Practice Test Questions Flashcards
3.1 - Jaylon has recently been assigned a new project. Which of the following most likely helped create the project charter?
(A) Needs assessment, business case
(B) Business case, benefits management plan
(C) Needs assessment, benefits management plan
(C) Portfolio charter, needs assessment
Correct Answer: (B) Business case, benefits management plan
Explanation: Needs assessment drives a business case and the benefits management. The business case and benefits management plan lead to the creation of the project charter.
Crosswind 3.5.3
3.2 - You are brought into a planning meeting by senior management at your company. They inform you that you have been selected to be the project manager for a new project that will help the company create a new product line to be introduced about 4 years from now. This project is the result of which type of planning?
(A) Portfolio planning
(B) Program planning
(C) Strategic planning
(D) Product life cycle planning
Correct Answer: (C) Strategic planning
Explanation: Strategic planning is typically done three to five years in advance. It is very common for projects to be driven by strategic initiatives at a company. Product life cycle involves the entire cycle from “cradle-to-grave” for a product. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 3.3
3.3 - All the following are examples of projects interacting with operations except…
(A) Upgrading a factory line with new computer components
(B) Initiating the Go-live phase of a project
(C) Increasing output to meet unusually high customer demand
(D) Closing a large sales office
Correct Answer: (C) Increasing output to meet unusually high customer demand
Explanation: Accommodating high demand still falls under the realm of operations. Anticipating and scheduling daily, monthly, seasonal, or cyclical fluctuations are common duties for “operational” individuals. All other answers involve a project impacting the day-to-day operations in some significant way.
Crosswind 3.8
3.4 - Which of the following is an example of an enterprise environmental factor?
(A) Project life cycle documentation
(B) Stakeholder risk tolerance
(C) Standard performance measurement criteria
(D) Financial, change, and risk control procedures
Correct Answer: (B) Stakeholder risk tolerance
Explanation: All incorrect answers are examples of organizational process assets.
Crosswind 9.1.2
3.5 - Which of the following is the prioritized order of the project constraints?
(A) Schedule, risk, cost
(B) Quality, schedule, cost
(C) Scope, schedule, budget
(D) They are all of equal importance unless otherwise stated
Correct Answer: (D) They are all of equal importance unless otherwise stated
Explanation: The constraint of project management states that scope, quality, schedule, budget, resources, and risks are all equal unless otherwise defined as such.
Crosswind 3.9
3.6 - Which of the following is an example of a standard?
(A) The data transfer rate for Thunderbolt 3.0 connections
(B) The number of slides in your last presentation
(C) The shade of paint selected to paint your office
(D) The average speed that someone drives to work
Correct Answer: (A) The data transfer rate for Thunderbolt 3.0 connections
Explanation: A standard is a measurement for something that is consistent and generally accepted. In this case, the data transfer rate for Thunderbolt 3.0 connections is the only “standard” listed in the answers.
Crosswind 3.12
3.7 - Which of the following is the most accurate example of a portfolio?
(A) Creating a new version of a software application
(B) Building a housing development
(C) Daily operations at the company
(D) A product line of business applications
Correct Answer: (D) A product line of business applications
Explanation: A portfolio is typically comprised of a product or service line that aligns with a strategic goal of the organization, for example, a line of business applications. Creating a new version of a software application is an example of a project. Building a housing development is an example of a program. Daily operations describes the tasks and activities performed daily to keep the business functioning.
Crosswind 3.4.1
3.8 - Which of the following is another term for long-term planning?
(A) Project planning
(B) Program planning
(C) Strategic planning
(D) Portfolio planning
Correct Answer: (C) Strategic Planning
Explanation: Long term planning, also known as strategic planning, is the planning an organization does based on a projection of its business environment 3-5 years into the future. The organization then bases its portfolios, programs, and projects on this longer term, strategic plan. Project planning, program planning and portfolio planning are distracters as the terms normally used are portfolio management, program management, and project management.
Crosswind 3.3
3.9 - Which of the following represents the correct order for the implementation of governance framework?
(A) Improve, implement, plan, assess
(B) Implement, improve, plan, assess
(C) Assess, plan, implement, improve
(D) Assess, plan improve, implement
Correct Answer: (C) Assess, plan, implement, improve
Explanation: The correct order for the implementation of governance framework is assess, plan, implement, and improve.
Crosswind 3.1.3
3.10 - Which process updates progress and manages changes to the schedule baseline?
A) Control schedule
(B) Develop schedule management plan
(C) Direct and manage project work
(D) Create project management plan
Correct Answer: (A) Control schedule
Explanation: This is the basic definition of Control Schedule. There is no process called develop schedule management plan, though the schedule management plan (a document) would give guidance on the basic tools and techniques of HOW to update progress and manage changes through the Control Schedule process. Note the verb tense: “Which process updates progress and manages.” This implies doing it, not planning it, making Control Schedule the correct answer.
Crosswind 11.6
3.11 - Which of the following is the most accurate description of projects and portfolios?
(A) There is no difference between portfolio and project management
(B) Project management focuses on doing the right work; portfolio management focuses on doing the work right
(C) Portfolio management focuses on doing the right work; project management focuses on doing the work right
(D) Multiple portfolios make a project
Correct Answer: (C) Portfolio management focuses on doing the right work, project management focuses on doing the work right
Explanation: Portfolio management focuses on doing the right work to align with company strategy. Project management focuses on doing the work of the project correctly. Multiple projects (and programs) can make up a portfolio.
Crosswind 3.4.1
3.12 - In creating the benefits management plan, Dak is told by the portfolio review board that they have started using SMART to identify benefits to be in the plan. What most accurately describes SMART goals?
(A) Specific, measurable, audited, realistic, time-based
(B) Specific, managed, actual, realistic, time-based
(C) Scoped, measurable, actual, realistic, time-based
(D) Specific, measurable, actual, realistic, time-based
Correct Answer: (D) Specific, measurable, actual, realistic, time-based
Explanation: The SMART acronym represents specific, measurable, actual, realistic, time-based. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswinds 3.5.2
3.13 - Zeke is a project manager working with the PMO on an audit of his current running man product update project. The PMO wants to review various project documents including sign-off for certain change requests and accepted deliverables to ensure they were done correctly. Which project governance domain is being considered during this review?
(A) Alignment
(B) Performance
(C) Risk
(D) Communications
Correct Answer: (B) Performance
Explanation: The four governance domains are alignment, performance, risk, and communications. Performance is the domain considered because that domain monitors project results and assesses proposed changes. The alignment domain assesses adherence to project management methodology and ensures the alignment of project processes. The risk domain ensures adherence to risk management and assesses the maximization of opportunities and/or the elimination or minimization of threats. The communications domain controls organizational communication requirements.
Crosswind 3.1.1
3.14 - A new project has just completed the initiating process group. The planning process group is getting ready to begin. Which process has just been accomplished, and which process is getting ready to start?
(A) Develop project management plan and direct and manage project work
(B) Identify stakeholders and develop project management plan
(C) Develop project management plan and manage project knowledge
(D) Develop project charter and direct and manage project execution
Correct Answer: (B) Identify stakeholders and develop project management plan
Explanation: The initiating process group ends with the Identify Stakeholders process, and the planning process group begins with Develop Project Management Plan.
Crosswind 3.10.1
3.15 - A change control system is best described as which of the following?
(A) Enterprise environmental factor
(B) Process
(C) Organizational process asset
(D) Document
Correct Answer: (C) Organizational process asset
Explanation: A change control system is an organizational process asset that helps define how the organization does project management and is associated with the Perform Integrated Change Control process. An enterprise environmental factor is a factor that cannot be controlled by the project team but has a significant impact on how the project is managed or on the outcome of the project. A process asset is a plan, process, policy, procedure, or knowledge base specific to and used by the performing organization. A process is comprised of sequential procedures that are performed to convert inputs into outputs. A document is a material substance that contains a representation of a thought or thoughts.
Crosswind 3.6
3.16 - What is the difference between a project management life cycle and a project life cycle?
(A) They are the same
(B) The project management life cycle is the project management piece of the project and the project life cycle is the process of completing the work of the project
(C) The project management life cycle is done in the project and the project life cycle is done after the project is complete
(D) The project management life cycle is the process of completing the work of the project and the project life cycle is the project management piece of the project
Correct Answer: (B) The project management life cycle is the project management piece of the project and the project life cycle is the process of completing the work of the project.
Explanation: The project management life cycle (PMLC) is the project management methodology used on a project. The project life cycle applies to whatever is being built. It can be the software approach for a software project or a building approach for construction.
Crosswind 3.7
3.17 - The functional manager is planning the billing system replacement project with the newest project manager at the company. In discussing this project, the functional manager focuses on the cost associated with running the system after it is created and the number of years the system will last before it must be replaced. What best describes what the functional manager is focusing on?
(A) Project life cycle
(B) Product life cycle
(C) Project management life cycle
(D) Program management life cycle
Correct Answer: (B) Product life cycle
Explanation: The product life cycle focuses on the overall ownership cost of the product of the project, not just the project cost to create the product. The project life cycle involves the processes used to create the product of the project such as the steps to build a house or a computer system. The project management life cycle is the project management approach to the project. Program management life cycle is a distracter.
Crosswind 3.7
3.18 - Which of the following best describes regulatory requirements?
(A) Enterprise environmental factor
(B) Process
(C) Organizational process asset
(D) Document
Correct Answer: (A) Enterprise environmental factor
Explanation: An enterprise environmental factor is a factor that cannot be controlled by the project team but has a significant impact on how the project is managed or on the outcome of the project. A process asset is a plan, process, policy, procedure, or knowledge base specific to and used by the performing organization. A process is comprised of sequential procedures that are performed to convert inputs into outputs. A document is a material substance that contains a representation of a thought or thoughts.
Crosswind 3.6
3.19 - What is created in the initiating process group?
(A) Project charter and requirements documentation
(B) Project scope statement and various management plans
(C) Project charter and project knowledge
(D) Project charter and stakeholder register
Correct Answer: (D) Project charter and stakeholder register
Explanation: Answer D contains all documents created during the initiating process group. All others are created during the planning process group.
Crosswind 3.10.1
3.20 - Paul, the project manager, is in the process of identifying risks at the project level. He wants to make certain that his results align with risk at the highest level of the organization. Which organizational risk domain is at the highest level?
(A) Portfolio risk
(B) Program risk
(C) Governance risk
(D) Project risk
Correct Answer: (C) Governance risk
Explanation: Governance risk drives portfolio risk which influences program and project risk.
3.21 - Which of the following is the definition of program management?
(A) Managing related or similar projects in a coordinated way
(B) The process of computer program management
(C) Managing a television program
(D) Done for a purpose
Correct Answer: (A) Managing related or similar projects in a coordinated way
Explanation: Program management utilizes a coordinated management of related projects. Done for a purpose is a characteristic of a project. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 3.5
3.22 - What is included in the alignment domain of organizational governance?
A) Functions and processes required to create and maintain an overall integrated governance structure and framework
(B) Functions and processes used to align KPIs with the realization of business value
(C) Functions and processes used to manage threats and opportunities in order to balance risk and reward
(D) Functions and processes used to exchange information, engage stakeholders, and drive organizational change
Correct Answer: (A) Functions and processes required to create and maintain an overall integrated governance structure and framework
Explanation: The alignment domain includes the functions and processes required to create and maintain an overall integrated governance structure and framework. The performance domain includes the functions and processes used to align KPIs with the realization of business value. The risk domain includes the functions and processes used to manage threats and opportunities in order to balance risk and reward. The communications domain includes the functions and processes used to exchange information, engage stakeholders, and drive organizational change.
Crosswind 3.1.1
3.23 - What are the five process groups used in the Project Management Institute, Inc. approach to project management?
(A) Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, closing
(B) Initiating, planning, executing, testing, sign off
(C) Requirements, system development, testing, UAT, sign off
(D) Initiating, planning, executing, testing, closure
Correct Answer: (A) Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, closing
Explanation: Per the PMBOK® Guide, the process groups that make up the PMI® methodology or “project management life cycle” are initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing.
Crosswind 3.10.1
3.24 - Which of the following is an advantage of a projectized organization?
(A) Business unit competency
(B) Optimization for a single focus on the project
(C) Having to get approval from functional management
(D) A place to go when the project is complete
Correct Answer: (B) Optimization for a single focus on the project
Explanation: Optimization for a single focus on the project means that the team can focus on what the work of the project is and usually only that. The other answers are associated with functional organizations.
Crosswind 4.6.3
3.25 - What is the name of the comprehensive document created during the planning process group?
(A) Project charter
(B) Project scope statement
(C) Project management plan
(D) A signed contract
Correct Answer: (C) Project management plan
Explanation: The main output of the planning process group is the project management plan. The project charter comes from Initiation. The project scope statement is created during the planning process group, but it’s far less comprehensive than the project management plan. A signed contract is a distracter.
Crosswind 3.10.1
3.26 - What is included in the communications domain of organizational governance?
(A) Functions and processes required to create and maintain an overall integrated governance structure and framework
(B) Functions and processes used to align KPIs with the realization of business value
(C) Functions and processes used to manage threats and opportunities in order to balance risk and reward
(D) Functions and processes used to exchange information, engage stakeholders, and drive organizational change
Correct Answer: (D) Functions and processes used to exchange information, engage stakeholders, and drive organizational change
Explanation: The communications domain includes the functions and processes used to exchange information, engage stakeholders, and drive organizational change. The alignment domain includes the functions and processes required to create and maintain an overall integrated governance structure and framework. The performance domain includes the functions and processes used to align KPIs with the realization of business value. The risk domain includes the functions and processes used to manage threats and opportunities in order to balance risk and reward.
Crosswind 3.1.1
3.27 - The data warehouse project is about halfway complete at a major retail client. Your company is doing the implementation and has 12 team members in various locations across three different buildings. Communication and team building has been a real challenge. Which of the following would fix or improve this problem?
(A) Changing the organization to a functional structure
(B) Colocation
(C) Replacing the project manager
(D) Hiring project coordinators
Correct Answer: (B) Colocation
Explanation: Colocation is the process of putting personnel closer together or in the same room to help with team building and project communication.
Crosswind 4.6.3
3.28 - The project management life cycle is similar to which of the following?
(A) Project life cycle
(B) SDLC
(C) Plan-do-check-act
(D) Use case analysis
Correct Answer: (C) Plan-do-check-act
Explanation: Plan-do-check-act is defined by the American Society for Quality as an approach to process development. It can show how the project management life cycle components co-exist or overlap. The project life cycle builds the work of the project. SDLC and use case analysis are software development approaches.
Crosswind 3.10.2
3.29 - Which of the following is not a regulation?
(A) The building code for a city
(B) The documented way to dispose of old computers
(C) The average speed on a street in a day
(D) The zoning for an area
Correct Answer: (C) The average speed on a street in a day
Explanation: The average speed on a street in a day is simply a value. It’s not a regulation, which the other answers are. The other answers have defined criteria that they must meet to be acceptable.
Crosswind 3.12
3.30 - What is included in the performance domain of organizational governance?
(A) Functions and processes required to create and maintain an overall integrated governance structure and framework
(B) Functions and processes used to align KPIs with the realization of business value
(C) Functions and processes used to manage threats and opportunities in order to balance risk and reward
(D) Functions and processes used to exchange information, engage stakeholders, and drive organizational change
Correct Answer: (B) Functions and processes used to align KPIs with the realization of business value
Explanation: The performance domain includes the functions and processes used to align KPIs with the realization of business value. The alignment domain includes the functions and processes required to create and maintain an overall integrated governance structure and framework. The risk domain includes the functions and processes used to manage threats and opportunities in order to balance risk and reward. The communications domain includes the functions and processes used to exchange information, engage stakeholders, and drive organizational change.
Crosswind 3.1.1
What is an organization that controls project managers, documentation, and policies called?
(A) Project management office
(B) Tight matrix
(C) Functional
(D) Projectized
Correct Answer: (A) Project management office
Explanation: The project management office (PMO) can control project managers, documentation and policies or anything else needed within reason for the management of projects within an organization.
Exam Tip of the Day #1
Which of the following is the least desirable reason to pursue a project?
(A) To increase market penetration for the top two customers by 13%
(B) To increase employee satisfaction by 6%
(C) To provide regulatory compliance
(D) To ensure that all technology in place at key branches is less than three years old
Correct Answer: (D) To ensure that all technology in place at key branches is less than three years old
Explanation: Without additional information, there is no indication that technology in place is unreliable or insufficient for the task. All other answers are desirable, including employee satisfaction. As a general rule, satisfied employees are more productive and less likely to seek other employment opportunities.
Exam Tip of the Day #2
What is the most significant benefit of having the project management team’s assistance in creating the work breakdown structure?
(A) It establishes the project manager’s authority
(B) It helps generate a more accurate budget
(C) It helps attain buy-in from the team doing the work
(D) It helps generate a more accurate schedule
Correct Answer: (C) It helps attain buy-in from the team doing the work
Explanation: Having the project team assist in the creation of the WBS has a number of positive benefits. The most positive benefit is obtaining buy-in from the people doing the work. Though the WBS is reviewed later in the planning process group to create the budget and schedule, it is the team’s buy-in (and experience) that drives the accuracy of all future documents. As a minor point, schedule and budget are equally important, and thus neither answer by itself could be the “best” answer. Authority comes from the project charter.
Exam Tip of the Day #3
Calculate the variance for the following: Pessimistic=12, Optimistic=2, Realistic=
(A) 5
(B) 2.79
(C) 5.67
(D) Not enough information
Correct Answer: (B) 2.79
Explanation: The formula for variance is ((Pessimistic – Optimistic) divided by 6)² or (P – O) / 6)The answer is 2.7.
Exam Tip of the Day #4
Activity A is worth $200, is 100% complete, should have been done on day one, and actually cost $200. Activity B is worth $75, is 90% complete, should have been done on day two, and actually cost $120 so far. Activity C is worth $200, is 75% complete and should have been done on day three and has cost $175 so far. The total budget is $1,000. What is the planned value as of day two?
(A) $275.00
(B) -$417.50
(C) $495.00
(D) -$275.00
Correct Answer (A) $275.00
Explanation: The planned value as of day two is $275.00. Obtain this value by adding the planned value (PV) of Activity A ($200) and B ($75), which should have been done as of day two on the project.
Exam Tip of the Day #5
The project manager has concerns about the software developer’s project work in terms of quality and has spoken to the developer about this on several occasions. This involvement derives from the relationship between project management and quality management that should complement each other. What specifically is the relationship between the two?
(A) Both focus on management responsibility, fulfillment of requirements, continuous improvement, prevention over inspection, and product excellence
(B) Both focus on management responsibility, continuous improvement, prevention over inspection, and customer satisfaction
(C) Both focus on management responsibility, fulfillment of requirements, continuous improvement, prevention over inspection, and customer satisfaction
(D) Both focus on management responsibility, continuous improvement, prevention over inspection, and product excellence
Correct Answer: (B) Both focus on management responsibility, continuous improvement, prevention over inspection, and customer satisfaction
Explanation: The relationship between project management and quality management is that both focus on management responsibility, continuous improvement, prevention over inspection, and customer satisfaction.
Exam Tip of the Day #6
Of the following statements, which is correct?
(A) The key output of the plan resource management process is the resource management plan
(B) The key output of the plan resource management process is the staffing management plan
(C) The key output of the acquire project team process is the resource management plan
(D) The key output of the acquire project team process is the staffing management plan
Correct Answer: (A) The key output of the plan resource management process is the resource management plan
Explanation: The key output of the Plan Resource Management process is the resource management plan.
Exam Tip of the Day #7
There are 45 communication channels on the project. How many people are on the project team?
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 5
(D) 15
Correct Answer: (B) 10
Explanation: Ten is the number of team members on the project. This is established by applying the formula, N x (N-1) /2 to the answers and seeing that 10 people produces 45 channels. 10 x (10-1) /2=4.
Exam Tip of the Day #8
Calculate EMV from the following: 0.4 probability of $6,500, 0.3 probability of -$3,200, 0.2 probability of $2,000, 0.1 probability of $1,000.
(A) $10,500
(B) $2,700
(C) $2,140
(D) $2,500
Correct Answer: (C) $2,140
Explanation: To calculate the expected monetary value (EMV), multiply each probability by its dollar amount and add the products of all multiplication. The result is a value of $2,140.
Exam Tip of the Day #9
The project is using a company to provide the technicians for a national network upgrade project. Presently, the buyer is having issues with the seller accomplishing the work of the project according to the contract schedule. The buyer lets the seller know that it is in default for failure to execute per terms of the contract. The buyer also decides to stop payment for work already accomplished until the issue is resolved. What most accurately describes this situation?
(A) The buyer is right in stopping payment until the issue is resolved
(B) The buyer is wrong in stopping payment until the issue is resolved
(C) Both sides appear to be in default of the contract
(D) The seller is wrong and needs to correct the situation
Correct Answer: (C) Both sides appear to be in default of the contract
Explanation: A seller who fails to perform as defined in the contract is in default of the contract. The buyer choosing to stop payment creates a default situation as well. Two wrongs do not make a right in this case. The buyer is not right in stopping payment just because the other side is in default. The other answers are both accurate, but they are not the best answer.
Exam Tip of the Day #10
During which process is the project manager most likely to increase support and minimize resistance from stakeholders?
(A) Identify stakeholders
(B) Plan stakeholder management
(C) Manage stakeholder engagement
(D) Control stakeholder engagement
Correct Answer: (C) Manage stakeholder engagement
Explanation: The Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is the execution of the stakeholder engagement plan. Some of the key goals of the stakeholder engagement plan are to maximize stakeholder engagement, minimize stakeholder resistance and adjust expectations as applicable. The Identify Stakeholders process creates the stakeholder register and identifies stakeholders. The Plan Stakeholder Engagement process creates, among other documentation, the stakeholder engagement plan. The Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process creates, among other documentation, work performance information.
Exam Tip of the Day #11
You are a project manager involved in the procurement of $2,000,000 of infrastructure equipment. As negotiations begin between your company and the vendor, you are approached by the vendor’s sales representative who offers you a trip to Jamaica if you can “help” the process along. What is your professional and social responsibility?
(A) Decline the trip until after the contract has been signed
(B) The work you have put in on the project has been demanding, and you deserve the trip
(C) Decline the trip and have it offered to your manager
(D) Decline the trip because it is not in the best interest of the company
Correct Answer: (D) Decline the trip because it is not in the best interest of the company
Explanation: According to professional and social responsibility, a project manager must refrain from offering or accepting inappropriate payments, gifts, or other forms of compensation. Both accepting the trip and declining the trip until after the contract has been signed break the PMI® Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. Declining the trip and having it offered to your manager creates a conflict of interest for your manager.
Exam Tip of the Day #12
You are brought into a planning meeting by senior management at your company. They inform you that you have been selected to be the project manager for a new project that will help the company create a new product line to be introduced about four years from now. This project is the result of what type of planning?
(A) Portfolio planning
(B) Program planning
(C) Strategic planning
(D) Product life cycle planning
Correct Answer: (C) Strategic planning
Explanation: Strategic planning is typically done three to five years in advance. It is very common for projects to be driven by strategic initiatives at a company. Product life cycle involves the entire life cycle from “cradle to grave” for a product. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #13
Sign-off has just occurred on the project charter. There are items in the project charter that mandate a specific vendor and describe the maximum amount of physical and computer storage space available to the team. These are examples of what?
(A) Assumptions that impact the project
(B) Constraints that impact the project
(C) Risks of the project
(D) Activity resource requirements
Correct Answer: (B) Constraints that impact the project
Explanation: Constraints are variables that limit the team’s options. They typically deal with resources, time, or money. Assumptions are educated guesses made on the project about items that are not known. Risks deal with varying degrees of unknowns that may generate risks. Activity resource requirements are generated later in the planning process group.
Exam Tip of the Day #14
The approval of the project charter has been delayed for weeks due to market fluctuation. Upon approval, you are assigned as the project manager and senior management wants you to begin the planning process group immediately. When will you schedule validate scope?
(A) At the end of every phase on the project
(B) After the sponsor defines what they want the project to create
(C) When the project management plan is awaiting sign off
(D) When the work of the project is done
Correct Answer: (A) At the end of every phase on the project
Explanation: It is better to schedule scope validation more frequently on a project instead of simply waiting until the end. Such validation makes it possible to detect issues early in the project, facilitating adjustment of work as the project evolves. Scheduling the process after the sponsors define what they want the project to create is too early in the project to do scope validation.
Exam Tip of the Day #15
The project manager of a natural gas discovery software development project is known for his adherence to Deming’s Total Quality Management philosophy. Which of the following approaches to quality can the project team expect him to utilize?
(A) Be proactive, not reactive
(B) Utilize leadership and accountability
(C) Constant improvement
(D) All the answers
Correct Answer: (D) All the answers
Explanation: Deming’s Total Quality Management philosophy advocates an approach to quality that is proactive, that utilizes leadership and accountability, and that promotes continuous improvement.
Exam Tip of the Day #18
In reference to planning for the resource knowledge area, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
(A) The resource management plan is used to create the resource breakdown structure
(B) The project management plan is part of the resource management plan
(C) The resource management plan contains only non-personnel resource related details
(D) The resource management plan contains only personnel resource related details
Correct Answer: (A) The resource management plan is used to create the resource breakdown structure
Explanation: The resource breakdown structure can be created based on approaches detailed in the resource management plan. The resource management plan is part of the project management plan. The resource management plan includes approaches for personnel and non-personnel resources.
Exam Tip of the Day #19
The project manager and his team spend a great deal of time in meetings. Which of the following is not a good reason to cancel a meeting?
(A) The agenda wasn’t published until right before the meeting
(B) A key team member had to attend a different meeting
(C) A functional manager wanted to meet with the project manager at the same time
(D) The topic partially changed, and the presentation material wasn’t complete yet
Correct Answer: (C) A functional manager wanted to meet with the project manager at the same time
Explanation: The functional manager’s decision to meet with the project manager at the same time as an existing team meeting is not a good reason to cancel a meeting. The project manager should offer to schedule a meeting for a different time with the functional manager because project-related work has a higher priority.
Exam Tip of the Day #20
Task C on the project has an ES of day three, an EF of day seven and an LS of day seven. Which of the following best describes this task?
(A) It has slack (float) of zero days
(B) It is behind schedule
(C) It has slack (float) of four days and duration of five days
(D) It has slack (float) of zero days and duration of four days
Correct Answer: (C) It has slack (float) of four days and duration of five days
Explanation: The task has a slack (float) of four days and a duration of five days. The slack (float) is calculated by subtracting the ES of day three from the LS of day seven for a slack (float) of four days. To calculate the duration, do not subtract the early start day from the early finish day. Count the early start day, the early finish day, and each day in between: in this case, count day three, day four, day five, day six, and day seven for a duration of five days.
Exam Tip of the Day #16
In defining a risk trigger, which of the following is most accurate?
(A) A trigger is an indicator that a risk event could occur in the near future
(B) A trigger is the same as a risk
(C) A trigger is an indicator that a risk event has definitely occurred
(D) A trigger is an indicator that a risk event will definitely occur
Correct Answer: (A) A trigger is an indicator that a risk event could occur in the near future
Explanation: A trigger is an indication that a risk event could occur in the near future. Just because a trigger occurs, don’t automatically assume that the risk will occur.
In reports, a few key performance indicators seem contradictory.
Most, however, point in the same direction. Lessons learned
indicate that stakeholders sometimes misinterpret the reports
because of this. How should the project manager use metrics
from this project?
A. Use only those metrics that point in the same direction
B. Use only those metrics that have a clear link to strategic goals.
C. Use all of the metrics but add a training class for stakeholder report interpretation.
D. Use all of the metrics but introduce software to combine them in one score.
Correct Answer: (B) Use only those metrics that have a clear link to strategic goals.
Explanation: using ALL would mean you use more than just the KPI metrics.
Class 4 - Rice
Question like this will be on the test
The best type of team space includes having the team to be set
up in what way?
A. Virtual
B. How the team decides to be set up
C. Colocated
D. A combination of colocated and virtual
Correct Answer: (C) Colocated
Explanation: A best practice would state that the team be colocated for the best
performance. There are many teams that are virtual or a combination
of both, but the best practice is to be call located for at least one or
two iterations.
Class 4 - Rice
Question like this will be on the test
Your project is in a critical phase. You notice one of the team members comes in
late into office and leaves early. This is clearly impacting delivery. You decide to
discuss the details with the concerned team member to better understand the
details. On discussion you find no specific reasons so you explain the necessity and
criticality of the project expecting the team member improves. However next week
your lead engineer reports about inadequate time being spent by the same person
in office. What would be the best choice of communication in this case?
A. Informal and verbal
B. Formal and written
C. Informal and written
D. Formal and verbal
Correct Answer: (B) Formal and written
Explanation: In this case you have already tried out the option of discussing
with the team member once - which is an example of Informal
verbal. Clearly that has not worked so it calls for a stricter
Class 4 - Rice
What Tuckman stage is a team in if they move from
independence to the ability to get more done as a whole than
they could get done individually?
A. Forming
B. Norming
C. Storming
D. Performing
Correct Answer: (D) Performing
Explanation: Performing is when the team starts working as a team.
Class 4 - Rice
A project was estimated to cost $1.5 million and scheduled to
last six months. After three months, the earned value
analysis shows the following:
EV = $650,000
PV = $750,000
AC = $800,000
What are the schedule and cost variances?
A) SV= $100,000; CV= $150,000
B) SV= $150,000 / CV= ($100,000)
C) SV= ($50,000) / CV= $150,000
D) SV= ($100,000) / CV= ($150,000)
Correct Answer: (D) SV= ($100,000) / CV= ($150,000)
Class 4 - Rice
Which of the following best defines the value of the work actually completed?
A) Planned value
B) Actual cost
C) Present value
D) Earned value
Correct Answer: (D) Earned Value
Class 4 - Rice
To ensure various teams involved in a company-wide product development effort are not wasting time or encountering any unnecessary bottlenecks, which of the following would be the most helpful to identify issues in the teams’ processes?
A) Velocity charts
B) Kanban boards
C) Value stream maps
D) Kickoff meetings
Correct Answer: (C) Value stream maps
Class 4 - Rice
The contract is expected to cost $560K. Actual cost is $510K. There is a 50%/50% share of any cost savings. What is the total value of the contract?
(A) $535K
(B) $510K
(C) $560K
(D) $610K
Correct Answer: (A) $535K
Explanation: The $560K is the expected value of the contract and the actual cost of the contract is $510K, resulting in a savings of $50K. $25K of the savings goes to the seller and the other $25K goes to the buyer. The actual cost of $510K and $25K savings share makes the total value of the contract worth $535K.
You learn that someone has been hired as a PM in-process. You ask him about this provision because you are not familiar with an “in-process” specialization in the PM certification. The employer apparently assumed that this provision was a specialization in the certification when actually the person being hired was simply trying to indicate that he was studying for the exam. What would have best eliminated this confusion?
(A) The person being interviewed should have clarified the status to the employer when the confusion became apparent
(B) The employer should have known more about the PM certification
(C) The employer should have confirmed the certification on the PMI® website
(D) The employee should have kept quiet until he passed the test
Correct Answer: (A) The person being interviewed should have clarified the status to the employer when the confusion became apparent
Explanation: Regardless of your status, you should be professionally responsible and let someone know of any misinterpretation associated with your background or qualifications. The other answers are not correct because the responsibility falls on the person to report accurate information in a timely manner.
Exam Tip of the Day #24
All the following are examples of projects interacting with operations except…
(A) Upgrading a factory line with new computer components
(B) Initiating the Go-live phase of a project
(C) Increasing output to meet unusually high customer demand
(D) Closing a large sales office
Correct Answer: (C) Increasing output to meet unusually high customer demand
Explanation: Accommodating high demand still falls under the realm of operations. Anticipating and scheduling daily, monthly, seasonal, or cyclical fluctuations are common duties for “operational” individuals. All other answers involve a project impacting the day-to-day operations in some significant way.
Exam Tip of the Day #25
The project to create a new drill type for an oil exploration initiation has been in progress for twelve months. Of the following, what best describes when it closes?
(A) When the validate scope process is completed for the project
(B) When the project is canceled
(C) When the project funds are depleted
(D) All of the answers
Correct Answer: (D) All of the answers
Explanation: Whenever a project ends, it should be formally closed. This closure allows the team and organization to learn what worked and what didn’t on the project and to formally close out the initiative. When a project completes the Validate Scope process, the deliverables of the project are formally accepted and thus, the project is complete. When a project is cancelled or when it runs out of money the administrative activities associated with closure of the project are conducted.
Exam Tip of the Day #26
During what processes is work decomposition performed?
(A) Create WBS and define activities
(B) Define scope and create WBS
(C) Define activities and control schedule
(D) Create WBS and control scope
Correct Answer: (A) Creating the WBS and define activities
Explanation: The work of the project is decomposed in the Create WBS process to establish work packages and in the Define Activities process (Schedule knowledge area) to create activity lists. No other process involves the systematic break down of work elements.
Exam Tip of the Day #27
Which of the following is an example of a lag?
(A) The latest a new system can be ordered from the manufacturer without delaying the project
(B) The critical path
(C) A delay after the sheetrock (wallboard) is done in a house to allow it to dry before continuing work in that area
(D) The earliest a new system can be ordered from the manufacturer
Correct Answer: (C) A delay after the sheetrock (wallboard) is done in a house to allow it to dry before continuing work in that area
Explanation: A delay after the sheetrock is done to allow it to dry before continuing work in that area is an example of a lag. The delay is not part of either activity but occurs between the activities. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #28
Project A has an NPV of $150K over three years. Project B has an NPV of $330K over six years. Project C has an NPV of $170K over six years. Which of the following do you select?
(A) Project A
(B) Project B
(C) Project C
(D) Project A and C
Correct Answer: (B) Project B
Explanation: Project B is the most attractive project because it has the highest dollar amount. The years listed with the NPV are distracters because they are already factored into the dollar amount of the project. Project A and C are of less value than Project B.
Exam Tip of the Day #29
You are the manager of a project where two stakeholders have conflicting ideas about the reporting application that will be used. Stakeholder one wants to use the existing application (a proprietary software) because he is familiar with it. Stakeholder two wants to use an alternate application (a cloud based software), because it is new and has good reviews. The project management plan references the proprietary software. The project charter references the cloud based software. The circumstances surrounding the project do not impact the reporting software choice. Which application should you choose?
To decide on the application, the project manager must first consider the reason for
the project, the market conditions or business needs, and the project priority. Since none of those impact the decision, the project manager then considers the project charter. In this case, the project charter indicates the alternate application is to be used, so the correct answer is the alternate application.
Even though the project management plan references the existing proprietary application, the application cited in the project charter takes precedence.
Ch. 6 - Pg 175
The project manager and his team are using an Ishikawa or fishbone diagram as part of the quality component for the coal extraction project. Of the following, which best describes the reason they are utilizing this diagram?
(A) To assess the defects which are creating quality issues
(B) To evaluate project activities that have the potential to create defects
(C) To review symptoms to determine the source of the defects
(D) B and C
Correct Answer: (D) B and C
Explanation: Ishikawa diagrams are utilized in the Plan Quality Management process to evaluate project activities that have the potential to create defects. Ishikawa diagrams are utilized after the planning process to review symptoms in an effort to determine the source of the defects. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #30
6.1 - You are the project manager on an oil exploration project. You have just landed on the oil rig in the ocean and are reviewing the stakeholder register to see who your stakeholders are, their goals and needs. What process will you perform next?
(A) Plan stakeholder management
(B) Plan stakeholder engagement
(C) Manage stakeholder engagement
(D) Plan communications management
Correct Answer: (B) Plan stakeholder engagement
Explanation: Plan stakeholder engagement is the process that follows identify stakeholders. Manage stakeholder engagement follows plan stakeholder engagement. Plan stakeholder management is a distracter. Plan communications management is a communications process.
Crosswind 6.3
6.2 - Maxron electrical has won the contract to install wireless networking in Lincoln stadium in Darlington Hills. This is a very complex contract because there are a number of stakeholders involved: the owner of Lincoln stadium, various companies associated with the owner, and the city of Darlington Hills. What documentation will be most effective for organizing the stakeholders?
(A) Stakeholder register
(B) Stakeholder engagement plan
(C) Issue log
(D) Charter
Correct Answer: (A) Stakeholder register
Explanation: The stakeholder register is used to identify stakeholders and provide key information about them. The stakeholder engagement plan is used to provide direction for managing stakeholder engagement. The issue log is used to track issues and provide key information about them. The charter is the basis of the project and provides initial high-level information about the project.
Crosswind 6.2
6.3 - All of the following are descriptions derived from analytical techniques used in stakeholder management except…
(A) Nonresistant
(B) Neutral
(C) Supportive
(D) Leading
Correct Answer: (A) Nonresistant
Explanation: Stakeholder engagement levels are typically described as unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive and leading.
Crosswind 6.3.2
6.4 - The marketing brochure redesign project is entering the manage stakeholder engagement process. To effectively manage stakeholder engagement, the project manager has a variety of tools and techniques available during this process. What are they?
(A) Interpersonal and team skills, communication feedback, and ground rules (B) Communications methods, alternatives analysis, and management skills (C) Communications skills, communications management plan, and management skills
(D) Product analysis, communications methods, and management skills
Correct Answer: (A) Interpersonal and team skills, communication feedback, and ground rules
Explanation: The tools and techniques for the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process are: expert judgment, inspection, communication, feedback, interpersonal and team skills, conflict management, cultural awareness, negotiation, observation/conversation, political awareness, ground rules, and meetings.
Crosswind 6.4
6.5 - Sam is running a project to upgrade a client’s website to a new framework. Expectation management has been very challenging on this project. Sam has had challenges keeping the main sponsor involved as the project has evolved. Currently Sam is managing stakeholder engagement. Which of the following best describes what he will expect to create?
(A) Updates to the stakeholder engagement plan, change log and issue log
(B) Approved change requests and updated stakeholder registry
(C) Resolved issues and approved change requests
(D) Updated stakeholder registry, resolved issues, and change reques
Correct Answer: (A) Updates to the stakeholder engagement plan, change log and issue log
Explanation: The outputs for the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process are change requests, project management plan updates, communication management plan updates, stakeholder engagement plan updates, project documents updates, change log updates issue log updates, lessons learned register updates and stakeholder register updates.
Crosswind 6.4
6.6 - The project to update the retail store to accommodate the new video game platform is ready for initial planning. Stakeholders have been identified. What documentation will be created as a result of the identification?
(A) Stakeholder register
(B) Stakeholder management plan
(C) Issue log
(D) Charter
Correct Answer: (A) Stakeholder register
Explanation: The stakeholder register is used to identify stakeholders and provide key information about them. This is the main output of the identify stakeholders process. The stakeholder engagement plan is used to provide direction for managing stakeholder engagement. The issue log is used to track issues and provide key information about them. The charter is the basis of the project and provides initial high-level information about the project.
Crosswind 6.2
6.7 - All of the following interpersonal or soft skills are applicable to managing stakeholder engagement except…
(A) Building trust
(B) Resolving conflict
(C) Passive listening
(D) Overcoming resistance to change
Correct Answer: (C) Passive listening
Explanation: Interpersonal or soft skills applicable to managing stakeholder engagement are building trust, resolving conflict, active listening, and overcoming resistance to change.
Crosswind 6.4
6.8 - During the plan stakeholder engagement process for the accounting system upgrade project, what tools and techniques are available to the project manager?
(A) Issue logs, stakeholder analysis, reporting systems, and approved change requests
(B) Expert judgment, meetings, and mind mapping
(C) Management skills, communication methods, stakeholder analysis, and interpersonal skills
(D) Stakeholder analysis, issue logs, and approved change request
Correct Answer: (B) Expert judgment, meetings, and mind mapping
Explanation: The tools and techniques for the plan stakeholder management process are expert judgment, data gathering, benchmarking, data analysis, assumption and constraint analysis, mind mapping, root cause analysis, stakeholder engagement assessment matrix, SWOT analysis, decision-making, prioritization/ranking, and meetings.
Crosswind 6.3
6.9 - Which processes does the project manager use to manage the project stakeholders?
(A) Plan stakeholder engagement, manage stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement
(B) Identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder engagement, manage stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement
(C) Identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement
(D) Identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder engagement, manage stakeholder engagem
Correct Answer: (B) Identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder engagement, manage stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement
Explanation: The processes associated with the stakeholder knowledge area are Identify Stakeholders, Plan Stakeholder Engagement, Manage Stakeholder Engagement, and Monitor Stakeholder Engagement.
Crosswind 6 - Intro
6.10 - During the identify stakeholders process, the project manager of the security project has what key tools and techniques at his disposal?
(A) Stakeholder analysis, stakeholder management strategy chart, and expert judgment
(B) Power/interest grid, stakeholder analysis, and expert judgment
(C) Stakeholder management strategy chart, stakeholder analysis, power/interest grid, and expert judgment
(D) Expert judgment and stakeholder analysis
Correct Answer: (D) Expert judgment and stakeholder analysis
Explanation: The tools and techniques for the Identify Stakeholder process are expert judgment, data gathering, questionnaires and surveys, brainstorming, data analysis, stakeholder analysis, document analysis, and meetings.
Crosswind 6.2
6.11 - To effectively manage stakeholders to increase support for and minimize negative impact to a project, project managers often rely on strategy tools during the identify stakeholders process. A key tool is the stakeholder register. Of the following, which best represents typical matrix entries?
