumonia

A
  1. Pneumococcal meningitis
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24
Q

Question:
Which of the following provide rationale for use of beta-lactam antibiotics, rather than penicillin, as effective for treatment of otitis media and sinusitis caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?

Answer Choices:
1. Alpha hemolysis
2. Altered penicillin binding protein
3. Beta-lactamases
4. Gram-positive classification

A
  1. Altered penicillin binding protein
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25
Q

Case:
A 32-year-old man presents with fever, headache, dry cough, and myalgias for the past 2 days. The patient denies having his seasonal vaccine this year.

Question:
What virus type is probably causative of the patient’s symptoms?

Answer Choices:
1. Enveloped double-stranded DNA virus
2. Enveloped single-stranded RNA virus
3. Naked double-stranded DNA virus
4. Naked single-stranded RNA virus

A
  1. Enveloped single-stranded RNA virus
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26
Q

Question:
What patients might experience a severe presentation of varicella infection (chickenpox)?

Answer Choices:
1. Children previously infected with varicella
2. Patients receiving chemotherapy
3. Patients vaccinated against varicella
4. Very young children

A
  1. Patients receiving chemotherapy
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27
Q

Question:
What accounts for the change in the influenza virus from year to year?

Answer Choices:
1. Antigenic drift
2. Antigenic shift
3. Complementation
4. Phenotypic mixing

A
  1. Antigenic drift
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28
Q

Question:
A patient presents with severe pain several months after having recovered from shingles. The area of the healed rash is described as throbbing or burning, and at times the patient cannot wear clothing because of the pain it causes on the skin. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s pain?

Answer Choices:
1. Antiviral medications
2. Postherpetic neuralgia
3. Viremia
4. Zoster vaccination

A
  1. Postherpetic neuralgia
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29
Q

Question:
What virus causes fever, headache, dry cough, and myalgias?

Answer Choices:
1. Haemophilus influenzae
2. Orthomyxovirus
3. Paramyxovirus
4. Rhinovirus

A
  1. Orthomyxovirus
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30
Q

Question:
What virus presents with painful lesions around the oral mucosa with vesicular lesions on physical examination, some of which are pustular or ulcerated?

Answer Choices:
1. Herpes simplex virus 1
2. Herpes simplex virus 2
3. Herpes simplex virus 3
4. Herpes simplex virus 4

A
  1. Herpes simplex virus 1
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31
Q

Question:
Neuraminidase inhibitors (oseltamivir and zanamivir), which target neuraminidase, would be most effective against what organism?

Answer Choices:
1. Haemophilus influenzae
2. Orthomyxovirus
3. Paramyxovirus
4. Rhinovirus

A
  1. Orthomyxovirus
32
Q

Question:
Histoplasma capsulatum, the causative agent of histoplasmosis, can be contracted in specific environments, including caves. Why are caves considered at-risk areas for this fungus?

Answer Choices:
1. This fungus is transmitted by bat droppings.
2. This fungus grows best on limestone.
3. This fungus is killed by sunlight.
4. This fungus thrives in cool environments.

A
  1. This fungus is transmitted by bat droppings.
33
Q

Question:
A non-compliant HIV-positive male patient has been reporting a stiff neck and a severe headache. The headache was initially lessened by analgesics, but the analgesics are no longer effective. His current CD4+ count is 180/mm3. He is not on any prophylactic drugs. What is the most likely causative agent?

Answer Choices:
1. Aspergillus fumigatus
2. Candida albicans
3. Cryptococcus neoformans
4. Malassezia furfur

A
  1. Cryptococcus neoformans
34
Q

Question:
A 30-year-old single woman presents to her physician with vaginitis. She reports a thick white “cottage cheese” discharge. What organism is the most likely cause of her infection?

Answer Choices:
1. Candida albicans
2. Escherichia coli
3. Gardnerella vaginalis
4. Trichomonas vaginalis

A
  1. Candida albicans
35
Q

Question:
What is the most common risk factor for fungal keratitis?

Answer Choices:
1. Contact lens usage
2. Diabetes mellitus
3. Low socioeconomic status
4. Vegetative ocular trauma

A
  1. Vegetative ocular trauma
36
Q

Question:
A patient receiving corticosteroid treatment for lupus developed headache and fever and began to display some memory loss. Cryptococcal meningitis caused by Cryptococcus neoformans was suspected. What finding in the cerebrospinal fluid would support this diagnosis?