(A) Level of impact on the project, strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact, stakeholder name, level of interest in the project, requirements for level of communication
(B) Level of interest in the project, stakeholder name, political influence within the organization, strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact
(C) Strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact, level of interest in the project, stakeholder name, level of impact on the project
(D) Requirements for level of communication, stakeholder name, level of interest in the project, political influence within the organization, strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact
Correct Answer: (C) Strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact, level of interest in the project, stakeholder name, level of impact on the project
Explanation: The stakeholder analysis matrix typically contains the stakeholder name, level of interest in the project, strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact, and level of impact on the project. The other answers are noise.
Crosswind 6.2
6.12 - The chief financial officer of the mortgage banking company has been reassigned to the IT department and will have no further involvement in the financial department. Which of the following documents should be updated for the Tax Laws Accounting Upgrade project?
(A) Stakeholder register
(B) Power/interest grid
(C) Stakeholder register and power/interest grid
(D) Issue log
Correct Answer: (C) Stakeholder register and power/interest grid
Explanation: The stakeholder register and the power/interest grid for the project should be updated to reflect the appropriate information for the CFO and his replacement.
Crosswind 6.2
6.13 - Which of the following is the best description of stakeholders?
(A) All persons and groups that are impacted by the project and have a job because of the project
(B) All persons who are members of the project team and their job changes because of the project
(C) All persons that are impacted by the project, have a job because of the project, and/or consider themselves stakeholders
(D) All persons who consider themselves stakeholders and have a job because of the project
Correct Answer: (C) All persons that are impacted by the project, have a job because of the project, and/or consider themselves stakeholders
Explanation: Stakeholders can be team members or any persons or groups that are impacted by the project, have a job because of the project, or consider themselves stakeholders.
Crosswind 6.2
6.14 - You are a project manager and have just created the stakeholder engagement plan. What process will you perform next?
(A) Identify stakeholder
(B) Manage stakeholder engagement
(C) Monitor stakeholder engagement
(D) Monitor communications
Correct Answer: (B) Manage stakeholder engagement
Explanation: Plan stakeholder engagement creates the stakeholder engagement plan. Manage stakeholder engagement follows plan stakeholder engagement. Identify stakeholders precedes plan stakeholder engagement. Monitor stakeholder engagement follows manage stakeholder engagement. Monitor communications is a communications process.
Crosswind 6.4
6.15 - Which of the processes can update the issue log?
(A) Identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder engagement, manage stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement
(B) Identify stakeholders, manage stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement
(C) Plan stakeholder engagement, manage stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement
(D) Identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder engagement, manage stakeholder engagement
Correct Answer: (B) Identify stakeholders, manage stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement
Explanation: Three of the four stakeholder processes can result in the issue log being updated. They are identify stakeholder, manage stakeholder engagement, and monitor stakeholder engagement.
Crosswind 6.2, 6.4, 6.5
6.16 - You are a project manager and have just discovered that your sponsor who is the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) on your project has changed. The sponsor is now the Chief Information Officer (CIO). Previously the CIO was a key stakeholder, but not the sponsor. Which of the following documents would you update first?
(A) The stakeholder register
(B) The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
(C) The stakeholder engagement plan
(D) The issue log
Correct Answer: (A) The stakeholder register
Explanation: The stakeholder register would be the first document to be updated, as that would reflect changes in stakeholders and roles. The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix would be used to identify gaps between stakeholder engagement and needed levels of engagement. The stakeholder engagement plan identifies how to engage stakeholders. The issue log contains items that require attention.
Crosswind 6.2
6.17 - During which process is the stakeholder engagement plan created?
(A) Identify stakeholders
(B) Plan stakeholder engagement
(C) Manage stakeholder engagement
(D) Control stakeholder engagement
Correct Answer: (B) Plan stakeholder engagement
Explanation: The Plan Stakeholder Engagement process creates, among other documentation, the stakeholder engagement plan. The Identify Stakeholders process creates the stakeholder register. The Manage Stakeholder Engagement process creates, among other documentation, change requests and project management plan updates.
Crosswind 6.3
6.18 - Given the complex nature of projects, which area of change generally has the highest impact?
(A) A change in the company that is creating the project
(B) A change in the market for which the work of the project is intended
(C) A change in the team on the project
(D) A change in the project
Correct Answer: (B) A change in the market for which the work of the project is intended
Explanation: The highest impact is a change in the market for which the work of the project is intended. A negative change could result in a radically altered or eliminated market. A positive change could result in a totally reinvented market.
Crosswind 6.1.1
6.19 - Your company is doing market analysis to see about creating a next generation thermostat that will increase the efficiency of home energy use and can be controlled by a smartphone. While the company is evaluating the market potential for this product and determining its target audience, which of the following stakeholder groups will they likely engage?
(A) Distribution customers
(B) End users
(C) Regulatory agencies
(D) Advertising agencies
Correct Answer: (B) End users
Explanation: Your company will engage the end users, probably selected as a focus group, since they can provide feedback on their interest in purchasing the product. Other stakeholder groups would have a lesser influence or their influence would be greatest at another point in the project. Distribution customers would influence the product’s deployment. Regulatory agencies would influence product requirements. Advertising agencies would influence the marketing of the product.
Crosswind 6.2
6.20 - You are a new project manager on an existing project. You discover varying roles and goals of stakeholders and see that some stakeholders are not doing what is needed on the project regarding involvement. You want to put a strategy in place to better align stakeholder engagement. Which of the following documents would you create or update?
(A) The stakeholder register
(B) The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
(C) The stakeholder engagement plan
(D) The issue log
Correct Answer: (B) The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
Explanation: The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix would be used to identify gaps between stakeholder engagement and needed levels of engagement. The stakeholder register would be the first document to be updated as that would reflect changes in stakeholders and roles. The stakeholder engagement plan identifies how to engage stakeholders. The issue log contains things that require attention.
Crosswind 6.3.2
6.21 - You are the project manager on a restaurant POS system project for Hamburger Prince Restaurants. You are fortunate in having the top technical architect in the company on your project. In your monthly meeting with the CEO, you are informed that the architect will be reassigned to a higher priority enterprise reporting system project. You inform the CEO that the resource’s involvement on your project is critical to the project’s success, but the CEO will not reconsider. What is the best action to take next?
(A) Evaluate the impact of the person’s absence on the project and communicate to senior management
(B) Continue to lobby for the person to be returned to your project
(C) Change the scope of the project to accommodate for the loss of the resource
(D) Continue as the original plan, but without the resource
Correct Answer: (A) Evaluate the impact of the person’s absence on the project and communicate to senior management
Explanation: Letting senior management know the impact of not having the resource on the project is the best action to take next. You don’t change the scope of the project because that isn’t the call of the project manager. If you encounter a significant change such as the loss of a resource, you are expected to revise the plan to accommodate the change.
Crosswind 6.1.2
6.22 - The project team is creating a power/interest grid to use for the rental renovation project. Which of the following best describes the purpose of this grid?
(A) Effective management of stakeholder engagement can be the result of identifying the levels of power and interest of stakeholders
(B) Effective management of stakeholder engagement can be the result of organizing the reporting structure of stakeholders
(C) Effective management of stakeholder engagement can be the result of identifying the stakeholder reporting structure
(D) Effective management of stakeholder engagement can be the result of graphically depicting the relationship between team member roles and authority levels
Correct Answer: (A) Effective management of stakeholder engagement can be the result of identifying the levels of power and interest of stakeholders
Explanation: The power/interest grid depicts the levels of power and project interest of the stakeholders. The more power and interest a stakeholder has, the more closely project management should monitor and manage that stakeholder’s engagement. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 6.2.1
6.23 - The project to update the retail store to accommodate the new video game platform is ready for initial planning. Stakeholders have been identified and a stakeholder register created. What documentation will be created next?
(A) Stakeholder register
(B) Stakeholder engagement plan
(C) Issue log
(D) Charter
Correct Answer: (B) Stakeholder engagement plan
Explanation: The stakeholder engagement plan is used to provide direction for managing stakeholder engagement. The stakeholder register is used to identify stakeholders and provide key information about them. The issue log is used to track issues and provide key information about them. The charter is the basis of the project and provides initial high-level information about the project.
Crosswind 6.2
6.24 - The project manager is engaged in a project that will result in an Internet-driven thermostat to save electricity and cut energy costs. Since this is an innovative project, which of the following stakeholder groups is most likely to have the most influence early in the project?
(A) Distribution customers
(B) End users
(C) Regulatory agencies
(D) Manufacturing partner
Correct Answer: (C) Regulatory agencies
Explanation: Since this is such an innovative project, and it involves energy, it is very likely to come under the scope of a regulatory authority that would have significant influence over product requirements which are established early in the project. Other stakeholder groups would have a lesser influence or their influence would be greatest at another point in the project: End users would influence the company’s positioning of the product. Distribution customers would influence the product’s deployment. Manufacturing partners would influence the assembly of the product.
Crosswind 6.2
6.25 - Which of the following is least likely to be in a high power, high interest position on a power/interest grid?
(A) Persons who are impacted by the project
(B) Persons who are on the project team
(C) Persons who consider themselves to be stakeholders
(D) All of the answers
Correct Answer: (C) Persons who consider themselves to be stakeholders
Explanation: Of the possible answers, persons who consider themselves stakeholders are the most unlikely to be in a high power, high interest position on the power grid. Typically, persons in the power grid are very aware of their power and interests and know they are stakeholders. Additionally, those who create the power grid are aware of those who have power and can determine if they might have an interest in the project.
Crosswind 6.2
6.26 - The project to upgrade the accounting software in consideration of upcoming tax law changes is underway. The project manager is working with the chief information officer (CIO) and chief financial officer (CFO) to ensure regulatory compliance and requirements alignment. Where will these two stakeholders most likely fit in a power/interest grid?
(A) High power/low interest
(B) Low power/low interest
(C) High power/high interest
(D) Low power/high interest
Correct Answer: (C) High power/high interest
Explanation: The positions of CIO and CFO imply a high degree of power. Their involvement in ensuring regulatory compliance and the alignment of requirements imply a very high degree of interest.
Crosswind 6.2.1
6.27 - You are a project manager currently analyzing your stakeholders and management strategies for those stakeholders. You want to use something that will show you a picture of where they all fit in relation to each other. What will you likely use to review this information?
(A) The stakeholder register
(B) The engagement assessment matrix
(C) Power/interest grid
(D) Organizational breakdown structure
Correct Answer: (C) Power/interest grid
Explanation: The power and interest grid shows the amount of power and interest that the stakeholders have on the project. This helps influence how you manage and engage them throughout the project. The engagement assessment matrix shows any gaps between stakeholders current and desired level of engagement. The stakeholder register shows who the stakeholders are on the project and engagement strategies around them. The organizational breakdown structure is an organization chart and shows people and positions.
Crosswind 6.2.1
6.28 - Which of the following is the most accurate statement about a power/interest grid?
(A) Stakeholders cannot be added once the document is created
(B) Stakeholders cannot be repositioned in the document once they are positioned
(C) Stakeholders should let the project manager know if their power/interest levels change
(D) Stakeholder power and interest levels can change throughout the project and it’s incumbent on the project manager to proactively monitor these changes
Correct Answer: (D) Stakeholder power and interest levels can change throughout the project and it’s incumbent on the project manager to proactively monitor these changes
Explanation: The power and interest of stakeholders can change during a project. Typically, the project manager is responsible for monitoring these changes. Stakeholders can be added as needed to the grid and their power/interest levels changed as appropriate.
Crosswind 6.2.1
6.29 - All of the following are descriptions derived from analytical techniques used in stakeholder engagement except…
(A) Aware
(B) Resistant
(C) Neutral
(D) Supportive
Correct Answer: (A) Aware
Explanation: Stakeholder engagement levels are typically described as unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive and leading.
Crosswind 6.3.2
6.30 - You are a project manager on a mobile GPS application project. The sponsor has come to you and requested a major change in mapping source data. She said that this change will not impact the schedule or budget and you need to do it immediately. What do you do first?
(A) Implement the change
(B) Meet with the sponsor to figure out the details of what they want
(C) Create a change request
(D) Stop all project work
Correct Answer: (B) Meet with the sponsor to figure out the details of what they want
Explanation: The sponsor stating the change won’t cause a budget or schedule impact is not necessarily accurate. Until you as the project manager determine there is no schedule or budget impact, you can’t say there is no impact. Thus, the first thing you would do is to meet with the sponsor to learn as much as you can about the details. From there, you meet with the team to figure out options. Then you let the sponsor know the options, and if they want to move forward, you would create a change request. Stopping all work would be inappropriate.
Crosswind 6.1.2
The project manager has created the resource management plan and is getting ready to start the project soon. Résumés are being reviewed and some people have been interviewed. The lead candidate for the technical architecture position has been offered a position. In what process is the project manager involved?
(A) Hiring and interviewing
(B) Develop team
(C) Estimate activity resources
(D) Acquire resources
Correct Answer: (D) Acquire resources
Explanation: Acquire resources involves among other things, getting people on the project. The estimate activity resources process occurs before interviewing starts. Develop team occurs after staff acquisition is complete. Hiring and interviewing is a distracter.
Exam Tip of the Day #31
There are five basic performance reports. Of the following, which best describes the contents of a forecast report?
(A) Information related to the state of the schedule, budget, and scope of the project at various parts of time
(B) Information related to the present overall state of the project
(C) Information related to future project occurrences
(D) Information related to recent project occurrences
Correct Answer: (C) Information related to future project occurrences
Explanation: The forecast report shows what is expected to occur on the project. The progress report shows what has been completed since the last reporting period. The status report shows where the project is to date. The variance report shows the difference between planned and unplanned occurrences. The earned valued report shows the state of the schedule, budget, and scope of the project at various points in time.
Exam Tip of the Day #32
The telecom project is scheduled to run until year’s end. There is a strong possibility that the union collective bargaining agreement will not be renewed immediately upon its expiration next month. Union negotiation is outside the control of senior management and the project, so senior management has decided to reassign the job responsibilities of union personnel to non-union personnel to minimize project schedule slippage. Of the following, what best describes the type of risk response represented by this decision?
(A) Risk avoidance, which avoids negative risk by taking actions to prevent it
(B) Risk transference, which avoids negative risk by transferring or reassigning responsibilities
(C) Risk mitigation, which mitigates negative risk by taking actions to lessen its impact
(D) Risk acceptance, which accepts negative risk and has a plan to deal with it if it occurs
Correct Answer: (C) Risk mitigation, which mitigates negative risk by taking actions to lessen its impact
Explanation: Risk mitigation attempts to minimize the bad risk or maximize the good risk. In this case, management is attempting to minimize the impact of a labor strike. Risk acceptance simply deals with the risk if it occurs. Risk avoidance involves doing what can be done to eliminate the risk. Transference assigns or transfers the risk to some external party.
Exam Tip of the Day #33
You are the project manager working with the customer on a call center implementation. Your company is responsible for the call center infrastructure. The customer needs some modifications to the scope of the project due to the availability of new functionality. This modification requires that the scope of work to the contract be modified. Who can modify the contract?
(A) The project manager for the buyer
(B) The contract administrator for the company
(C) The project managers for the buyer and seller
(D) The project manager for the seller
Correct Answer: (B) The contract administrator for the company
Explanation: The contract administrator for the company is the only person with the authority to change the contract. The project managers from the buyer and the seller will likely have input to the changes, but the contract administrator is the person making those changes to the contract.
Exam Tip of the Day #34
All of the following are descriptions derived from analytical techniques used in stakeholder management except…
(A) Nonresistant
(B) Neutral
(C) Supportive
(D) Leading
Correct Answer: (A) Nonresistant
Explanation: Stakeholder engagement levels are typically described as unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive and leading.
Exam Tip of the Day #35
What is the difference between a waterfall project charter and an agile project charter?
A) Agile projects don’t use charters
B) Waterfall charters are comprehensive and agile charters are more
flexible
C) Waterfall charters are needed for formal authorizations to begin, and
agile charters are just a kickoff document
D) There isn’t a difference
B) Waterfall charters are comprehensive and agile charters are more flexible
Project charters on agile projects focus on the who, what, where, when, and how aspects with the knowledge that items may change rather than a formal set approach to project charter is found in waterfall projects.
Rice - Class 6
The project manager is taking a leave of absence and the company has just designated his replacement. The new project manager is known as a visionary. Of the following, which best describes negative characteristics of this type of manager?
A) This style of management is focused on specific activities and goals and may fail to see opportunities that arise in the project
B) This style of management is focused on helping employees take on new skills and roles, which may create quality issues
C) This style of management is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner
D) This style of management is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project.
D) This style of management is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project.
The visionary is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the
timeliness of the project. The facilitator is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner. The director is focused on specific activities and goals and may fail to see opportunities that arise. The mentor is focused on helping employees take on new skills and roles that may create quality issues. [Crosswind Manual 5.1.8; No PMBOK Guide Reference]
Rice - Class 6
The project is experiencing conflict as the planning evolves. Of the following, which is the most common set of tools the project manager can utilize to
minimize conflict?
A) Ground rules, group norms, networking and project management practices
B) Ground rules, interpersonal skills, and project management practices
C) Ground rules, group norms, and project management practices
D) Ground rules, interpersonal skills, networking, and project management practices
C) Ground rules, group norms, and project management practices
The common set of tools the project manager can utilize to minimize conflict are ground rules, group norms, and project management practices. [Crosswind Manual 5.5.1; PMBOK Guide 9.4.2]
Rice - Class 6
You are the project manager on a global mapping project. You are having issues with your team and conflict. You are trying to identify a document that can help provide guidance about how the team can work together, their values, and anything else that helps maximize chemistry and output. Which document are you most likely to reference?
A) Working agreement
B) Team charter
C) Resource management plan
D) Organizational breakdown structure
B) Team charter
Rice - Class 6
The project manager role is evolving from its focus on planning, directing, and organizing to?
A) Evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, cross- training, coaching,
mentoring, and motivating
B) Evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, coaching, and motivating
C) Evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, cross- training, coaching,
and motivating
D) Evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, coaching, mentoring, and motivating
C) Evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, cross- training, coaching, and motivating
The project manager role is evolving from its focus on planning, directing, and organizing to evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, coaching, and motivating.
[Crosswind Manual 5.1.7; No PMBOK Guide Reference]
You are the project manager on a SAN project. You are doing the manage team process. This has been
very time consuming and unpredictable. What process did you just complete?
A. Control resources
B. Develop Staff
C. Develop Team
D. Acquire resources
C) Develop Team
Rice - Class 6
You are the project manager in a pharmaceutical company which has a project-oriented organizational structure, and your project is nearing completion. You discover your team members are more interested in finding new projects or positions within the company, rather than completing the project work. Their motivation is based upon:
A) Money
B) Safety
C) Social
D) Physiological
B) Safety
Reason: According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs,
security of employment falls under the category of the safety needs.
Rice - Class 6
The project has had some challenges. Members of the team have needed constant supervision to perform the activities for which they are responsible, they do not seem to trust management, and often appear unmotivated. This is an example of what?
A) Insufficient team building
B) Insufficient project team training
C) Theory Y environment
D) Theory X environment
D) Theory X environment
Typically, in a Theory X environment, employees must be told what to do, have distrust for management, and lack motivation. Theory Y is the opposite. The other answers are distracters. [Crosswind Manual 5.1.5; PMBOK Guide 9.1.2.2]
Rice - Class 6
A highly visible IT project has attracted some of the brightest developers in the company. Unfortunately, the potential for conflict is also high. The project manager will rely on all her skill sets to complete the project successfully. She is very aware that her interpersonal skills can influence the project outcome. What are the specific interpersonal skills she is most likely to utilize?
A) Active listening, negotiation skills, accommodating, and influencing
B) Leadership, negotiation, and influencing
C) Conflict management, influencing, motivation, negotiation, and team building
D) Leadership, effective decision-making, active listening, and influencing
C) Conflict management, influencing, motivation, negotiation, and team building
Rice - Class 6
You are a project manager for a national consumer goods retailer. Currently, you are about to start the development of the assumption log for a project to build a new retail store. What should you do first?
A) Examine the project management plan
B) Start the Identify Stakeholders process as the assumption log is an output of this process
C) Review the project scope statement
D) Read the project business case
D) Read the project business case
Rice - Class 7
The product owner is working with the development team to finalize items in the current iteration. The product owner just changed priority on a few items in the backlog. The approach being used is most likely?
A) Change driven
B) Product driven
C) Gantt Chart
D) Program management
A) Change driven
Rice - Class 7
A project manager is leading a process improvement project for a factory operation. Currently, the project manager and the team are performing the Monitor and Control Project Work process. Which of the following activities might be carried out during this process?
A) Comparing actual project performance against the project management plan
B) Implementing approved change requests to achieve the project’s objectives
C) Analyzing change requests and either approving or rejecting them
D) Gaining formal acceptance of the deliverables by the customer or sponsor
A) Comparing actual project performance against the project management plan
Rice - Class 7
The project plan has been approved by the project board. A key stakeholder who was not on the board has requested a few modifications to the plan. As the Project Manager, how should you handle this?
A) Ask the stakeholder to appeal to the project board.
B) Review the modifications requested by the stakeholder and assess them for impacts to the project plan. Once impacts have been determined, consult the change management plan for next steps.
C) Ask the stakeholder to justify the changes and present them to the change control board.
D) Work with the stakeholder to create change requests and submit them to the change control board for approval.
B) Review the modifications requested by the stakeholder and assess them for impacts to the project plan. Once impacts have been determined, consult the change management plan for next steps.
Rice - Class 7
A project manager is in the execution phase of a highly visible project and a major milestone is due in one week. The project manager has discovered that a vendor’s deliverable for this milestone will be two weeks late. What should the project manager do?
(A) Do not report this problem in the status meeting
(B) Meet with the team and brainstorm how to create a workaround for this problem
(C) Halt all payments to the vendor until the deliverable is received
(D) Report the status of the missed milestone
Correct Answer: (B) Meet with the team and brainstorm how to create a workaround for this problem
Explanation: Meeting with the team and brainstorming how to create a workaround for this problem is the first step the project manager should try. Reporting the status of the missed milestone is the second option. Failure to report this problem in the status meeting violates professional and social responsibility on reporting accurate information. Halting all payments to the vendor puts your company in default of a signed contract.
Exam Tip of the Day #36
Which of the following is an example of an enterprise environmental factor?
(A) Project life cycle documentation
(B) Stakeholder risk tolerance
(C) Standard performance measurement criteria
(D) Financial, change, and risk control procedures
Correct Answer: (B) Stakeholder risk tolerance
Explanation: All incorrect answers are examples of organizational process assets.
Exam Tip of the Day #37
The new system integration project impacts all the departments in the company, directly or indirectly. Which of the following is the best description of tools used for the project’s communications?
(A) Communications management plan (CMP)
(B) Communications model media (CMM)
(C) Information distribution planning (IDP)
(D) Project management information system (PMIS)
Correct Answer: (D) Project management information system (PMIS)
Explanation: The project management information system (PMIS) is a system that stores and distributes project information. It can be a manual or a high-tech system. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #38
7.1 - There are 45 communication channels on the project. How many people are on the project team?
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 5
(D) 15
Correct Answer: (B) 10
Explanation: Ten is the number of team members on the project. This is established by applying the formula, N x (N - 1) / 2 to the answers and seeing that 10 people produces 45 channels. 10 x (10 - 1) / 2 = 45.
Crosswind 7.3.4
7.2 - The project manager and his team spend a great deal of time in meetings. Which of the following is not a good reason to cancel a meeting?
(A) The agenda wasn’t published until right before the meeting
(B) A key team member had to attend a different meeting
(C) A functional manager wanted to meet with the project manager at the same time
(D) The topic partially changed and the presentation material wasn’t complete yet
Correct Answer: (C) A functional manager wanted to meet with the project manager at the same time
Explanation: The functional manager’s decision to meet with the project manager at the same time as an existing team meeting is not a good reason to cancel a meeting. The project manager should offer to schedule a meeting for a different time with the functional manager because project-related work has a higher priority.
Crosswind 7.3.7
7.3 - There are five basic performance reports. Of the following, which best describes the contents of a forecast report?
(A) Information related to the state of the schedule, budget, and scope of the project at various parts of time
(B) Information related to the present overall state of the project
(C) Information related to future project occurrences
(D) Information related to recent project occurrences
Correct Answer: (C) Information related to future project occurrences
Explanation: The forecast report shows what is expected to occur on the project. The progress report shows what has been completed since the last reporting period. The status report shows where the project is to date. The variance report shows the difference between planned and unplanned occurrences. The earned valued report shows the state of the schedule, budget, and scope of the project at various points in time.
Crosswind 7.4.2
7.4 - The agile team is distributed and having challenges with communications. The organization is willing to do whatever it takes to improve communications. Which of the following would best help improve project communications?
(A) Utilizing a war room for the team
(B) Have more team meetings
(C) Have an additional status report each week
(D) Make better use of the PMIS
Correct Answer: (A) Utilizing a war room for the team
Explanation: Putting people in one place, such as a war room, is the best option to improve communication. It also helps with transparency in the information exchange. Having more meetings or status reports is not as effective as everyone being in a war room. Making a better use of the PMIS could help improve communications, but not as well as a war room.
Crosswind Manual 8.5.1
7.5 - Sam and Tracy are running their string theory project. They are in the process of monitoring project communications with the various stakeholders. This has been a challenge given it is a global project with many virtual employees. Which of the following is a tool and technique they will use with the monitor communications process?
(A) Communications management plan
(B) Change requests
(C) Work performance information
(D) Project management Information system (PMIS)
Correct Answer: (D) Project management information system (PMIS)
Explanation: The tools and techniques for the Monitor Communications process are: expert judgment, project management information system (PMIS), data analysis, stakeholder engagement assessment matrix, interpersonal and team skills, observation/conversation, and meetings.
Crosswind 7.5
7.6 - The project is approximately 50% complete. The project manager is communicating with stakeholders regarding the status of the project. Which will he likely use to determine what to communicate to whom?
(A) Communications technology, models, and methods
(B) Communications management plan
(C) Communications requirements analysis
(D) Stakeholder management strategy
Correct Answer: (B) Communications management plan
Explanation: The communications management plan helps determine the stakeholders’ communication needs. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 7.3.1
7.7 - A major manufacturing company has initiated a project to determine the best course of action to take in response to the new “green laws” recently passed by congress. The company has many plants located in the U.S. and overseas, some of which have been in place for decades and will likely not be cost effective to modernize. The CEO has warned that this project will rise or fall based on effective communications. During the plan communications management process, the project manager and his team will rely on potentially five key inputs. Which of the following is a key input of the process?
(A) Project management plan
(B) Communications technology
(C) Meetings
(D) Lessons learned register
Correct Answer: (A) Project management plan
Explanation: The project management plan is an input to the plan communications management process. The other answers are tools and techniques or distracters.
Crosswind 7.3
7.8 - You are the project manager for a global point of sale upgrade project that is utilizing an offshore development company. There have been a number of communication challenges with misinterpretation of requirements and failure to follow through with things associated with the store roll-out that the project manager felt needed attention. What type of communication would help improve these problems?
(A) Verbal
(B) Informal verbal
(C) Formal written
(D) Formal
Correct Answer: (C) Formal written
Explanation: Formal written communication is appropriate for communications where the message must be specific or the message is being sent over a long distance. Formal is a good answer but not as good as formal written. Both verbal answers would expose the project to problems.
Crosswind 7.2
7.9 - The project team is attempting their first agile project. There are still some waterfall components that they cannot eliminate. They are having challenges with communications with certain team members being updated, as things are completed. Which of the following would help improve transparency with the communications?
(A) Having daily stand up meetings
(B) Having a product review more frequently
(C) Creating communication items in the sprint backlog
(D) Using a chat application for more timely information
Correct Answer: (A) Having daily stand up meetings
Explanation: In agile environments there is a daily standup meeting (that should not exceed 15 minutes) that allows each team member to address what they have done, what they are doing and anything in their way. This will help resolve the communication challenges. More product reviews, adding communications items in the sprint backlog, or using chat applications are not as effective as the daily standup meeting.
Crosswind 8.2
7.10 - Sam and Tracy are in the planning stage of their wedding. Communication is a big issue with all the stakeholders and their geographical locations. Of the following, which is an input they will use in the manage communications process?
(A) Project management plan
(B) Communications management plan
(C) Power interest grid
(D) Feedback
Correct Answer: (B) Communications management plan
Explanation: The inputs for the Manage Communications process are: project management plan, resource management plan, communications management plan, stakeholder engagement plan, project documents, change log, issue log, lessons learned register, quality report, risk report, stakeholder register, work performance reports, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.
Crosswind 7.4
7.11 - Six full time and one part time person report to the project manager. Three more people are added to the project. How many communication channels were added to the project?
(A) 56 channels
(B) 28 channels
(C) 55 channels
(D) 27 channels
Correct Answer: (D) 27 channels
Explanation: The formula for communication channels is N x (N - 1) / 2.First, calculate the number of communication channels based on the existing team 6.5 people (rounds up to a full person) 7 AND the project manager=8). That is 28 communication channels. Next, calculate the number of communication channels with the new people added. This is 55 communication channels. Finally, subtract the difference (55-28=27) to establish that 27 communication channels were added
Crosswind 7.3.4
7.12 - The product owner is repeatedly going to team members trying to get them to add more work to the current sprint. The scrummaster has major problems with this type of communication. The product owner doesn’t see a problem with this. What best describes this situation?
(A) The product owner shouldn’t be trying to force the team to add items to the sprint
(B) The scrummaster is trying to control all communications
(C) The team is overly sensitive
(D) The communication management plan should be updated to align with these communication requests
Correct Answer: (A) The product owner shouldn’t be trying to force the team to add items to the sprint
Explanation: Once the work of the scrum is committed to, the product owner should NOT try to force extra work on the team. This creates distrust between the team and product owner. The scrummaster is not out of line seeing a problem with this situation. The team should be sensitive to the attempt to force work on them. Updating the communication management plan is irrelevant in this case.
Crosswind 8.3.1
7.13 - Nicole is in pharmaceutical sales. As she is mapping out details for a new marketing campaign, she is sensitive to communication with key stakeholders. Communication is key to campaign success. As she focuses on monitoring communications, which is an input she will use during this process?
(A) Risk register
(B) Reporting systems
(C) Change requests
(D) Issue log
Correct Answer: (D) Issue log
Explanation: The inputs for the Monitor Communications process are: project management plan, communications management plan, stakeholder engagement plan, project documents, issue log, lessons learned register, project communications, work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.
Crosswind 7.5
7.14 - All of the following are examples of communication requirements on a project except…
(A) Project status, meeting time, and location
(B) The product functionality required by the primary customer
(C) Steps to take regarding a project change request
(D) Names and contact information for the members of the project change control board
Correct Answer: (B) The product functionality required by the primary customer.
Explanation: Project status meeting, time and location, steps to take regarding a project change request, and contact information for the members of the CCB are all communication requirements on a project. Product functionality is communicated using some type of requirements documentation. Notice that this answer does not indicate how or when or how often the product requirements will or should be communicated.
Crosswind 7.3
7.15 - Michelle is in pharmaceutical research. As she is mapping out details for a new compound, she is sensitive to communication with key stakeholders. Communication is key to campaign success. As she focuses on monitoring communications, which is a tool or technique she will use during this process?
(A) Organizational process assets
(B) Expert judgment
(C) Change requests
(D) Stakeholder management strategy
Correct Answer: (B) Expert judgment
Explanation: The tools or techniques for Monitor Communications include expert judgment, project management information system (PMIS), data analysis, stakeholder engagement assessment matrix, interpersonal and team skills, observation/conversation, and meetings.
Crosswind 7.5
7.16 - The project manager has scheduled several meetings to facilitate information sharing with the project management team and the customer. The meetings have been unorganized, chaotic, and lacking direction. Which of the following would improve the meetings?
(A) Determine who is in charge of the meeting
(B) Send the team to communication training
(C) Create and publish an agenda, and establish the leader of the meeting
(D) Create and publish an agenda
Correct Answer: (C) Create and publish an agenda, and establish the leader of the meeting
Explanation: Creating and publishing an agenda and knowing who is in charge of a meeting are two ways to have a highly organized, effective meeting. Though the project manager may organize a meeting, he or she may not necessarily be in charge of the meeting, as is sometimes the case with highly technical subject matter.
Crosswind 7.3.7
7.17 - All the following could be considered mediums for communication by a project team member except…
(A) Staff meetings
(B) Email
(C) Message
(D) Video conference
Correct Answer: (C) Message
Explanation: The message is what is actually conveyed in the communication. The other three answers are formats for conveying information.
Crosswind 7.3.3
7.18 - One of the activities a project manager performs on a day-to-day basis is communicating with individual team members, the team, company personnel, vendors, and customers. Approximately how much of a project manager’s job is spent communicating?
(A) At least 30%
(B) Not more than 50%
(C) Approximately 90%
(D) 100%
Correct Answer: (C) Approximately 90% Explanation: Approximately 90% of a project manager’s time is spent communicating. This could be via email, meetings, listening, speaking, web conference, etc.
Crosswind 7.3.2
7.19 - What is the most effective use of feedback on a project?
(A) To give the sender of the message a chance to ensure their message is delivered
(B) To ensure that the receiver of a message understands the message
(C) To give the receiver of the message a chance to get status updates from the sender
(D) To ensure that the sender of the message understands the message
Correct Answer: (B) To ensure that the receiver of a message understands the message
Explanation: It is vital that the receiver correctly interprets the message sent, so the sender requests feedback. The request is typically in the form of asking additional questions to clarify the recipients understanding of the message.
Crosswind 7.3.3
7.20 - The team is having challenges staying updated on timely status on items in the current sprint. Upon reviewing past retrospectives, it’s noted that this has been an ongoing problem for sprints over the last year and a half. Which of the following would be the best solution to resolve this problem?
(A) Put an information radiator in the team war room
(B) Add communication requirements to the communications management plan to address this
(C) Have the product owner update team members daily
(D) Have a weekly stand up meeting
Correct Answer: (A) Put an information radiator in the team war room
Explanation: An information radiator such as a display in the war room with timely status on things for all to see, is the best option because it provides information as needed. Adding communication requirements to the communications management plan is not a bad idea, but not as good an option as the information radiator is. The product owner providing daily updates to the team doesn’t really align with the job of the product owner. Having a weekly standup meeting doesn’t fix the problem compared to other options.
Crosswind 8.5.1
7.21 - There are five basic performance reports. Of the following, which best describes the contents of a status report?
(A) Information related to the state of the schedule, budget, and scope of the project at various points in time
(B) Information related to the present overall state of the project
(C) Information related to future project occurrences
(D) Information related to recent project occurrences
Correct Answer: (B) Information related to the present overall state of the project
Explanation: The status report shows where the project is to date. The forecast report shows what is expected to occur on the project. The earned valued report shows the state of the schedule, budget, and scope of the project at various points in time. The progress report shows what has been completed since the last reporting period.
Crosswind 7.4.2
7.22 - Ronnie is planning Comicfest for the fall. It will include over 200 vendors, over 60 celebrities and approximately 10,000 attendees. Which of the following is not a tool or technique available during the plan communications management process?
(A) Communications methods
(B) Communications technology
(C) Communications requirements analysis
(D) Communications management plan
Correct Answer: (D) Communications management plan
Explanation: The tools and techniques for the Plan Communications Management process are: expert judgment, communications requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, communication methods, interpersonal and team skills, communication styles assessment, political awareness, cultural awareness, data analysis, stakeholder engagement assessment matrix, and meetings.
Crosswind 7.3
7.23 - Although the communications model only contains three components, there is another facet of communications that must be considered. Of the following, which best describes that other facet?
(A) Language, specifically the special usages of a professional group
(B) Medium, specifically the technique that dictates the format of a message
(C) Feedback, specifically in regard to message interpretation
(D) Confirmation, specifically tracking communication receipt
Correct Answer: (B) Medium, specifically the technique that dictates the format of a message
Explanation: The communications model includes the sender, the receiver, and the message. The medium should also be considered in that it sets the format of the message.
Crosswind 7.3.3
7.24 - Project communications lead to a number of concerns on the part of the project manager. Which of the following best describe those concerns?
(A) Sender, receiver, message, medium, and feedback
(B) Sender, receiver, message, and feedback
(C) Sender, receiver, message, and medium
(D) Sender, receiver, medium, and feedback
Correct Answer: (A) Sender, receiver, message, medium, and feedback
Explanation: Communication involves a sender who encodes the message and delivers it via the medium to the receiver to decode. The receiver then should have a chance to provide feedback to the sender to verify correct understanding of the message.
Crosswind 7.3.3
7.24 - Project communications lead to a number of concerns on the part of the project manager. Which of the following best describe those concerns?
(A) Sender, receiver, message, medium, and feedback
(B) Sender, receiver, message, and feedback
(C) Sender, receiver, message, and medium
(D) Sender, receiver, medium, and feedback
Correct Answer: (A) Sender, receiver, message, medium, and feedback
Explanation: Communication involves a sender who encodes the message and delivers it via the medium to the receiver to decode. The receiver then should have a chance to provide feedback to the sender to verify correct understanding of the message.
Crosswind 7.3.3
7.25 - The scrum team is working on their current sprint. They are getting sprint items completed and tracking their current velocity. The scrummaster is asked how many points are left in the current sprint and wanting to see a Gantt chart, or some other graphical representation of the state of the sprint. What will the scrummaster likely have available to show them?
(A) A burndown chart
(B) A burn up chart
(C) A Gantt chart
(D) A Pareto diagram
Correct Answer: (A) A burndown chart
Explanation: A burndown chart typically is used to show work remaining within a sprint. A burn up chart typically shows the points of work (velocity) completed in each sprint, and total points work done to date. It also can show the total points currently in the product backlog. A Gantt chart shows the schedule in a traditional or waterfall type project. A Pareto diagram shows cumulative defect by count of something.
Crosswind 8.5.8
7.26 - There are five basic performance reports that are utilized during the project. One of these is a progress report. Of the following, which best describes the contents of a progress report?
(A) Information related to the state of the schedule, budget, and scope of the project at various parts of time
(B) Information related to the difference between planned and actual occurrences
(C) Information related to future project occurrences
(D) Information related to recent project occurrences
Correct Answer: (D) Information related to recent project occurrences
Explanation: The progress report shows what has been completed since the last reporting period. The forecast report shows what is expected to occur on the project. The status report shows where the project is to date. The variance report shows the difference between planned and unplanned occurrences. The earned valued report shows the state of the schedule, budget, and scope of the project at various points in time.
Crosswind 7.4.2
7.27 - The project manager sent a communication to the project manager of a related project requesting a copy of the communications management plan used on the related project. Of the following, which best describes the communication type sent by the project manager?
(A) Formal, official, internal, vertical communication
(B) Informal, unofficial, internal, horizontal communication
(C) Formal, official, internal, horizontal communication
(D) Formal, unofficial, internal, horizontal communication
Correct Answer: (B) Informal, unofficial, internal, horizontal communication
Explanation: The communication is a simple request to a peer; therefore it is an informal, unofficial, internal, horizontal communication.
Crosswind 7.2
7.28 - The project manager and his team are about to begin the monitor communications process. Which is an output of the process they will create?
(A) Reporting systems
(B) Work performance information
(C) Scope statement
(D) Enterprise environmental factors
Correct Answer: (B) Work performance information
Explanation: The outputs of monitor communications are work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates, communications management plan, stakeholder engagement plan, project documents updates, issue log, lessons learned register, and stakeholder register.
Crosswind 7.5
7.29 - The product owner is working with the scrummaster to refine the product backlog, while also trying to forecast how many sprints potentially remain based on the product backlog. Currently the team can do 50 points of work per sprint and has done 5 sprints so far. The product backlog currently has 500 points of work in it. What would best graphically display this information?
(A) A burn up chart
(B) A burndown chart
(C) A control chart
(D) A bar chart
Correct Answer: (A) A burn up chart
Explanation: A burn up chart typically shows the points of work (velocity) completed in each sprint, and total points work done to date. It also can show the total points currently in the product backlog. A burndown chart typically is used to show work remaining within a sprint. The control chart shows output of time of something such as a business process, or test. A bar chart shows a count or occurrence of something.
Crosswind 8.5.9
7.30 - Walton publishing is executing the curriculum update project. They are currently in the final process of communications. There are a number of key tools and techniques available for use. Which of the following is the best description of the tools and techniques with this process?
(A) Forecasting methods, variance analysis, communication management plan, and reporting systems
(B) Communication methods, forecasting methods, and approved changes
(C) Work performance measurements, forecasting methods, communication methods, and the project management plan
(D) Project management information system, expert judgment, and meetings
Correct Answer: (D) Project management information system (PMIS), expert judgment, and meetings
Explanation: The tools and techniques of the Monitor Communications process are: expert judgment, project management information system (PMIS), data analysis, stakeholder engagement assessment matrix, interpersonal and team skills, observation/conversation, and meetings.
Crosswind 7.5
The company is designing touchscreen displays for use on mobile workstation tablets. A requirements traceability matrix is being utilized. Of the following, which is the best description of how the project manager will use the matrix?
(A) To trace requirements to business and project objectives
(B) To trace requirements to project scope/WBS deliverables, to product design and development, and to test strategy and scenarios
(C) To trace high-level requirements to detailed requirements
(D) All of the answers
Correct Answer: (D) All of the answers
Explanation: A requirements traceability matrix is used to trace requirements to business and project objectives; trace requirements to project scope/WBS deliverables, to product design and development, and to test strategy and scenarios; and trace high-level requirements to detailed requirements.
Exam Tip of the Day #39
Which of the following best describes the critical path slack (float)?
(A) It can be the shortest duration on the project
(B) It can be a positive number or zero
(C) It can be a negative number or zero
(D) It can be a positive number, negative number, or zero
Correct Answer: (D) It can be a positive number, negative number, or zero
Explanation: The critical path slack (float) can be any number. Technically the slack (float) of the critical path is zero, but if you are ahead of schedule, it is a positive number and if you are behind schedule, it is a negative number. It is actually the longest path on the project, not the shortest.
Exam Tip of the Day #40
You are having a home theater room added to your house. The project should take five days and cost $1,500 per day to complete. After three days, the project is 30% complete and $5,000 has been spent. What is the CPI?
(A) 0.45
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.40
(D) 1.00
Correct Answer: (A) 0.45
Explanation: The formula for calculating the CPI (cost performance index) is CPI= EV / AC. In this instance three steps are required. First, determine the BAC (budget at completion) which is the sum of all PV (planned value): $1,500 per day cost multiplied by five days equals a BAC of $7,500. Second, calculate the EV (earned value) by multiplying the BAC by the percentage complete: $7,500 BAC multiplied by 30% percentage complete equals an EV of $2,250. Third, calculate the CPI by dividing the EV by the AC (actual cost): $2,250 EV divided by $5,000 AC equals a CPI of 0.4 Note that planned value is defined as the work that should have been completed to date or during a particular time period (in this case, through day five of the project since the percentage complete relates to the overall project.)
Exam Tip of the Day #41
The project management team is analyzing defects and trying to isolate the cause of a problem on the project. They have isolated two variables via the data that is available. They suspect the problem is compounded by the impact of one variable on another. They want to see if there is a relationship between the two variables. Which of the following will help them verify this relationship and why?
(A) Run chart because the closer the lower control limit is to +/-3 sigma, the more dependent the variables are
(B) Pareto diagram because the closer the percentages are on the separate problems, the more dependent the variables are
(C) Control chart because the closer the upper control limit is to +/-3 sigma, the more dependent the variables are
(D) Scatter diagram because the closer the output resembles a diagonal line, the more dependent the variables are
Correct Answer: (D) Scatter diagram because the closer the output resembles a diagonal line, the more dependent the variables are
Explanation: The scatter diagram shows a relationship (or lack of a relationship) between two variables. The run chart (sometimes called a control chart) shows output over time. The Pareto diagram shows defect by quantity.
Exam Tip of the Day #42
During the plan resource management process of a critical project, the project management team is creating a responsibility assignment matrix. What benefit does this provide for the team?
(A) The team will know who is responsible for what work
(B) The team will know who does what work and when they are to do it
(C) The team will know the location in which the work is performed
(D) The team will know the sequence in which the resources are to perform the activities
Correct Answer: (A) The team will know who is responsible for what work
Explanation: The responsibility assignment matrix shows who is responsible for what work on the project. The Gantt chart shows who does what work and when they are to do it. The network diagram provides the sequence that the resources are to perform the activities in. At what location the work is done is a distracter.
Exam Tip of the Day #43
Conflict resolution is an example of, or component of, which of the following?
(A) Dimensions of communication activity
(B) Communication skills commonly used by management
(C) Stakeholder management strategy
(D) Communication process types
Correct Answer: (B) Communication skills commonly used by management
Explanation: Conflict resolution is a communication skill commonly used by management. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #44
The company is concerned about its position during the economic downturn. Its CEO is a risk taker. Of several strategies on the table for consideration, which is he most likely to pursue?
(A) Mandating that senior management lay the groundwork for a reduction in force in the event it is necessary
(B) Entering a relatively untested market in the hope of significant reward
(C) Trying new markets that do not require significant investment while mandating traditional “belt-tightening” procedures
(D) None of the answers
Correct Answer: (B) Entering a relatively untested market in the hope of significant reward
Explanation: A risk seeker mentality is that of looking for the big reward and being prepared to pay significantly if it is missed. The risk-averse mentality is a very conservative approach to risk. A risk-neutral mentality is somewhere between that of a risk seeker and risk-averse mentality.
Exam Tip of the Day #45
What type of contract exposes the seller to the most risk when entering into a contract?
(A) Time and materials because there is no provision for an increase in the workers salary
(B) Cost plus percentage of cost because the seller’s net can decrease if the cost decreases
(C) Purchase order because there is no provision for an increase in material costs
(D) Fixed-price because there is no provision for increases in the seller’s costs
Correct Answer: (D) Fixed-price because there is no provision for increases in the seller’s costs
Explanation: The fixed-price contract has the most risk for the seller because the contract limits the amount that the buyer will pay for the project. The seller must have a detailed understanding of exactly what is needed on the project so it can control cost. Cost plus percentage of cost provides the least risk to the seller. A purchase order provides the seller with no risk because the price for a commodity type item has been established. Time and materials contracts are typically used for smaller amounts of work and staff augmentation.
Exam Tip of the Day #46
The marketing brochure redesign project is entering the manage stakeholder engagement process. To effectively manage stakeholder engagement, the project manager has a variety of tools and techniques available during this process. What are they?
(A) Interpersonal and team skills, communication feedback, and ground rules
(B) Communications methods, alternatives analysis, and management skills
(C) Communications skills, communications management plan, and management skills
(D) Product analysis, communications methods, and management skills
Correct Answer: (A) Interpersonal and team skills, communication feedback, and ground rules
Explanation: The tools and techniques for the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process are: expert judgment, inspection, communication, feedback, interpersonal and team skills, conflict management, cultural awareness, negotiation, observation/conversation, political awareness, ground rules, and meetings.
Exam Tip of the Day #47
As a condition of being hired as project manager for a defense company, you must sign a nondisclosure agreement (NDA). Of the following, which is the best description of this document?
(A) An agreement that the signer will abide by the defense secrets section of the standards for the National Industrial Security Program (NISP)
(B) An agreement that the signer will accede to the terms of the Defense Security Service (DSS) as detailed in the document
(C) An agreement that the signer will limit discussion of the project to designated personnel
(D) An agreement that the signer will limit discussion of the project to designated personnel in accordance with the term of the Standards for the National Industrial Security Program (NISP)
Correct Answer: (C) An agreement that the signer will limit discussion of the project to designated personnel
Explanation: A nondisclosure agreement protects a company’s intellectual property and limits disclosure to designated personnel only. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #48
Which of the following is the prioritized order of the project constraints?
(A) Schedule, risk, cost
(B) Quality, schedule, cost
(C) Scope, schedule, budget
(D) They are all of equal importance unless otherwise stated
Correct Answer: (D) They are all of equal importance unless otherwise stated
Explanation: The constraint of project management states that scope, quality, schedule, budget, resources, and risks are all equal unless otherwise defined as such.
Exam Tip of the Day #49
You are a project manager with a video game company, and your company has bought the exclusive rights to design and produce a video game based on an upcoming movie. As you track the performance of the project, you report to senior management that the project is under budget but behind schedule. With the schedule at risk, you are asked if the game will be ready by the date of the movie premiere. You know there was a buffer between the planned project completion date and the premiere of the film but are not sure of the
exact timing. Where is the best place to find the due date of the movie premiere?
A) Ask the project sponsor for the information
B) Review the project schedule to understand how activities are sequenced
C) Perform an Internet search to find the information
D) Check the milestone list for the release date of the movie
D) Check the milestone list for the release date of the movie
Rice Class 8
The windows must be installed before the siding can be put on, but once the windows on one wall of the building are installed, the siding can be installed on that wall prior to other windows being installed. What sort of relationship is this?
A) Mandatory dependency that must be finish-to-start
B) Discretionary dependency that must be finish-to-start
C) Discretionary dependency that can be start-to-start
D) Mandatory dependency that can be start-to-start with a lag.
D) Mandatory dependency that can be start-to-start with a
lag.
Rice Class 8
What activities cannot be delayed using resource smoothing?
A) Activities with mandatory dependencies
B) Activities on the critical path
C) Activities with discretionary dependencies
D) Activities with positive free float
B) Activities on the critical path
Rice Class 8
If an agile approach to managing the project is used, then controlling the schedule is
likely to be associated with…
A) Critical chain methods.
B) Resource leveling.
C) Updating the project calendar.
D) Reprioritizing the backlog.
D) Reprioritizing the backlog.
“Backlog” is a term unique to the agile approach. Controlling the schedule
involves determining the status of the schedule, determining whether the
schedule has changed, and managing actual changes as they occur. Viewing the
backlog and the rest of the kanban board will provide information on schedule
status and changes. Rearranging the backlog to reflect new priorities can help
control the schedule by ensuring that the most important things will get done first.
Rice Class 8
You are leading a project to develop a new web application. Together with your project team you reprioritize the product backlog, determine velocity for the past iterations, and adapt
your work plans accordingly. Additionally, you facilitate retrospectives every two weeks.
Which of the following processes describes the work you are performing?
A) Monitor Risks
B) Manage Quality
C) Control Schedule
D) Develop Schedule
C) Control Schedule
When an agile approach is used, Control Schedule is concerned with conducting retrospectives to correct and improve processes, reprioritizing the backlog, determining the velocity in each iteration, and adjusting the plans accordingly. Therefore, of the choices provided, the work you are performing is best described by the Control Schedule process.
Rice Class 8
Which of the following statements best represents the budgeting process?
A) A cost baseline is determined by adding a management reserve to the aggregated activity
cost estimate. A contingency reserve is then added to the cost baseline to obtain the total
budget.
B) Funding limits are aggregated to determine the cost baseline. A scope reserve is then
added to the cost baseline to determine the total budget.
C) Activity cost estimates are aggregated to the control account level. Reserves for scope,
schedule and cost are then added to the aggregated control accounts to determine the
overall project budget.
D) Activity cost estimates are aggregated to the control account level. A contingency reserve
is added to the aggregated estimates to determine the cost baseline budget. A
management reserve is then added to the cost baseline budget to determine the overall
project budget
D) Activity cost estimates are aggregated to the control account level. A contingency reserve
is added to the aggregated estimates to determine the cost baseline budget. A
management reserve is then added to the cost baseline budget to determine the overall
project budget
Rice Class 8
Activity cost estimates total $250,000 for a project. The project manager set aside $50,000 of contingency reserves for the activities and another $25,000 for the total WBS contingencies. Work package estimates are estimated at $300,000. The management reserve is $75,000. What is the cost baseline?
A) $300,000
B) $325,000
C) $400,000
D) $625,000
B) $325,000
Rice Class 8
Which if the following is best representative of the costing approach to an agile project?
A) Lightweight estimation methods may be used to generate a high-level forecast of costs
which can then be adjusted as the project progresses.
B) The detailed estimates of all the items in the product backlog would be aggregated to
determine the project budget.
C) The budget for the project would not be developed until after the team has created a
minimal viable product.
D) Cost estimates would not be developed until after the scope has been approved.
A) Lightweight estimation methods may be used to generate a high-level forecast of costs
which can then be adjusted as the project progresses.
Rice Class 8
You will be initiating a new agile project. The vision and high-level outcomes for the project have been documented in the project charter. Based on historical information and input from various experts, you determine that the key outcomes can be achieved within a six-month timeframe over twelve two-week iterations. Which of the following approaches would you use to determine the project budget:
A) You would decompose the high-level scope and the outcomes into work packages and
develop definitive estimates for each work package. You would aggregate these estimates
to develop the project budget.
B) You would develop a definitive budget based on the expert analysis of the high-level scope and outcomes.
C) You would estimate the fully loaded costs for the resources required for a single iteration
and multiply those costs by the number of iterations to develop a working budget for the
project.
D) You would develop a definitive budget for the high-level scope deliverables and outcomes
and then allocate this definitive budget over the twelve iterations
C) You would estimate the fully loaded costs for the resources required for a single iteration
and multiply those costs by the number of iterations to develop a working budget for the
project.
Rice Class 8
The project manager is creating an estimate for building a company wide area network. It is something that is new to the project manager and his team. They decide to create a bottom up estimate. All the following are advantages of this type of estimate except?
A) They provide supporting detail of the estimate.
B) It creates team by and when they help create it.
C) It takes a great amount of time to create.
D) There is a greater degree of accuracy because of the detail at which it was created.
C) It takes a great amount of time to create.
Rice Class 8
A team member has just added information on risk responses to the risk register during Planning. What is needed next?
A) Use progressive elaboration to update the schedule and the budget.
B) Use a backward pass to update the schedule and the budget.
C) Use variance analysis to see if the responses fit in the leeway built into the schedule and the budget.
D) Use schedule compression to ensure that it doesn’t impact the schedule or the budget.
A) Use progressive elaboration to update the schedule and the budget.
The first pass at producing a draft schedule will necessarily be lacking information from later planning stages, such as how much time to set aside for risk responses. Therefore, the schedule must be progressively elaborated.
Rice Class 8
What activities cannot be delayed using resource smoothing?
A) Activities with mandatory dependencies
B) Activities on the critical path
C) Activities with discretionary dependencies
D) Activities with positive free float
B) Activities on the critical path
Smoothing uses free float and total float of tasks to assign resources. There is no float on the critical path. Consequently, resources cannot be removed from the activities on the critical path because there is no float.
Rice Class 8
The windows must be installed before the siding can be put on, but once the windows on one wall of the building are installed, the siding can be installed on that wall prior to other windows being installed. What sort of relationship is this?
A) Mandatory dependency that must be finish-to-start
B) Discretionary dependency that must be finish-to-start
C) Discretionary dependency that can be start-to-start
D) Mandatory dependency that can be start-to-start with a lag.
D) Mandatory dependency that can be start-to-start with a lag.
Rice Class 8
A project manager is using a PMIS to assign resources to activities. Afterward, he notices that some resources are double-booked. Clicking a button automatically moves some activities later, but the overall schedule gets longer. What is this project manager doing?
A) Crashing
B) Resource leveling
C) Resource smoothing
D) Fast tracking
B) Resource leveling
Resource leveling is a technique in which start and finish dates are adjusted based on resource constraints, with the goal of balancing demand for resources with the available supply. This method may result in the overall schedule being extended.
Rice Class 8
Which of the following best describes configuration management?
(A) Procedures used to document and control product or service characteristics
(B) System used to store versions of software code
(C) System used to store versions of project documentation
(D) Interface of an automated project management system created to set up project variables
Correct Answer: (A) Procedures used to document and control product or service characteristics
Explanation: Configuration management ensures that the project is building what it should build. It utilizes a very thorough and detailed change control process to ensure that project results conform to requirements and exhibit Fitness for Use.
Exam Tip of the Day #50
Which of the following is a heuristic for WBS decomposition?
(A) Breaking down work until it is done by a single resource
(B) Using an organizational structure appearance
(C) Creating a WBS in which the summary activities are equal to the detail underneath
(D) Breaking work down to a realistic level (work packages being the lowest level)
Correct Answer: (D) Breaking work down to a realistic level (work packages being the lowest level)
Explanation: A general rule of thumb is to break down the work of the project into work packages. Breaking work packages or activities down to a single resource assigned is not always practical. Creating a WBS where the summary activities are equal to the detail underneath is a characteristic of a WBS. Using an organizational structure appearance is a distracter.
Exam Tip of the Day #51
The project manager is considering resource leveling the schedule to get the project back on track within resource constraints. Which of the following is most likely the project manager’s primary concern?
(A) Tasks could be done in parallel instead of the way intended
(B) The project team might not be able to assign resources to activities
(C) The finish date could be pushed out further
(D) Resources working a more consistent number of hours each day
Correct Answer: (C) The finish date could be pushed out further
Explanation: The item of most concern to the project manager is pushing out the finish date of the project as a result of resource leveling. Resources working a more consistent number of hours each day is a characteristic of resource leveling, but it isn’t typically a concern. Doing tasks in parallel relates to fast tracking a schedule. Not being able to assign resources to activities would relate to crashing a schedule.
Exam Tip of the Day #52
You are having a home theater room added to your house. The project should take five days and cost $1,500 per day to complete. After three days, the project is 30% complete and $5,000 has been spent. What is the total value of the project?
(A) $7,500
(B) $2,250
(C) $5,000
(D) $10,000
Correct Answer: (A) $7,500
Explanation: The total value of the project is the equivalent of the project budget or the BAC (budget at completion). To determine the BAC, multiply the cost per day times the number of days the project is scheduled to take: $1,500 per day cost multiplied by five days equals a BAC of $7,500.
Exam Tip of the Day #53
You are defining the quality standards for the project to create a new microchip that has the capacity to contain more instructions than any prior chip. You have defined which variables are to be measured. You have also determined what attributes are important to you. Although the product is not expensive, it is expected to bring a steady income stream to the company because it is integral to the production of animatronic toys and robots that are tremendously popular. Which testing method will you use and why?
(A) Population testing because the product is so crucial to the company’s success
(B) Sample testing because the cost of population testing is prohibitive
(C) Sample testing because the product is so crucial to the company’s success
(D) Population testing because the cost of population testing is prohibitive
Correct Answer: (B) Sample testing because the cost of population testing is prohibitive
Explanation: Sample testing tests a percentage of the product and makes sense in this case because they plan to produce large quantities. Population testing tests every product that would result in prohibitive cost.
Exam Tip of the Day #54
The project manager is in the executing phase of a financial regulatory project. Which of the following is the project manager most likely to use to stay updated on the project?
(A) Personnel management
(B) Interpersonal and team skills
(C) Organizational process assets
(D) Change requests
Correct Answer: (B) Interpersonal and team skills
Explanation: Interpersonal and team skills can be used by the project manager in the forms of conflict management, decision making, emotional intelligence, influencing, and leadership. Personnel management is a distracter. Organizational process assets are not specific to the project. Change requests are not necessarily valid since they are not approved, and they do not reflect important project information such as task status and team interaction among other items.
Exam Tip of the Day #55
4.1 - What is an organization that controls project managers, documentation, and policies called?
(A) Project management office
(B) Tight matrix
(C) Functional
(D) Projectized
Correct Answer: (A) Project management office
Explanation: The project management office (PMO) can control project managers, documentation and policies or anything else needed within reason for the management of projects within an organization.
Crosswind 4.9
4.2 - Jimi is being referenced constantly as huge issues come up on the project to create a new security layer on the server network. He is a published author on this new technology. What best describes his role on the project?
(A) Subject matter expert
(B) Sponsor
(C) Customer
(D) Technical lead
Correct Answer: (A) Subject matter expert
Explanation: A subject matter expert is someone who has expertise on a matter related to the project. A sponsor is the person or group who typically pays for the project. A customer is the person (or group) who typically uses the outcome of the project. Technical lead is a distracter.
Crosswind 4.1
4.3 - Which of the following roles is exclusive to XP (eXtreme Programming)?
(A) Programmer-coach
(B) Product owner
(C) Scrummaster
(D) Project manager
Correct Answer: (A) Programmer-coach
Explanation: The programmer-coach is an XP role. The product owner is a role used across multiple agile approaches. The ScrumMaster is a role used in scrum environments. The project manager is a role typically used in a waterfall environment.
Crosswind 4.3
4.4 - What is the main difference between the scrum team and sprint team?
(A) There is no difference
(B) The sprint team includes the product owner, the scrum team does not
(C) The scrum team includes the product owner, the sprint team does not
(D) The sprint team includes the sponsor, the scrum team does not
Correct Answer: (B) The sprint team includes the product owner, the scrum team does not
Explanation: The sprint team includes the product owner and everyone in the scrum team. The scrum team includes the cross-functional group that will be performing the work of the sprint.
Crosswind 4.3
4.5 - Which of the following roles documents meetings and modeling sessions?
(A) Project manager
(B) Scribe
(C) Scrummaster
(D) Scrum team
Correct Answer: (B) Scribe
Explanation: The scribe is a role that documents items as needed. The project manager is responsible for project delivery. The ScrumMaster supports the scrum framework. The scrum team includes the product owner and the group doing the work of the sprint.
Crosswind 4.3
4.6 - In the absence of an agile coach, which of the following roles is most likely to be coach to the team, regarding scrum framework?
(A) Product owner
(B) Scrummaster
(C) Customer
(D) Tester
Correct Answer: (B) Scrummaster
Explanation: It is not always necessary to have an agile coach, but if you do not have one, the ScrumMaster is most likely to perform coaching roles to help the team optimize performance and support the scrum framework. The product owner will typically care more about what is in the product backlog and prioritization. The customer is typically represented by the product owner. The tester is part of the scrum team.
Crosswind 4.3
4.7 - On a large medical billing system project, the team is large and communication has been quite a challenge to control. The project expediter has been used to help with this problem. What is one of the main differences between the project expediter and the project coordinator?
(A) The project expediter is another title for the project manager
(B) The project expediter is another title for project coordinator
(C) The project expediter typically has no decision-making ability
(D) The project expediter has decision-making ability
Correct Answer: (C) The project expediter typically has no decision-making ability
Explanation: The project expediter and the project coordinator have similar responsibilities with the difference being that the project coordinator has some decision-making ability.
Crosswind 4.1
4.8 - What is the main role of functional managers related to projects?
(A) To provide subject matter experts (SMEs) or services
(B) To manage the project when the project manager isn’t available
(C) To deliver the results of the project
(D) To manage the project managers
Correct Answer: (A) To provide subject matter experts (SMEs) or services
Explanation: Functional managers like human resources managers or accounting managers have a permanent staff and a clear directive to manage all tasks within their domain. Related to projects, however, they may provide SMEs or services to support projects. Project managers do not always report to functional managers. The functional manager runs a department or area of business, not the project manager. To incorporate the project deliverables into normal operations is the role of operations management.
Crosswind 4.1
4.9 - Which of the following is not an example of organizational culture and style?
(A) Accepting the majority of change requests the customer submits
(B) Working long hours, taking work home, and working weekends
(C) Empowering local managers to make most significant decisions
(D) Focusing most product development on a specific market segment
Correct Answer: (D) Focusing most product development on a specific market segment
Explanation: Focusing on a particular market is more a strategic business decision than a cultural aspect. All other answers are examples of the pervasive aspects of organizational culture.
Crosswind 4.5.1
4.10 - Rob is the PM for a project that will update the accounting software to align with new tax laws. Laura, a functional manager that provides resources for the project, keeps removing those resources. The resource removal is causing a schedule delay, which is a major issue since the project roll-out date is scheduled to occur on the date the new regulations go into effect. Because Laura is more concerned with her department’s immediate needs than with the project schedule, she is unconcerned about the schedule delay. Which role can help Rob resolve this issue?
(A) Functional management
(B) Portfolio management
(C) Senior management
(D) Project management
Correct Answer: (C) Senior management
Explanation: The role that can help resolve the problem is senior management. Any member of senior management is hierarchically above a member of functional or project management. Functional management provides resources to project management. Project management is responsible for delivering the project. Portfolio management determines what work should be done to align with a strategic plan.
Crosswind 4.1
4.11 - Which of the following uses cross-functional work teams?
(A) A data warehouse practice
(B) An offshore company
(C) A project that utilizes all groups across a company
(D) Union-approved workplaces
Correct Answer: (C) A project that utilizes all groups across a company
Explanation: A project that utilizes all groups across a company utilizes cross-functional teams to take advantage of the knowledge and skills available. A data warehouse practice is likely a projectized organization. An offshore company is too vague an answer. Union-approved workplaces is a distracter.
Crosswind 4.6.2
4.12 - Which of the following is the most important job for the project manager?
(A) Controlling stakeholders
(B) Controlling unnecessary change
(C) Creating the project management plan
(D) Exceeding customer expectations
Correct Answer: (B) Controlling unnecessary change
Explanation: Controlling unnecessary change is one of the biggest challenges for project managers. If they don’t do this well, the project can go out of control. Creating the project management plan is a good answer, but if changes are out of control, the best plan won’t do any good. Exceeding customer expectations is unnecessary and could likely result in gold plating, which isn’t good. Controlling stakeholders is a distracter. The expectations of stakeholders are to be managed, not controlled.
Crosswind 4.2
4.12 - Which of the following is the most important job for the project manager?
(A) Controlling stakeholders
(B) Controlling unnecessary change
(C) Creating the project management plan
(D) Exceeding customer expectations
Correct Answer: (B) Controlling unnecessary change
Explanation: Controlling unnecessary change is one of the biggest challenges for project managers. If they don’t do this well, the project can go out of control. Creating the project management plan is a good answer, but if changes are out of control, the best plan won’t do any good. Exceeding customer expectations is unnecessary and could likely result in gold plating, which isn’t good. Controlling stakeholders is a distracter. The expectations of stakeholders are to be managed, not controlled.
Crosswind 4.2
4.13 - What is the typical role of senior management on a project?
(A) Support the project
(B) Pay for it
(C) Support the project and resolve resource and other conflicts
(D) Resolve resource and other conflicts
Correct Answer: (C) Support the project and resolve resource and other conflicts
Explanation: Senior management outranks the project manager. They support the project by helping resolve resource issues and other conflicts. The sponsor pays for the project.
Crosswind 4.1
4.14 - Which of the following statements is most accurate?
(A) The project management team and project team are the same thing
(B) The project management team includes project team members
(C) The project team includes project management team members
(D) None of these statements are accurate
Correct Answer: (C) The project team includes project management team members
Explanation: The project team consist of everyone associated with the project, including project management team members. The project management team members only do project management work.
Crosswind 4.1
4.15 - Which of the following stakeholders typically “owns” the work of the project when the project is complete?
(A) Stockholders
(B) The project manager
(C) Functional manager
(D) Operations management
Correct Answer: (D) Operations management
Explanation: Notice the word “typically”. Virtually anyone could own the work, depending on the nature of the project and the product. However, operations management accepts the product from project management, and then operations management incorporates the product or service into normal operations, as well maintains the product or service.
Crosswind 4.1
4.16 - Eric is the PM of a project that is using a waterfall schedule to roll out an ERP system across six departments over six months. The plan is to give each department a month-long timebox to roll out the higher priority features within that department. There is a product owner assigned to each department to determine the higher priority items. What type of structure does this describe?
(A) Waterfall
(B) Agile
(C) Hybrid
(D) Virtua
Correct Answer: (C) Hybrid
Explanation: This type of structure is hybrid because it combines a waterfall schedule with Agile elements (timeboxes and prioritizing). Virtual doesn’t necessarily apply as there isn’t enough information to identify it as an option.
Crosswind 4.6.3
4.17 - Jeff is based in Dallas and is the PM of a project to upgrade the network equipment of over 250 popular retail store locations. He has an accounting team member and an HR team member based in Denver. Jeff estimates that at least 59 network engineers will be required for the multi-state, multi-time zone project. The team will work on the project until all store upgrades are complete. What type of structure is Jeff most likely to use to maximize results?
(A) Projectized
(B) Virtual
(C) Balanced matrix
(D) Departmental
Correct Answer: (B) Virtual
Explanation: A virtual structure will work best since the project has to accommodate people in their local areas. A projectized structure is a possible answer, but doesn’t specifically accommodate the varied time zones and states. A balanced matrix structure uses resources from a functional manager. A departmental structure is a distracter.
Crosswind 4.7.2
4.18 - What is the ideal project manager function regarding project changes?
(A) To delay changes so the project can be completed
(B) To control unnecessary change
(C) To prevent the change control board from seeing any more change than it needs to see
(D) To expedite all change requests to the change control board
Correct Answer: (B) To control unnecessary change
Explanation: The main job of a project manager, other than managing the project itself, is to control unnecessary changes that can derail the project. Delaying changes and protecting the change control board from changes are both unprofessional. Expediting changes to the CCB is not a bad answer but not the best because it doesn’t help in controlling unnecessary change.
Crosswind 4.2
4.19 - Which role controls resources in a typical exam question?
(A) Functional managers
(B) Project managers
(C) Senior managers
(D) Portfolio managers
Correct Answer: (A) Functional managers
Explanation: A typical exam question, unless otherwise stated, assumes a balanced matrix environment, which means that the project manager gets resources from the functional environment.
Crosswind 4.1
4.20 - A business analyst has a career path that has been very important to her throughout the ten years of her career. She is put on a very important project with a strong matrix organizational structure. Which of the following is likely viewed as the most serious drawback of being on the project?
(A) Being away from the group might make career advancement in the department more difficult
(B) Working with people who have similar skills
(C) Working long hours because the project is a high priority
(D) Not being able to take the BAP Certification test because she will be so busy
Correct Answer: (A) Being away from the group might make career advancement in the department more difficult
Explanation: Being away from the normal group and not being able to be as easily promoted is the best answer. Being in a strong matrix environment feels fairly similar to being in a projectized organization where skill set specialty in groups does not have as high a priority. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 4.6.2
4.21 - Which role establishes the product backlog priorities?
(A) Scrummaster
(B) Developer
(C) Product owner
(D) Business owner
Correct Answer: (C) Product Owner
Explanation: The product owner is the role that initially populates the product backlog and prioritizes the items the scrum team will do within a sprint. The ScrumMaster supports the team and scrum framework. The business owner is represented by the product owner. The developer does the work within the sprint.
Crosswind 4.3
4.22 - Who is accountable for creating and executing the project management plan?
(A) The team
(B) The company that was awarded the outsourcing contract
(C) The project manager and the project management team
(D) The project manager
Correct Answer: (D) The project manager
Explanation: The project manager is ultimately responsible for creating the project management plan. This creation typically comes with the help of the project management team. The project manager is responsible for execution of the plan and the team members are responsible for the plan’s activities. The outsourcing answer is a distracter.
Crosswind 4.2
4.23 - What best describes the differences between the sponsor and senior management on a project?
(A) There is no difference
(B) The sponsor supports the project; senior management can own it when done
(C) Senior management controls resources; the sponsor can own the project work when done
(D) The sponsor pays for the work and can own it when done; senior management supports the project
Correct Answer: (D) The sponsor pays for the work and can own it when done; senior management supports the project
Explanation: In projects referenced in the exam, the sponsor typically pays for the project and can own it when complete. Senior management typically supports the project and can resolve resource conflicts when they occur between functional and project work.
Crosswind 4.1
4.24 - The company has recently hired a portfolio manager. Historically it has only hired project managers. Which of the following best describes the focus of a portfolio manager?
(A) Ensuring the work of the project is complete
(B) Ensuring that projects are aligned with programs
(C) Ensuring that programs are part of projects
(D) Ensuring that the right work is done by the organization in that work area
Correct Answer: (D) Ensuring that the right work is done by the organization in that work area
Explanation: The portfolio manager’s main focus is to ensure that the organization is doing the right work in alignment with a strategic plan. The project manager is there to make sure the project work is complete. The other two answers are distracters.
Crosswind 4.1
4.25 - Tom has just been promoted to program manager from his previous role as project manager. Which of the following best describes something he will do as a program manager that being a project manager didn’t specifically require?
(A) Focus on completing deliverables
(B) Focus on managing benefits
(C) Focus on determining the right work to do as a company
(D) Focus on the 3 to 5-year plan
Correct Answer: (B) Focus on managing benefits
Explanation: A program manager has a number of responsibilities and skills in common with a project manager; however a program manager focuses on managing benefits. Benefits management typically results from the outcome of multiple projects and it is the program manager that oversees multiple projects. Completing deliverables is the focus of both the project manager and program manager. The 3-5 year (strategic) plan is what determines the right work to do as an organization and is the focus of the portfolio manager or the portfolio review board.
Crosswind 4.1
4.26 - Which of the following best describes a stakeholder on a project?
(A) A team member
(B) The project manager
(C) Someone who works in an area impacted by the work of the project
(D) All the answers
(A) A team member
(B) The project manager
(C) Someone who works in an area impacted by the work of the project
Correct Answer: (D) All the answers
Explanation: The stakeholder can be anyone impacted by the project. A stakeholder could be the sponsor, senior management, project manager, functional manager, team member, or end user.
Crosswind 4.1
4.27 - The ScrumMaster is often thought of as a servant leader. Which of the following parts of the ScrumMaster position best fits that description?
(A) Running the daily stand-up meeting
(B) Facilitating the retrospective meeting
(C) Removing obstacles encountered by the team
(D) Working with the product owner
Correct Answer: (C) Removing obstacles encountered by the team
Explanation: While all of the answers represent the responsibilities of the ScrumMaster, the responsibility that cannot be shared with or delegated to any other role is removing obstacles encountered by the team (based on servant leader mantra of putting others before themselves).
Crosswind 4.3
4.28 - Blue Star Manufacturing is changing the framework of their business from a traditional structure. They have decided to make development engineering a stand alone department that will create new products and have eight regional offices with deployment teams that will install and support the new products at customer locations. Which of the following best describes this structure?
(A) Project-based
(B) Strong matrix
(C) Agile
(D) Hybrid
Correct Answer: (D) Hybrid
Explanation: The hybrid structure connects people and positions as needed, which describes the new Blue Star Manufacturing framework. A project-based structure would focus only on project work without operations or support. A strong matrix structure is almost entirely project-based. Agile is a project approach that uses time-boxes and expects change to occur.
Crosswind 4.6.3
4.29 - Which of the following roles are least likely to be part of the project management team?
(A) Schedule manager
(B) Risk manager
(C) Budget manager
(D) Developer
Correct Answer: (D) Developer
Explanation: The project management team consists of people doing management work related to projects, such as managing schedules, budgets, risks, issues, contracts, etc. A developer is a team member, but not a member of the project management team.
Crosswind 4.1
4.30 - Which of the following is an advantage of a functional organization?
(A) Having a home to go to when the project is complete
(B) Not having a home when the project is complete
(C) Having more than one project to work on
(D) Having more than one boss
Correct Answer: (A) Having a home to go to when the project is complete
Explanation: Having a home when the project is complete is a key advantage of a functional organization. Having more than one boss and more than one project could be characteristics of a matrix organization.
Crosswind 4.6.1
In discussing risk with his project team, the project manager begins the conversation by defining risk. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of risk?
(A) A possible negative event that can impact the project
(B) A possible positive event that can impact the project
(C) Answers (A) and (B)
(D) A negative issue that occurs as a result of uncertain factors
Correct Answer: (C) Answers (A) and (B)
Explanation: Risk can be of negative or positive consequence on a project. It is something that can occur but hasn’t yet. Risk involves uncertainty with regard to what could occur, not what has occurred.
Exam Tip of the Day #57
Your company is involved in a new project in which the information and intellectual property associated with it are highly sensitive. Given this, which of the following makes the most sense when planning the project?
(A) Outsourcing and having the partner sign a non-disclosure agreement
(B) Having only the creators of the idea work on the project to control who knows about the intellectual property
(C) Outsourcing to an offshore development facility so your local competitors won’t know your intellectual property details
(D) Making the product internally
Correct Answer: (D) Making the product internally
Explanation: When intellectual property and proprietary information are involved, it makes sense for a company to keep the work internal. Having an outsourcing partner sign a non-disclosure agreement is not the best answer. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #58
Sam is running a project to upgrade a client’s website to a new framework. Expectation management as been very challenging on this project. Sam has had challenges keeping the main sponsor involved as the project has evolved. Currently Sam is managing stakeholder engagement. Which of the following best describes what he will expect to create?
(A) Updates to the stakeholder engagement plan, change log and issue log
(B) Approved change requests and updated stakeholder registry
(C) Resolved issues and approved change requests
(D) Updated stakeholder registry, resolved issues, and change requests
Correct Answer: (A) Updates to the stakeholder engagement plan, change log and issue log
Explanation: The outputs for the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process are change requests, project management plan updates, communication management plan updates, stakeholder engagement plan updates, project documents updates, change log updates issue log updates, lessons learned register updates and stakeholder register updates.
Exam Tip of the Day #59
A functional manager has come to you and reported that the work due today is going to be three weeks late but requested that you do not report this to senior management. The functional manager is well respected by everyone with the exception of one senior manager who seems to take every opportunity to make the functional manager look bad. What is your professional and social responsibility in this case?
(A) Report the status in an accurate and timely manner
(B) Report the status in an accurate manner, but do not add any details about the expected length of the delay
(C) Report the status in an accurate and timely manner, but eliminate it from the summary, burying it within the detailed report where it would not be noticed
(D) Delay reporting the slippage in the hope that the project will soon get back on schedule and need not be reported
Correct Answer: (A) Report the status in an accurate and timely manner
Explanation: As a project manager, you are required to report a status in an accurate and timely manner. Failing to fully disclose the status, to bury the “bad news,” or to delay reporting the slippage (while hoping it gets back on schedule) represent a failure of professional and social responsibility.
Exam Tip of the Day #60
Which of the following is an example of a standard?
(A) Data transfer rate for Thunderbolt 3.0 connections
(B) The number of slides in your last presentation
(C) The shade of paint selected to paint your office
(D) The average speed that someone drives to work
Correct Answer: (A) Data transfer rate for Thunderbolt 3.0 connections
Explanation: A standard is a measurement for something that is consistent and generally accepted. In this case, the data transfer rate for Thunderbolt 3.0 connections is the only “standard” listed in the answers.
Exam Tip of the Day #61
All the following are typically components of the project management plan except…
(A) The schedule management plan
(B) The knowledge management plan
(C) The risk management plan
(D) The requirements management plan
Correct Answer: (B) The knowledge management plan
Explanation: The knowledge management plan is a distracter. Manage project knowledge actually is an executing process resulting in a lessons learned register. The other items are typically in the project management plan.
Exam Tip of the Day #62
5.1 - Of the following statements, which is correct?
(A) The key output of the plan resource management process is the resource management plan
(B) The key output of the plan resource management process is the staffing management plan
(C) The key output of the acquire project team process is the resource management plan
(D) The key output of the acquire project team process is the staffing management plan
Correct Answer: (A) The key output of the plan resource management process is the resource management plan
Explanation: The key output of the Plan Resource Management process is the resource management plan.
Crosswind 5.1.1
5.2 - You are the project manager on a headquarter remodeling project. You are in the process of creating resource requirements. What do you need to reference to complete this document?
(A) The resource management plan
(B) Performance assessment
(C) Working agreement
(D) Organizational breakdown structure
Correct Answer: (A) The resource management plan
Explanation: The plan resource management process occurs before the estimate activity resources. The plan resource management process creates the resource management plan which is needed to create resource requirements. Working agreement is a distracter. The other two answers would come after creating resource requirements.
Crosswind 5.1
5.3 - The project manager has created the resource management plan and is getting ready to start the project soon. Résumés are being reviewed and some people have been interviewed. The lead candidate for the technical architecture position has been offered a position. In what process is the project manager involved?
(A) Hiring and interviewing
(B) Develop team
(C) Estimate activity resources
(D) Acquire resources
Correct Answer: (D) Acquire resources
Explanation: Acquire resources involves among other things, getting people on the project. The estimate activity resources process occurs before interviewing starts. Develop team occurs after staff acquisition is complete. Hiring and interviewing is a distracter.
Crosswind 5.3
5.4 - During the plan resource management process of a critical project, the project management team is creating a responsibility assignment matrix. What benefit does this provide for the team?
(A) The team will know who is responsible for what work
(B) The team will know who does what work and when they are to do it
(C) The team will know the location in which the work is performed
(D) The team will know the sequence in which the resources are to perform the activities
Correct Answer: (A) The team will know who is responsible for what work
Explanation: The responsibility assignment matrix shows who is responsible for what work on the project. The Gantt chart shows who does what work and when they are to do it. The network diagram provides the sequence that the resources are to perform the activities in. At what location the work is done is a distracter.
Crosswind 5.1.3
5.5 - The project manager is in the executing phase of a financial regulatory project. Which of the following is the project manager most likely to use to stay updated on the project?
(A) Personnel management
(B) Interpersonal and team skills
(C) Organizational process assets
(D) Change request
Correct Answer: (B) Interpersonal and team skills
Explanation: Interpersonal and team skills can be used by the project manager in the forms of conflict management, decision making, emotional intelligence, influencing, and leadership. Personnel management is a distracter. Organizational process assets are not specific to the project. Change requests are not necessarily valid since they are not approved and they do not reflect important project information, such as task status and team interaction among other items.
Crosswind 5.4
5.6 - You are the project manager on a global mapping project. You are having issues with your team and conflict. You are trying to identify a document that can help provide guidance about how the team can work together, their values, and anything else that helps maximize chemistry and output. Which document are you most likely to reference?
(A) Working agreement
(B) Team charter
(C) Organizational breakdown structure
(D) Resource management plan
Correct Answer: (B) Team charter
Explanation: The team charter is a document that describes team values, how they interact with each other, work together and value each other. A working agreement is another name for the team charter. An organizational breakdown structure shows roles and people. The resource management plan provides guidance about how to perform resource processes.
Crosswind 5.1
5.7 - The project is experiencing conflict as the planning evolves. Of the following, which is the most common set of tools the project manager can utilize to minimize conflict?
(A) Ground rules, interpersonal skills, and project management practices
(B) Ground rules, group norms, and project management practices
(C) Ground rules, group norms, networking and project management practices
(D) Ground rules, interpersonal skills, networking, and project management practices
Correct Answer: (B) Ground rules, group norms, and project management practices
Explanation: The common set of tools the project manager can utilize to minimize conflict are ground rules, group norms, and project management practices.
Crosswind 5.5.1
5.8 - The project manager of the systems upgrade project uses a variety of power types. Which of the following is an example of penalty power?
(A) The project manager instructs the team leaders to prepare status reports for the weekly meeting
(B) The project manager takes the most productive team member to lunch at an expensive restaurant
(C) The project manager announces that those who do not complete their tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality will be ineligible for a bonus
(D) The project manager’s degree and prior work experience were in systems engineering
Correct Answer: (C) The project manager announces that those who do not complete their tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality will be ineligible for a bonus
Explanation: Penalty power comes from the project manager’s ability to penalize an employee when his work is inadequate. Formal power is derived from the project charter for the project manager. Reward power comes from the project manager’s ability to reward an employee for good work. Expert power derives from expertise in a discipline.