Answer Choices:
1. Broad-based yeast cells
2. Encapsulated yeast cells
3. Hyphae
4. Intracellular yeast cells

A
  1. Encapsulated yeast cells
37
Q

Question:
In addition to culture, what method is commonly used in the diagnosis of fungal keratitis?

Answer Choices:
1. Clinical picture
2. Ophthalmic ultrasound
3. Radiography
4. Serological antigen detection

A
  1. Clinical picture
38
Q

Question:
Which of the following types of disease are most likely to require patients to be quarantined?

Answer Choices:
1. Airborne infections
2. Feco-orally-transmitted infections
3. Waterborne infections
4. Hepatitis infections

A
  1. Airborne infections
39
Q

Question:
MRSA (methicillin-resistant S. aureus) is commonly found in healthcare settings. Up to 86% of MRSA infections are acquired by patients seeking healthcare. What is one reason why MRSA bacteria/infections may be more common in a hospital than in the community at large?

Answer Choices:
1. Increased use of alcohol-based hand sanitizers
2. Colder temperature
3. Increased sanitization
4. Increased skin-to-skin contact

A
  1. Increased skin-to-skin contact
40
Q

Question:
Which factor is most often used to classify diseases in terms of incidence in a population?

Answer Choices:
1. Country socioeconomic status
2. Country age ratio
3. Country sex ratio
4. Country landforms

A
  1. Country socioeconomic status
41
Q

Question:
One factor associated with the transmission of infectious disease is the time of survivability of a microorganism on a hard inanimate surface; e.g., E.coli bacteria can survive on hard inanimate surfaces for up to 16 months. This represents a risk for exposure to infectious disease by what type of contact?

Answer Choices:
1. Direct droplet contact
2. Direct person-to-person contact
3. Indirect vector contact
4. Indirect vehicle contact

A
  1. Indirect vehicle contact
42
Q

Question:
What allows Streptococcus viridans to cause bacterial endocarditis in patients with damaged heart valves following dental work?

Answer Choices:
1. Altered penicillin-binding proteins
2. Beta-lactamase expression
3. Respiratory colonization
4. Transient bacteremia

A
  1. Transient bacteremia
43
Q

Question:
What allows Clostridium tetani spores to germinate within deep muscles?

Answer Choices:
1. Anaerobic environment
2. Gram-positive classification
3. Presence of tetanospasmin
4. Proximity to central nervous system

A
  1. Anaerobic environment
44
Q

Question:
What diagnostic element of bubonic plague is most crucial for patient survival?

Answer Choices:
1. Clinical picture
2. Culture
3. Ultrasound
4. X-ray

A
  1. Clinical picture
45
Q

Question:
What is the most characteristic presentation of Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

Answer Choices:
1. Confusion
2. Headache
3. Muscle pain
4. Rash

A
  1. Rash
46
Q

Question:
Why might a patient with Capnocytophaga infection need urgent cardiac surgery?

Answer Choices:
1. Atrial fibrillation
2. Endocarditis
3. Heart failure
4. Tachycardia

A
  1. Endocarditis
47
Q

Question:
Which phase of a Bordetella pertussis infection is the most communicable?

Answer Choices:
1. Catarrhal
2. Convalescent
3. Paroxysmal
4. Whooping

A
  1. Catarrhal
48
Q

Question:
What species presents a high risk in the healthcare setting due to its ability to colonize water reservoirs, humidifiers, solutions, and medications?

Answer Choices:
1. Bordetella pertussis
2. Haemophilus influenzae
3. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A
  1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
49
Q

Case:
A 13-year-old boy presents in the ED with fever, tender joints, and rapid heartbeat. His mother says he has been sick with a sore throat, which she thought was a cold; now she is concerned it may actually be the flu. Rapid strep test and flu test in the ED are both negative. The physician assistant finds a rash with pink rings and a clear center, orders an Antistreptolysin O antibody test and EKG, and gives the patient penicillin and a round of steroids. The lab test shows a high level of antibodies against Streptococcus.

Question:
What organism is the most likely pathogen?