Crosswind 5.1.10
5.9 - The project manager needs to motivate his team and reviews Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs as a basis for his motivational strategy. Which of the following are the components of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?
(A) Physiological, achievement, esteem, psychological, safety, and self-actualization
(B) Physiological, safety, belonging, esteem, and self-actualization
(C) Physiological, achievement, esteem, safety, and self-actualization
(D) Physiological, belonging, esteem, psychological safety, and self-actualization
Correct Answer: (B) Physiological, safety, belonging, esteem, and self-actualization
Explanation: The levels of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs are physiological, safety, belonging, esteem, and self-actualization.
Crosswind 5.1.5
5.10 - You have been assigned a new project. You are currently interviewing people and have extended a few offers for people to join the team. What process will be performed next?
(A) Estimate activity resources
(B) Manage team
(C) Develop team
(D) Acquire resources
Correct Answer: (C) Develop team
Explanation: The process being described is acquire resources. That is followed by develop team which takes the group of people and helps get them into a high performing unit. Manage team addresses team related issues. Estimate activity resources precedes acquire resources.
Crosswind 5.4
5.11 - Prescott University is putting together its fall schedule. It is currently trying to align classes, instructors, and classrooms to ensure that every class offering has a room and an instructor. Which of the following is the best basis for this alignment?
(A) Resource list
(B) Resource breakdown structure
(C) Resource sheet
(D) Resource breakdown list
Correct Answer: (B) Resource breakdown structure
Explanation: The resource breakdown structure is used to show where resources (in this case, the rooms and instructors) are being used. The resource list simply shows what resources are available. The resource sheet is similar to a resource list. The resource breakdown list is a distracter.
Crosswind 5.2.1
5.12 - You get a new job at a company as a project management consultant. The environment does waterfall, agile and hybrid projects. You are put on a team working on an application upgrade in an agile environment. You are currently doing the develop team process. Which of the following roles is responsible for this process?
(A) The team
(B) The project manager
(C) The scrummaster
(D) The product owner
Correct Answer: (A) The team
Explanation: In an agile environment, the team is self-organizing and self-managing, thus the responsibility falls to the team. The project manager is a distracter, as you do not have a project manager in an agile environment. The ScrumMaster helps facilitate the scrum framework and remove obstacles from the team. The product owner establishes product features, priorities, and other relevant details.
Crosswind 8.3.1
5.13 - What can a responsibility assignment matrix eliminate?
(A) Confusion about the order of the activities
(B) Confusion about who is responsible for what
(C) Confusion about the durations of the activities
(D) Confusion about who is on the team
Correct Answer: (B) Confusion about who is responsible for what
Explanation: The responsibility assignment matrix shows who is responsible for what areas on the project. The network diagram provides guidance on what order the activities occur. The organizational structure confirms who is on the team, and what the reporting structure is. The Gantt chart or schedule shows how long the activities are.
Crosswind 5.1.3
5.14 - The project has had some challenges. Members of the team have needed constant supervision to perform the activities for which they are responsible, they do not seem to trust management, and often appear unmotivated. This is an example of what?
(A) Insufficient team building
(B) Theory X environment
(C) Insufficient project team training
(D) Theory Y environment
Correct Answer: (B) Theory X environment
Explanation: Typically in a Theory X environment, employees must be told what to do, have distrust for management, and lack motivation. Theory Y is the opposite. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 5.1.5
5.15 - Senior management has promoted their best electrical engineer to the position of engineering project manager. The promotion was based on the Halo Theory. Of the following, what is the best definition of the Halo Theory?
(A) An effective employee in a discipline will become an effective employee in another discipline
(B) An effective employee in a discipline will become an effective manager in that discipline
(C) An effective employee in a discipline will become an effective employee in another discipline with training
(D) An effective employee in a discipline will become an effective manager in that discipline with training
Correct Answer: (B) An effective employee in a discipline will become an effective manager in that discipline
Explanation: The Halo Theory implies that supervisors often rate employees as having wholly desirable traits, or wholly undesirable traits. Making the assumption that an effective technical employee (a single favorable characteristic) WILL transfer to an effective project manager is an example of this bias. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 5.3.1
5.16 - Of the following, which are the key tools and techniques of the acquire resources process?
(A) Multi-criteria decision analysis, negotiation, interpersonal and team skills, pre-assignment, and virtual teams
(B) Multi-criteria decision analysis, negotiation, pre-assignment, and virtual teams
(C) Multi-criteria decision analysis, negotiation, networking, pre-assignment, and virtual teams
(D) Multi-criteria decision analysis, negotiation, interpersonal and team skills, networking, pre-assignment, and virtual team
Correct Answer: (B) Multi-criteria decision analysis, negotiation, pre-assignment, and virtual teams
Explanation: The tools and techniques of the Acquire Resources process are: decision-making, interpersonal and team skills, multi-criteria decision analysis, negotiations, pre-assignment, and virtual teams.
Crosswind 5.3
5.17 - The project manager is taking a leave of absence and the company has just designated his replacement. The new project manager is known as a director. Of the following, which best describes negative characteristics of this type of manager?
(A) This style of management is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner
(B) This style of management is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project
(C) This style of management is focused on specific activities and goals and may fail to see opportunities that arise in the project
(D) This style of management is focused on helping employees take on new skills and roles, which may create quality issues
Correct Answer: (C) This style of management is focused on specific activities and goals and may fail to see opportunities that arise in the project
Explanation: The director is focused on specific activities and goals and may fail to see opportunities that arise. The facilitator is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner. The visionary is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project. The mentor is focused on helping employees take on new skills and roles that may create quality issues.
Crosswind 5.1.8
5.18 - Which of the following are the processes in the resource knowledge area?
(A) Identify stakeholders, plan resource management, acquire resources, develop team, manage team, control resources
(B) Plan resource management, acquire resources, develop team, monitor project team
(C) Plan resource management, estimate activity resources, acquire resources, develop team, manage team, control resources
(D) Plan resource management, acquire resources, train project team, manage project team
Correct Answer: (C) Plan resource management, estimate activity resources, acquire resources, develop team, manage team, control resources
Explanation: The six processes in the Resource knowledge area are Plan Resource Management, Estimate Activity Resources, Acquire Resources, Develop Team, Manage Team, and Control Resources. Identify Stakeholders comes from the Stakeholder knowledge area. Monitor project team and train project team are distracters.
Crosswind 5 - Introduction
5.19 - Leadership and managerial style evolve within the project management life cycle. Of the following, which is the best description of the evolution of leadership and managerial style?
(A) Directing, coaching, delegation, facilitation, and support
(B) Directing, mentoring, facilitation, and support
(C) Directing, mentoring, delegation, facilitation, and support
(D) Directing, coaching, facilitation, and support
Correct Answer: (D) Directing, coaching, facilitation, and support
Explanation: The evolution of leadership and managerial style starts with directing. As the project gains momentum, coaching is applied. When significant work is completed facilitation comes into play. Support is applied as the project is closing.
Crosswind 5.1.6
5.20 - The project manager is taking a leave of absence and the company has just designated his replacement. The new project manager is known as a visionary. Of the following, which best describes negative characteristics of this type of manager?
(A) This style of management is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner
(B) This style of management is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project
(C) This style of management is focused on specific activities and goals and may fail to see opportunities that arise in the project
(D) This style of management is focused on helping employees take on new skills and roles, which may create quality issues
Correct Answer: (B) This style of management is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project
Explanation: The visionary is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project. The facilitator is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner. The director is focused on specific activities and goals and may fail to see opportunities that arise. The mentor is focused on helping employees take on new skills and roles that may create quality issues.
Crosswind 5.1.8
5.21 - All of the following are techniques a project manager or organization can use to acquire resources except?
(A) Negotiation
(B) Pre-assignment
(C) Co-location
(D) Virtual teams
Correct Answer: (C) Colocation
Explanation: The tools and techniques of the Acquire Resources process are: decision-making, interpersonal and team skills, multi-criteria decision analysis, negotiations, pre-assignment, and virtual teams.
Crossswind 5.3
5.22 - You are a project manager for the Mr. Understood concert tour. Your project consists of people, equipment, transportation and in each city contractors at the concert venue. Resource management is a large part of the project. When looking at trends and emerging practices in resource management, which of the following best describes what you will consider?
(A) Human resource management methods, emotional intelligence, self-organizing teams, virtual and distributed teams
(B) Resource management methods, emotional intelligence, self-organizing teams, virtual and distributed teams
(C) Resource management methods, emotional intelligence, self-organizing teams, co-located teams
(D) Resource management methods, soft skills, self-organizing teams, virtual and distributed teams
Correct Answer: (B) Resource management methods, emotional intelligence, self-organizing teams, virtual and distributed teams
Explanation: Trends and emerging practices in resource management are resource management methods such as lean, just in time (JIT), Kaizen, total productive maintenance (TPM), theory of constraints (TOC), emotional intelligence (EI), self-organizing teams, and virtual and distributed teams.
Crosswind 5 - Introduction
5.23 - The project manager on the systems alignment project is characterized by his penchant for delegation. Effective delegation is a very positive managerial tool. Of the following, which best describes effective delegation?
(A) Effective delegation involves effective communication: a clear definition of the work to be done, the time frame in which the work is to be done, and descriptions of the evaluation process, the milestones, and expected results are all necessary
(B) Effective delegation involves effective communication: a clear definition of the work to be done, the steps needed to accomplish the work, the time frame in which the work is to be done, and descriptions of the evaluation process, the milestones, and expected results are all necessary
(C) Effective delegation involves effective communication: a clear definition of the work to be done, the steps needed to accomplish the work, the time frame in which the work is to be done, and descriptions of the evaluation process and expected results are all necessary
(D) Effective delegation involves effective communication: a clear definition of the work to be done, the time frame in which the work is to be done, and descriptions of the evaluation process and expected results are all necessary
Correct Answer: (D) Effective delegation involves effective communication: a clear definition of the work to be done, the time frame in which the work is to be done, and descriptions of the evaluation process and expected results are all necessary
Explanation: Effective delegation involves effective communication: a clear definition of the work to be done, the time frame in which the work is to be done, and descriptions of the evaluation process and expected results are all necessary.
Crosswind 5.1.7
5.24 - The project manager is taking a leave of absence and the company has just designated his replacement. The new project manager is known as a facilitator. Of the following, which best describes negative characteristics of this type of manager?
(A) This style of management is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner
(B) This style of management is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project
(C) This style of management is focused on specific activities and goals and may fail to see opportunities that arise in the project
(D) This style of management is focused on helping employees take on new skills and roles, which may create quality issues
Correct Answer: (A) This style of management is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner
Explanation: The facilitator is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner. The visionary is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project. The director is focused on specific activities and goals and may fail to see opportunities that arise. The mentor is focused on helping employees take on new skills and roles that may create quality issues.
Crosswind 5.1.8
5.25 - You are the project manager on a SAN project. You are doing the manage team process. This has been very time consuming and unpredictable. What process did you just complete?
(A) Develop team
(B) Control resources
(C) Acquire resources
(D) Develop staff
Correct Answer: (A) Develop team
Explanation: The develop team process precedes the manage team process. Control resources follows manage team. Acquire resources is before develop team. Develop staff is a distracter.
Crosswind 5.5
5.26 - The project manager role is evolving from its focus on planning, directing, and organizing to…
(A) Evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, cross-training, coaching, and motivating
(B) Evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, coaching, mentoring, and motivating
(C) Evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, coaching, and motivating
(D) Evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, cross-training, coaching, mentoring, and motivating
Correct Answer: (C) Evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, coaching, and motivating
Explanation: The project manager role is evolving from its focus on planning, directing, and organizing to evolving team performance, managing key stakeholder expectations, coaching, and motivating.
Crosswind 5.1.7
5.27 - A highly visible IT project has attracted some of the brightest developers in the company. Unfortunately, the potential for conflict is also high. The project manager will rely on all her skill sets to complete the project successfully. She is very aware that her interpersonal skills can influence the project’s outcome. What are the specific interpersonal skills she is most likely to utilize?
(A) Active listening, negotiation skills, accommodating, and influencing
(B) Leadership, negotiation, and influencing
(C) Conflict management, influencing, motivation, negotiation, and team building
(D) Leadership, effective decision-making, active listening, and influencing
Correct Answer: (C) Conflict management, influencing, motivation, negotiation, and team building
Explanation: Interpersonal and team skills used in project management can include conflict management, influencing, motivation, negotiation, and team building.
Crosswind 5.4
5.28 - Motivational theories are useful for motivating employees and creating a productive work environment. A popular theory is McGregor’s Theory Y. Of the following, which best explains this theory?
(A) If labor can and wants to see the ultimate reason for doing the work (big picture), management can set the expectation and lead rather than manage
(B) Labor is unmotivated and needs to be told what to do; therefore, management must supervise
(C) Labor will work if given a sense of achievement, power, and affiliation
(D) Labor’s prime motivation to work is to meet basic needs, but will work responsibly to meet higher needs such as esteem
Correct Answer: (A) If labor can and wants to see the ultimate reason for doing the work (big picture), management can set the expectation and lead rather than manage
Explanation: McGregor’s Theory Y states, in essence, that if labor can and wants to see the ultimate reason for doing the work (big picture), management can set the expectation and lead rather than manage. The theory is a modernization of McGregor’s Theory X, which states that labor is not motivated, needs to be told what to do, and management must supervise. McClelland’s achievement theory loosely states that labor will work if given a sense of achievement, power, and affiliation. Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs simply lists five needs and management’s job is to use upward mobility within the hierarchy as motivation.
Crosswind 5.1.5
5.29 - You are the project manager at Pro Sound company. You are mapping out four different cross-country tours with audio equipment and road crews to setup and maintain the equipment in every city. Managing these resources will be a challenge, factoring in resource limitations and where they will be. What tools make the most sense to use to organize this situation?
(A) Resource list
(B) Resource breakdown structure
(C) Organizational breakdown structure
(D) Work breakdown structure
Correct Answer: (B) Resource breakdown structure
Explanation: The mentor is focused on helping employees take on new skills and roles, which may create quality issues. The facilitator is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner. The visionary is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project. The director is focused on specific activities and goals and may fail to see opportunities that arise.
Crosswind 5.29
5.30 - The project manager of the systems upgrade project uses a variety of power types. Which of the following is an example of expert power?
(A) The project manager instructs the team leaders to prepare status reports for the weekly meeting
(B) The project manager takes the most productive team member to lunch at an expensive restaurant
(C) The project manager announces that those who do not complete their tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality will be ineligible for a bonus
(D) The project manager’s degree and prior work experience were in systems engineering
Correct Answer: (D) The project manager’s degree and prior work experience were in systems engineering
Explanation: Expert power derives from expertise in a discipline. Formal power is derived from the project charter for the project manager. Reward power comes from the project manager’s ability to reward an employee for good work. Penalty power comes from the project manager’s ability to penalize an employee when his work is inadequate.
Crosswind 5.1.10
8.1 - Of the following, which best describes the manner in which the project charter can be used?
(A) To determine the high-level scope
(B) To authorize the project
(C) To create the budget
(D) All of the answers
(A) To determine the high-level scope
(B) To authorize the project
(C) To create the budget
Correct Answer: (D) All of the answers
Explanation: The project charter describes the project scope, is used to authorize the project, and contains the charge and funding codes needed for the budget. The project charter is used for both a traditional and an Agile project.
Crosswind 9.6
8.2 - Jesse is a scrummaster on a product called New Blue. He is using scrum as a development approach with two week sprints. Which of the following would he use to show the total points still to do in the current sprint?
(A) Sprint backlog
(B) Product backlog
(C) Burnup chart
(D) Burndown chart
Correct Answer: (D) Burndown chart
Explanation: The burndown chart shows the points still remaining to do, and done points in a sprint so far. The sprint backlog lists all items in the current sprint that the team commits to doing. The product backlog lists all current items that the product owner potentially wants the team to complete. The burnup chart shows points total done across all sprints.
Crosswind 8.5.8
8.3 - Which of the following describes the purpose of a story map?
(A) To identify the activities the users will perform
(B) To prioritize user stories
(C) To depict the manner in which the user stories fit to perform a releasable product
(D) To match users with the activities they will perform
Correct Answer: (C) To depict the manner in which the user stories fit to perform a releasable product
Explanation: The purpose of a story map is to depict the manner in which the user stories fit to perform a releasable product. The other answers represent steps taken to create the story map.
Crosswind 8.5.17
A sprint is the equivalent of…
(A) A phase
(B) An iteration
(C) A release
(D) A burn-down chart
Correct Answer: (B) An iteration
Explanation: A sprint, a timeboxed duration of project work, is the equivalent of an iteration. A phase is a term associated with a traditional project. A release consists of an organized group of sprints/iterations. A burn-down chart is the visual representation of the rate at which work is being completed.
Crosswind 8.3
8.5 - Which of the following is the definition of done in relation to a user story?
(A) All unit, integration, and customer tests for the code representing the user story have been passed
(B) The code representing the user story has been integrated into the software
(C) The customer has accepted the code representing the user story
(D) The functionality expressed in the user story is ready to deploy
Correct Answer: (D) The functionality expressed in the user story is ready to deploy
Explanation: The definition of done, in relation to a user story, is that the functionality expressed in the user story is ready to deploy. The other answers are items likely to be included in a checklist created to ensure that all members of the team understand the definition of done.
Crosswind 8.5.18
8.6 - What is the primary responsibility of the scrummaster?
(A) To ensure adherence to Agile principles
(B) To undertake the role of the coach/facilitator
(C) To ensure the project is on schedule
(D) To minimize changes to the project
Correct Answer: (A) To ensure adherence to Agile principles
Explanation: The primary responsibility of the ScrumMaster is to ensure that Agile principles are followed by the development team. Agile projects typically embrace scope changes, adjusting schedule and budget in accordance with the wishes of the product owner/customer.
Crosswind 8.3.1
8.7 - What does a burnup chart depict?
(A) Number of features to be completed for the project
(B) Number of story points to be completed for the project
(C) Number of story points completed for the project
(D) Number of features completed for the project
Correct Answer: (C) Number of story points completed for the project
Explanation: The burnup chart depicts the number of story points that have been completed for the project. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 8.5.9
8.8 - Walter is a product owner on a product called New Blue. He is using scrum as a development approach with two week sprints. Which of the following would he and Jesse the scrummaster use to show the total points done so far and still to do?
(A) Sprint backlog
(B) Product backlog
(C) Burnup chart
(D) Burndown chart
Correct Answer: (D) Burndown chart
Explanation: The burndown chart shows the points still remaining to do, and done points in a sprint so far. The sprint backlog lists all items in the current sprint that the team commits to doing. The product backlog lists all current items that the product owner potentially wants the team to complete. The burnup chart shows points total done across all sprints.
Crosswind 8.5.8
8.9 - Of the following, which best describes the documentation for an Agile project?
(A) No documentation
(B) Full documentation
(C) An appropriate, but not excessive, level of documentation
(D) The backlog only
Correct Answer: (C) An appropriate, but not excessive, level of documentation
Explanation: A common misconception regarding documentation for Agile projects is that documentation should be eliminated. Documentation for an Agile project is appropriately minimized.
Crosswind 8.1.1
8.10 - Verification and validation occur at a number of levels. Which of the following levels only occurs during verification?
(A) User story level
(B) Release level
(C) Task level
(D) Iteration level
Correct Answer: (C) Task level
Explanation: Verification occurs at the task level, the user story level, the iteration level, the release level, and the completed product level; validation occurs at the user story level, the iteration level, the release level, and the completed product level.
Crosswind 8.5.22
8.11 - The term for an organized group of sprints is…
(A) A phase
(B) An iteration
(C) A release
(D) A burn-down chart
Correct Answer: (C) A release
Explanation: A release consists of an organized group of sprints/iterations. A sprint, a timeboxed duration of project work, is the Scrum equivalent of an iteration. A phase is a term associated with a traditional project. A burn-down chart is the visual representation of the rate at which work is being completed.
Crosswind 8.3.1
8.12 - Which prioritization method designates each feature as a threshold, linear, or exciter and delighter?
(A) Kano
(B) Moscow
(C) Tled
(D) Bliss
Correct Answer: (A) Kano
Explanation: The Kano method designates each feature as a threshold, linear, or exciter and delighter. The MoSCoW method designates each feature as a must have, should have, could have, or would have. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 8.5.30
8.13 - Walter is a product owner on a product called New Blue. He is using scrum as a development approach with two-week sprints. How will Jesse and the team estimate their work?
(A) Duration
(B) Hours
(C) Dollars
(D) Story Points
Correct Answer: (D) Story Points
Explanation: In agile projects, it’s common to use story points to estimate work.
For example: 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 20, 40, 100 are modified Fibonacci numbers. Estimates of duration or hours can cause issues with ideal vs. real time. Dollars are generally tracked outside of the sprint.
Crosswind 8.5.13
8.14 - eXtreme Programming (XP) roles consist of…
(A) Coach, customer, and tracker
(B) Coach, product owner, programmer, and tracker
(C) Coach, customer, and programmer
(D) Programmer, coach, and tracker
Correct Answer: (C) Coach, customer, and programmer
Explanation: The roles used in eXtreme Programming (XP) are coach, customer, and programmer. Some XP projects include a tracker and designated tester, but those roles may fall to the programmer.
Crosswind 8.3
8.15 - Which of the following best describes a good user story?
(A) Independent, negligible, valuable, estimable, small, and transparent
(B) Independent, negligible, variable, estimable, small, and transparent
(C) Independent, negotiable, valuable, estimable, small, and testable
(D) Independent, negotiable, valuable, estimable, short, and testable
Correct Answer: (C) Independent, negotiable, valuable, estimable, small, and testable
Explanation: The characteristics that describe a good user story are represented by the acronym INVEST: independent, negotiable, valuable, estimable, small, and testable. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 8.5.18
8.16 - The best description of the approach utilized for a lean-agile project is…
(A) Maximize speed
(B) Maximize velocity
(C) Maximize work not yet done
(D) Maximize deliverables
Correct Answer: (C) Maximize work not yet done
Explanation: The approach utilized for Lean-Agile projects is maximization of work not yet done. That means that you should do only what needs to be done when it needs to be done.
Crosswind 8.3.2
8.17 - Which tool can be used to evaluate what could potentially cause defects in a project or process?
(A) Ishikawa diagram
(B) Cumulative flow diagram
(C) Effect diagram
(D) Kanban board
Correct Answer: (A) Ishikawa diagram
Explanation: An Ishikawa diagram can be used to evaluate what could potentially cause defects in a project or process. A cumulative flow diagram charts the progress of each significant product feature. The effect diagram is a distracter. The Kanban board is used to track workflow.
Crosswind 8.3.1
8.18 - Who is primarily responsible for updating the product backlog?
(A) The product owner
(B) The team
(C) The scrummaster
(D) The project manager
Correct Answer: (A) The product owner
Explanation: The product owner is responsible for managing the backlog. The team is responsible for completing sprint work. The ScrumMaster is responsible for maintaining Scrum principles in the project environment. The project manager is responsible for delivering project results in a traditional project environment.
Crosswind 8.3.1
8.19 - Jessie is a scrummaster on a New Blue marketing campaign project. What will Jessie and his team use as a reference to the work in the current iteration?
(A) Sprint backlog
(B) Product backlog
(C) Burnup chart
(D) Burndown chart
Correct Answer: (A) Sprint Backlog
Explanation: The sprint backlog lists all items in the current sprint that the team commits to doing. The product backlog lists all current items that the product owner potentially wants the team to complete. The burnup chart shows points total done across all sprints. The burndown chart shows the points still remaining to do, and done points in a sprint so far.
Crosswind 8.3.1
8.20 - Who is responsible for updating the Kanban board?
(A) The scrummaster
(B) The change manager
(C) The team
(D) The test department
Correct Answer: (C) The team
Explanation: A Kanban board can be used to track progress on work pieces. As work moves from one stage to another the team is responsible for updating the board. The ScrumMaster maintains Scrum principles. The change manager and test department are distracters.
Crosswind 8.5.6
8.21 - What unit of measurement depicts the size of a user story in relation to the other user stories in the project?
(A) Relative size
(B) Story size
(C) Story point
(D) Story density
Correct Answer: (C) Story point
Explanation: The story point is used to depict the size of a user story relative to the size of the other user stories in the project. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 8.5.13
8.22 - What is generally thought of as the most popular Agile framework?
(A) Crystal
(B) Lean
(C) Kanban
(D) Scrum
Correct Answer: (D) Scrum
Explanation: Scrum is generally considered the most popular Agile framework. It utilizes sprints and daily scrums to accomplish work in the backlog.
Crosswind 8.3
8.23 - Walter and Jesse are having issues on the product at the sprint review meeting. Walter, the product owner is saying that the iteration doesn’t do what is expected. Jesse, the scrummaster says it does what is expected. What is the core problem most likely here?
(A) Inconsistent requirements
(B) Incorrect user story
(C) No clear definition of done
(D) Walter changed his mind
Correct Answer: (C) No clear definition of done
Explanation: The issue appears to be a lack of clear definition of done. Definition of done is a very clear, non-ambiguous description of what the product iteration should look, work and feel like when done. All the other answers would be offset, or could be worked through with a clear definition of done.
Crosswind 8.5.20
8.24 - What organization was responsible for the creation of the Agile Manifesto?
(A) Agile alliance
(B) Scrum alliance
(C) Agile management institute
(D) Scrum management institute
Correct Answer: (A) Agile alliance
Explanation: The Agile Alliance of 17 people created the Agile Manifesto in 2001. The Scrum Alliance is a Scrum organization. The other two answers are distracters.
Crosswind 8.1
8.25 - In an Agile project, who is most likely to make decisions regarding scope trade-offs?
(A) Sponsor
(B) Team
(C) Scrummaster
(D) Product owner/customer
Correct Answer: (D) Product owner/customer
Explanation: In an Agile project, the product owner/customer typically makes decisions regarding scope trade-offs because that role is responsible for the user story backlog. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 8.3.1
8.26 - Which of the following is used to apply iterations to an Agile project?
(A) Iteration 0 (zero)
(B) Phases
(C) Phase gates
(D) Process groups
Correct Answer: (A) Iteration 0 (zero)
Explanation: Iteration 0 occurs before the first project iteration and is used for planning. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 8.3.1
8.27 - What best describes the information expected from each team member during the daily stand-up?
(A) Work status and roadblocks
(B) Work status and concerns
(C) Work status and new information the team should know
(D) Work status
Correct Answer: (C) Work status and new information the team should know
Explanation: During the daily stand-up, each team member is expected to provide work status information and any new information the team should know. The other answers are incomplete.
Crosswind 8.3.1
8.28 - Which of the following is generally considered the opposite of an Agile approach?
(A) Scrum
(B) XP
(C) Waterfall
(D) Kanban
Correct Answer: (C) Waterfall
Explanation: Scrum and XP are Agile frameworks and Kanban is an approach used with Agile frameworks. Waterfall is a traditional approach and is considered the opposite of Agile.
Crosswind 8 - Introduction
8.29 - Which of the following is an alternate name for the team space?
(A) Collaboration area
(B) War room
(C) Planning area
(D) Arena
Correct Answer: (B) War room
Explanation: War room is another name for the team space. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 8.5.1
8.30 - Dak is the scrummaster and Amari is the product owner on a web app called Blue Star. They are having a disagreement on who should add items to the product backlog and who should do estimates for items on the product backlog. Which of the following statements is MOST correct?
(A) The product owner will do estimates and the scrummaster will add items
(B) The product owner will add items and the scrummaster will do the estimates
(C) The product owner will typically add items, but anyone can and the team will do the estimates
(D) The scrummaster will add items and the team will do estimates
Correct Answer: (C) The product owner will typically add items, but anyone can and the team will do the estimates
Explanation: The product owner will start building the product backlog and likely add most items to it. Technically, anyone can add items to a product backlog. The team would do the points estimates for the product backlog items.
Crosswind 8 - Glossary
9.1 - Which of the following is the least desirable reason to pursue a project?
(A) To increase market penetration for the top two customers by 13%
(B) To increase employee satisfaction by 6%
(C) To provide regulatory compliance
(D) To ensure that all technology in place at key branches is less than three years old
Correct Answer: (D) To ensure that all technology in place at key branches is less than three years old
Explanation: Without additional information, there is no indication that technology in place is unreliable or insufficient for the task. All other answers are desirable, including employee satisfaction. As a general rule, satisfied employees are more productive and less likely to seek other employment opportunities.
Crosswind 9.6.3
9.2 - Sign-off has just occurred on the project charter. There are items in the project charter that mandate a specific vendor and describe the maximum amount of physical and computer storage space available to the team. These are examples of what?
(A) Assumptions that impact the project
(B) Constraints that impact the project
(C) Risks of the project
(D) Activity resource requirements
Correct Answer: (B) Constraints that impact the project
Explanation: Constraints are variables that limit the team’s options. They typically deal with resources, time, or money. Assumptions are educated guesses made on the project about items that are not known. Risks deal with varying degrees of unknowns that may generate risks. Activity resource requirements are generated later in the planning process group.
Crosswind 9.7.3
9.3 - You are a project manager for a video game upgrade project. You are getting ready to start creating the project management plan. What have you just created?
(A) The project charter and the assumption log
(B) The project charter
(C) The assumption log
(D) The stakeholder engagement plan
Correct Answer: (A) The project charter and the assumption log
Explanation: The project charter and the assumption log are created immediately before the project management plan. The stakeholder engagement plan is part of the project management plan.
Crosswind 9.6
9.4 - The new system integration project impacts all the departments in the company, directly or indirectly. Which of the following is the best description of tools used for the project’s communications?
(A) Communications management plan (CMP)
(B) Communications model media (CMM)
(C) Information distribution planning (IDP)
(D) Project management information system (PMIS)
Correct Answer: (D) Project management information system (PMIS)
Explanation: The project management information system (PMIS) is a system that stores and distributes project information. It can be a manual or a high tech system. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 9.7.5
9.5 - Which of the following best describes configuration management?
(A) Procedures used to document and control product or service characteristics
(B) System used to store versions of software code
(C) System used to store versions of project documentation
(D) Interface of an automated project management system created to set up project variables
Correct Answer: (A) Procedures used to document and control product or service characteristics
Explanation: Configuration management ensures that the project is building what it should build. It utilizes a very thorough and detailed change control process to ensure that project results conform to requirements and exhibit Fitness for Use.
Crosswind 9.11.4
9.6 - You are the project manager for a legacy application upgrade project. You and the sponsor are currently reviewing work for completeness and accuracy. Which of the following processes are you performing?
(A) Monitor and control project work
(B) Perform integrated change control
(C) Control scope
(D) Direct and manage project work
Correct Answer: (A) Monitor and control project work
Explanation: Monitor and control project work is a process that compares what is being completed to what is planned. Perform integrated change control is the master change control process that all processes creating change requests will use. Control scope involves adjusting the scope or scope documentation of the project. Direct and manage project work is the execution of the project management plan.
Crosswind 9.10
9.7 - You are assigned to a new data warehouse system project and notice the project charter lists four business units as sponsors. The data warehouse system has been discussed at your organization for some time, but it’s everyone’s first exposure to implementing such a system. Which of the following could present the biggest challenge to implementing this project?
(A) Conflicting goals of the sponsors
(B) The implementation team
(C) The work breakdown structure (WBS)
(D) The perform integrated change control process
Correct Answer: (A) Conflicting goals of the sponsors
Explanation: Conflicting sponsor goals can significantly impact the project because any attempt to build what works for all sponsors could radically alter the plan. The creation of the WBS is a challenge as well, but not the best answer. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 6.1.1
9.8 - The team has completed the planning process group and received approval from the sponsor and senior management to move to the executing process group. During the executing processes, the team will compare their work to…
(A) The project actuals
(B) The project baseline
(C) The stakeholder expectations
(D) The project variance
Correct Answer: (B) The project baseline
Explanation: The baseline is the estimate for the project. It can be for the scope, schedule, and cost of the project. The actuals are the scope, schedule, and cost data for the project at a certain point in time. The variance is the difference between the baseline and actual. Stakeholder expectations is a distracter.
Crosswind 9.7.4
9.9 - The team has just completed the process of evaluating how the project went. The team members analyzed what worked well and what didn’t. They evaluated the planning and executing. They documented how the sponsor and senior management supported the project. What process did they perform?
(A) Compiling lessons learned
(B) Closing the project or phase
(C) Directing and managing project work
(D) Monitoring and controlling the project
Correct Answer: (B) Closing the project or phase
Explanation: They completed closing the project or phase, which is in the closing process group. The activities described in the question are lessons learned. Controlling and executing have already occurred.
Crosswind 9.12
9.10 - The project manager for the electric engine improvement project has implemented a work authorization system. What is the main benefit of utilizing a work authorization system?
(A) To show what work is to be done during the project
(B) To show who is responsible for what work
(C) To control gold plating
(D) To serve as a time-tracking system
Correct Answer: (C) To control gold plating
Explanation: The question focuses on the benefit, as opposed to the purpose, of a work authorization system. The Work Authorization System sanctions or releases certain work to be done at a certain time in a certain order by a particular organization. The primary benefit of the system is to minimize gold plating on a project, which can occur if this control mechanism is not in place. The work breakdown structure (WBS) shows what work is to be done on the project. The responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) shows who is responsible for what work. To serve as a time-tracking system is a distracter.
Crosswind 9.8.1
9.11 - Neal the project manager has started the planning for the frontiers project. Neal and his team are focusing on assumptions that the planning is based on. The assumptions are key as much of the planning revolves around them. Which of the following best describes the earliest that the assumptions will potentially be identified?
(A) With change requests as needed
(B) The project management plan
(C) The charter
(D) The assumptions log
Correct Answer: (C) The charter
Explanation: Assumptions are identified as early as possible in the project, which means the charter is the best answer. The other answers are applicable as needed because the assumptions will be updated as the project evolves. Planning is established based on the assumptions and as the assumptions evolve, the planning and changes evolve.
Crosswind 9.6
9.12 - You are the project manager for a legacy application upgrade project. You and the sponsor are currently doing the monitor and control project work process. Which of the following tools and techniques will you use?
(A) Expert judgment
(B) Change requests
(C) Work performance information
(D) Alternatives analysis
Correct Answer: (A) Expert judgment
Explanation: Expert judgment is a tool and technique of monitor and control project work. Change requests are inputs and outputs of various processes and as a result could NOT be a tool and technique of a process. Work performance information is an input or output of various processes and as a result cannot be a tool and technique of a process. Alternatives analysis is a tool and technique of the define scope process.
Crosswind 9.10
9.13 - When is a project complete?
(A) When the budgeted funds are spent
(B) When formal acceptance has been obtained from the customer
(C) When the work is done
(D) When the customer is satisfied
Correct Answer: (B) When formal acceptance has been obtained from the customer
Explanation: Only when formal acceptance has been obtained from the customer, can the project be considered complete. When the budgeted funds are spent simply means that the project is out of money. When the work is done does not mean that the customer agrees that the work is done. When the customer is satisfied is only relevant when the customer formally accepts the project.
Crosswind 9.12
9.14 - The company is implementing an enterprise reporting system. This system will integrate a number of business units. This project is something that is new at the company. They realize they will learn a great deal as they adjust while going through the project. Which process best fits tracking their knowledge related to the project?
(A) Perform integrated change control
(B) Manage project issues
(C) Manage project knowledge
(D) Manage communications
Correct Answer: (C) Manage project knowledge
Explanation: Manage project knowledge results in the creation of the lessons learned register and the best fit for the question. Perform integrated change control references change management. Managing project issues is a distracter and not a process. Manage communications might be used to share the information learned, but it’s not as good an answer as manage project knowledge.
Crosswind 9.9
9.15 - As a best practice, who should create the project management plan?
(A) Project manager alone
(B) Project manager and the project team
(C) The project manager, the project team, and the owner of the project
(D) The project owner alone
Correct Answer: (B) The project manager and the project team
Explanation: The project manager and project team should create the project management plan and the estimates that feed into it. They are the people doing the work, so they should have the opportunity to estimate and plan it. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 9.7
9.16 - Sam is creating the project management plan for the Infinity tour project. He is having a discussion with Sarah about the project management plan. They are having a disagreement about the plan and can’t come to a common understanding. Which of the following best describes the project management plan?
(A) The project management plan can change whenever the team feels it’s necessary
(B) The project management plan is a static picture of what the project is to accomplish and should not change
(C) The project management plan is a living document that evolves as the project evolves
(D) Change should only occur when there is no schedule or budget impact
Correct Answer: (C) The project management plan is a living document that evolves as the project evolves
Explanation: The project management plan is a living document that will evolve as the project evolves. Changes can occur, but will only be implemented when approved. Changes can be implemented when approved even if there is schedule, budget or other area impacted, if the change is approved. Just because the team wants a change doesn’t mean it happens. It has to be approved first.
Crosswind 9.7
9.17 - The project will be starting the executing process group next week. The project sponsor and project manager have a meeting scheduled with the team and the business units that are impacted by the project. They explain what is expected to occur on the project and how each of the people can help contribute to the success of the project. What is this event called?
(A) Kickoff meeting to officially start the project
(B) An integral part of the team building effort
(C) Perform quality assurance and validate scope
(D) Project management plan development
Correct Answer: (A) Kickoff meeting to officially start the project
Explanation: The kickoff meeting is what is commonly used on a project to formally start the project and it can occur at the beginning of planning or executing depending on priority or approach. It allows the sponsor to set expectations, and the team to learn about details of the plan. Team building occurs in the executing process group, but it’s not as definitive an answer as kickoff meeting. Project management plan development produces a project management plan. Perform Quality Assurance and Validate Scope are distracters.
Crosswind 9.6.2
9.18 - You have joined a project team to upgrade the network security at your company. You are executing the project management plan and getting project deliverables created. What process do you do next?
(A) Manage project knowledge
(B) Monitor and control project work
(C) Validate scope
(D) Close project or phase
Correct Answer: (A) Manage project knowledge
Explanation: Direct and manage project work is the process that executes the project management plan and creates project deliverables. That process is followed by manage project knowledge. Monitor and control project work follows manage project knowledge. Validate scope is getting customer acceptance of project deliverables after the control quality process. Close project or phase is the formal closing of the project.
Crosswind 9.9
9.19 - You are the project manager for a museum restoration project. There is a large amount of the work being outsourced because of the special nature of the work. As the project enters closure, what will likely be a larger amount of effort than most projects?
(A) Creating the contract file
(B) Getting final acceptance of project deliverables
(C) Releasing resources
(D) Performing lessons learned
Correct Answer: (A) Creating the contract file
Explanation: A project with a large amount of work being outsourced will require a larger than typical contract file to cover the details of contract matters with the outsourced work. Getting final acceptance of project deliverables would be typical with most projects compared to the increased contract file.
Crosswind 9.12.1
9.20 - The project manager and her team have worked diligently to complete the project scope on time and within budget. They are in the process of creating the project files. Of the following, which is the best and most complete definition of project files?
(A) Project documents that record what occurred during the project and what changes were approved
(B) Project documents that record what occurred during the project, what changes were approved, and what decisions were made
(C) Project documents that record what occurred during the project, basic project statistics (scope, time, and cost), and what changes were approved
(D) Project documents that record what occurred during the project, what changes were approved, basic project statistics (scope, time, and cost), and what decisions were made
Correct Answer: (B) Project documents that record what occurred during the project, what changes were approved, and what decisions were made
Explanation: Project files are project documents that record what occurred during the project, what changes were approved, and what decisions were made. Financial records and legal documents are included in these files.
Crosswind 9.12.1
9.21 - The team has just completed the work on a project that contracted with a number of vendors. A contract file was created during the procurement process. What items must be contained in this file?
(A) For each contract, the bidding documentation, the contract, the approved changes, and the formal acceptance
(B) For each contract, the contract, the approved changes, and the formal acceptance
(C) For each contract, the bidding documentation, the amended contract, and the formal acceptance
(D) For each contract, the amended contract and the formal acceptance
Correct Answer: (B) For each contract, the contract, the approved changes, and the formal acceptance
Explanation: For each contract, the contract itself, the approved changes, and the formal acceptance must be contained in the contract file. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 9.12.1
9.22 - The company is implementing an enterprise reporting system. This system will integrate a number of business units. This project is something that is new at the company. They realize they will learn a great deal as they adjust while going through the project. They are doing the process called manage project knowledge. What will they create as a result of this process?
(A) Lessons learned register
(B) Project knowledge
(C) Deliverables
(D) Manage communications
Correct Answer: (A) Lessons learned register
Explanation: The manage project knowledge process creates the lessons learned register. Deliverables are created in the prior process, direct and manage project work. Project knowledge is a general item that occurs from doing the project, but not the specific answer. Manage communications occurs as the project occurs, but is a bit of a generic answer here.
Crosswind 9.9.1
9.23 - The healthcare project is in the planning stage and the project manager and his team are making decisions about the project management information system (PMIS). In discussing the system they feel will work best, which of the following statements is the project manager most likely to make?
(A) It is vital that the system accommodates our need to update payroll for the project management team
(B) It is vital that the system accommodates our need to update the chart of accounts for procurement items
(C) It is vital that the system accommodates our need to access functional management records to identify expert judgment candidates
(D) It is vital that the system accommodates our need to send the right information to the right people in a timely and appropriate manner
Correct Answer: (D) It is vital that the system accommodates our need to send the right information to the right people in a timely and appropriate manner
Explanation: The purpose of the project management information system (PMIS) is communication and information distribution. It is often a combination of technical and non-technical tools used by various project participants to communicate and distribute project related information. The other answers reference systems or information that would not be directly accessible to the project management team.
Crosswind 9.7.5
9.24 - The project manager and his team are in the planning stage of the retooling project and they are making assumptions for scheduling and budgeting. Of the following, what is the most likely source for the assumptions they will make?
(A) Pertinent human resource and procurement records
(B) Lessons learned from prior projects
(C) Resource list and chart of accounts
(D) Expert judgment and functional management input
Correct Answer: (B) Lessons learned from prior projects
Explanation: Lessons learned is a source often used for making assumptions about any facet of a project. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 9.12.3
9.25 - You are the project manager of a new ERP system implementation at your company. This type of project is new to the company. The company is concerned about what they might not know about what is involved in the implementation. Requirements, schedule, cost estimates, and resource skills are items they are not sure about. They are making some educated guesses. Which of the following documents will most likely contain information about these items?
(A) Assumption log
(B) Issue log
(C) Project charter
(D) Project management plan
Correct Answer: (A) Assumption log
Explanation: When there is uncertainty and someone is attempting to forecast something, that is an assumption. Assumptions are put in an assumption log. This should be created as early as possible. Issue logs are created to track ongoing things that require attention. The charter defines the foundational details of the project. The project management plan is the overall plan that contains all planning documents.
Crosswind 9.6
9.26 - The company is determining which proposed projects it should pursue during a severe economic downturn. Of the following, which is the most likely project it will approve?
(A) A project that is proposed in response to a technological advance
(B) A project that is proposed in response to a legal requirement
(C) A project that is proposed in response to a business opportunity
(D) A project that is proposed in response to a business problem
Correct Answer: (B) A project that is proposed in response to a legal requirement
Explanation: A project that is proposed in response to a legal requirement is the most likely to be approved because non-compliance can be very costly. There is insufficient information to determine if there is any likelihood that a project proposed in response to a business opportunity, business problem, or technological advance would take precedence.
Crosswind 9.6.3
9.27 - The project manager and his team have just started the perform integrated change control process for a high profile project. They are carefully considering all the inputs to make certain that the process is conducted successfully. Which of the following is not an input to this process?
(A) Work performance reports
(B) Change control meetings
(C) Change requests
(D) The project management plan
Correct Answer: (B) Change control meetings
Explanation: Change control meetings is a tool and technique of the Perform Integrated Change Control process. All others are inputs.
Crosswind 9.11
9.28 - The project to setup the recording studio has just been completed. The customer contacts the project manager and complains that the Realtor next door is making noise that is being picked up when recording. The project manager investigates why this is occurring and discovers that the wall insulation was not put in after wiring and plumbing but before the sheetrock/wallboard, per the plan. What most likely caused this problem?
(A) A change request wasn’t approved
(B) Scope creep
(C) The work authorization system wasn’t followed and the wallboard was installed before it should have been
(D) The plan wasn’t detailed enough
Correct Answer: (C) The work authorization system wasn’t followed and the wallboard was installed before it should have been
Explanation: The work authorization system appears to have not been followed correctly. This would ensure conditions were such that the next step could be done because all previous steps were correct. A change that wasn’t approved or scope creep wouldn’t fit because the wall insulation was part of the plan. The plan wasn’t detailed enough is a distracter.
Crosswind 9.8.1
9.29 - You are the project manager for a highway construction project. You have just finished integrating the various management plans into a complete document. What process will you perform next?
(A) Develop project management plan
(B) Manage project knowledge
(C) Direct and manage project work
(D) Develop project charter
Correct Answer: (C) Direct and manage project work
Explanation: The Direct and Manage Project Work process occurs after the Develop Project Management Plan process. The key output of the Develop Project Management Plan process is the Project Management Plan, which integrates all the project’s management plans. The Manage Project Knowledge process follows the Direct and Manage Project Work process. The key output is the lessons learned register.
Crosswind 9.8
9.30 - At the weekly infrastructure project staff meeting, the customer informs the project team that, due to a change in market conditions, he must request a significant change to the product that will be created as a result of the project. The project is 85% complete. What should the project manager do in this case?
(A) Advise the customer that the project is too close to completion to integrate the change
(B) Evaluate the impact the requested change will have on the project and advise the customer of the impact and his options
(C) Ignore the customer in the hope that he will not pursue the request (D) Create a new project to accommodate the requested change and release the project as-is to the market
Correct Answer: (B) Evaluate the impact the requested change will have on the project and advise the customer of the impact and his options
Explanation: The project manager needs to evaluate the impact the requested change will have on the project and advise the customer of the impact and his options. Advising the customer that the project is too close to completion to integrate the change isn’t within the purview of the project manager; neither is the creation of a new project to accommodate the requested change. Ignoring the customer in the hope that he will not pursue the request is professionally irresponsible.
Crosswind 6.1.2
The project manager is working with the customer to gain formal acceptance of the project deliverables. The customer is saying that three of the deliverables are not meeting project goals and are unusable in their present form. The team discovers this was caused by an inconsistency between the requirements, scope statement and WBS. Which process will the team use to align these documents?
(A) Analyze scope
(B) Gather requirements
(C) Control scope
(D) Validate scope
Correct Answer: (C) Control scope
Explanation: Control Scope is used to review, then approve or reject, project scope change requests. A change request would be created to align the inconsistencies with the requirements, scope statement, and WBS. Analyze Scope and Gather Requirements are distracters. Validate Scope helps validate that the project created what it was meant to create.
Exam Tip of the Day #63
Of the following differences between the activity-on-node diagramming method and the activity-on-arrow diagramming method, which is the most accurate?
(A) The activity-on-arrow method is more modern than the activity-on-node method
(B) The activity-on-arrow method may only have one predecessor type and the activity-on-node method may have four predecessor types
(C) The activity-on-arrow method is a precedence diagramming method, and the activity-on-node method is not
(D) The activity-on-arrow method is always used with project scheduling software and the activity-on-node method is manual
Correct Answer: (B) The activity-on-arrow method may only have one predecessor type and the activity-on-node method may have four predecessor types
Explanation: The activity-on-node method is a precedence diagramming method that may have four predecessor types, is typically used with modern project scheduling software, depicts the activities in boxes connected by arrows, and does not allow dummy activities. The other answers incorrectly attributed modernity, precedence diagramming, and use with project scheduling software to the activity-on-arrow method.
Exam Tip of the Day #64
You are having a home theater room added to your house. The project should take five days and cost $1,500 per day to complete. After three days, the project is 30% complete and $5,000 has been spent. What is the EV?
(A) $7,500
(B) $2,250
(C) $5,000
(D) $10,000
Correct Answer: (B) $2,250
Explanation: The formula for calculating the EV (earned value) is EV equals percentage complete of each activity (or in this case the entire project) multiplied by BAC (budget at completion). In this instance, two steps are required. First, determine the BAC for the project: $1,500 per day cost multiplied by five days equals a BAC of $7,500. Second, calculate the EV by multiplying the BAC by the percentage complete: $7,500 BAC multiplied by 30% complete equals an EV of $2,250. Note that planned value is defined as the work that should have been completed to date or during a particular time period. In this case, the time period is defined as “through day five of the project,” since the percentage complete relates to the overall project.
Exam Tip of the Day #65
You are the project manager on a project that will improve the manufacturing process at your company. Quality has been a big issue because there has been an excessive amount spent on inventory with a lot of waste in the building process and return of product after it has been sold. Presently, the company has 1 sigma quality standard with its manufacturing process. There is a general belief that there are process issues behind this problem. Which of the following options appears to make the most sense in terms of making the process more consistent?
(A) Watching for violations of the seven-run rule
(B) Making a greater use of checklists
(C) Increasing the quality standard to a sigma level greater than 1
(D) Utilizing a fishbone diagram
Correct Answer: (B) Making a greater use of checklists
Explanation: When followed, checklists help the employee attain consistent process execution. Assuming the checklist is sufficient, and that the employee follows it, the process should possess a greater degree of stability. Fishbone diagrams work with problem isolation. Increasing the quality level makes a process more consistent, but it takes tools to do that. The checklist is a good quick fix that can have standard long-term benefits, especially if the sigma level is increased and higher quality expectations are put in place.
Exam Tip of the Day #66
The project manager of the systems upgrade project uses a variety of power types. Which of the following is an example of reward power?
(A) The project manager instructs the team leaders to prepare status reports for the weekly meeting
(B) The project manager takes the most productive team member to lunch at an expensive restaurant
(C) The project manager announces that those who do not complete their tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality will be ineligible for a bonus
(D) The project manager’s degree and prior work experience were in systems engineering
Correct Answer: (B) The project manager takes the most productive team member to lunch at an expensive restaurant
Explanation: Reward power comes from the project manager’s ability to reward an employee for good work. Formal power is derived from the project charter for the project manager. Penalty power comes from the project manager’s ability to penalize an employee when his work is inadequate. Expert power derives from expertise in a discipline.
Exam Tip of the Day #67
The project is approximately 50% complete. The project manager is communicating with stakeholders regarding the status of the project. Which will he likely use to determine what to communicate to whom?
(A) Communications technology, models, and methods
(B) Communications management plan
(C) Communications requirements analysis
(D) Stakeholder management strategy
Correct Answer: (B) Communications management plan
Explanation: The communications management plan helps determine the stakeholders’ communication needs. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #68
A film distribution company involved in global expansion has a chief marketing officer who is familiar with cutting edge marketing techniques and strategies. The marketing project for the expansion is set to rollout in 10 countries via the Internet and cable television. It’s discovered that the chief marketing officer has been embezzling from the company for the last 90 days to help a terminally ill relative. Senior management is extremely concerned because this person knows more about this type of campaign than anyone in the industry and it doesn’t want to impact the company negatively. Which of the following best represents a risk acceptance strategy based on the discovery of the embezzling?
(A) Allow him to remain at the company because the embezzlement was not done for personal gain
(B) Allow him to remain in his position and reimburse the company for the amount embezzled plus all incidental expenses
(C) Terminate him, file felony theft charges, and have someone different run the campaign
(D) Terminate him and outsource the marketing function to an ad agency
Correct Answer: (A) Allow him to remain at the company because the embezzlement was not done for personal gain
Explanation: Allowing him to stay because he did not use the money for personal gain would be to accept (or tolerate) the risk. Allowing him to stay at the company and pay back the amount represents an attempt to mitigate (or minimize) risk, but it could still occur again. An avoidance strategy is the strategy that eliminates the risk, i.e. terminating him to eliminate further exposure and having someone else run the campaign is the best answer in terms of an avoidance strategy. Outsourcing the work is a transference strategy.
Exam Tip of the Day #69
10.1 - What is the most significant benefit of having the project management team’s assistance in creating the work breakdown structure?
(A) It establishes the project manager’s authority
(B) It helps generate a more accurate budget
(C) It helps attain buy-in from the team doing the work
(D) It helps generate a more accurate schedule
Correct Answer: (C) It helps attain buy-in from the team doing the work
Explanation: Having the project team assist in the creation of the WBS has a number of positive benefits. The most positive benefit is obtaining buy-in from the people doing the work. Though the WBS is reviewed later in the planning process group to create the budget and schedule, it is the team’s buy-in (and experience) that drives the accuracy of all future documents. As a minor point, schedule and budget are equally important, and thus neither answer by itself could be the “best” answer. Authority comes from the project charter.
Crosswind 10.4
10.2 - The approval of the project charter has been delayed for weeks due to market fluctuation. Upon approval, you are assigned as the project manager and senior management wants you to begin the planning process group immediately. When will you schedule validate scope?
(A) At the end of every phase on the project
(B) After the sponsor defines what they want the project to create
(C) When the project management plan is awaiting sign-off
(D) When the work of the project is done
Correct Answer: (A) At the end of every phase on the project
Explanation: It is better to schedule scope validation more frequently on a project instead of simply waiting until the end. Such validation makes it possible to detect issues early in the project, facilitating adjustment of work as the project evolves. Scheduling the process after the sponsors define what they want the project to create is too early in the project to do scope validation.
Crosswind 10.5
10.3 - During what processes is work decomposition performed?
(A) Create WBS and define activities
(B) Define scope and create WBS
(C) Define activities and control schedule
(D) Create WBS and control scope
Correct Answer: (A) Creating the WBS and define activities
Explanation: The work of the project is decomposed in the Create WBS process to establish work packages and in the Define Activities process (Schedule knowledge area) to create activity lists. No other process involves the systematic break down of work elements.
Crosswind 10.4
10.4 - You are a project manager at an application company. In the past, projects have been delayed and encountered many changes. Management has long been in support of improving the timeliness and results of work. The company has decided to try scrum for the next application update. Which of the following documents will likely be changed first?
(A) Scope management plan
(B) Project scope statement
(C) Statement of work
(D) Product backlog
Correct Answer: (A) Scope management plan
Explanation: The scope management plan will be structured based on the development approach. As a result, that document would be updated to reflect a scrum approach. The project scope statement and product backlog, if used, would follow the scope management plan. Statement of work is a distracter.
Crosswind 10.1
10.5 - Which of the following is a heuristic for WBS decomposition?
(A) Breaking down work until it is done by a single resource
(B) Using an organizational structure appearance
(C) Creating a WBS in which the summary activities are equal to the detail underneath
(D) Breaking work down to a realistic level (work packages being the lowest level)
Correct Answer: (D) Breaking work down to a realistic level (work packages being the lowest level)
Explanation: A general rule of thumb is to break down the work of the project into work packages. Breaking work packages or activities down to a single resource assigned is not always practical. Creating a WBS where the summary activities are equal to the detail underneath is a characteristic of a WBS. Using an organizational structure appearance is a distracter.
Crosswind 10.4
10.6 - The project manager is working with the customer to gain formal acceptance of the project deliverables. The customer is saying that three of the deliverables are not meeting project goals and are unusable in their present form. The team discovers this was caused by an inconsistency between the requirements, scope statement and WBS. Which process will the team use to align these documents?
(A) Analyze scope
(B) Gather requirements
(C) Control scope
(D) Validate scope
Correct Answer: (C) Control scope
Explanation: Control Scope is used to review, then approve or reject, project scope change requests. A change request would be created to align the inconsistencies with the requirements, scope statement, and WBS. Analyze Scope and Gather Requirements are distracters. Validate Scope determines that project deliverables have fulfilled acceptance criteria and have received formal sign-off from the authorized party or parties.
Crosswind 10.6
10.7 - In comparing waterfall project management and scrum, which of the following best describes what documents would most likely hold all known project needs?
(A) Scrum uses a product backlog and a waterfall approach uses a work breakdown structure (B) Scrum uses a sprint backlog and a waterfall approach uses a work breakdown structure (C) Scrum uses a product backlog and a waterfall approach uses a statement of work
(D) Scrum uses a product backlog item and a waterfall approach uses a work breakdown schedule
Correct Answer: (A) Scrum uses a product backlog and a waterfall approach uses a work breakdown structure
Explanation: Scrum uses a variety of items to show work, but the document that contains everything currently wanted is the product backlog. Each item is a product backlog item (PBI). The sprint backlog is a subset of the product backlog. Statement of work (SOW) is a distracter.
Crosswind 8.2
10.8 - Due to the complexity of the project to design touchscreen displays for use on mobile workstation tablets, a number of breakdown structures will be used. Of the following breakdown structures and descriptions, which is correct?
(A) Organizational breakdown structure, which graphically illustrates how project management is structured to accomplish project activities
(B) Risk breakdown structure, which lists risks that are grouped by probability of occurrence and listed by severity of impact
(C) Resource breakdown structure, which graphically illustrates the availability of resources
(D) Bill of materials, which lists the components, assemblies, and sub-assemblies used to build the product
Correct Answer: (D) Bill of materials, which lists the components, assemblies, and sub-assemblies used to build the product
Explanation: The bill of materials lists the components, assemblies, and sub-assemblies used to build the product or service of the project. The organizational breakdown structure shows how the project organization is structured to accomplish project activities. The risk breakdown structure shows the risks that can potentially occur on a project, broken down by risk category. The resource breakdown structure shows the type of resources used on a project.
Crosswind 10.4.5
10.9 - As the project manager establishes the scope baseline, which of the following best describes what she will create or reference?
(A) Requirements, scope statement, and WBS
(B) WBS and WBS dictionary
(C) Scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary
(D) Requirements, scope statement, and WBS dictionary
Correct Answer: (C) Scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary
Explanation: The scope baseline consists of the scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary.
Crosswind 10.4
The project to consolidate the accounting departments of two recently merged hospitals is extremely complex. The project manager and his team are keenly aware of the importance of properly decomposing the work of the project. If they decompose the work beyond work packages, what is the likely result?
(A) The application of rolling wave planning
(B) The creation of activity lists
(C) A variance in the scope definition
(D) The creation of the WBS dictionary
Correct Answer: (B) The creation of activity lists
Explanation: If they decompose the work beyond work packages, the creation of activity lists is the likely result. This occurs in the Define Activities process in the Schedule knowledge area.
Crosswind 11.2
10.11 - You are a project manager for an ERP application rollout at your company. Your company is new to this type of project. There are five different business groups involved and scope validation is expected to be extremely complex. What document is the team most likely to use when testing?
(A) Requirements traceability matrix
(B) Project scope statement
(C) Work breakdown structure
(D) Work breakdown structure dictionary
Correct Answer: (A) Requirements traceability matrix
Explanation: In setting up testing, especially when it’s a complex situation, a requirements traceability matrix helps align stakeholders, requirements, and test cases. The project scope statement describes what the project should create. The work breakdown structure shows a decomposition of the entire project work. The work breakdown structure dictionary contains the various attributes of each piece of the work breakdown structure.
Crosswind 10.2.2
10.12 - The medical billing system project has entered closure. As the project manager and the team prepare for closure, they are told that validate scope will be very important to the success of the project. Of the following, which best describes the importance of validate scope?
(A) Validate scope should have been done earlier in the project and since it wasn’t done then, it’s important to complete it before the project is complete
(B) Validate scope authenticates that the sponsor signed the project scope statement at the beginning of planning
(C) Validate scope is the process of comparing what the project created to the project scope statement, product description, and anything else that helps ensure that the results of the project will function as intended
(D) Validate scope is used to confirm that the project team understands the scope of the project
Correct Answer: (C) Validate scope is the process of comparing what the project created to the project scope statement, product description, and anything else that helps ensure that the results of the project will function as intended
Explanation: Validate Scope is used to compare the work the project created to that which was planned to build, and to ensure that the results of the project will function as intended. It can include using the project management plan, requirements documentation, and validated deliverables. If the validation process is satisfactory, the work of the project is typically viewed as acceptable.
Crosswind 10.5
10.13 - The project team is creating the WBS for their stadium restoration project. Which of the following best describes the layers that would likely be included?
(A) Control accounts, planning packages, work packages
(B) Control accounts, planning packages, work packages, activity lists
(C) Activity packages, planning packages, work packages
(D) Control accounts, planning packages, work packages, milestone packages
Correct Answer: (A) Control accounts, planning packages, work packages
Explanation: The three layers that would likely be included in various levels of decomposition are the control account, planning package, and work package. The activity list and milestone list are created in the Define Activity process. The activity package and milestone package are distracters (they do not exist).
Crosswind 10.4.1
10.14 - The project manager is working with the business analyst to create requirements for the upgrade to the security platform of the company website. Which of the following best describes the order in which the processes will be created?
(A) Business requirements, solution requirements, stakeholder requirements, transition requirements
(B) Stakeholder requirements, business requirements, solution requirements, transition requirements
(C) Business requirements, stakeholder requirements, solution requirements, transition requirements
(D) Transition requirements, business requirements, stakeholder requirements, solution requirements
Correct Answer: (C) Business requirements, stakeholder requirements, solution requirements, transition requirements
Explanation: The order in which requirements are created is: business requirements, stakeholder requirements, solution requirements, and then transition requirements. Business requirements define business needs; stakeholder requirements align with specific stakeholder needs; solution requirements are created from the stakeholder requirements; and transition requirements are established to move to the new product, service, or result from the project to a business environment.
Crosswind 10.2.1
10.15 - You are the project manager for a building restoration project. You are creating the project scope statement. Which of the following documents do you need to review to create this document?
(A) Requirements documentation
(B) Project exclusions
(C) Work breakdown structure
(D) Activity lists
Correct Answer: (A) Requirements documentation
Explanation: Collect requirements is the process that precedes the define scope process. Collect requirements creates requirements documentation and define scope creates the project scope statement. The create work breakdown structure follows the define scope process. Activity lists are created with the define activities process, which is part of the schedule creation.
Crosswind 10.2
10.16 - You are the project manager for a TV studio rebuilding project. You are creating the project scope statement. Which of the following documents do you create next?
(A) Requirements documentation
(B) Project exclusions
(C) Work breakdown structure
(D) Activity lists
Correct Answer: (C) Work breakdown structure
Explanation: The create work breakdown structure follows the define scope process. Collect requirements is the process that precedes the define scope process. Collect requirements creates requirements documentation and define scope creates the project scope statement. Activity lists are created with the define activities process, which is part of the schedule creation.
Crosswind 10.4
10.17 - All the following are true about a work breakdown structure (WBS) except…
(A) The project management team and the project manager should be involved in creating it
(B) It will resemble an organizational chart in appearance when complete
(C) Activity sequencing of WBS components requires parallel or concurrent dependencies
(D) It is a decomposition of the work of the project
Correct Answer: (C) Activity sequencing of WBS components requires parallel or concurrent dependencies
Explanation: Answer C is a distracter because it makes no logical sense. The other answers are characteristics of a work breakdown structure (WBS).
Crosswind 10.4
10.18 - The project manager is in the process of creating the scope statement. There are a number of items that can exist both in the requirements and scope statement. Which of the following items are most likely to be only in the scope statement?
(A) The systems involved in the project
(B) Items to be excluded from the project
(C) Items that are required for the project
(D) The areas of the company impacted by the project
Correct Answer: (B) Items to be excluded from the project
Explanation: There can be some overlap between requirements and the scope statement. The scope statement is typically a summary of intent: what the project will do, include, and exclude. The requirements typically references what the project needs, should do, and should accomplish, with a focus on systems and areas of the company.
Crosswind 10.3.1
10.19 - Which of the following requirement types can contain both functional and non-functional requirements?
(A) Stakeholder requirements
(B) Solution requirements
(C) Transition requirements
(D) Business requirements
Correct Answer: (B) Solution requirements
Explanation: Solution requirements can be both functional and non-functional. The other requirements (business, stakeholder, and transition) do not differentiate between functional and non-functional.
Crosswind 10.2.1
10.20 - Project A is two months long, has three stakeholders, and has completed the planning process group. Project B is 12 months long, has 10 stakeholders, and is in the monitoring and controlling process group. Project C is 12 months long, has three stakeholders, and is in the planning process group. Which project is most likely to experience scope creep?
(A) Project A
(B) Project B
(C) Project C
(D) Not enough information
Correct Answer: (B) Project B
Explanation: Project B is tied for the longest project but has the most stakeholders. The longer the project and the greater the number of stakeholders involved, the more an environment is prone to scope creep. The process group is a distracter.
Crosswind 6.1
10.21 - The project to create a new database system is approximately halfway complete when a senior manager says that a major change needs to occur with the scope of the project or the system will not function in his department when it’s rolled out. He further explains this change is going to delay the anticipated finish date of the project. After he explains the details of the proposed change in scope, what do you do first?
(A) Let him know what the delay to the project will be
(B) Implement change control to incorporate the new work
(C) Tell him “no” because it will change the finish date of the project
(D) Meet with the team to determine the impact
Correct Answer: (D) Meet with the team to determine the impact
Explanation: Meet with the team to determine the impact to the project plus discovery of any solutions and any violation of the finish date that was defined in the project charter. Then pass solution options to senior management and the sponsor so they can select the best one. You should never tell a senior manager or sponsor “no.” Instead, you should let them know the options and impact associated with the request. You cannot explain a project delay until the team helps determine what the project impacts are. Change control of this size is not likely to be implemented by a project manager, but more likely by the senior management or sponsor.
Crosswind 6.1.2
10.22 - Which of the following is the tool or technique the project manager will use in the process of creating a WBS?
(A) Work packages
(B) Decomposition
(C) Stakeholder management
(D) WBS dictionary
Correct Answer: (B) Decomposition
Explanation: The tool or technique used during the Create WBS process is decomposition. Work packages are the lowest level of decomposition within the WBS. The WBS dictionary is one of the outputs of the Create WBS process since it is part of the scope baseline. Stakeholder management is a distracter.
Crosswind 10.4
10.23 - A project manager is beginning the collect requirements process. Which of the following is the most important activity he should perform?
(A) Create a list of preferred vendors for outsourcing
(B) Create the work breakdown structure (WBS)
(C) Create the project scope statement in sufficient detail to enable further planning
(D) Verify that all key stakeholders have provided their input
Correct Answer: (D) Verify that all key stakeholders have provided their input
Explanation: Verifying that all key stakeholders have provided their input is the most important item. If this doesn’t occur, the project could be delayed or derailed. The WBS isn’t addressed in the Plan Scope process. Creating the project scope statement in sufficient detail is valid, but still less important than having the right requirements from the right stakeholders. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 10.2
10.24 - The validate scope process has been started at the end of phase 3 of the project. The main deliverable was sent to the customer. Three weeks have passed and the customer acts as if the deliverable was never received. Which of the following is the best action to take?
(A) Stop work on the project until the customer acknowledges and approves the deliverable
(B) Ask the sponsor for assistance
(C) Document the issue in the issue log
(D) Ask the customer’s supervisor why the deliverable has not been acknowledged
Correct Answer: (B) Ask the sponsor for assistance
Explanation: If the customer is not responding and the project manager has already communicated with him, then the sponsor is the role that should provide assistance, particularly since this is an escalation issue. Stopping work and asking the customer’s supervisor is unprofessional. Documenting the issue and doing nothing else is inappropriate because a project manager should be proactive in addressing problems.
Crosswind 6.1.2
10.25 - You are the project manager in the testing phase of a project. You are working with your customer doing the validate scope process and testing project deliverables. Which process will provide the deliverables you are testing?
(A) Control quality
(B) Direct and manage project work
(C) Control scope
(D) Create WBS
Correct Answer: (A) Control quality
Explanation: Project deliverables are created in the direct and manage work process. Those deliverables are tested by the team in the control quality process. Once those deliverables are deemed passing, they go to the validate scope process for customer acceptance testing. Control scope follows validate scope. Create WBS creates the scope baseline.
Crosswind 10.5
10.26 - Which of the following tools and techniques are not used by the project manager during the process of creating a scope statement?
(A) Product analysis
(B) Expert judgment
(C) Facilitation
(D) Requirements documentation
Correct Answer: (D) Requirements documentation
Explanation: The tools and techniques used during the Define Scope process are expert judgment, product analysis, decision making, alternatives analysis, multi-criteria decision analysis, interpersonal and team skills, and facilitation.
Crosswind 10.3
10.27 - Dirk, the project manager, is leading the team during the execution of the project management plan. His testing manager, Sarah, has just completed deliverable testing, which resulted in deliverables that met all requirements. What have Dirk and Sarah created and what is the next process the deliverables will undergo?
(A) Quality Audits and Control Quality
(B) Control Quality and Change Requests
(C) Validate Scope and Close Project or Phase
(D) Verified Deliverables and Validate Scope
Correct Answer: (D) Verified deliverables and validate scope
Explanation: The question references both the Control Quality process, which creates verified deliverables, and the Validate Scope process, which occurs later and results in customer acceptance of those deliverables. Quality audits occur during the Manage Quality process. The Close Project or Phase results in the transition of the project outcome. Verified Deliverables is not a project management process.
Crosswind 10.5 & 13.10
10.28 - The product owner is working with the development team to finalize items in the current iteration. The product owner has just changed priority on a few items in the backlog. The approach being used is most likely?
(A) Change-driven
(B) Plan driven
(C) Gantt Chart
(D) Program Management
Correct Answer: (A) Change-driven
Explanation: A product owner working within an iteration with a backlog is a change-driven approach such as agile, scrum, or Kanban. Plan driven is a more traditional project management approach. A Gantt chart is typically used more in plan driven approaches. Program management is for initiatives that consist of multiple projects.
Crosswind 8 - Introduction
10.29 - Which of the following are created as a result of validating project scope?
(A) Accepted deliverables
(B) Change requests
(C) Approved change requests
(D) Accepted deliverables and change requests
Correct Answer: (D) Accepted deliverables and change requests
Explanation: The outputs of Validate Scope are accepted deliverables and change requests.
Crosswind 10.5
10.30 - You are a project manager for an agile project. You are working with the product owner to identify all the details of the product to be created. Which of the following will the product owner use to document their requirements?
(A) Project scope statement
(B) Product backlog
(C) Sprint backlog
(D) Requirements documentation
Correct Answer: (B) Product backlog
Explanation: In an agile environment a product backlog is what holds all the requirements or “wants” of the product owner. The project scope statement is a waterfall document that describes what is to be created. The requirements documentation is a list of needs of the project, typically used in a waterfall environment. The sprint backlog is a subset of the product backlog.
Crosswind 8.3.1
The project will be using a vendor to purchase network equipment for a national network upgrade project. The buyer of the equipment is providing the list of models and quantity of each piece of equipment that she wants to purchase. What type of document is being provided to the sellers?
(A) Request for information (RFI)
(B) Invitation for bid (IFB)
(C) Request for quote (RFQ)
(D) Request for proposal (RFP)
Correct Answer: (C) Request for quote (RFQ)
Explanation: A request for quote (RFQ) obtains prices from a company for goods or services. A request for proposal (RFP) is a detailed, very specific approach to a customized solution. A request for information (RFI) is associated with finding potential vendors for consideration for proposals or quotes. An invitation for bid (IFB) is similar to the RFP but is typically used in government contracting.
Exam Tip of the Day #70
The project to update the retail store to accommodate the new video game platform is ready for initial planning. Stakeholders have been identified. What documentation will be created as a result of the identification?
(A) Stakeholder register
(B) Stakeholder management plan
(C) Issue log
(D) Charter
Correct Answer: (A) Stakeholder register
Explanation: The stakeholder register is used to identify stakeholders and provide key information about them. This it the main output of the identify stakeholders process. The stakeholder engagement plan is used to provide direction for managing stakeholder engagement. The issue log is used to track issues and provide key information about them. The charter is the basis of the project and provides initial high-level information about the project.
Exam Tip of the Day #71
12.1 - Activity A is worth $200, is 100% complete, should have been done on day one, and actually cost $200. Activity B is worth $75, is 90% complete, should have been done on day two, and actually cost $120 so far. Activity C is worth $200, is 75% complete and should have been done on day three, and has cost $175 so far. The total budget is $1,000. What is the planned value as of day two?
(A) $275.00
(B) -$417.50
(C) $495.00
(D) -$275.00
Correct Answer: (A) $275.00
Explanation: The planned value as of day two is $275.00. Obtain this value by adding the planned value (PV) of Activity A ($200) and B ($75), which should have been done as of day two on the project.
Crosswind 12.14.1
12.2 - You are a member of a project team that is doing a capital expansion upgrade project. Typically, your projects do not include capital assets. Which of the following documents are most likely to be updated first to reflect the change in project type?
(A) Cost estimates
(B) Cost baseline
(C) Cost management plan
(D) Issue log
Correct Answer: (C) Cost management plan
Explanation: The cost management plan provides guidance about how to manage the money aspects of the project. The cost management plan would likely be modified to reflect the change in cost types. Those changes would then provide any guidance on cost estimates, the cost baseline and related documents. Issue log is a distractor.
Crosswind 12.10
12.3 - Project A has an NPV of $150K over three years. Project B has an NPV of $330K over six years. Project C has an NPV of $170K over six years. Which of the following do you select?
(A) Project A
(B) Project B
(C) Project C
(D) Project A and C
Correct Answer: (B) Project B
Explanation: Project B is the most attractive project because it has the highest dollar amount. The years listed with the NPV are distracters because they are already factored into the dollar amount of the project. Project A and C are of less value than Project B.
Crosswind 12.2
12.4 - You are having a home theater room added to your house. The project should take five days and cost $1,500 per day to complete. After three days, the project is 30% complete and $5,000 has been spent. What is the CPI?
(A) 0.45
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.40
(D) 1.00
Correct Answer: (A) 0.45
Explanation: The formula for calculating the CPI (cost performance index) is CPI = EV / AC. In this instance three steps are required. First, determine the BAC (budget at completion), which is the sum of all PV (planned value): $1,500 per day cost multiplied by five days equals a BAC of $7,500. Second, calculate the EV (earned value) by multiplying the BAC by the percentage complete: $7,500 BAC multiplied by 30% complete equals an EV of $2,250. Third, calculate the CPI by dividing the EV by the AC (actual cost): $2,250 EV divided by $5,000 AC equals a CPI of 0.45. Note that planned value is defined as the work that should have been completed to date or during a particular time period (in this case, through day five of the project since the percentage complete relates to the overall project.
Crosswind 12.14.1
12.5 - You are having a home theater room added to your house. The project should take five days and cost $1,500 per day to complete. After three days, the project is 30% complete and $5,000 has been spent. What is the total value of the project?
(A) $7,500
(B) $2,250
(C) $5,000
(D) $10,000
Correct Answer: (A) $7,500
Explanation: The total value of the project is the equivalent of the project budget or the BAC (budget at completion). To determine the BAC multiply the cost per day times the number of days the project is scheduled to take: $1,500 per day cost multiplied by five days equals a BAC of $7,500.
Crosswind 12.14.1
12.6 - You are having a home theater room added to your house. The project should take five days and cost $1,500 per day to complete. After three days, the project is 30% complete and $5,000 has been spent. What is the EV?
(A) $7,500
(B) $2,250
(C) $5,000
(D) $10,000
Correct Answer: (B) $2,250
Explanation: The formula for calculating the EV (earned value) is EV equals percentage complete of each activity (or in this case the entire project) multiplied by BAC (budget at completion). In this instance, two steps are required. First, determine the BAC for the project: $1,500 per day cost multiplied by five days equals a BAC of $7,500. Second, calculate the EV by multiplying the BAC by the percentage complete: $7,500 BAC multiplied by 30% complete equals an EV of $2,250. Note that planned value is defined as the work that should have been completed to date or during a particular time period. In this case, the time period is defined as “through day five of the project,” since the percentage complete relates to the overall project.
Crosswind 1214.1
12.7 - Company-wide server upgrades are an example of what type of project cost?
(A) Variable indirect
(B) Variable
(C) Fixed
(D) Fixed direct
Correct Answer: (A) Variable indirect
Explanation: This type of cost typically increases for every server and is not likely associated with a specific project. Therefore, variable indirect is the best description. Variable is not the best answer. Fixed and fixed direct cost descriptions don’t fit this type of cost except in one instance: If the question had limited the server upgrades to a fixed license fee for a web server used in a web project, the answer would have been (C) Fixed.
Crosswind 12.1
12.8 - The project team has just created cost estimates for their project. They are working with the accounting department to get access to the chart of accounts. What process are they getting ready to do next?
(A) Estimate costs
(B) Determine budget
(C) Control costs
(D) Manage stakeholder engagement
Correct Answer: (B) Determine budget
Explanation: They have just completed the cost estimates process. In getting access to the chart of accounts they will be setting up the budget next. This process is called determine budget. Control costs follows determine budget. Manage stakeholder engagement is a distractor.
Crosswind 12.13
12.9 - The infrastructure project is behind schedule and over budget. So far, $3M has been spent on the project. The sponsor is considering if it should allow the project to continue. What should he consider the $3M that has been spent so far?
(A) The amount for phase one
(B) Sunk cost
(C) The budgeted cost of work performed
(D) Opportunity cost
Correct Answer: (B) Sunk cost
Explanation: Sunk cost is one that has already been spent on the project. It shouldn’t be taken into consideration when determining whether to continue on the project. There is nothing in the situation about phasing the project. The budgeted cost of work performed is the earned value (EV). Opportunity cost doesn’t apply here.
Crosswind 12.5
12.10 - The highway project is in the middle of planning when the project manager presents a status reporting method to the team. The team members haven’t heard of this method before. It’s called earned value. To attain buy-in from the team, the project manager begins to explain what earned value status reporting can do for the project, explaining that it will measure which of the following?
(A) Schedule and cost
(B) Scope, schedule, and cost
(C) Scope and cost
(D) Scope and schedule
Correct Answer: (B) Scope, schedule, and cost
Explanation: Earned value deals with scope, schedule, and cost. Actual cost (AC) shows cost. Planned value (PV) shows the state of the schedule. Earned value (EV) shows scope. The formulas that work with these three variables show how the three are interacting together.
Crosswind 12.14.1
12.11 - You are having a home theater room added to your house. The project should take five days and cost $1,500 per day to complete. After three days, the project is 30% complete and $5,000 has been spent. What is the amount of work that should have been done so far?
(A) $7,500
(B) $2,250
(C) $5,000
(D) $4,500
Correct Answer: (D) $4,500
Explanation: To determine the PV (planned value) for the days already worked, multiply the cost per day by the number of days worked: $1,500 multiplied by three days equals $4,500. Note that planned value is defined as the work that should have been completed either to date or during a particular time period (in this case, to date through day three).
Crosswind 12.14.1
12.12 - Project A has an NPV of $275K over 2.5 years. Project B has an IRR of 3.2%. Project C has a BCR of 0.89:1. Project D has four people on it and is encountering scope creep. Which of the following projects stand the greatest chance of getting canceled?
(A) Project A
(B) Project B
(C) Project C
(D) Project D
Correct Answer: (C) Project C
Explanation: Project C has a negative BCR because it is creating less revenue than the cost. Project A and B have positive financials. Project D appears to have some issues, but we don’t know enough about it to determine anything else.
Crosswind 12.2
12.13 - You are a project manager for a shopping cart project. You are doing earned value to monitor project performance. The CPI is .65 and the SPI is 1.1. What will you use to graphically display this information?
(A) Pareto diagram
(B) Control chart
(C) Burndown chart
(D) S curve
Correct Answer: (D) S curve
Explanation: The S curve graphic shows three things. It shows the work that should have been done, the work done, and the money spent to get it done. All are measured in dollars. Comparing work done to should have been done tells the state of the schedule. Comparing work done to money spent tells the state of the budget. The pareto diagram shows cumulative defect by count of defects. The control chart shows output over time. The burndown chart shows how much work has been done and is remaining in the current sprint.
Crosswind 12.14.5
12.14 - You are the project manager for a distributed system project. You have spent $5000 so far and have a spending efficiency of 0.8 so far. How much work have you done so far?
(A) $5000
(B) $4000
(C) $6000
(D) $2000
Correct Answer: (B) $4,000.00
Explanation: This calculation is basically a reverse CPI, or cost performance index calculation. The CPI formula is earned value (EV) divided by actual cost (AC). The question provides the actual cost of $5000 and a cost performance index of 0.8. To date $4000 of work is done, divided by $5000 spent, giving you a cost performance index or spending efficiency of 0.8.
Crosswind 12.14.1
12.15 - The project management team has performed earned value analysis on its project and discovered that the project is behind schedule and over budget. The SPI is 0.82 and the CPI is 0.73. The team is trying to determine how efficient it needs to be with the remaining resources to complete the project on budget. Which of the following is the team trying to calculate?
(A) Cost variance
(B) Cost performance index
(C) Estimate to complete
(D) To-complete performance index
Correct Answer: (D) To-complete performance index
Explanation: The to-complete performance index (TCPI) shows the efficiency needed of the remaining resources to come in on budget. Cost variance (CV) shows the difference between work done and what was paid for it. Cost performance index (CPI) shows the ratio between the work done and what was paid for it. The estimate to complete (ETC) shows the amount remaining to be spent based on the current spending efficiency (CPI).
Crosswind 12.14.1
12.16 - What is the range of a rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate?
(A) -10% to +10%
(B) -5% to +10%
(C) -25% to +75%
(D) -300% to +75%
Correct Answer: (C) -25% to +75%
Explanation: The range of a rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate is -25% to +75%. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 12.12
12.17 - The project is using a new server that cost $25,000. The project manager is told to set up depreciation for the server over a five-year schedule, with the server having a value of $0 at the end of five years. Standard depreciation will be used in the calculation. What is the amount per year the server will depreciate?
(A) $5,000
(B) $10,000
(C) $2,500
(D) Not enough information
Correct Answer: (A) $5,000
Explanation: To calculate this value, determine a few values first. What is the value of the asset at the end of the schedule? What is the amount of the asset to begin with? What is the number of years of the depreciation schedule? First, subtract the ending value of the asset from the beginning value of the asset ($25K - $0 = $25K). The $25K is then divided by the years (5) of the depreciation schedule. This calculation results in $5K per year of depreciation.
Crosswind 12.6.1
12.18 - You are having a home theater room added to your house. The project should take five days and cost $1,500 per day to complete. After three days, the project is 30% complete and $5,000 has been spent. What is the ETC?