Answer Choices:
1. Escherichia coli
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Streptococcus pyogenes
4. Streptococcus viridans

A
  1. Streptococcus pyogenes
50
Q

Question:
Which type of Escherichia coli infection is characterized by bundle-forming pili developing microcolonies that cause localized loss of microvilli through formation of attaching and effacing (A/E) lesions?

Answer Choices:
1. Enterohemorrhagic
2. Enteropathogenic
3. Enterotoxigenic
4. Extraintestinal

A
  1. Enteropathogenic
51
Q

Question:
What is the most likely route of cutaneous anthrax infections in humans?

Answer Choices:
1. Exposure to a person infected with Bacillus anthracis
2. Inhalation of Bacillus anthracis species found in groundwater
3. Inhalation of Bacillus anthracis species found in soil
4. Skin inoculation of spores derived from herbivores

A
  1. Skin inoculation of spores derived from herbivores
52
Q

Question:
What is a common source of transmission of botulinum toxin to humans?

Answer Choices:
1. Acidic foods
2. Cured meat
3. Home-canned vegetables
4. Person to person

A
  1. Home-canned vegetables
53
Q

Question:
What forms the waxy coat of mycolic acid of Mycobacteria?

Answer Choices:
1. Branched chain amino acids within the plasma membrane
2. Branched chain amino acids within the cell wall
3. Long chain fatty acids within the cell wall
4. Short chain fatty acids within the cell well

A
  1. Long chain fatty acids within the cell wall
54
Q

Question:
What is the most compelling presentation to administer treatment for R. ricketsii infection?

Answer Choices:
1. Fever
2. Headache
3. History of tick bite
4. Muscle pain

A
  1. History of tick bite
55
Q

Question:
What is the morphology of Treponema pallidum?

Answer Choices:
1. Branching filamentous
2. Rod (bacillus)
3. Spherical (coccus)
4. Spiral (spirochete)

A
  1. Spiral (spirochete)
56
Q

Question:
How does the lipooligosaccharide (LOS) of Neisseria gonorrhoeae differ from the lipopolysaccharide (LPS) of other organisms?

Answer Choices:
1. Absence of core polysaccharide
2. Absence of lipid A
3. Absence of O antigen
4. Absence of phospholipid

A
  1. Absence of O antigen
57
Q

Question:
In cases of respiratory colonization, what pathogen has the potential to become a chronic infection with serious consequences in patients with cystic fibrosis?

Answer Choices:
1. Clostridium botulinum
2. Escherichia coli
3. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A
  1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
58
Q

Question:
What type of infection is exhibited by neonatal meningitis due to Escherichia coli transmission from maternal vaginal flora?

Answer Choices:
1. Asymptomatic infection
2. Latent infection
3. Opportunistic infection
4. Secondary infection

A
  1. Secondary infection
59
Q

Question:
Neonatal sepsis can be prevented when a mother is administered penicillin before giving birth. What method of diagnosis is likely to be most efficient?

Answer Choices:
1. Amniocentesis
2. Spinal tap
3. Vaginal culture
4. Ultrasound

A
  1. Vaginal culture
60
Q

Question:
What is the treatment for potential exposure to bioterrorism-related aerosolized anthrax spores?

Answer Choices:
1. Antivirals
2. Prophylactic doxycycline
3. Prophylactic penicillin
4. Watchful waiting

A
  1. Prophylactic doxycycline
61
Q

Question:
Loss of nasal bones, digits, septum, testicular atrophy, and non-healing painless ulcers are possible with which manifestation of Mycobacterium infection?

Answer Choices:
1. Latent tuberculosis
2. Lepromatous leprosy
3. Primary tuberculosis
4. Tuberculoid leprosy

A
  1. Lepromatous leprosy
62
Q

Question:
Capnocytophaga is an opportunistic pathogen that is part of the normal flora of mammals. Which population would you expect to present with a Capnocytophaga infection and why?

Answer Choices:
1. Anyone; even healthy people often contract Capnocytophaga infections.
2. Patients with cirrhosis because they are immunocompromised.
3. Patients with coronary heart disease because their blood tends to be pumped irregularly.
4. Pet owners because of their contact with dogs and cats.

A
  1. Patients with cirrhosis because they are immunocompromised
63
Q

Question:
What slow-growing organism displays morphological similarity to Haemophilus influenzae and causes high mortality in infants, potentially acquired from adults with mild presentations?

Answer Choices:
1. Bacillus anthracis
2. Bordetella pertussis
3. Rickettsia rickettsii
4. Yersinia pestis

A
  1. Bordetella pertussis
64
Q

Question:
What motile Gram-negative bacillus can be found in the environment and produces a green-colored pigment when cultured?

Answer Choices:
1. Escherichia coli
2. Haemophilus influenzae
3. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
4. Treponema pallidum

A
  1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
65
Q

Question:
Infection of the skin and soft tissue that may lead to necrotizing fasciitis and myonecrosis is a potential manifestation generally associated with what bacteria?

Answer Choices:
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Staphylococcus epidermidis
3. Streptococcus agalactiae
4. Streptococcus pyogenes

A
  1. Streptococcus pyogenes
66
Q

Question:
Watery diarrhea in association with the heat-labile enterotoxin (LT enterotoxin) is caused by what type of Escherichia coli infection?

Answer Choices:
1.Enterohemorrhagic
2. Enteropathogenic
3. Enterotoxigenic
4. Extraintestinal

A
  1. Enterotoxigenic
67
Q

Question:
An 8-month-old boy who has never been vaccinated presents with a 3-day history of fever and watery non-bloody diarrhea. On physical examination, he appears dehydrated. What is the genome of the most likely infecting organism?

Answer Choices:
1. Double-stranded DNA
2. Non-segmented single-stranded positive-sense RNA
3. Segmented double-stranded RNA
4. Single-stranded DNA

A
  1. Segmented double-stranded RNA
68
Q

Question:
In addition to intense viral replication, what occurs during the acute phase of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) pathogenesis?

Answer Choices:
1. Depletion of CD4+ cells
2. Development of neoplasms
3. Manifestation of opportunistic infections
4. Spread to lymphoid tissue

A
  1. Spread to lymphoid tissue
69
Q

Question:
A 1-year-old girl presents to the pediatrician due to a 2-day history of watery non-bloody diarrhea. Physical examination reveals sunken eyes and poor skin turgor. What is the most likely causative agent?

Answer Choices:
1. Campylobacter
2. Norovirus
3. Rotavirus
4. Vibrio

A
  1. Rotavirus
70
Q

Question:
What is the upper limit of days for viral incubation of acute hepatitis B infection?

Answer Choices:
1. 60
2. 100
3. 180
4. 200

A
  1. 180
71
Q

Question:
A sexually active woman is seen for a routine gynecologic exam, including a Pap smear. The report indicated cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN). In situ hybridization showed the presence of human papillomavirus (HPV) type 16 genomes within the neoplastic cells.

What process is initially required for HPV to lead to the development of cancer?

Answer Choices
1. Integration of the viral genome
2. Loss of HPV E6 and E7 genes
3. Mutation of the virus
4. Viral replication

A
  1. Integration of the viral genome
72
Q

Question:
What virus causes the high fever and body rash of roseola?

Answer Choices
1. Coxsackievirus
2. Human herpesvirus 6
3. Parvovirus
4. Varicella zoster

A
  1. Human herpesvirus 6
73
Q

Question:
What type of progression of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is the most rapid and is seen in untreated patients?

Answer Choices:
1. Expedient
2. Moderate
3. Prolonged
4. Variable

A
  1. Expedient
74
Q

Question:
What symptom was pathognomonic of the bubonic plague “Black Death?”

Answer Choices:
1. Bloody sputum
2. Cough
3. Fatigue
4. Swollen lymph nodes

A
  1. Swollen lymph nodes
75
Q

Case:
A 2-week old newborn develops vesicular lesions in the oral area and chest, irritability, and poor feeding. The family indicates that the newborn’s grandmother was caring for her when she had orolabial vesicles on her lower lip.

Question:
What virus caused this symptomatology in the infant?

Answer Choices:
1. Herpes simplex virus 1
2. Herpes simplex virus 2
3. Herpes simplex virus 3
4. Herpes simplex virus 4

A
  1. Herpes simplex virus 1

PACAT (20 decks)

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