(A) $11,666.67
(B) $16,666.67
(C) $5,000
(D) $0
Correct Answer: (A) $11,666.67
Explanation: The formula for calculating the ETC (estimate to complete) is ETC = EAC – AC. In this instance five steps are required. First, determine the BAC (budget at completion) by multiplying the cost per day by the number of days it will take to complete the project: $1,500 x 5 = a BAC of $7,500. Second, calculate the EV (earned value) by multiplying the BAC by the percentage complete: $7,500 BAC x 30% complete = an EV of $2,250. Third, calculate the CPI (cost performance index) by dividing the EV by the AC (actual cost): $2,250 EV divided by $5,000 AC = a CPI of .45. Fourth, calculate the EAC (estimate at completion) by dividing the BAC by the CPI: $7,500 / .45 = $16,666.67. Fifth, subtract the AC from the EAC: $16,666.67 - $5,000 = $11,666.67.
Crosswind 12.14.1
12.19 - Which of the following shows the remaining amount to be spent on the project based on current spending efficiency?
(A) Cost variance
(B) Estimate to complete
(C) Estimate at completion
(D) Budget remaining
Correct Answer: (B) Estimate to complete
Explanation: Estimate to complete (ETC) shows the remaining amount to be spent on a project based on spending efficiency. This value is the difference between actual cost (AC) and estimate at completion (EAC). Estimate at completion (EAC) is a forecast of total project cost, based on spending efficiency. Cost variance (CV) is the difference between the amount of work done and what was paid for it. Budget remaining is a distracter.
Crosswind 12.14.1
12.20 - You are the project manager for a main street restoration project. Tracking cost is extremely important as the budget cannot accommodate overruns. The cost performance index is currently 0.90. The sponsor is asking how much is needed to finish the project, based on current cost performance metrics. Which of the following best describes what the sponsor is requesting?
(A) Estimate at completion
(B) Estimate to complete
(C) Variance at completion
(D) To-complete performance index
Correct Answer: (B) Estimate to complete
Explanation: The estimate to complete (ETC) is the remaining to be spent forecast, based on the current spending efficiency (CPI). The estimate at completion (EAC) is a total forecast, based on the current spending efficiency (CPI). Variance at completion (VAC) is the amount expected to be over (or under) budget, based on the current spending efficiency (CPI). To-complete performance index (TCPI) is the spending efficiency needed to finish the project on budget.
Crosswind 12.14.1
12.21 - You are the production manager for the double down tour. You are mapping out your tour dates and setting the budget based on the last tour. You are aware that some of your tour date locations have gone union since you were there last, and this could result in local product cost increases. In setting up the budget which of the following would you most likely review to address these potential overruns?
(A) Risk register
(B) Cost estimates
(C) Cost baseline
(D) Change requests
Correct Answer: (A) Risk register
Explanation: Cost estimates are created, and it sounds like the budget is being created. Given the uncertainty of some of the locations having changed their working structure, the risk register would be the document that would contain information about those potential changes. The cost baseline would show the rate at which work is expected to be done and the total project cost. Change requests are a distractor.
Crosswind 12.13
12.22 - The project team is planning an upgrade to a client’s website and infrastructure. During planning, the team members are confronted with the cost options for a data communications line to connect to the servers. They consider the cost of purchasing the communication line for the time they need to develop the project. After that, the customer takes over the purchase of the line. They are also considering a long-term commitment that the customer can make with the communication line provider, which provides a less costly solution over the use of the system. What type of analysis is the team considering?
(A) Life cycle costing
(B) Make-or-buy analysis
(C) Fixed cost
(D) Procurement planning
Correct Answer: (A) Life cycle costing
Explanation: Life cycle costing looks at the long-term cost of something, instead of simply what it costs to create it. This can increase project cost but in the long run save the owner of the system money. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 12.7
12.23 - You are having a home theater room added to your house. The project should take five days and cost $1,500 per day to complete. After three days, the project is 30% complete and $5,000 has been spent. What do you expect the project to cost at completion based on the current performance?
(A) $11,666.67
(B) $16,666.67
(C) $5,000
(D) $0
Correct Answer: (B) $16,666.67
Explanation: The formula for calculating the EAC (estimate at completion) is EAC = BAC / CPI. In this instance four steps are required. First, determine the BAC (budget at completion) by multiplying the cost per day by the number of days it will take to complete the project: $1,500 x 5 = $7,500. Second, calculate the EV (earned value) by multiplying the BAC by the percentage complete: $7,500 x 30% = $2,250. Third, calculate the CPI (cost performance index) by dividing the EV by the AC (actual cost): $2,250 / $5,000 AC = .45. Fourth, calculate the EAC by dividing the BAC by the CPI: $7,500 / .45 = $16,666.67.
Crosswind 12.14.1
12.24 - The planning process group is progressing. The team has involved a number of expert opinions in trying to approximate the costs needed to complete project activities. This process is known as?
(A) Determine budget
(B) Control costs
(C) Analogous estimating
(D) Estimate costs
Correct Answer: (D) Estimate costs
Explanation: Estimate Costs obtains an approximation of the resource costs for activities or work packages. Determine Budget sums the costs to the individual work packages or activities to establish an authorized cost baseline. Control Costs manages the cost of the project. Analogous estimating is a distracter.
Crosswind 12.11
12.25 - Which of the following is an example of fixed formula status reporting?
(A) Getting status updates from the project team
(B) PV multiplied by % complete
(C) The project manager updating the status reports quantitatively
(D) 30%/70% rule
Correct Answer: (D) 30%/70% rule
Explanation: The 30%/70% rule is an example of fixed formula progress reporting. It means that when the activity starts, it is given a 30% complete status and will not receive the remaining 70% until it is fully complete. PV x percentage complete of each activity is the formula for earned value. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 12.8
12.26 - The project is using some application and database servers in the development environment. The finance department explains that the servers will be depreciated using the double declining balance (DDB) format. This is an example of what?
(A) Fixed cost
(B) Fixed direct cost
(C) Accelerated depreciation
(D) Standard depreciation
Correct Answer: (C) Accelerated depreciation
Explanation: Double declining balance and sum of the digits are both examples of accelerated depreciation. DDB is not standard depreciation. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 12.6.2
12.27 - The project team is developing rules for reporting updates on the project. The majority of their activities are less than two reporting periods long. Which format is best to use in this case?
(A) Fixed formula progress reporting
(B) Weighted milestone
(C) Earned value
(D) Forecast reporting
Correct Answer: (A) Fixed formula progress reporting
Explanation: Fixed formula uses a partial credit approach such as 50/50 and is ideal when an activity is short, such as two or less reporting periods long. The weighted milestone approach is ideal when an activity is over two reporting periods in length. Earned value shows the status of the scope, schedule, and cost of the project. Forecast reporting focuses on what is getting ready to be done on the project.
Crosswind 12.8
12.28 - You have $1,000 today and can earn 8%. In future years, how much money will this be worth?
(A) $1,175
(B) $883
(C) $1,202
(D) Not enough information
Correct Answer: (D) Not enough information
Explanation: To calculate future value (FV), you need to have a present value (PV), an interest rate, and the time period involved. Therefore, without a time period in the question there is not enough information to answer the question.
Crosswind 12.3, 12.4
12.29 - You are having a home theater room added to your house. The project should take five days and cost $1,500 per day to complete. After three days, the project is 30% complete and $5,000 has been spent. What is the SPI?
(A) 0.45
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.40
(D) 1.00
Correct Answer: (B) 0.50
Explanation: The formula for calculating the SPI (schedule performance index) is SPI = EV / PV. In this instance three steps are required. First, determine the PV (planned value): $1,500 per day cost multiplied by three days equals a PV of $4,500. Second, calculate the EV (earned value) by multiplying the BAC (budget at completion), since the percentage complete refers to the entire project, by the percentage complete: $7,500 x 30% = $2,250. Third, calculate the SPI by dividing the EV by the PV: $2,250 / $4,500 = 0.5. Note that planned value is defined as the work that should have been completed to date or during a particular time period (in this case, through day three of the project).
Crosswind 12.14.1
Your project has an SPI of 0.8 and a CPI of 1.2. What best describes this project?
(A) Over budget and behind schedule
(B) Under budget and ahead of schedule
(C) Over budget and ahead of schedule
(D) Under budget and behind schedule
Correct Answer: (D) Under budget and behind schedule
Explanation: A performance index (Cost or CPI, and schedule or SPI) ideally is 1.0. Less than 1.0 is considered bad. For example, behind schedule or over budget. Greater than 1.0 is considered good. For example, ahead of schedule or under budget. In this case, the SPI of .8 means the schedule is progressing at 80% of the rate planned. The CPI of 1.2 means that the project is getting $1.20 value or work out of every dollar spent.
Crosswind 12.14.1
11.1 - Calculate the variance for the following: Pessimistic = 12, Optimistic = 2, Realistic = 5.
(A) 5
(B) 2.79
(C) 5.67
(D) Not enough information
Correct Answer: (B) 2.79
Explanation: The formula for variance is ((Pessimistic - Optimistic) divided by 6) 2 or ((P - O) / 6)2. The answer is 2.79.
Crosswind 11.7
11.2 - Task C on the project has an ES of day three, an EF of day seven and an LS of day seven. Which of the following best describes this task?
(A) It has slack (float) of zero days
(B) It is behind schedule
(C) It has slack (float) of four days and duration of five days
(D) It has slack (float) of zero days and duration of four days
Correct Answer: (C) It has slack (float) of four days and duration of five days
Explanation: The task has a slack (float) of four days and a duration of five days. The slack (float) is calculated by subtracting the ES of day three from the LS of day seven for a slack (float) of four days. To calculate the duration, do not subtract the early start day from the early finish day. Count the early start day, the early finish day, and each day in between: in this case, count day three, day four, day five, day six, and day seven for a duration of five days.
Crosswind 11.5.9
11.3 - Which of the following is an example of a lag?
(A) The latest a new system can be ordered from the manufacturer without delaying the project
(B) The critical path
(C) A delay after the sheetrock (wallboard) is done in a house to allow it to dry before continuing work in that area
(D) The earliest a new system can be ordered from the manufacturer
Correct Answer: (C) A delay after the sheetrock (wallboard) is done in a house to allow it to dry before continuing work in that area
Explanation: A delay after the sheetrock is done to allow it to dry before continuing work in that area is an example of a lag. The delay is not part of either activity but occurs between the activities. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 11.3.5
11.4 - Which of the following best describes the critical path slack (float)?
(A) It can be the shortest duration on the project
(B) It can be a positive number or zero
(C) It can be a negative number or zero
(D) It can be a positive number, negative number, or zero
Correct Answer: (D) It can be a positive number, negative number, or zero
Explanation: The critical path slack (float) can be any number. Technically the slack (float) of the critical path is zero, but if you are ahead of schedule it is a positive number and if you are behind schedule, it is a negative number. It is actually the longest path on the project, not the shortest.
Crosswind 11.5.4
11.5 - The project manager is considering resource leveling the schedule to get the project back on track within resource constraints. Which of the following is most likely the project manager’s primary concern?
(A) Tasks could be done in parallel instead of the way intended
(B) The project team might not be able to assign resources to activities
(C) The finish date could be pushed out further
(D) Resources working a more consistent number of hours each day
Correct Answer: (C) The finish date could be pushed out further
Explanation: The item of most concern to the project manager is pushing out the finish date of the project as a result of resource leveling. Resources working a more consistent number of hours each day is a characteristic of resource leveling, but it isn’t typically a concern. Doing tasks in parallel relates to fast tracking a schedule. Not being able to assign resources to activities would relate to crashing a schedule.
Crosswind 11.5.11
11.6 - You are the project manager for a retail merger project. You are getting ready to create the schedule. Specifically, you are getting ready to sequence activities. Which of the following best describes what you need to do this?
(A) Activity lists and milestone lists
(B) Activity lists
(C) Resource estimates
(D) Work packages
Correct Answer: (A) Activity lists and milestone lists
Explanation: The sequence activities process creates the project schedule network diagram. This shows the order or connectivity of the activities. The define activities process precedes this process and creates the activity lists and milestone lists. Work packages come from decomposing project work in the create work breakdown structure processes.
Crosswind 11.2
11.7 - Sam is a new project manager. He has been assigned to a new website creation project. He is reviewing the schedule with the team. He comes upon a hammock activity in the schedule. Which of the following best describes a hammock activity?
(A) A summary activity with each task listed above it
(B) A summary activity with each task listed beneath it and the details of each task indented beneath that task
(C) An executive activity report
(D) A dummy used in the activity on arrow (AOA) diagrams
Correct Answer: (B) A summary activity with each task listed beneath it and the details of each task indented beneath that task
Explanation: The hammock activity is a summary activity with each task beneath it and the details of each task indented beneath that task. The earliest start (ES) date of the tasks comprising the activity is the start date of the hammock and the last date of the tasks comprising the activity is the final date of the hammock. It can be used for executive reporting, but that isn’t the main purpose and there are better tools for that such as a milestone schedule. The AOA answer is a distracter.
Crosswind 11.5.15
11.8 - To improve efficiencies for the technical infrastructure project, the project manager has decided to apply resource leveling while building the schedule. Of the following, which is the best description of what he’ll be doing?
(A) Reviewing the logic bar chart to determine the optimal assignment of resources
(B) Obtaining an optimal balance between delivery deadlines and resource utilization
(C) Reviewing a resource allocation chart for peaks and valleys and making adjustments to create a level use of resources
(D) Tracking the day-to-day details of the project so he can reassign resources as needed
Correct Answer: (C) Reviewing a resource allocation chart for peaks and valleys and making adjustments to create a level use of resources
Explanation: Resource leveling consists of reviewing a resource allocation chart for peaks and valleys and making adjustments to create a level use of resources. Applying resource leveling and schedule compression helps the PM obtain an optimal balance between delivery deadlines and resource utilization. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 11.5.11
11.9 - Of the following, which best describes a milestone schedule?
(A) A high-level schedule that typically accompanies schedule variance reports
(B) A high-level schedule typically prepared for executives
(C) A high-level schedule typically used to determine the critical path
(D) A high-level schedule typically used in daily briefings with the project team
Correct Answer: (B) A high-level schedule typically prepared for executives
Explanation: A milestone schedule is high-level schedule typically prepared for executives. The milestone schedule records a 0 duration for each milestone.
Crosswind 11.5.14
11.10 - Of the following statements about the critical path, which is accurate?
(A) There can only be one critical path per project
(B) If ahead of schedule, a project can have negative slack (float)
(C) The least project risk occurs on the critical path
(D) The critical path is the longest path on the project network diagram
Correct Answer: (D) The critical path is the longest path on the project network diagram
Explanation: The critical path is the longest path on the project network diagram. There can be multiple critical paths. If the project is behind schedule, there can be negative slack (float). The greatest project risk occurs along the critical path.
Crosswind 11.5.5
11.11 - The e-commerce project is six weeks behind schedule with five team members working on it. Three of these team members are working on the critical path-related items. What is the slack (float) of the critical path?
(A) Negative six weeks
(B) 30
(C) 0 (Zero)
(D) Not enough information
Correct Answer: (A) Negative six weeks
Explanation: Technically, a critical path has a slack (float) of zero. If the project is truly behind schedule, and the baseline date is still being used as the reference, the project could actually have negative slack (float) on the critical path. In this case, the negative slack (float) is six weeks.
Crosswind 11.5.4
11.12 - What are the Schedule knowledge area processes?
(A) Plan schedule management, define activities, sequence activities, estimate activity resources, estimate activity durations, create baseline schedule, and control schedule
(B) Plan schedule management, create WBS, define activities, sequence activities, estimate activity durations, develop schedule, and control schedule
(C) Plan schedule management, define activities, create network diagram, estimate activity durations, develop schedule, and control schedule
(D) Plan schedule management, define activities, sequence activities, estimate activity durations, develop schedule, and control schedule
Correct Answer: (D) Plan schedule management, define activities, sequence activities, estimate activity durations, develop schedule, and control schedule
Explanation: The Schedule processes are Plan Schedule Management, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule, and Control Schedule.
Crosswind 11 - Intro
11.13 - Which of the following duration estimate types is most likely to be used where there is minimal information known about the project?
(A) Bottom-up
(B) Parametric
(C) Top-down
(D) Three-point
Correct Answer: (C) Top-down
Explanation: The top-down estimate, sometimes called an analogous estimate, is an estimate used when there is not a lot of detail. The estimate is based upon overall project characteristics and can be applied when you have past experience in the area. The parametric estimate is used when parameters and quantity are used. For example $2 a square foot for carpet. The three-point estimate is based upon best case, worse case, and realistic estimates.
Crosswind 11.4.1
11.14 - You are the project manager on a defense project and are creating a network diagram. Activity A (3 days) and Activity B (6 days) can start immediately. Activity C (2 days) can start after Activity A is complete. Activity D (1 day) and Activity F (2 days) can start after Activity B is complete. Activity E (4 days) can start after Activity C and Activity D are complete. Activity G (5 days) can start after Activity D and Activity F are complete. When Activity E and Activity G are complete, the project is done. What is the critical path?
(A) BDE
(B) ACE
(C) BFG
(D) BDG
Correct Answer: (C) BFG
Explanation: The critical path is the longest path in the diagram. Of the four paths, BFG is the longest at 13 days. ACE is nine days long. BDE is 11 days. BDG is 12 days.
Crosswind 11.5.8
11.15 - Using the information in question 14, what is the slack (float) of Activity D?
(A) Two days
(B) One day
(C) Four days
(D) Not enough information
Correct Answer: (B) One day
Explanation: The longest path with Activity D on it is path BDG with a duration of 12 days. The critical path of BFG is 13 days. Subtracting the length of BDG from the critical path (13-12) shows a difference of one day. This is the slack (float) of Activity D.
Crosswind 11.5.8
11.16 - Using the information in question 14, if Activity D increases from one to three days, what is the critical path, and what is the length?
(A) BDE, 13 days
(B) ACE, 14 days
(C) BFG, 13 days
(D) BDG, 14 days
Correct Answer: (D) BDG, 14 days
Explanation: By increasing Activity D from one day to three days the path BDG increases to fourteen days. This is the longest of the paths on the network diagram.
Crosswind 11.5.8
11.17 - Sam, the project manager, is attending project management training at his company. Sam and the trainer are talking about new trends in scheduling and project management. Which of the following best describes what they are most likely discussing?
(A) On-demand scheduling and critical path scheduling
(B) Waterfall and Gantt chart scheduling
(C) Iterative and waterfall scheduling
(D) Iterative and on-demand scheduling
Correct Answer: (D) Iterative and on-demand scheduling
Explanation: The two most notable trends currently impacting scheduling are iterative scheduling and on-demand scheduling. Iterative scheduling is a type of adaptive project management used to deliver incremental value to the customer during an iteration. On-demand scheduling is an approach, typically used in a Kanban system, used to limit the team’s work in progress in order to balance demand against throughput.
Crosswind 11 - Intro
11.18 - Of the following, which best describes the logic bar chart?
(A) The ideal tool to view activity sequencing
(B) A chart that represents high-level activities and their durations
(C) A chart used to track day-to-day activities
(D) A chart that represents the logical sequence of high-level activities
Correct Answer: (C) A chart used to track day-to-day activities
Explanation: A logic bar chart, sometimes called a Gantt chart, is a common chart used to track the day-to-day details of the project.
Crosswind 11.5.13
11.19 - In defining a milestone, which of the following is most correct?
(A) It defines the phase of a project
(B) It has a duration of no more than one day
(C) It has a duration of zero (0)
(D) It has value in the project charter but not in the plan
Correct Answer: (C) It has a duration of zero (0)
Explanation: The milestone has a duration of zero. The milestone is typically used to define the completion of a series of activities. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 11.5.14
11.20 - You are the project manager for a cell site upgrade project. You have just performed the sequence activities process. What do you create next?
(A) Duration estimates
(B) Activity lists
(C) Resource estimates
(D) Work packages
Correct Answer: (A) Duration estimates
Explanation: The estimate activity durations process follows the sequence activities process. Activity lists being created precede the sequence activities process. Resource estimates comes from the resource knowledge area. Work packages comes from the scope knowledge area.
Crosswind 11.4
11.21 - The project manager is putting together a schedule and is in the develop schedule process. Historically, the company has had issues with duration estimates being way off base because the team doesn’t factor in things that can get in the way. Which of the following documents will they likely want to review in completing the develop schedule process?
(A) Risk register
(B) Risk report
(C) Issue log
(D) Stakeholder register
Correct Answer: (A) Risk register
Explanation: The risk register is an input to the develop schedule process. The risk register can be referenced when integrating all the pieces of the schedule together into a whole, while factoring in identified risks. The risk report is a distractor. The issue log while it could be referenced is used to document things that require attention. The stakeholder register shows stakeholders, goals, management strategies and any other relevant details about the stakeholders.
Crosswind 11.5
11.22 - The construction project is underway after encountering some initial schedule delays associated with the weather. As the team is working on the job site, the city building inspector shows up and asks for their building permit for the next phase. The project manager discovers it wasn’t applied for. The city inspector explains it will take a week to process the application after the application is submitted. This is an example of what?
(A) A city employee not wanting to do his job
(B) Discretionary dependency
(C) External mandatory dependency
(D) Mandatory dependency
Correct Answer: (C) External mandatory dependency
Explanation: The external mandatory dependency is a required dependency that is outside the organization’s control that is required. The building inspector fits this criterion. The mandatory dependency is required and internal to the project. The discretionary dependency is at the option of the project manager and team. The city employee answer is a distracter.
Crosswind 11.3.1
11.23 - You are estimating the duration of the project and you do not have much information about the overall estimate. Which of the following estimating techniques will you most likely use?
(A) Analogous
(B) Bottom-up
(C) Three-point
(D) Top-down
Correct Answer: (D) Top-down
Explanation: Answering this question may be difficult since analogous and top-down are very close in meaning. Generally analogous and top-down are thought of as the same. They differ when the top-down estimate doesn’t have a lot of detail. The analogous estimate is used when the estimate is based on something you or the company has done before.
Crosswind 11.4.1
11.24 - You and a fellow project manager are having a discussion about his project. He says its network diagram has two paths that have the maximum duration of 32 units. He also says there is no critical path because the longest paths are the same length and there can only be one critical path. Which of the following is a true statement?
(A) You can have more than one critical path, but they are the longest paths on the project, and having more than one critical path increases your project risk
(B) The critical path is the shortest path on the project
(C) You can have more than one critical path, but they are the longest paths on the project, and having more than one critical path decreases your project risk
(D) You can have more than one critical path, but they are the shortest paths not the longest
Correct Answer: (A) You can have more than one critical path, but they are the longest paths on the project, and having more than one critical path increases your project risk
Explanation: The critical path is the longest path on the project. If you have more than one path of identical length, you have multiple critical paths. The more of them you have, the riskier the project is.
Crosswind 11.5.5
11.25 - You are estimating project duration. You don’t have a lot of time to go into detail, so you estimate based on a past project that was similar to the current project. Which of the following estimating techniques is most likely used?
(A) Analogous
(B) Bottom-up
(C) Three-point
(D) Top-down
Correct Answer: (A) Analogous
Explanation: Answering this question may be difficult since analogous and top-down are very close in meaning. Generally analogous and top-down are thought of as the same. They differ when the analogous estimate is used when the estimate is based on something you or the company has done before. The top-down estimate doesn’t have a lot of detail.
Crosswind 11.4.1
11.26 - The project manager is creating a project schedule network diagram using the activity on arrow format. Which of the following predecessor types can be used with this format of diagram?
(A) Finish to finish (FF)
(B) Start to start (SS)
(C) Start to finish (SF)
(D) Finish to start (FS)
Correct Answer: (D) Finish to start (FS)
Explanation: The activity on arrow format is a manually drawn format in most cases for creating a network diagram. It only uses a finish to start (FS) predecessor. All four answers can be used with the activity on node format which is typically used with software applications that create project schedule network diagrams.
Crosswind 11.3.4
11.27 - You are a project manager for a construction project to update a major roadway before football season starts. Once the season starts there will be a 500% increase in traffic. There has been a greater than normal amount of rain this season. The project manager is looking into ways to accelerate the schedule. They are not able to add resources as they cannot go over budget. They are looking into the ability to do some items in parallel. Which of the following is the project manager more likely to consider?
(A) Crashing
(B) Fast tracking
(C) Resource leveling
(D) Re-baselining the schedule
Correct Answer: (B) Fast tracking
Explanation: The two approaches for shortening a schedule are fast tracking and crashing. Crashing is adding additional resources to critical path activities. Fast tracking is the best option here, as they are looking at doing things in parallel. Resource leveling gets rid of over allocation of resources. Re-baselining the schedule doesn’t do anything other than likely officially pushing the finish date out.
Crosswind 11.5.10
11.28 - The project team is working together on detailed planning. They have had some issues coming to the same opinion, so they are creating a project schedule network diagram. What will this show the team?
(A) The sequencing of the activities on the project
(B) The decomposition of the work of the project
(C) The schedule
(D) The duration estimate of the project
Correct Answer: (A) The sequencing of the activities on the project
Explanation: The project schedule network diagram shows the sequencing of the activities on the project. The work breakdown structure (WBS) shows the decomposition of the work of the project. The duration estimate of the project comes from the schedule.
Crosswind 11.3.2
11.29 - You are the project manager for a mortgage regulatory application project. You have just created the activity list and milestone list. What process preceded this work?
(A) Define activities
(B) Sequence activities
(C) Plan schedule management
(D) Develop project management plan
Correct Answer: (C) Plan schedule management
Explanation: The define activities process creates activity lists and milestone lists. The process that precedes that is plan schedule management which creates the schedule management plan. Sequence activities creates the project schedule network diagram. Develop project management plan is a distractor.
Crosswind 11.1
11.30 - The project manager is creating an estimate for a data warehouse. This is something he is quite experienced at. The client needs the estimate quickly. Which of the following types of estimates is he likely to provide?
(A) Analogous
(B) Gut feel
(C) Bottom-up
(D) Parametric
Correct Answer: (A) Analogous
Explanation: The analogous estimate is also considered a form of a top-down estimate, can be quickly created because it is based on expert knowledge of an area from previous projects. Parametric is an estimating technique that uses parameters, such as so much time per unit. A bottom-up estimate is created by the team and can take time to create because of the details. Gut feel is a distracter.
Crosswind 11.4.1
As a project manager, you have a professional and social responsibility to encourage the growth of project management at your company or in your industry. Of the following, which best describes concrete steps you can take to fulfill this responsibility?
(A) Conduct project management training, explain the value of project management to those who do not understand it, demonstrate how project management can solve problems
(B) Explain the value of project management to those who do not understand it and demonstrate how project management can solve problems
(C) Conduct project management training and demonstrate how project management can solve problems
(D) Explain the value of project management to those who do not understand it, demonstrate how project management can solve problems, and demonstrate the leadership qualities engendered by project management training
Correct Answer: (A) Conduct project management training, explain the value of project management to those who do not understand it, demonstrate how project management can solve problems
Explanation: Training people to do better project management and showing them the value of project management and how it can solve their problems are processes that help cultivate project management as a profession.
Exam Tip of the Day #72
On a large medical billing system project, the team is large, and communication has been quite a challenge to control. The project expediter has been used to help with this problem. What is one of the main differences between the project expeditor and the project coordinator?
(A) The project expediter is another title for the project manager
(B) The project expediter is another title for project coordinator
(C) The project expediter typically has no decision-making ability
(D) The project expediter has decision-making ability
Correct Answer: (C) The project expeditor typically has no decision-making ability
Explanation: The project expeditor and the project coordinator have similar responsibilities with the difference being that the project coordinator has some decision-making ability.
Exam Tip of the Day #73
You are assigned to a new data warehouse system project and notice the project charter lists four business units as sponsors. The data warehouse system has been discussed at your organization for some time, but it’s everyone’s first exposure to implementing such a system. Which of the following could present the biggest challenge to implementing this project?
(A) Conflicting goals of the sponsors
(B) The implementation team
(C) The work breakdown structure (WBS)
(D) The perform integrated change control process
Correct Answer: (A) Conflicting goals of the sponsors
Explanation: Conflicting sponsor goals can significantly impact the project because any attempt to build what works for all sponsors could radically alter the plan. The creation of the WBS is a challenge as well, but not the best answer. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #74
During the Create WBS process for the financial reporting improvement process, the team could create all the following breakdown structures as planning evolves except…
(A) Bill of materials
(B) Communication breakdown structure
(C) Risk breakdown structure
(D) Resource breakdown structure
Correct Answer: (B) Communication breakdown structure
Explanation: The communication breakdown structure is a distracter in that it does not exist. The bill of materials lists all of the components, assemblies, and sub-assemblies used to build a product. The risk breakdown structure depicts potential project risks by risk category. The resource breakdown structure depicts the type of resources utilized during the project.
Exam Tip of the Day #75
Sam is a new project manager. He has been assigned to a new website creation project. He is reviewing the schedule with the team. He comes upon a hammock activity in the schedule. Which of the following best describes a hammock activity?
(A) A summary activity with each task listed above it
(B) A summary activity with each task listed beneath it and the details of each task indented beneath that task
(C) An executive activity report
(D) A dummy used in the activity on arrow (AOA) diagrams
Correct Answer: (B) A summary activity with each task listed beneath it and the details of each task indented beneath that task
Explanation: The hammock activity is a summary activity with each task beneath it and the details of each task indented beneath that task. The earliest start (ES) date of the tasks comprising the activity is the start date of the hammock and the last date of the tasks comprising the activity is the final date of the hammock. It can be used for executive reporting, but that isn’t the main purpose and there are better tools for that such as a milestone schedule. The AOA answer is a distracter.
Exam Tip of the Day #76
13.1 - The project manager has concerns about the software developer’s project work in terms of quality and has spoken to the developer about this on several occasions. This involvement derives from the relationship between project management and quality management that should complement each other. What specifically is the relationship between the two?
(A) Both focus on management responsibility, fulfillment of requirements, continuous improvement, prevention over inspection, and product excellence
(B) Both focus on management responsibility, continuous improvement, prevention over inspection, and customer satisfaction
(C) Both focus on management responsibility, fulfillment of requirements, continuous improvement, prevention over inspection, and customer satisfaction
(D) Both focus on management responsibility, continuous improvement, prevention over inspection, and product excellen
Correct Answer: (B) Both focus on management responsibility, continuous improvement, prevention over inspection, and customer satisfaction
Explanation: The relationship between project management and quality management is that both focus on management responsibility, continuous improvement, prevention over inspection, and customer satisfaction.
Crosswind 13.2
13.2 - You are the project manager in the testing phase of a project. You are working with your team doing the control quality process and testing project deliverables. Which process will provide the deliverables you are testing?
(A) Control quality
(B) Direct and manage project work
(C) Control scope
(D) Create WBS
Correct Answer: (B) Direct and manage project work
Explanation: Project deliverables are created in the direct and manage work process. Those deliverables are tested by the team in the control quality process. Once those deliverables are deemed passing, they go to the validate scope process for customer acceptance testing. Control scope follows validate scope. Create WBS creates the scope baseline.
Crosswind 13.10
13.3 - The project manager and his team are using an Ishikawa or fishbone diagram as part of the quality component for the coal extraction project. Of the following, which best describes the reason they are utilizing this diagram?
(A) To assess the defects which are creating quality issues
(B) To evaluate project activities that have the potential to create defects
(C) To review symptoms to determine the source of the defects
(D) B and C
Correct Answer: (D) B and C
(B) To evaluate project activities that have the potential to create defects
(C) To review symptoms to determine the source of the defects
Explanation: Ishikawa diagrams are utilized in the Plan Quality Management process to evaluate project activities that have the potential to create defects. Ishikawa diagrams are utilized after the planning process to review symptoms in an effort to determine the source of the defects. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 13.11.7
13.4 - The project management team is analyzing defects and trying to isolate the cause of a problem on the project. They have isolated two variables via the data that is available. They suspect the problem is compounded by the impact of one variable on another. They want to see if there is a relationship between the two variables. Which of the following will help them verify this relationship and why?
(A) Run chart because the closer the lower control limit is to +/-3 sigma, the more dependent the variables are
(B) Pareto diagram because the closer the percentages are on the separate problems, the more dependent the variables are
(C) Control chart because the closer the upper control limit is to +/-3 sigma, the more dependent the variables are
(D) Scatter diagram because the closer the output resembles a diagonal line, the more dependent the variables are
Correct Answer: (D) Scatter diagram because the closer the output resembles a diagonal line, the more dependent the variables are
Explanation: The scatter diagram shows a relationship (or lack of a relationship) between two variables. The run chart (sometimes called a control chart) shows output over time. The Pareto diagram shows defect by quantity.
Crosswind 13.11.5
13.5 - You are the project manager in the testing phase of a project. You are working with your team doing the control quality process and testing project deliverables. Which process will be performed next?
(A) Control quality
(B) Validate scope
(C) Control scope
(D) Create WBS
Correct Answer: (B) Validate Scope
Explanation: Project deliverables are created in the direct and manage work process. Those deliverables are tested by the team in the control quality process. Once those deliverables are deemed passing, they go to the validate scope process for customer acceptance testing. Control scope follows validate scope. Create WBS creates the scope baselin
Crosswind 13.10
13.6 - You are the project manager on a project that will improve the manufacturing process at your company. Quality has been a big issue because there has been an excessive amount spent on inventory with a lot of waste in the building process and return of product after it has been sold. Presently, the company has a 1 sigma quality standard with its manufacturing process. There is a general belief that there are process issues behind this problem. Which of the following options appears to make the most sense in terms of making the process more consistent?
(A) Watching for violations of the seven run rule
(B) Making a greater use of checklists
(C) Increasing the quality standard to a sigma level greater than 1
(D) Utilizing a fishbone diagram
Correct Answer: (B) Making a greater use of checklists
Explanation: When followed, checklists help the employee attain consistent process execution. Assuming the checklist is sufficient and that the employee follows it, the process should possess a greater degree of stability. Fishbone diagrams work with problem isolation. Increasing the quality level makes a process more consistent, but it takes tools to do that. The checklist is a good quick fix that can have standard long-term benefits, especially if the sigma level is increased and higher quality expectations are put in place.
Crosswind 13.11.1
13.7 - You are the project manager on a factory retool project. The goal is to have the factory running at six sigma. The products being created are relatively inexpensive and are only used once by the customer. There will be ten assembly lines running three shifts creating the products. The quality manager wants sample testing, but the operations manager wants to test every item. Which option makes the most sense in this situation?
(A) Sample testing because the products are inexpensive and only used once
(B) Population testing because they want to be extremely thorough
(C) Population testing because the products are inexpensive and only used once
(D) Sample testing because they want to be extremely thorough
Correct Answer: (A) Sample testing because the products are inexpensive and only used once
Explanation: Given that the products are relatively inexpensive and only used once, sample testing makes sense. It would generally be cost prohibitive to test everything in this case.
Crosswind 13.10.2
13.8 - The finance department is building a call center for its new auto finance division. The project manager and his team completed a model project management plan. What component of the plan will they most likely reference during the project’s control quality process?
(A) Detailed process improvement plan
(B) Clearly defined standards of acceptable completion criteria
(C) Complete testing matrix developed for auto loan call centers
(D) Acceptable quality management methodology specifics
Correct Answer: (B) Clearly defined standards of acceptable completion criteria
Explanation: A complete project management plan contains clearly defined standards of acceptable completion criteria that is the primary reason the project management plan is helpful during the Control Quality process.
Crosswind 13.10
13.9 - The project is going through the manage quality process. Which of the following is a key tool that will be utilized in this process?
(A) Cost-benefit analysis, which is used to analyze how to minimize rework due to lack of quality and how to maximize satisfaction and productivity
(B) Quality audits, which help verify process and output compliance
(C) Quality analysis, which is used to optimize project execution and achieve high process quality
(D) Quality management plan, which provides acceptable quality management methodology information
Correct Answer: (B) Quality audits which help verify process and output compliance
Explanation: The quality audit is used in Manage Quality to verify that process and output comply with organizational and project policies and procedures. The goals of quality audits are to identify best practices, identify gaps, and share best practices with all appropriate stakeholders. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 13.9
13.10 - You are performing the plan quality management process on a project. The sponsor puts into the project charter that the quality standard wanted on the project is +/-2 sigma. This translates to what percentage?
(A) 68.26%
(B) 95.46%
(C) 50%
(D) 99.73%
Correct Answer: (B) 95.46%
Explanation: The percentage for 1 sigma is 68.26%, for 2 sigma is 95.46%, and for 3 sigma is 99.73%. 50% is a distracter.
Crosswind 13.8.10
13.11 - There is a variance in the manufacturing process that is causing concern among the team. Some results have been above the specification limits, and some within the control tolerances. You want to learn more about the output of the process over the last month. Which of the following items is the most useful for this purpose?
(A) Run chart because it indicates output over time and provides the opportunity to determine trends and variances
(B) Pareto diagram because the closer the percentages are on the separate problems, the easier it is to determine trends and variances
(C) Control chart because it indicates output and highlights trends and variances
(D) Scatter diagram because the closer the output resembles a diagonal line, the more obvious trends and variances
Correct Answer: (A) Run chart because it indicates output over time and provides the opportunity to determine trends and variances
Explanation: The run chart’s main purpose is to show output over time. This provides an opportunity to catch any trends and variance with the process. The Pareto diagram shows defect by count. A control chart is similar to a run chart, but the reason given is not accurate. A scatter diagram indicates dependencies between variables.
Crosswind 13.11.6
13.12 - You are the project manager on a project that will improve the manufacturing process at your company that has a 1 sigma quality standard with its manufacturing process. Quality has been a major issue because there has been an excessive amount spent on inventory with a lot of waste in the building process and product returns. There is talk of utilizing quality tools at the company to help minimize these problems. Which of the following options looks like the best example of a quality tool for problem isolation?
(A) Utilizing a fishbone diagram
(B) Watching for violations of the seven run rule
(C) Increasing the quality to a sigma level greater than 1
(D) Making a greater use of checklists
Correct Answer: (A) Utilizing a fishbone diagram
Explanation: The fishbone diagram is a quality tool that can be used to look for the source or root cause of other symptoms you might be experiencing in an area. The seven run rule can occur on a control chart when looking at output over time. Increasing the quality level is not a tool nor will it isolate a problem. A checklist could be used as a tool but won’t help isolate problems.
Crosswind 13.11.7
13.13 - The sum of all probabilities equals what?
(A) 100
(B) 1.0
(C) 1.0 or 100%
(D) 100%
Correct Answer: (C) 1.0 or 100%
Explanation: The sum of all probabilities is equal to 1.0 or 100%. 100% is the maximum sum of all potential outcomes of a situation.
Crosswind 13.8.11
13.14 - The project manager of the On-line Loan Application Interface project instructs his team to ensure that the manage quality process is performed thoroughly. What is involved in this process?
(A) Auditing the quality processes to ensure that appropriate standards are used
(B) Identifying quality requirements for the project and product, and auditing them appropriately
(C) Implementing predefined and validated methodologies to record the results of quality activities
(D) Evaluating proposed quality initiatives considering factors such as expected customer satisfaction, the cost of conformance, and the cost of nonconformance
Correct Answer: (A) Auditing the quality processes to ensure that appropriate standards are used
Explanation: This is the generally-accepted definition of the manage quality process. All other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 13.9
13.15 - The project is going through the control quality process. Which of the following is a key tool that will be utilized in this process and why?
(A) Flowcharting shows what areas are causing the most issues and point to what needs it most on the project
(B) A cause-and-effect diagram (also known as Ishikawa and fishbone) helps to isolate any potential problems that relate to quality on a project
(C) The control chart helps to verify that the process is followed accurately
(D) A Pareto chart shows output over time so monitoring for variance and trends can be completed
Correct Answer: (B) A cause-and-effect diagram (also known as Ishikawa and fishbone) helps to isolate any potential problems that relate to quality on a project
Explanation: A cause-and-effect diagram (also known as Ishikawa and fishbone) helps to isolate any potential problems that relate to quality on a project. The other answers are distracters because their descriptions are inaccurate.
Crosswind 13.11.7
13.16 - The project to improve the insurance section of the customer service division is very complex in terms of updating the quality management plan. Which of the following best describes the appropriate time to update these assets?
(A) Updates should occur during the manage quality process
(B) Updates should occur as validation data is available from the manage quality process
(C) Updates should occur as validation data is available from the plan quality management process
(D) Updates should occur during the control quality process
Correct Answer: (B) Updates should occur as validation data is available from the manage quality process
Explanation: Updating organizational process assets should occur as validation data is available from the manage quality process.
Crosswind 13.9
13.17 - While establishing an overall picture of process output over time, the team plots a chart based on the data available. The plotted chart has seven consecutive data points on one side of the mean. What can be determined from the plotted chart?
(A) The control limits are too tight
(B) The control limits are acceptable
(C) The control limits are too loose
(D) A seven run rule violation has occurred
Correct Answer: (D) A seven run rule violation has occurred
Explanation: The seven run rule has been violated. This doesn’t necessarily mean there is a problem, but at a minimum a situation that warrants investigation to see if there is a problem and the specific details.
Crosswind 13.11.6
13.18 - Of the following, which is the best description of the relationship between quality control measurements and the manage quality process?
(A) They are an output of the manage quality process
(B) They can be fed into the manage quality process to validate the efficiency and cost effectiveness of control quality
(C) They are an output of the control quality process
(D) Both A and C
Correct Answer: (B) They can be fed into the manage quality process to validate the efficiency and cost effectiveness of control quality
Explanation: They can be fed into the manage quality process to validate the efficiency and cost effectiveness of the Control Quality process. They are an output of the Control Quality process, but that does not describe the relationship. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 13.9
13.19 - The company is implementing a stricter and more proactive quality standard for projects in an attempt to improve the quality culture. Once implemented, which of the following impacts on the product support department is most likely to occur?
(A) Increased warranty support
(B) Decreased warranty support
(C) Increased inventory requirements
(D) Decreased inventory requirements
Correct Answer: (B) Decreased warranty support
Explanation: Typically, the result of implementing more proactive quality standards decreases the need for warranty support. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 13.8.7
13.20 - The computer manufacturer is putting a policy in place to use Just-in-Time manufacturing. It feels this policy will help minimize excess inventory cost and improve efficiency. The amount of inventory needed for this type of process is what?
(A) There is insufficient information to determine the answer
(B) 27% (3 sigma) or .0003% (6 sigma)
(C) Zero plus predefined organizational buffer
(D) Ideally, zero with supplies obtained only when the product is being built
Correct Answer: (D) Ideally, zero with supplies obtained only when the product is being built
Explanation: The amount of inventory needed for Just-in-Time (JIT) inventory is optimally zero with supplies being obtained only when product is being built.
Crosswind 13.8.9
13.21 - To counteract a perception in the marketplace that RM Manufacturing designs products with defects, the company hires a new project manager to head the key design project in its new initiative. The project manager’s commitment to quality has earned her industry-wide respect. One of the techniques she utilizes to ensure quality results is flowcharting. Of the following, which is the best description of this technique and in what process is it typically used?
(A) A technique used during the plan quality management process to define the components of a process and the order in which they should be performed
(B) A technique used during the control quality process to determine variance and trends
(C) A technique used during the control quality process to define the components of a process and the order in which they should be performed
(D) A technique used during the plan quality management process to determine variance and trends
Correct Answer: (A) A technique used during the plan quality management process to define the components of a process and the order in which they should be performed
Explanation: Flowcharting is a technique used during the Plan Quality Management process to define the components of a process and the order in which they should be performed. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 13.8
13.22 - Crews Manufacturing is known for producing products with consistently high quality. The project manager prefers prevention over inspection for design projects. Which of the following is the best description of this approach to quality?
(A) A proactive approach to increase the stability and repeatability of a process
(B) A reactive approach to eliminate defects and potential defects from the process
(C) A reactive approach to increase the stability and repeatability of a process
(D) A proactive approach to eliminate defects and potential defects from the process
Correct Answer: (D) A proactive approach to eliminate defects and potential defects from the process
Explanation: Prevention versus inspection is a proactive approach to eliminate defects and potential defects from the process. Flowcharting is a proactive approach to increase the stability and repeatability of a process. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 13.8.4
13.23 - You are a project manager working with the quality department. They are testing your project deliverables and are organizing defects by count. You want to show this graphically to communicate it to the stakeholders. What tool will you use to show this?
(A) Run chart
(B) Histogram
(C) Control chart
(D) Scatter diagram
Correct Answer: (B) Histogram
Explanation: The histogram shows defects by count or frequency. The run and control charts show output over time. The scatter diagram shows if there is a relationship between two variables.
Crosswind 13.11.3
13.24 - The company that won the procurement contract is providing additional functionality and reporting in an effort to win more business from the customer. Which of the following best describes this situation?
(A) The company is gold plating, which is a good practice because it increases the prospect of being awarded future contracts with that customer
(B) The company is gold plating, which is not a good practice because it creates unreasonable expectations on the part of the customer
(C) The company is gold plating, which is a good practice because it exceeds the standard of delivering the exact product, service, or result that is finalized in the project charter
(D) The company is gold plating, which is not a good practice because it violates the standard of delivering the exact product, service, or result that is finalized in the project charter
Correct Answer: (D) The company is gold plating, which is not a good practice because it violates the standard of delivering the exact product, service, or result that is finalized in the project charter
Explanation: The company is gold plating, which is not a good practice because it violates the standard of delivering the exact product, service, or result that is finalized in the project charter. Gold plating is a form of scope creep. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 13.7
13.25 - You are the project manager on a project that will improve the manufacturing process at your company, which has a 1 sigma quality standard with its manufacturing process. Quality has been a major issue because there has been an excessive amount spent on inventory with a lot of waste in the building process and product returns. Which of the following is the best approach to increasing the quality standard?
(A) Watching for violations of the seven run rule
(B) Making a greater use of checklists
(C) Changing the quality to a sigma level greater than 1
(D) Utilizing a fishbone diagram
Correct Answer: (C) Changing the quality to a sigma level greater than 1
Explanation: Increasing the quality standard from 1 sigma to 2 (or greater) sigma will increase the quality standard. The other answers will improve quality rather than the quality standard.
Crosswind 13.8.11
13.26 - In testing, special cause variations should be eliminated in a timely manner. How should common cause variations be addressed?
(A) Common cause variations should be ignored
(B) Common cause variations should be addressed through long-term process improvements
(C) Common cause variations should also be eliminated in a timely manner
(D) Common cause variations should be addressed before special cause variations
Correct Answer: (B) Common cause variations should be addressed through long-term process improvements
Explanation: Common cause variations, also caused normal process variations or random causes, should be addressed through long-term process improvements.
Crosswind 13.10.8
13.27 - You are a project manager working with the quality department. They are trying to isolate if there is a relationship between two test variables. You want to show this graphically to communicate it to the stakeholders. What tool will you use to show this?
(A) Run chart
(B) Histogram
(C) Control chart
(D) Scatter diagram
Correct Answer: (D) Scatter diagram
Explanation: The scatter diagram shows if there is a relationship between two variables, and if so, what kind of relationship. The histogram shows defect by count or frequency. The run and control charts show output over time.
Crosswind 13.11.5
13.28 - You are the project manager on a quality system upgrade project. There has been a great debate at the company about what is in and out of the scope of the quality system. Currently you are doing the manage quality process. What process will you perform next?
(A) Plan quality management
(B) Perform quality assurance
(C) Manage quality
(D) Control quality
Correct Answer: (D) Control quality
Explanation: The control quality process follows the manage quality process. Plan quality management is before the manage quality process. Perform quality assurance is a distracter.
Crosswind 13.10
13.29 - The company has established a control chart that has an upper control limit of five and a lower control limit of two. The customer, however, does not require such a high standard. What is the upper specification limit?
(A) Greater than two and less than five
(B) Greater than five
(C) Between five and two
(D) None of the answers
Correct Answer: (B) Greater than five
Explanation: The upper specification limit (USL) is typically greater in value than the upper control limit (UCL); therefore, with an upper control limit of five, the upper specification limit is greater than five.
Crosswind 13.11.6
13.30 - In preparing his team for the quality improvement initiative, the project manager is holding a quality meeting. He intends to open the meeting with a brief slide show, which will include highlighting several quality concepts. Before he discusses the concepts, he asks the team to match the concept with its creator. Which of the following contains the correct matches?
(A) TQM and Joseph Juran, Fitness for Use and W. Edwards Deming, Zero Defects and Philip Crosby
(B) TQM and W. Edwards Deming, Fitness for Use and Joseph Juran, Zero Defects and Philip Crosby
(C) TQM and W. Edwards Deming, Fitness for Use and Philip Crosby, Zero Defects and Joseph Juran
(D) TQM and Philip Crosby, Fitness for Use and W. Edwards Deming, Zero Defects and Joseph Juran
Correct Answer: (B) TQM and W. Edwards Deming, Fitness for Use and Joseph Juran, Zero Defects and Philip Crosby
Explanation: TQM was conceived by W. Edwards Deming, Fitness for Use was conceived by Joseph Juran, and Zero Defects was conceived by Philip Crosby.
Crosswind 13.3, 13.4 and 13.5
Company-wide server upgrades are an example of what type of project cost?
(A) Variable indirect
(B) Variable
(C) Fixed
(D) Fixed direct
Correct Answer: (A) Variable indirect
Explanation: This type of cost typically increases for every server and is not likely associated with a specific project. Therefore, variable indirect is the best description. Variable is not the best answer. Fixed and fixed direct cost descriptions don’t fit this type of cost except in one instance: If the question had limited the server upgrades to a fixed license fee for a web server used in a web project, the answer would have been (C) Fixed.
Exam Tip of the Day #77
The project team is ordering a server after discovering that it was missed in the original scope discovery of the project. There is an urgency to have it delivered quickly to minimize schedule slippage, but the project team does not want to spend money from dwindling reserves to pay for the additional shipping charges. Which of the following is the most accurate description of this situation?
(A) There is an attribute issue since fast shipping and low-cost shipping are both characteristics associated with shipping
(B) There is a budget issue since there isn’t extra money for shipping
(C) There is a mutual exclusivity issue since shipping fast and low cost do not correlate to each other
(D) There is a time issue since the server needs to arrive quickly
Correct Answer: (C) There is a mutual exclusivity issue since shipping fast and low cost do not correlate to each other
Explanation: Mutual exclusivity, in this instance, requires that only one choice can be selected. Since delivering quickly and minimizing shipping charges do not correlate to each other this creates the issue. The team must make that determination on which choices to select regarding delivery.
Exam Tip of the Day #78
The project is experiencing conflict as the planning evolves. Of the following, which is the most common set of tools the project manager can utilize to minimize conflict?
(A) Ground rules, interpersonal skills, and project management practices
(B) Ground rules, group norms, and project management practices
(C) Ground rules, group norms, networking and project management practices
(D) Ground rules, interpersonal skills, networking, and project management practices
Correct Answer: (B) Ground rules, group norms, and project management practices
Explanation: The common set of tools the project manager can utilize to minimize conflict are ground rules, group norms, and project management practices.
Exam Tip of the Day #79
A major manufacturing company has initiated a project to determine the best course of action to take in response to the new “green laws” recently passed by congress. The company has many plants located in the U.S. and overseas, some of which have been in place for decades and will likely not be cost effective to modernize. The CEO has warned that this project will rise, or fall based on effective communications. During the plan communications management process, the project manager and his team will rely on potentially five key inputs. Which of the following is a key input of the process?
(A) Project management plan
(B) Communications technology
(C) Meetings
(D) Lessons learned register
Correct Answer: (A) Project management plan
Explanation: The project management plan is an input to the plan communications management process. The other answers are tools and techniques or distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #80
The project manager and the team have made risk-related contract decisions and updated the risk register and project management plan. Which of the following best describes the process they have just completed?
(A) Identify risks, which entails determining what risks and triggers could occur on the project
(B) Plan risk responses, which entails determining what will be done if risk events occur and who will be responsible for executing those actions
(C) Control risks management, which entails observing project activities for risks and risk triggers and implementing the means to control them
(D) Perform qualitative risk analysis, which entails assigning probability and impact ratings to each risk
Correct Answer: (B) Plan risk responses, which entails determining what will be done if risk events occur and who will be responsible for executing those actions
Explanation: Plan Risk Responses documents who should do what if risk events occur. Identify Risks is the process of determining what risks and triggers could occur on the project. Monitor Risks focuses on observing project activities for risk triggers and risks and implementing the means to control them. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis assigns probability and impact ratings to the risk.
Exam Tip of the Day #81
You are purchasing 67 desktop computers, monitors, and a standard desktop software package for an upcoming project. What type of contract will you likely use?
(A) Net 30 because interest charges are avoided if you pay the entire cost within 30 days
(B) Fixed-price because the price will be locked in
(C) Net 90 because interest charges are avoided if you pay the entire cost within 90 days
(D) Purchase order because it is a general purchase vehicle for commodity purchases
Correct Answer: (D) Purchase order because it is a general purchase vehicle for commodity purchases
Explanation: The purchase order is a general purchase vehicle for commodity type purchases. Typically, it is for items that are standard, non-customized, and non-negotiable in price. Fixed-price is typically for a detailed, customized, negotiated solution. Net 30 and Net 90 are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #82
All of the following interpersonal or soft skills are applicable to managing stakeholder engagement except…
(A) Building trust
(B) Resolving conflict
(C) Passive listening
(D) Overcoming resistance to change
Correct Answer: (C) Passive listening
Explanation: Interpersonal or soft skills applicable to managing stakeholder engagement are building trust, resolving conflict, active listening, and overcoming resistance to change.
Exam Tip of the Day #83
14.1 - Calculate EMV from the following: 0.4 probability of $6,500, 0.3 probability of -$3,200, 0.2 probability of $2,000, 0.1 probability of $1,000.
(A) $10,500
(B) $2,700
(C) $2,140
(D) $2,500
Correct Answer: (C) $2,140
Explanation: To calculate the expected monetary value (EMV), multiply each probability by its dollar amount and add the products of all multiplication. The result is a value of $2,140.
Crosswind Manual 14.5.4
14.2 - In defining a risk trigger, which of the following is most accurate?
(A) A trigger is an indication that a risk event could occur in the near future
(B) A trigger is the same as a risk
(C) A trigger is an indicator that a risk event has definitely occurred
(D) A trigger is an indicator that a risk event will definitely occur
Correct Answer: (A) A trigger is an indication that a risk event could occur in the near future
Explanation: A trigger is an indication that a risk event could occur in the near future. Just because a trigger occurs, don’t automatically assume that the risk will occur.
Crosswind 14.3.3
14.3 - The telecom project is scheduled to run until year’s end. There is a strong possibility that the union collective bargaining agreement will not be renewed immediately upon its expiration next month. Union negotiation is outside the control of senior management and the project, so senior management has decided to reassign the job responsibilities of union personnel to non-union personnel to minimize project schedule slippage. Of the following, what best describes the type of risk response represented by this decision?
(A) Risk avoidance, which avoids negative risk by taking actions to prevent it
(B) Risk transference, which avoids negative risk by transferring or reassigning responsibilities
(C) Risk mitigation, which mitigates negative risk by taking actions to lessen its impact
(D) Risk acceptance, which accepts negative risk and has a plan to deal with it if it occurs
Correct Answer: (C) Risk mitigation, which mitigates negative risk by taking actions to lessen its impact
Explanation: Risk mitigation attempts to minimize the bad risk or maximize the good risk. In this case, management is attempting to minimize the impact of a labor strike. Risk acceptance simply deals with the risk if it occurs. Risk avoidance involves doing what can be done to eliminate the risk. Transference assigns or transfers the risk to some external party.
Crosswind 14.6.2
14.4 - The company is concerned about its position during the economic downturn. Its CEO is a risk taker. Of several strategies on the table for consideration, which is he most likely to pursue?
(A) Mandating that senior management lay the ground work for a reduction in force in the event it is necessary
(B) Entering a relatively untested market in the hope of significant reward (C) Trying new markets that do not require significant investment while mandating traditional “belt-tightening” procedures
(D) None of the answers
Correct Answer: (B) Entering a relatively untested market in the hope of significant reward
Explanation: A risk seeker mentality is that of looking for the big reward and being prepared to pay significantly if it is missed. The risk-averse mentality is a very conservative approach to risk. A risk-neutral mentality is somewhere between that of a risk seeker and risk-averse mentality.
Crosswind 14.2.7
14.5 - You are the project manager on a server infrastructure project. You have just started creating the risk register. What process did you just complete?
(A) Identify risks
(B) Plan risk management
(C) Perform qualitative risk analysis
(D) Implement risk responses
Correct Answer: (B) Plan risk management
Explanation: Identify risks starts to create the risk register. Plan risk management comes before identify risks. Perform qualitative risk analysis follows identify risks. Implement risk responses comes later in the flow of risk processes.
Crosswind 14.2
14.6 - You have been doing quantitative risk analysis on a nationwide mapping project. Which of the following best describes when it makes the most sense to do this type of analysis?
(A) For risks where money is involved
(B) For risks that cross a higher threshold of probability and impact or projects that are higher risk compared to others
(C) For risks that cross a higher threshold of probability and impact
(D) For higher risk projects
Correct Answer: (B) For risks that cross a higher threshold of probability and impact or projects that are higher risk compared to others
Explanation: Quantitative risk analysis is performed on higher probability and higher impact risks, so that you can get a better degree of the detail regarding the risk. It is also done on higher uncertainty projects to compare to other projects. Risks involving money is a distracter.
Crosswind 14.5
14.7 - The project manager and the team have made risk-related contract decisions and updated the risk register and project management plan. Which of the following best describes the process they have just completed?
(A) Identify risks, which entails determining what risks and triggers could occur on the project
(B) Plan risk responses, which entails determining what will be done if risk events occur and who will be responsible for executing those actions
(C) Monitor risks, which entails observing project activities for risks and risk triggers and implementing the means to control them
(D) Perform qualitative risk analysis, which entails assigning probability and impact ratings to each risk
Correct Answer: (B) Plan risk responses, which entails determining what will be done if risk events occur and who will be responsible for executing those actions
Explanation: Plan Risk Responses documents who should do what if risk events occur. Identify Risks is the process of determining what risks and triggers could occur on the project. Monitor Risks focuses on observing project activities for risk triggers and risks and implementing the means to control them. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis assigns probability and impact ratings to the risk.
Crosswind 14.6
14.8 - In response to economic and market changes, the company is moving from a conservative strategy to a more market-driven strategy. As a result of this change, the company has just approved a project that aligns with the new strategy. A number of the stakeholders, however, are still risk-averse. The project manager is meeting with them to explain his risk management plan. The stakeholders are very interested in the concept of a risk review. Which of the following best describes a risk review?
(A) The process of determining the project risks
(B) The process of determining the characteristics of the project risks
(C) The process of determining the validity of the documented risks and looking for new risks that could occur
(D) The process of determining who will implement a risk response plan
Correct Answer: (C) The process of determining the validity of the documented risks and looking for any new risks that could occur
Explanation: Risk reviews verify that the risks are still valid and that no new risks have appeared on the project. The other answers come before or after risk reviews.
Crosswind 14.3.4
14.9 - The project manager and the team created change requests as a result of unforeseen occurrences. Which of the following best describes the process they have just completed?
(A) Identify risks, which entails determining what risks and triggers could occur on the project
(B) Plan risk responses, which entails determining what will be done if risk events occur and who will be responsible for executing those actions
(C) Monitor risks, which entails observing project activities for risks and risk triggers and implementing the means to control them
(D) Perform qualitative risk analysis, which entails assigning probability and impact ratings to each risk
Correct Answer: (C) Monitor risks, which entails observing project activities for risks and risk triggers and implementing the means to control them
Explanation: Monitor Risks focuses on observing project activities for risk triggers and risks and implementing the means to control them. Plan Risk Responses documents who should do what if risk events occur. Identify Risks is the process of determining what risks and triggers could occur on the project. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis assigns probability and impact ratings to the risk.
Crosswind 14.8
14.10 - The reservation system has been working well. Today, the main database engine crashed, preventing the airline from creating reservations for its flights. The risk response didn’t fix the problem, so the airline must respond. Which of the following should it perform first?
(A) Fix the problem with a work-around
(B) Determine why the risk response plan failed
(C) Adjust the risk response plan
(D) Determine why the problem occurred
Correct Answer: (A) Fix the problem with a work-around
Explanation: This is a chicken or the egg question in that you more than likely will do all the answers, but what comes first? Fixing the problem, then determining why the risk response plan failed, and why the problem occurred, then adjusting the risk response plan is the sequence for the other answers.
Crosswind 14.7.3
14.11 - Perform qualitative risk analysis uses a variety of tools for analysis. Which of the following is most closely associated with this process?
(A) A probability and impact matrix
(B) The expected monetary value (EMV) formula
(C) Templates for work-around documentation
(D) Risk trigger determination
Correct Answer: (A) A probability and impact matrix
Explanation: Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis uses a risk rating matrix to rank risks and create an overall risk rating for the project. Expected monetary value (EMV) is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 14.4
14.12 - The makers of the video game are making a new version. It’s key to have it released in time for the holiday shopping season. The project manager is monitoring the schedule and has noticed that an event has been triggered showing there is a high probability the schedule will slip. The project manager follows the plan and brings in 4 new contract programmers to help get it back on track. What process is she doing?
(A) Planning risk responses
(B) Updating the risk management plan
(C) Monitoring risks
(D) Implementing risk responses
Correct Answer: (D) Implementing risk responses
Explanation: The process being described is implementing risk responses. Planning risk responses is where they establish what will be done if needed. Updating the risk management plan is not a process, but can come from a variety of processes as applicable. Monitoring risks would lead to the implementing of risk responses.
Crosswind 14.7
14.13 - The project has been experiencing a greater than normal realization of risks. The project manager is trying to get ahead of this problem. She calls a meeting for the team to organize potential risks. The project manager wants to organize them by category and use it across the organization. What document will they create or update?
(A) Risk register
(B) Risk report
(C) Risk breakdown structure
(D) Risk response strategies
Correct Answer: (C) Risk breakdown structure
Explanation: The risk breakdown structure is a list of risks by category. This can be used in a company as an organizational process asset for use on future projects. The risk register shows the identified risks and their characteristics for the project. The risk report provides project related risk information in the form of a report. Risk response strategies is a distracter.
Crosswind 14.2.2
14.14 - Of the following, which best describes a secondary risk?
(A) A vendor was unable to fulfill a contract commitment by the due date in the contract
(B) A vendor was unable to fulfill a contract commitment by the due date in the contract due to a strike
(C) A vendor was unable to fulfill a contract commitment by the due date in the contract because a sub-contractor delivered a defective product
(D) A vendor was unable to fulfill a contract commitment by the due date in the contract, so the team chose another vendor that also could not meet the due date because of the late start
Correct Answer: (D) A vendor was unable to fulfill a contract commitment by the due date in the contract, so the team chose another vendor that also could not meet the due date because of the late start
Explanation: Secondary risk is what occurs when a risk event occurs and its response creates new risk.
Crosswind 14.7.2
14.15 - If a risk on the project has a high probability of occurring and a high-impact if it does occur, the project team will more than likely do what?
(A) Determine the insurable risk amount
(B) Perform qualitative risk analysis
(C) Determine the pure risk amount
(D) Perform quantitative risk analysis
Correct Answer: (D) Perform quantitative risk analysis
Explanation: The team will undertake the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process if the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process shows that the risk has a high probability of occurring and high-impact if it does. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis helps determine the probability and impact of a risk; therefore, you must complete this analysis before you can evaluate the probability and impact of the risk. Determination of insurable risk and determination of pure risk are distracters.
Crosswind 14.5
14.16 - The construction company has been awarded a $40M contract to build an upscale community shopping center. Of the following, which is the best example of an exploit type of risk response strategy?
(A) The company hires inexperienced workers and pays them only 25% of the salary received by union workers
(B) The company realizes the adjoining land will increase in value upon completion of the project, so it purchases the adjoining land at current prices
(C) The company purchases materials below the grade specified in the contract, although satisfying local building standards
(D) The company hires inexperienced workers and pays them scale, but does not provide the benefits given to the union workers
Correct Answer: (B) The company realizes the adjoining land will increase in value upon completion of the project, so it purchases the adjoining land at current prices
Explanation: Exploiting the risk is to undertake activity that grows or expands the positive aspects of the risk. Sharing the risk is to work with someone else to maximize the risk. Mitigate attempts to minimize the negative impact of the risk. Accepting the risk is to tolerate whatever occurred.
Crosswind 14.6.2
14.17 - The project manager is discussing risk with a risk-averse stakeholder regarding the market expansion project. The stakeholder has been exposed to project management concepts, but wants to know more about management reserves. The project manager explains that management reserves are created specifically for…
(A) Risk events you know can occur on the project
(B) Risk events you cannot logically forecast for the project
(C) Risk events that do occur with a cumulative cost greater than the amount set aside in management reserves
(D) Risk events that do occur with a cumulative cost greater than the amount set aside in contingency reserves
Correct Answer: (B) Risk events you cannot logically forecast for the project
Explanation: Management reserves are created for unknown unknowns: risk events you cannot forecast for the project. Contingency reserves are created for known unknowns: risk events you know can occur during the project. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 14.6
14.18 - The mobile application transition project is going basically as planned, but a market related risk has occurred: two competitors have merged. While a possible merger was anticipated, there was a great deal of uncertainty as to which competitors would be involved. The team has identified the potential impact. Which of the following will graphically demonstrate the impact to the project and company?
(A) Probability and impact matrix
(B) Tornado diagram
(C) Expected monetary value
(D) Risk register
Correct Answer: (B) Tornado diagram
Explanation: The tornado diagram graphically demonstrates the potential impact of the event to the project and the company via sensitivity analysis. The probability and impact matrix demonstrates the probability and impact of the risk. Expected monetary value (EMV) demonstrates what the opportunity is worth, but doesn’t necessarily show it graphically. The risk register contains all the information about the project risks.
Crosswind 14.5.7
14.19 - The project management team has just completed the process of identifying risks on the project. They have broken the information into categories and displayed this information in a graphical format. What have they created?
(A) Prioritized list of quantified risks
(B) Risk breakdown structure
(C) Risk probabilities and impact matrix
(D) Risk checklist analysis chart
Correct Answer: (B) Risk breakdown structure
Explanation: The risk breakdown structure (RBS) is a graphical representation of the risk categorization and risks within those categories of the project. The prioritized list of quantified risks comes in the risk register and involves risk ranking, not identification categorization. The risk probabilities and impact matrix is part of the risk management plan and is used in qualitative risk analysis. The risk checklist analysis chart is a distracter.
Crosswind 14.2.2
14.20 - The project manager is discussing risk with a risk-averse stakeholder on the market expansion project. The stakeholder has been exposed to project management concepts, but wants to know more about contingency reserves. The project manager explains that contingency reserves are created specifically for…
(A) Risk events you know can occur on the project
(B) Risk events you cannot logically forecast for the project
(C) Risk events that do occur with a cumulative cost greater than the amount set aside in management reserves
(D) Risk events that do occur with a cumulative cost greater than the amount set aside in contingency reserves
Correct Answer: (A) Risk events you know can occur on the project
Explanation: Contingency reserves are created for known unknowns: risk events you know can occur during the project. Management reserves are created for unknown unknowns: risk events you cannot forecast for the project. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 14.6
14.21 - You are a project manager on a road construction project. You are implementing risk responses. What process did you just complete?
(A) Plan risk responses
(B) Perform qualitative risk analysis
(C) Perform quantitative risk analysis
(D) Monitor risks
Correct Answer: (A) Plan risk responses
Explanation: The implement risk responses process comes after plan risk responses. The perform qualitative and quantitative risk analysis processes come before plan risk responses. Monitor risks follows implement risk responses.
Crosswind 14.6
14.22 - The construction company has been awarded a $20M contract to build a shopping community center. The company is relatively small, and this contract is bigger than anything it has been awarded to date. To ensure that it can effectively complete the contract and not jeopardize other work, it has chosen to pursue a share strategy. Of the following, which is the best example of the share strategy?
(A) The company subcontracts the finishing work to a company with large cash reserves
(B) The company partners with a company that specializes in foundation and concrete work
(C) The company assigns its best employees to the shopping center contract and uses the remaining employees and day workers from Employee Share, Inc. for its other projects
(D) None of the answers
Correct Answer: (B) The company partners with a company that specializes in foundation and concrete work
Explanation: Sharing the risk with another company is the basis of a share strategy. Subcontracting is not risk sharing.
Crosswind 14.6.2
14.23 - Your company is evaluating two projects for consideration. Project A has a 40% probability of $69,000 and a 60% probability of -$10,000. Project B has a 60% probability of $56,000 and a 40% probability of -$15,000. Which of the projects do you select based on the greatest expected monetary value?
(A) Project A
(B) Project B
(C) Project A and B are of even value
(D) The expected monetary value is not high enough on either to make a selection
Correct Answer: (B) Project B
Explanation: To calculate the expected monetary value (EMV), multiply the probabilities by their dollar amounts and add the products of the multiplication for each project. This results in a value of $21,600 for Project A and $27,600 for Project B. With the highest expected monetary value, Project B is the one to select.
Crosswind 14.5.4
14.24 - The database project team members are planning the project. They are involved in planning risk responses and assigning risk owners. What will the risk owner potentially do next?
(A) Watch for additional risks on the project
(B) Watch for risk triggers and tell the project manager when they occur
(C) Let the project manager know that the risk has occurred
(D) Implement a risk response if the risk event occurs
Correct Answer: (D) Implement a risk response if the risk event occurs
Explanation: Risk owners are responsible for implementing the risk response assigned to them. Watching for additional risks on the project could fall under the responsibility of a risk owner, but isn’t the main responsibility. Letting the project manager know that a risk event has occurred isn’t the main responsibility of the risk owner. Watching for risk triggers and telling the project manager if they occur isn’t taking a proactive approach to risk or project management.
Crosswind 14.7
14.25 - You are the project manager on a boardwalk restoration project. You are doing quantitative risk analysis. Which of the following is a tool and technique you will use during this process?
(A) Probability and impact matrix
(B) Data quality assessment
(C) Decision tree analysis
(D) Assessment of other risk parameters
Correct Answer: (C) Decision tree analysis
Explanation: Decision tree analysis is the only tool and technique listed from perform quantitative risk analysis. The other answers are tools and techniques of perform qualitative risk analysis.
Crosswind 14.5
14.26 - A film distribution company involved in global expansion has a chief marketing officer who is familiar with cutting edge marketing techniques and strategies. The marketing project for the expansion is set to rollout in 10 countries via the Internet and cable television. An account manager discovers that the chief marketing officer has been embezzling from the company for the last 90 days to help a terminally ill relative. During risk management execution, which of the following best represents an escalation strategy?
(A) Confront the senior marketing manager about his actions
(B) Allow him to remain in his position and reimburse the company for the amount embezzled plus all incidental expenses
(C) Terminate him, file felony theft charges, and have someone different run the campaign
(D) Update the CEO with the details of what you have discovered
Correct Answer: (D) Update the CEO with the details of what you have discovered
Explanation: Updating the CEO would be an example of an escalation strategy. Outsourcing the work is a transference strategy. Allowing him to stay at the company and pay back the amount represents an attempt to mitigate (or minimize) risk, but it could still occur. Terminating him and having someone different run the campaign would be a combination of avoid and mitigate. Confronting the manager doesn’t fit any option.
Crosswind 14.6.2
14.27 - Sheldon is doing quantitative risk analysis on his project. He has gotten resistance from his sponsor about doing this. Which of the following best describes why he would want to do this type of risk analysis?
(A) On higher probability, higher impact risks
(B) On new types of projects where there is a greater degree of uncertainty
(C) On higher probability, higher impact risks, or new types of projects where there is a great degree of uncertainty
(D) Any risk that has financial impact
Correct Answer: (C) On higher probability, higher impact risks, or new types of projects where there is a great degree of uncertainty
Explanation: Quantitative risk analysis is typically done on higher probability, higher impact risks, or to establish the overall risk of a project compared to other projects. New projects often fit this criteria because of the uncertainty. There is usually some threshold that is used to establish the justification for the additional effort with the quantitative risk analysis.
Crosswind 14.5
14.28 - The project manager is having a major issue with a team member. She meets with him and explains how things need to be, to have the project come in on schedule and how key the team member’s performance is to the team. The project manager hopes this works and gets the team member back in sync with what is needed on the project. Which of the following is most likely to be of primary concern to the project manager?
(A) Residual risk
(B) Secondary risk
(C) Adding it to the risk register
(D) Shifting to a risk-averse management strategy
Correct Answer: (A) Residual risk
Explanation: Residual risk is risk that remains after implementing a risk response. It appears that the project manager was trying to deal with the risk and as a result, that residual risk of performance issue could remain. Secondary risk would be a side effect of implementing the risk response, which doesn’t really fit here. Shifting to a risk-averse management strategy is a distracter. Adding it to the risk register is a distracter.
Crosswind 14.7.1
14.29 - A film distribution company involved in global expansion has a chief marketing officer who is familiar with cutting edge marketing techniques and strategies. The marketing project for the expansion is set to rollout in 10 countries via the Internet and cable television. It’s discovered that the chief marketing officer has been embezzling from the company for the last 90 days to help a terminally ill relative. Senior management is extremely concerned because this person knows more about this type of campaign than anyone in the industry and it doesn’t want to impact the company negatively. During risk management execution, which of the following best represents an avoidance strategy associated with the embezzlement?
(A) Allow him to remain at the company because the embezzlement was not done for personal gain
(B) Allow him to remain in his position and reimburse the company for the amount embezzled plus all incidental expenses
(C) Terminate him, file felony theft charges, and have someone different run the campaign
(D) Terminate him and outsource the marketing function to an ad agency
Correct Answer: (C) Terminate him, file felony theft charges, and have someone different run the campaign
Explanation: An avoidance strategy is the strategy that eliminates the risk, i.e. terminating him to eliminate further exposure and having someone else run the campaign is the best answer in terms of an avoidance strategy. Allowing him to stay at the company and pay back the amount represents an attempt to mitigate (or minimize) risk, but it could still occur. Allowing him to stay because he did not use the money for personal gain would be to accept (or tolerate) the risk. Outsourcing the work is a transference strategy.
Crosswind 14.6.2
14.30 - The project manager and the team created the risk register. Which of the following best describes the process they have just completed?
(A) Identify risks, which entails determining what risks and triggers could occur on the project
(B) Plan risk responses, which entails determining what will be done if risk events occur and who will be responsible for executing those actions
(C) Monitor risks, which entails observing project activities for risks and risk triggers and implementing the means to control them
(D) Perform qualitative risk analysis, which entails assigning probability and impact ratings to each risk
Correct Answer: (A) Identify risks, which entails determining what risks and triggers could occur on the project
Explanation: Identify Risks is the process of determining what risks and triggers could occur on the project. Plan Risk Responses documents who should do what if risk events occur. Monitor Risks focuses on observing project activities for risks and their triggers and implementing the means to control them. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis assigns probability and impact ratings to the risk.
Crosswind 14.3
15.1 - The project is using a company to provide the technicians for a national network upgrade project. Presently, the buyer is having issues with the seller accomplishing the work of the project according to the contract schedule. The buyer lets the seller know that it is in default for failure to execute per terms of the contract. The buyer also decides to stop payment for work already accomplished until the issue is resolved. What most accurately describes this situation?
(A) The buyer is right in stopping payment until the issue is resolved
(B) The buyer is wrong in stopping payment until the issue is resolved
(C) Both sides appear to be in default of the contract
(D) The seller is wrong and needs to correct the situation
Correct Answer: (C) Both sides appear to be in default of the contract
Explanation: A seller who fails to perform as defined in the contract is in default of the contract. The buyer choosing to stop payment creates a default situation as well. Two wrongs do not make a right in this case. The buyer is not right in stopping payment just because the other side is in default. The other answers are both accurate, but they are not the best answer.
Crosswind 15.1.5
15.2 - The contract is expected to cost $560K. Actual cost is $510K. There is a 50%/50% share of any cost savings. What is the total value of the contract?
(A) $535K
(B) $510K
(C) $560K
(D) $610K
Correct Answer: (A) $535K
Explanation: The $560K is the expected value of the contract and the actual cost of the contract is $510K, resulting in a savings of $50K. $25K of the savings goes to the seller and the other $25K goes to the buyer. The actual cost of $510K and $25K savings share makes the total value of the contract worth $535K.
Crosswind 15.1.8
15.3 - You are the project manager working with the customer on a call center implementation. Your company is responsible for the call center infrastructure. The customer needs some modifications to the scope of the project due to the availability of new functionality. This modification requires that the scope of work to the contract be modified. Who can modify the contract?
(A) The project manager for the buyer
(B) The contract administrator for the company
(C) The project managers for the buyer and seller
(D) The project manager for the seller
Correct Answer: (B) The contract administrator for the company
Explanation: The contract administrator for the company is the only person with the authority to change the contract. The project managers from the buyer and the seller will likely have input to the changes, but the contract administrator is the person making those changes to the contract.
Crosswind 15.3.2
15.4 - What type of contract exposes the seller to the most risk when entering into a contract?
(A) Time and materials because there is no provision for an increase in the workers salary
(B) Cost plus percentage of cost because the seller’s net can decrease if the cost decreases
(C) Purchase order because there is no provision for an increase in material costs
(D) Fixed-price because there is no provision for increases in the seller’s costs
Correct Answer: (D) Fixed-price because there is no provision for increases in the seller’s costs
Explanation: The fixed-price contract has the most risk for the seller because the contract limits the amount that the buyer will pay for the project. The seller must have a detailed understanding of exactly what is needed on the project so it can control cost. Cost plus percentage of cost provides the least risk to the seller. A purchase order provides the seller with no risk because the price for a commodity type item has been established. Time and materials contracts are typically used for smaller amounts of work and staff augmentation.
Crosswind 15.1.7
15.5 - You are the project manager for an IT outsourcing project. You are currently doing the plan procurement management process. What process will you perform next?
(A) Conduct procurement
(B) Close procurement
(C) Control procurement
(D) Plan solicitation
Correct Answer: (A) Conduct procurement
Explanation: Conduct procurement follows the plan procurement management process. Control procurement follows conduct procurement. Close procurement and plan solicitation are distracters.
Crosswind 15.2
15.6 - You are the project manager for an IT outsourcing project. You are currently doing the plan procurement management process. What is a tool and technique you will use with this process?
(A) Procurement management plan
(B) Make or buy analysis
(C) Make or buy decision
(D) Evaluation criteria
Correct Answer: (B) Make or buy analysis
Explanation: The make or buy analysis is a tool and technique of the plan procurement management process. The other answers are created as a result of the plan procurement management process.
Crosswind 15.1
15.7 - You are purchasing 67 desktop computers, monitors, and a standard desktop software package for an upcoming project. What type of contract will you likely use?
(A) Net 30 because interest charges are avoided if you pay the entire cost within 30 days
(B) Fixed-price because the price will be locked in
(C) Net 90 because interest charges are avoided if you pay the entire cost within 90 days
(D) Purchase order because it is a general purchase vehicle for commodity purchases
Correct Answer: (D) Purchase order because it is a general purchase vehicle for commodity purchases
Explanation: The purchase order is a general purchase vehicle for commodity type purchases. Typically, it is for items that are standard, non-customized, and non-negotiable in price. Fixed-price is typically for a detailed, customized, negotiated solution. Net 30 and Net 90 are distracters.
Crosswind 15.1.7
15.8 - You are the project manager for a computer network installation project. You have a list of all the hardware, software applications, cabling, and various pieces that you will need to complete the installation and setup. What best describes this approach?
(A) Functional scope of work (B) Design scope of work (C) Statement of work (D) Requirements documentation
Correct Answer: (B) Design scope of work
Explanation: The exact description of what is to be done is an example of a design scope of work. Functional would be more of a description that focuses on the result, instead of an exact solution. In the case of functional, there could be a variety of options to fulfill the functionality. Statement of work and requirements documentation are too generic compared to the design scope of work answer.
Crosswind 15.1.10
15.9 - What is the primary mechanism that needs to be in place for a single source noncompetitive procurement?
(A) A mechanism that ensures there are no kickbacks
(B) A mechanism that ensures that there is no impropriety or unreasonable pricing
(C) A mechanism that ensures there is no price gouging
(D) A mechanism that ensures there is no inappropriate relationship between the procurer and the source
Correct Answer: (B) A mechanism that ensures that there is no impropriety or unreasonable pricing
Explanation: One type of noncompetitive form of procurement is single source, in which a single company is chosen even though others are available. There must be a mechanism in place to ensure there is no impropriety or unreasonable pricing.
Crosswind 15.2.3
15.10 - A city is buying services from a construction company to build a new freeway for $4M over three years. At the start of each year, the amount fluctuates relative to the national cost of living. This is an example of what type of contract?
(A) Cost plus economic price adjust
(B) Cost plus incentive fee
(C) Fixed-price cost of living adjust
(D) Fixed-price economic price adjust
Correct Answer: (D) Fixed-price economic price adjust
Explanation: A fixed-price economic price adjust contract is a contract that generally has a fixed price, but because of contract length, will adjust year-by-year as a neutral economic indicator moves upward or downward. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 15.1.7
15.11 - The project will be using a company to provide the technicians for a national network upgrade project. Presently, the team is in the process of conducting a make-or-buy analysis. What is the primary factor that will influence the team’s decision?
(A) The comparison of skill sets between alternatives
(B) The comparison of resource availability between alternatives
(C) The comparison of costs between alternatives
(D) The comparison of experience between alternatives
Correct Answer: (C) The comparison of costs between alternatives
Explanation: Assume, for the exam, that cost comparison is the only factor considered during a make-or-buy analysis. In reality, skill sets, experience, and resource availability are also considered.
Crosswind 15.1.2
15.12 - You have been assigned as a project manager of a computer network installation project. You are currently doing the conduct procurements process. You have just entered into an agreement with a vendor. Which of the following do you need to reference to get to this stage?
(A) Change request
(B) Contract file
(C) Project scope statement
(D) Source selection criteria
Correct Answer: (D) Source selection criteria
Explanation: There are several items needed to get to the point of an agreement with a vendor, but the source selection criteria is the only one listed. This provides guidance as to what the buyer is trying to accomplish as a result of the procurement. A contract file is what would be created, as the contract is executed and completed. Change request and project scope statement are distracters.
Crosswind 15.2
15.13 - Your company just completed a make-or-buy decision regarding a new area of development. The project manager and the team will refer to the procurement management plan for guidance in connection with a number of ensuing activities. Which of the following best describes those activities?
(A) Establishing which procurement documents are needed, running bidder conferences or addressing noncompetitive forms of procurement, selecting vendors, and establishing contracts
(B) Running bidder conferences or addressing noncompetitive forms of procurement, selecting vendors, establishing contracts, executing contracts, and closing contracts
(C) Establishing which procurement documents are needed, creating the procurement documents, running bidder conferences or addressing noncompetitive forms of procurement, selecting vendors, and establishing contracts
(D) Running bidder conferences or addressing noncompetitive forms of procurement, selecting vendors, establishing contracts, administering contracts, and closing contracts
Correct Answer: (C) Establishing which procurement documents are needed, creating the procurement documents, running bidder conferences or addressing noncompetitive forms of procurement, selecting vendors, and establishing contracts
Explanation: Once the buy decision has been made, the procurement management plan is the guidance source for establishing which procurement documents are needed, creating the procurement documents, running bidder conferences or addressing noncompetitive forms of procurement, selecting vendors, and establishing contracts. All the other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 15.2
15.14 - The project utilizes a vendor to provide the technicians for a national network upgrade project. The buyer agrees to pay the vendor an incentive fee. Of the following, which is the most logical reason the buyer would pay the fee?
(A) The buyer wants to ensure that the vendor will be responsive to any issues that arise during the upgrade
(B) The buyer wants to ensure that the vendor’s standard of productivity is aligned to that of the buyer
(C) The buyer wants to ensure that the vendor will work well with the buyer’s employees
(D) None of the answers
Correct Answer: (B) The buyer wants to ensure that the vendor’s standard of productivity is aligned to that of the buyer
Explanation: Incentive fees are used by the buyer to get the seller aligned to a standard of productivity similar to the buyer’s. All the other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 15.1.7
15.15 - You are the project manager on a defense project. The buyer wants to get an idea of how much he will pay for cost overruns. With the following variables, calculate the point of total assumption: Expected Cost=$125,000; Expected Profit=$25,000; Target Price=$150,000; Buyer/Seller Share Ratio=60%/40%; Ceiling Price=$180,000; Maximum Overrun=130%.
(A) $175,000.00
(B) $137,019.23
(C) $151,442.31
(D) $129,807.69
Correct Answer: (A) $175,000
Explanation: The formula for point of total assumption (PTA) is as follows: ((Ceiling Price - Target Price) / Buyer Share) + Expected Cost $175,000 = ($180,000 - $150,000) / 0.60) + $125,000
Crosswind 15.1.9
15.16 - The project will be using a company to provide the technicians for a national network upgrade project. The buyer of the solution is providing a design scope of work to the seller. Of the following, which is the most logical reason this scope was selected?
(A) The buyer knows exactly what is needed and wants no variance from the specifications
(B) The buyer’s only concern is that the vendor achieves the required goals
(C) The buyer must have the solution in place within a tight timeframe and needs the vendor to conform to a rigid schedule
(D) The buyer does not have the personnel to ensure that each step in the process is completed according to specifications
Correct Answer: (A) The buyer knows exactly what is needed and wants no variance from the specifications
Explanation: A design scope of work shows specifically what is to be created. The functionality scope of work shows the general functional specifications that the outcome of the project needs to have when complete. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 15.1.10
15.17 - Of the following, what best represents a contract component and the reason for including it in a contract between a buyer and vendor in connection with the purchase of a debit card add-on system?
(A) Share because the buyer needs the work done in a timely manner
(B) Incentive because the buyer needs the costs to come in as low as possible
(C) Incentive because the buyer needs the work done with minimal resources
(D) Share because the buyer needs the costs to come in as low as possible
Correct Answer: (D) Share because the buyer needs the costs to come in as low as possible
Explanation: A share is a contract component that divides any remaining money between the buyer and the seller. It is normally a negotiated split between the two parties. It is typically different from a traditional incentive fee in that an incentive fee pays compensation based on certain measurable performance metrics that have been established and agreed upon.
Crosswind 15.1.8
15.18 - The project will be using a company to provide the technicians for a national network upgrade project. The buyer is providing to the prospective seller a greatly detailed description of what the buyer wants the seller to do on the project. What type of document is being provided to the seller?
(A) Request for information (RFI)
(B) Request for proposal (RFP)
(C) Invitation for bid (IFB)
(D) Request for quote (RFQ)
Correct Answer: (B) Request for proposal (RFP)
Explanation: A request for proposal (RFP) deals with a detailed, very specific approach to a customized solution. A request for information (RFI) deals with finding potential vendors for consideration for proposals or quotes. A request for quote (RFQ) obtains prices from a company for goods or services. An invitation for bid (IFB) is similar to the RFP but typically used in government contracting.
Crosswind 15.1.11
15.19 - A contract is being negotiated with a single source provider that will contain special provisions since the work is being performed at a loss so the provider can gain experience in the market. Of the following, which best represents a special provision?
(A) Payment terms, including arbitration remedies
(B) Intellectual property rights and required nondisclosure documentation
(C) Ability to subcontract
(D) Criteria around which the provider of services can refer to the work
Correct Answer: (D) Criteria around which the provider of services can refer to the work
Explanation: Special provisions are extra items that are added to a contract after negotiations have occurred. Standard terms and conditions are typically part of a template the company will use in a contract and often address payment options, intellectual property rights, and subcontracting.
Crosswind 15.2.8
15.20 - You are the project manager for a merger project. You are creating the procurement management plan and revising the procurement strategy. When this is done what process will you perform next?
(A) Solicitation planning
(B) Control procurements
(C) Close procurements
(D) Conduct procurements
Correct Answer: (D) Conduct procurements
Explanation: Plan procurement management creates among other items, the procurement management plan and procurement strategy. Conduct procurements is the process that follows this process. Control procurements follows conduct procurements. Close procurement and solicitation planning are distracters.
Crosswind 15.2
15.21 - All the following items are requirements of a legal contract except…
(A) A proposition to exchange something of value for something of value
(B) A purpose for the contract
(C) A buyer willingness to accept a seller’s offer
(D) A buyer and seller with the capacity to enter into a contract
Correct Answer: (B) A purpose for the contract
Explanation: A contract must have a legal purpose. The other answers are components of a contract.
Crosswind 15.1.5
15.22 - You are the owner of a house painting company. You occasionally have the need for an automated paint sprayer. This tool sells for $1,250 and costs $20 a day to maintain. You can rent one for $150 a day with maintenance included. How many days would you need to use this tool before it makes sense to buy instead of rent?
(A) Twelve days
(B) Six days
(C) Ten days
(D) Eight days
Correct Answer: (C) Ten days
Explanation: To complete this question, solve for the number of days. The number of days is the variable D in the formula. $1,250+20D=$150D is the formula. First, move D to one side of the equation. Subtracting $20D from both sides gives $1,250=$130D. Next, divide both sides by 130, which isolates D. That equals 9.6 (rounded up), which means you would need to use the tool for ten full days before it makes sense to buy the tool.
Crosswind 15.1.4
15.23 - The customer is doing a national network upgrade program. The customer has issues with the vendor accomplishing the work in accordance with the schedule set out in the contract. The customer informs the vendor that it is in default for failure to execute per the terms of the contract. A senior manager for the customer suggests stopping payment for work already accomplished, but the procurement department rejects this idea. What most accurately describes this situation?
(A) The senior manager’s suggestion to stop payment until the issue is resolved is the best course of action
(B) The procurement department’s rejection of the senior manager’s idea is the best course of action
(C) Both sides appear to be in default of the contract
(D) The vendor appears to be wrong and needs to accept lack of payment until it corrects the situation
Correct Answer: (B) The procurement department’s rejection of the senior manager’s idea is the best course of action
Explanation: A company who fails to perform as defined in the contract is in default of the contract. That the vendor is in default is obvious; the customer will only be in default if it stops payment for work already accomplished.
Crosswind 15.1.5
15.24 - Why is a cost plus percentage of cost contract bad for the buyer?
(A) It provides no reason for the seller to control cost
(B) It provides no reason for the buyer to control cost
(C) It requires the seller to audit all costs incurred
(D) It requires use of a more detailed request for proposal (RFP)
Correct Answer: (A) It provides no reason for the seller to control cost
Explanation: In a cost plus percentage of cost contract, the seller is paid a fee that is a percentage of the total cost. As a result of this characteristic of the contract, there is no incentive for the seller to control cost. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 15.1.7
15.25 - All the following are advantages of centralized contracting except…
(A) Lack of career path for contract administrators
(B) Career path for contract administrators
(C) Contract administrators have teammates for contract-related support
(D) Expertise in the contracting area
Correct Answer: (A) Lack of career path for contract administrators
Explanation: Centralized contracting provides a functional type of environment for the role, meaning that there is a career path for the person, instead of a lack of career path. The other answers fit the description of advantages for centralized contracting.
Crosswind 15.3.3
15.26 - You are the project manager for a tablet distribution project at USD 320. Upon market research, you discover there is only one vendor that can fulfill the requirements. Which of the following should be your biggest concern?
(A) Pricing is reasonable
(B) Supply is available
(C) Pricing is reasonable, and supply is reasonable
(D) Contract terms are favorable
Correct Answer: (C) Pricing is reasonable, and supply is reasonable
Explanation: When there is only one vendor available that could be considered single source or sole source procurement. In this type of situation, you want to make sure that you can get access to enough of the item, for a reasonable price. Contract terms are favorable is a distracter.
Crosswind 15.2.3
15.27 - Your company is working with a staffing company to provide a technical writer for your newest project. The cost is $75 per hour. The technical writer will work on the project until it is complete, then the contract will end. Which of the following best describes the type of contract typically used in this situation?
(A) Fixed-price because it lends itself to small initiatives and staff supplementation
(B) Time and materials because it ensures that the cost of the writer does not increase during the term of the contract
(C) Time and materials because it lends itself to small initiatives and staff supplementation
(D) Fixed-price because it ensures that the cost of the writer does not increase during the term of the contract
Correct Answer: (C) Time and materials because it lends itself to small initiatives and staff supplementation
Explanation: A time and materials contract is typically used for smaller projects or staff augmentation, such as this example. The fixed-price contract has a seller doing work for a set price. The cost plus contract pays a seller costs plus a negotiated fee. The cost plus incentive fee pays a seller costs plus an incentive fee for meeting performance goals.
Crosswind 15.1.7
15.28 - A single-phase medical software project is in the process of closing. There are a number of processes coming together as things finish up. Which of the following is correct?
(A) Control procurements comes before close project or phase
(B) Close project or phase occurs only if the project is completed as planned
(C) Close project or phase and control procurements occur at the same time
(D) Close project or phase comes before control procurements
Correct Answer: (A) Control procurements comes before close project or phase
Explanation: In a single-phase project, controlling procurements will occur before the phase (or project) is closed out. Close Project or Phase occurs regardless of how the project ends.
Crosswind 15.3
15.29 - You are the project manager on a defense project. The buyer wants to get an idea of how much he will pay for cost overruns. With the following variables, calculate the point of total assumption: Expected Cost=$150,000; Expected Profit=$37,500; Target Price=$187,500; Buyer/Seller Share Ratio=60%/40%; Ceiling Price=$225,000; Maximum Overrun=150%.
(A) $201,875.00
(B) $223,125.00
(C) $212,500.00
(D) $191,250.00
Correct Answer: (C) $212,500.00
Explanation: The formula for point of total assumption (PTA) is as follows:
((Ceiling Price - Target Price) / Buyer Share) + Target Cost.
$212,500.00 = (($225,000 - $187,500) / 0.6) + $150,000
Crosswind 15.1.9
15.30 - Which of the following best describes a unilateral contract?
(A) The seller establishes a price, and the buyer simply has to purchase the item
(B) The buyer and seller establish contract parameters during a single negotiation session
(C) The buyer establishes a not-to-exceed price for the seller to accept or reject
(D) The seller establishes a not-to-exceed price for the buyer to accept or reject
Correct Answer: (A) The seller establishes a price, and the buyer simply has to purchase the item.
Explanation: In a unilateral contract, the seller establishes a price and the buyer has the option to purchase at that price. Thus, uni means one-sided on the negotiations. The other answers are distracters.
Crosswind 15.1.7
Which of the following is most likely to be true of the change request process in predictive
projects?
A) The “perform integrated change control” process is responsible for initiating all
change requests.
B) Only change requests which affect the baselines are submitted to the “perform
integrated change control” process for review and approval.
C) Changes approved through the “perform integrated change control” process are
reflected in the change management plan and the change control log.
D) Changes approved through the “perform integrated change control” process are
reflected in the updated project management plan components
Correct Answer: D) Changes approved through the “perform integrated change control” process are reflected in the updated project management plan components.
Rice - Session 12 Knowledge Check
A customer submits a change request to modify the scope baseline for a new compliance
requirement. This modification will require changes to the schedule and cost baselines.
Additionally, a new stakeholder will be required to serve as the owner of the compliance
requirement. Which of the following components of the project management plan will most
likely require updates? (choose 4)
A) Change management plan
B) Cost baseline
C) Stakeholder register
D) Schedule baseline
E) Project schedule
F) Stakeholder engagement plan
G) Scope baseline
H) Cost forecasts
Correct Answer:
B) Cost Baseline
D) Schedule Baseline
F) Stakeholder Engagement Plan
G) Scope Baseline
Rice - Session 12 Knowledge Check
Which of the following are issues? (choose 2)
A) A project manager fast tracks the schedule to prevent a schedule delay.
B) A compliance officer rejects approval of a compliance deliverable.
C) The project manager submits a change request for an additional resource.
D) A key stakeholder resigns from the project.
E) The project sponsor identifies a new risk which is added to the risk register
Correct Answers:
B) A compliance officer rejects approval of a compliance deliverable.
D) A key stakeholder resigns from the project.
Rice - Session 12 Knowledge Check
The change control board for a major project has approved a change request which modifies
the schedule and cost baselines. What actions would most likely be required?
A) The approved change is communicated to the appropriate stakeholders and is input
to the “control schedule” and “control cost” processes. The project management
plan is also updated.
B) The approved change is communicated to the project team and to the appropriate
stakeholders and is input to the “direct and manage project work” and “control
quality” processes. The project management plan is also updated.
C) The approved change is communicated to the project team and to the appropriate
stakeholders and is input to the “direct and manage project work” and “monitor and
control project work” processes. The project management plan is also updated.
D) The approved change is input to the “perform integrated change control process”
and the project management plan is updated. The project team and appropriate
stakeholders are informed of the approved change.
Correct Answer: B) The approved change is communicated to the project team and to the appropriate stakeholders and is input to the “direct and manage project work” and “control
quality” processes. The project management plan is also updated.
Rice - Session 12 Knowledge Check
The project team has completed the control quality process for five key deliverables. What
should be done next?
A) The deliverables are input to the validate scope process.
B) The deliverables become accepted deliverables and are input to the closing process.
C) The deliverables are processed through the “direct and manage project work”
process.
D) The deliverables become verified deliverables and are input to the closing process.
Correct Answer: A) The deliverables are input to the validate scope process.
Rice - Session 12 Knowledge Check
Which process is used to transition deliverables to the customer?
A) Direct and manage project work
B) Control quality
C) Validate scope
D) Close project or phase
Correct Answer: D) Close project or phase
Rice - Session 12 Knowledge Check
Which of the following might be considered OPAs? (choose 3)
A) A project scope template
B) An HR policy limiting hours worked per week
C) Supply chain delays
D) Limited resource availability
E) Lessons learned repository
F) Resource rate table
Correct Answer:
A) A project scope template
E) Lessons learned repository
F) Resource rate table
Rice - Session 12 Knowledge Check
What are the four foundational values of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional
Responsibility?
A) Accountability, Transparency, Respect, Honesty
B) Courage, Commitment, Openness, Respect
C) Responsibility, Respect, Fairness, Honesty
D) Transparency, Adaptation, Respect, Responsibility
Correct Answer: C) Responsibility, Respect, Fairness, Honesty
Rice - Session 12 Knowledge Check
Which of the following estimating techniques might be the most time consuming?
A) Level of effort
B) Definitive
C) Analogous
D) Parametric
Correct Answer: B) Definitive
Rice - Session 12 Knowledge Check
The project team has defined the activities for a project schedule. They have determined
dependencies, start and finish dates, and have assigned resources to the activities. What
should be done next?
A) Publish the gantt chart
B) Baseline the schedule
C) Confirm resource availability
D) Reconcile the schedule against the budget
Correct Answer: C) Confirm resource availability
Rice - Session 12 Knowledge Check
Which of the following might be the most effective in ensuring your agile team continues to
improve their processes and productivity?
A) Have the product owner and sponsor attend the daily standup meetings.
B) Encourage the team to perform a burndown analysis after each iteration.
C) Conduct a retrospective after each iteration.
D) Enhance the iteration planning for each iteration by conducting a SWOT analysis.
Correct Answer: C) Conduct a retrospective after each iteration.
Rice - Session 12 Knowledge Check
Which of the following are typical components of a schedule management plan? (Choose
three).
A) The project schedule
B) Schedule activities
C) Definition of performance measures
D) Guidelines for estimating
E) Schedule baseline
F) Project schedule network diagrams
G) Scheduling methodology
Correct Answer:
C) Definition of performance measures
D) Guidelines for estimating
G) Scheduling methodology
Rice - Session 12 Knowledge Check
All of the following are performed during close project or phase except for?
A) Transition deliverables to the customer
B) Finalize performance reporting
C) Update organizational process assets
D) Verify quality of deliverables
Correct Answer: D) Verify quality of deliverables
Rice - Session 12 Knowledge Check
Which of the following would least likely be used in managing risk on an agile project?
A) Risk management plan
B) Risk adjusted backlog
C) Risk burndown chart
D) Risk-based spike
Correct Answer: A) Risk management plan
Rice - Session 12 Knowledge Check
Your project, which is time-sensitive, requires intranet development that you have estimated will take three weeks. The IT director has agreed to let you utilize one of his three senior intranet developers for no more than three weeks or a junior developer for five weeks. You have worked with all of these developers in the past and are in a position to accurately assess their work. Of the following, which developer should you select?
(A) Developer A, a senior developer, works fast and accurately, but without appreciation for your management style and will report everything in a negative light to the director
(B) Developer B, a senior developer, works fast and accurately, but requires supervision to insure that he works on the project at hand
(C) Developer C, a junior developer, works accurately, but is not as fast or knowledgeably as A and B; however, his attitude is ideal from a management perspective
(D) Developer D, a senior developer, works fast and accurately, but insists on doing things his way and is not amenable to direction
Correct Answer: (A) Developer A, a senior developer, works fast and accurately, but without appreciation for your management style and will report everything in a negative light to the director
Explanation: As project manager, your job is to make decisions fairly; that is, to set your own interests aside and make decisions that advance the project towards its goal. Although Developer A may make you feel uncomfortable, he is clearly the right choice in terms of meeting the three-week deadline in accordance with the project plan. Developer B and C might not make the deadline and Developer D might not accomplish the task in accordance with the project plan.
Exam Tip of the Day #84
You will be managing an agile project. Which of the following approaches would best be
suited to manage change on an agile project?
A) Set up a change control board for the project. Apply change control processes against
the product and sprint backlogs. When changes are initiated, use the CCB to review and
approve or deny the changes. Upon approval, update the backlogs.
B) Identify a product owner and setup a change control process to protect the product
backlog. The product owner would present all changes to the Change Control Board for
approval or denial. Upon approval, update the product backlog.
C) Identify a product owner as the funnel for requested changes from customer and user stakeholders. Stories for the changes are written, estimated and considered during
backlog grooming for placement in the product backlog.
D) The scrum master would be responsible for receiving all requested changes from the
team, the product owner, and other stakeholders. The scrum master would then review
changes with the project owner or change control board to determine if changes should
be approved. Approved changes are then submitted to the product owner for
placement in the product backlog.
Correct Answer: C) Identify a product owner as the funnel for requested changes from customer and user stakeholders. Stories for the changes are written, estimated and considered during backlog grooming for placement in the product backlog.
Rice - S12 Quiz
Which of the following statements best reflects the change management approach on a
traditional project?
A) Estimates are determined for scope, schedule and cost. Any requested change that
might materially affect the estimates are reviewed and approved by the project
manager. The project manager would approve or deny the changes. Estimates are
updated based on approved changes.
B) A change control process would be developed which would determine how changes
are requested, how and who would assess the changes for impacts on the approved
integrated plan and who would approve (or reject) the changes. Upon approval, the plan
would be updated.
C) The project manager would be responsible for receiving and approving all requested
changes from the team and other stakeholders. Approved changes are then used to
update the project plan. A change control board would be used to review any changes
that may affect funding for the project.
D) As the project owner owns the funding for the project, the project owner would
review and approve any requested change to the project. The project owner may use a
change control board to escalate any major change.
Correct Answer: B) A change control process would be developed which would determine how changes are requested, how and who would assess the changes for impacts on the approved integrated plan and who would approve (or reject) the changes. Upon approval, the plan would be updated.
Rice - S12 Quiz
Which of the following best represents the PESTLE acronym used to identify external business environment factors that can affect the value and desired outcomes of a project?
A) Political, Ethnical, Support, Technical, Legal, Environmental
B) Political, Economic, Social, Technical, Legal, Environmental
C) Professional, Economic, Salience, Tolerance, Limitations, Environmental
D) Professional, Environmental, Social, Technical, Legal, Economic
Correct Answer: B) Political, Economic, Social, Technical, Legal, Environmental
Rice - S12 Quiz
Which of the following is least likely to be true of internal organizational change?
A) Organizational change can make a significant impact on the scope of a project.
B) The project manager and project sponsor should keep current on any organizational
change.
C) An organizational change may initiate the need for new deliverables or the removal of
existing deliverables.
D) Although internal organizational changes may change the project’s governance
structure, they should not affect the overall project objectives.
Correct Answer: D) Although internal organizational changes may change the project’s governance structure, they should not affect the overall project objectives.
Rice - S12 Quiz
Which of the following best reflects the team’s role in changes to an agile project?
A) The team would be involved in the estimating of any request for change which might
affect the product backlog.
B) The team does not have any role in changes to an agile project.
C) A self-organizing team would approve or deny any change to the project.
D) The team is responsible for change to the sprint backlog but not responsible for
change to the product backlog
Correct Answer: A) The team would be involved in the estimating of any request for change which might affect the product backlog.
Rice - S12 Quiz
What is the main role of functional managers related to projects?
(A) To provide subject matter experts (SMEs) or services
(B) To manage the project when the project manager isn’t available
(C) To deliver the results of the project
(D) To manage the project managers
Correct Answer: (A) To provide subject matter experts (SMEs) or services
Explanation: Functional managers like human resources managers or accounting managers have a permanent staff and a clear directive to manage all tasks within their domain. Related to projects, however, they may provide SMEs or services to support projects. Project managers do not always report to functional managers. The functional manager runs a department or area of business, not the project manager. To incorporate the project deliverables into normal operations is the role of operations management.
Exam Tip of the Day #85
What is the main role of functional managers related to projects?
(A) To provide subject matter experts (SMEs) or services
(B) To manage the project when the project manager isn’t available
(C) To deliver the results of the project
(D) To manage the project managers
Correct Answer: (A) To provide subject matter experts (SMEs) or services
Explanation: Functional managers like human resources managers or accounting managers have a permanent staff and a clear directive to manage all tasks within their domain. Related to projects, however, they may provide SMEs or services to support projects. Project managers do not always report to functional managers. The functional manager runs a department or area of business, not the project manager. To incorporate the project deliverables into normal operations is the role of operations management.
Exam Tip of the Day #85
The team has completed the planning process group and received approval from the sponsor and senior management to move to the executing process group. During the executing processes, the team will compare their work to…
(A) The project actuals
(B) The project baseline
(C) The stakeholder expectations
(D) The project variance
Correct Answer: (B) The project baseline
Explanation: The baseline is the estimate for the project. It can be for the scope, schedule, and cost of the project. The actuals are the scope, schedule, and cost data for the project at a certain point in time. The variance is the difference between the baseline and actual. Stakeholder expectations is a distracter.
Exam Tip of the Day #86
Due to the complexity of the project to design touchscreen displays for use on mobile workstation tablets, a number of breakdown structures will be used. Of the following breakdown structures and descriptions, which is correct?
(A) Organizational breakdown structure, which graphically illustrates how project management is structured to accomplish project activities
(B) Risk breakdown structure, which lists risks that are grouped by probability of occurrence and listed by severity of impact
(C) Resource breakdown structure, which graphically illustrates the availability of resources
(D) Bill of materials, which lists the components, assemblies, and sub-assemblies used to build the product
Correct Answer: (D) Bill of materials, which lists the components, assemblies, and sub-assemblies used to build the product
Explanation: The bill of materials lists the components, assemblies, and sub-assemblies used to build the product or service of the project. The organizational breakdown structure shows how the project organization is structured to accomplish project activities. The risk breakdown structure shows the risks that can potentially occur on a project, broken down by risk category. The resource breakdown structure shows the type of resources used on a project.
Exam Tip of the Day #87
To improve efficiencies for the technical infrastructure project, the project manager has decided to apply resource leveling while building the schedule. Of the following, which is the best description of what he’ll be doing?
(A) Reviewing the logic bar chart to determine the optimal assignment of resources
(B) Obtaining an optimal balance between delivery deadlines and resource utilization
(C) Reviewing a resource allocation chart for peaks and valleys and making adjustments to create a level use of resources
(D) Tracking the day-to-day details of the project so he can reassign resources as needed
Correct Answer: (C) Reviewing a resource allocation chart for peaks and valleys and making adjustments to create a level use of resources
Explanation: Resource leveling consists of reviewing a resource allocation chart for peaks and valleys and making adjustments to create a level use of resources. Applying resource leveling and schedule compression helps the PM obtain an optimal balance between delivery deadlines and resource utilization. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #88
The project team is planning an upgrade to a client’s website and infrastructure. During planning, the team discovers the need for a data communications line to connect to the servers. What type of cost is this?
(A) Direct
(B) Indirect
(C) Variable
(D) Indirect fixed
Correct Answer: (A) Direct
Explanation: The data communication line is a direct cost. It is something purchased directly for the project. It is not an indirect or variable cost.
Exam Tip of the Day #89
The finance department is building a call center for its new auto finance division. The project manager and his team completed a model project management plan. What component of the plan will they most likely reference during the project’s control quality process?
(A) Detailed process improvement plan
(B) Clearly defined standards of acceptable completion criteria
(C) Complete testing matrix developed for auto loan call centers
(D) Acceptable quality management methodology specifics
Correct Answer: (B) Clearly defined standards of acceptable completion criteria
Explanation: A complete project management plan contains clearly defined standards of acceptable completion criteria that is the primary reason the project management plan is helpful during the Control Quality process.
Exam Tip of the Day #90
The project manager of the systems upgrade project uses a variety of power types. Which of the following is an example of penalty power?
(A) The project manager instructs the team leaders to prepare status reports for the weekly meeting
(B) The project manager takes the most productive team member to lunch at an expensive restaurant
(C) The project manager announces that those who do not complete their tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality will be ineligible for a bonus
(D) The project manager’s degree and prior work experience were in systems engineering
Correct Answer: (C) The project manager announces that those who do not complete their tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality will be ineligible for a bonus
Explanation: Penalty power comes from the project manager’s ability to penalize an employee when his work is inadequate. Formal power is derived from the project charter for the project manager. Reward power comes from the project manager’s ability to reward an employee for good work. Expert power derives from expertise in a discipline.
Exam Tip of the Day #91
You are the project manager for a global point of sale upgrade project that is utilizing an offshore development company. There have been a number of communication challenges with misinterpretation of requirements and failure to follow through with things associated with the store roll-out that the project manager felt needed attention. What type of communication would help improve these problems?
(A) Verbal
(B) Informal verbal
(C) Formal written
(D) Formal
Correct Answer: (C) Formal written
Explanation: Formal written communication is appropriate for communications where the message must be specific, or the message is being sent over a long distance. Formal is a good answer but not as good as formal written. Both verbal answers would expose the project to problems.
Exam Tip of the Day #92
Which of the following indicates a primary difference between predictive (plan-driven) projects and Agile projects?
a. Agile requires dedicated resources.
b. Agile projects require detailed upfront planning.
c. Scope on Agile projects is adaptable.
d. Agile projects do not require project charters.
c. Scope on Agile projects is adaptable.
Rice Test - Question# 1
Which of the following are processes within the Executing process group? Choose three.
a. Perform integrated change control.
b. Validate scope.
c. Manage team.
d. Monitor and control project work.
e. Perform qualitative risk analysis.
f. Conduct procurements.
a. Perform integrated change control.
c. Manage team.
f. Conduct procurements.
Rice Test - Question# 2
Which of the following would not be included in a Resource Management Plan?
a. RACI Chart
b. Project organization chart
c. Key stakeholders
d. Rewards and recognition plan
c. Key stakeholders
Rice Test - Question# 3
Which of the following might be components of the Team Charter? List two.
a. Project objectives
b. Shared values
c. Risks
d. Decision making criteria
e. Project scope
b. Shared values
d. Decision making criteria
Rice Test - Question# 4
You have been assigned to lead an Agile team which will be self-organizing. Which of the following will least likely be true?
a. Members of the team will need to have confidence in their project management skills and the skills of the other team members to complete the work.
b. Members must communicate well with each other in a highly collaborative manner.
c. While the team organizes around the work to be performed, the leader’s role is to make decisions regarding the product or deliverables of the work.
d. No one (not even the scrum master) tells the team how to turn the backlog of work into increments of functionality.
c. While the team organizes around the work to be performed, the leader’s role is to make decisions regarding the product or deliverables of the work.
Rice Test - Question# 5
During execution of a project, you encounter resistance from a stakeholder with significant influence in the organization. Which of the following might have helped you the most to identify and prepare for this resistance?
a. The stakeholder register
b. The project management plan
c. The issue log
d. The project scope statement
b. The project management plan
Rice Test - Question# 6
The charter for an agile project has been approved. The product backlog for the project has been determined by the product owner with input from the team. Using the backlog selected for each sprint, the team will identify, plan and execute the tasks required to complete deliverables. This approach is an example of:
a. Self-organizing teams
b. Lean teams
c. Manager-led teams
d. Self-governing teams
a. Self-organizing teams
Rice Test - Question# 7
You are working with a client to organize the work in a backlog. What are some of the techniques you might use to help them? (Choose two)
a. SWOT analysis
b. Kano model
c. Pre-assignment
d. 100-point method
e. Fast tracking
b. Kano model
d. 100-point method
Rice Test - Question# 8
A project manager is leading a team of 8 members. The project manager and the team are meeting with the product owner and two end users. How many communications channels exist during the discussion?
a. 12
b. 36
c. 55
d. 66
d. 66
Rice Test - Question# 9
Which of the following are types of information radiators you are more than likely to see on an Agile project? (Choose three)
a. Kanban board
b. Stakeholder resistance strategy
c. Gantt
d. Burndown chart
e. Blockers list
a. Kanban board
d. Burndown chart
e. Blockers list
Rice Test - Question# 10
Which of the following techniques may be used to validate that a proposed team member has the key skills you need on the team. (Choose two)
a. Ability tests
b. KANO analysis
c. Structured interviews
d. Brainstorming
e. Paired comparison
a. Ability tests
c. Structured interviews
Rice Test - Question# 11
Which of the following are components of a project agreement? (Choose two)
a. Team members
b. Product backlog
c. Pricing and payment terms
d. Incentives and penalties
c. Pricing and payment terms
d. Incentives and penalties
Rice Test - Question# 12
Which of the following might be appropriate project metrics for a project? (Choose two)
a. Contractor approvals
b. Defects
c. Deliverables completed
d. Process compliance
b. Defects
c. Deliverables completed
Rice Test - Question# 13
You want to ensure that your virtual team is engaged throughout the project. You know that you have many technical options. Which of the following would be the preferred approach?
a. Request budget approval for tool selection and implementation.
b. Conduct a cost benefit analysis on the various options.
c. Agree on collaboration and team norms before deciding on tools.
d. Conduct quality control tests for the various tool alternatives.
c. Agree on collaboration and team norms before deciding on tools.
Rice Test - Question# 14
You are developing training cost estimates for your project. Which of the following costs would not be typically included in the estimates?
a. Venue costs
b. Team salaries
c. Content hosting
d. Content creation
b. Team salaries
Rice Test - Question# 15
Which of the following statements regarding the training calendar is least likely to be true?
a. Training for end users should not be conducted until after the project has been completed.
b. The project manager should publish a training schedule for the benefit of customers and end users.
c. Scheduling training must be closely managed to avoid delaying the projects delivery timeline.
d. The training calendar should include a mechanism for registration.
a. Training for end users should not be conducted until after the project has been completed.
Rice Test - Question# 16
You are leading an agile project. Which of the following would not typically be performed during a retrospective?
a. Review performance metrics
b. Conduct sprint planning for the next sprint
c. Identify what’s working and what can be improved
d. Identify improvements to try in the next sprint
b. Conduct sprint planning for the next sprint
Rice Test - Question# 17
Which of the following is not a prioritization technique?
a. 100 points method
b. Paired comparison
c. Product box
d. Kano model
c. Product box
Rice Test - Question# 18
Which of the following techniques might be the most effective in managing the team’s time spent in meetings?
a. Provide a ground rule that with the exception of standup meetings, only the project manager should attend meetings.
b. Provide a ground rule that all project meetings should be conducted as standup meetings.
c. Timebox all ceremonies.
d. Combine all ceremonies into a single meeting with a structured agenda.
c. Timebox all ceremonies.
Rice Test - Question# 19
Which of the following statements about project charters is least likely to be true?
a. The charter ensures that stakeholders have a common understanding of the project’s key objectives.
b. The project charter formally initiates the project.
c. The charter establishes an agreement between the performing organization and the requesting organization.
d. The charter is considered a component of the contract between the requesting organization and the performing organization.
d. The charter is considered a component of the contract between the requesting organization and the performing organization.
Rice Test - Question# 20
What is the purpose of a burndown chart?
a. To replace a Gantt chart
b. To illustrate milestones
c. To provide start and stop dates for user stories
d. To identify remaining work versus planned work
d. To identify remaining work versus planned work
Rice Test - Question# 21
You have been placed in charge of the introduction of a new banking product which will require the development of a new technology. The project will use an agile approach and the product will be developed in a series of iterations. You have recruited a product owner and experts from multiple disciplines. The team will be self-organizing. Which of the following statements most likely applies?
a. The product owner develops the detailed plan for each iteration and hands off the execution of the work to the team.
b. The experts on the team would self-evaluate their respective roles on the project and phase in and out of each iteration as their work is accomplished.
c. The project manager creates the detailed plan for each iteration based on the backlog prioritized by the product owner.
d. The product owner prioritizes the backlog and the team plans, conducts and controls the work of each iteration.
d. The product owner prioritizes the backlog and the team plans, conducts and controls the work of each iteration.
Rice Test - Question# 22
Your project has completed planning and you have baselined scope, schedule and cost. You are now in the process of acquiring resources. You obtain a commitment to acquire a key technical resource but due to an agreed transition period, the new resource will be onboarded one month later than planned. Which of the following would be the most appropriate?
a. Update the project plan and the schedule baseline and submit a change request.
b. Prepare a change request to document the impacts of the change and submit it for approval.
c. Evaluate the impact of the resource delay and determine if a change request will be required.
d. Document the change and update the project schedule.
c. Evaluate the impact of the resource delay and determine if a change request will be required.
Rice Test - Question# 23
Which of the following is most likely to be true of bid documents?
a. Bid documents are inputs to the procurement planning process.
b. Bid documents are outputs of the conduct procurements process.
c. Bid documents are not required for fixed price contracts.
d. Bid documents are created by the buyer’s project team to solicit proposals from sellers.
d. Bid documents are created by the buyer’s project team to solicit proposals from sellers.
Rice Test - Question# 24
A healthcare project is closing out an initial phase which includes the implementation of a purchased software package. Which of the following is most likely to be true?
a. Closing out the software procurement contract is part of the control procurements process.
b. Closing the phase is required before the contract can be closed.
c. Closing the project is required before the contract can be closed.
d. The contract cannot be closed until the phase or project has been successfully completed.
a. Closing out the software procurement contract is part of the control procurements process.
Rice Test - Question# 25
A project team is performing the control quality function for the implementation of a new technology function for a healthcare system. Which of the following tools is most likely to be used and why?
a. Flowcharting identifies areas that are causing problems and ranks the causes of the problems.
b. A fishbone diagram is used by the team to identify potential causes of a failed test.
c. A control chart is used to identify categories of defects.
d. A pareto chart indicates trends over time.
b. A fishbone diagram is used by the team to identify potential causes of a failed test.
Rice Test - Question# 26
During the control quality process, the team created a pareto chart. What would they discover from reviewing this chart.
a. The most common issues/defects ranked by frequency of occurrence.
b. Measurements that exceed control limits.
c. The rule of seven.
d. Escaped defects.
a. The most common issues/defects ranked by frequency of occurrence.
Rice Test - Question# 27
Which of the following is most likely to be true of test and evaluation documents?
a. Test and evaluation documents are created by the “Design for X” technique.
b. Test and evaluation documents are outputs of the scoping processes.
c. Test and evaluation documents are used as inputs to the “control quality” function.
d. Test and evaluation documents are created through the “control quality” process.
c. Test and evaluation documents are used as inputs to the “control quality” function.
Rice Test - Question# 28
Your team is closing out a project. Which of the following would be the most helpful for obtaining project acceptance and closure?
a. Deliverables which have passed the quality control process.
b. Deliverables which have been reviewed by the project team.
c. Deliverables which have been accepted by the customer.
d. Deliverables which have passed the quality assurance process.
c. Deliverables which have been accepted by the customer.
Rice Test - Question# 29
What is the difference between avoiding a risk and mitigating it?
a. Avoid means to transfer the risk while mitigate means to change the plan to remove the risk.
b. Avoid means to reduce the probability and impact of the risk while mitigate means to change the plan to remove the risk.
c. Avoid means to ignore the risk while mitigate means to reduce the probability or impact of the risk.
d. Avoid means to change the plan to remove the risk while mitigate means to reduce the impact or probability of the risk.
d. Avoid means to change the plan to remove the risk while mitigate means to reduce the impact or probability of the risk.
Rice Test - Question# 30
You are introducing agile techniques to a team. Which of the following are examples of feedback loops? (Choose three)
a. Retrospective
b. Definition of done
c. Product reviews
d. Acceptance criteria
e. Stand-up meetings
a. Retrospective
c. Product reviews
e. Stand-up meetings
Rice Test - Question# 31
You have started the planning process for a project. You are developing the scope management plan. Which of the following statements best represents the value of the scope management plan?
a. The scope management plan contains the scope statement, the WBS and the WBS dictionary for the project.
b. The scope management plan will provide direction regarding the development and control of scope for the project.
c. The scope management plan is a progressive elaboration of the requirements identified in the project charter.
d. The scope management plan is a component of the requirements management plan.
b. The scope management plan will provide direction regarding the development and control of scope for the project.
Rice Test - Question# 32
Which of the following statements is most likely to be true of the Stakeholder Register?
a. The stakeholder register is a controlled document and is a component of the project management plan?
b. The stakeholder register is a component of the Project Charter document.
c. The stakeholder register is a project document and can be updated without requiring change control.
d. The stakeholder register is a component of the stakeholder engagement plan.
c. The stakeholder register is a project document and can be updated without requiring change control.
Rice Test - Question# 33
Which of the following best represents a scope baseline?
a. The approved version of the project scope statement, the WBS and WBS dictionary.
b. The approved version of the requirements register and the scope management plan.
c. The product backlog and the sprint backlog.
d. The requirements traceability matrix and the approved project scope statement.
a. The approved version of the project scope statement, the WBS and WBS dictionary.
Rice Test - Question# 34
You are mentoring a new, junior project manager and he comes to you with the question about the terms quality and grade. He is not clear on the difference between the two. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Quality and grade must always match.
b. Low quality is fine as long as grade is high.
c. Low grade is fine as long as quality is high.
d. Quality and grade essentially mean the same thing.
c. Low grade is fine as long as quality is high.
Rice Test - Question# 35
What is the primary difference between a Retrospective and a Product Review?
a. A product review is conducted prior to the start of a sprint and a retrospective is held at the end of a sprint.
b. The product review is conducted by the project team while the retrospective is conducted by the project manager and the scrum master.
c. The product review is held to provide feedback to the team on the deliverables produced by the sprint while the retrospective determines process improvement opportunities.
d. The product review is the demonstration of the product to the project sponsor while the retrospective is the presentation of the team performance to the project manager.
c. The product review is held to provide feedback to the team on the deliverables produced by the sprint while the retrospective determines process improvement opportunities.
Rice Test - Question# 36
Which of the following techniques would not be used to obtain consensus for a decision?
a. XP metaphor
b. Fist of five
c. Roman voting
d. Polling
a. XP metaphor
Rice Test - Question# 37
You want to receive feedback from your team on a completed sprint of work. Which of the following techniques would you consider? (Choose two)
a. Four L’s
b. Product box
c. XP Metaphor
d. Keep, Stop, Start
e. Crashing
a. Four L’s
d. Keep, Stop, Start
Rice Test - Question# 38
A team will begin planning for a sprint. The team is planning to delivery five (5) user stories. The total story points for the five stories is 100 story points. What is the significance of the 100 story points?
a. The story points represent 100 hours of work.
b. The story points represent the relative costs of delivering the stories.
c. The story points represent the value of the stories to the product owner.
d. The story points are used to determine relative complexity or size of the individual stories.
d. The story points are used to determine relative complexity or size of the individual stories.
Rice Test - Question# 39
What is the purpose of the daily scrum?
a. To develop a daily increment of work
b. To discuss progress and identify blockers
c. To provide a status of the project to the product owner
d. To resolve impediments
b. To discuss progress and identify blockers
Rice Test - Question# 40
You have led your team to complete a definitive scope statement. What would you do next?
a. Start executing the scope of work.
b. Complete the scope baseline by creating the WBS and WBS dictionary.
c. Finalize the scope baseline by developing the schedule and the budget.
d. Baseline the project scope by obtaining formal approval of the project scope statement.
b. Complete the scope baseline by creating the WBS and WBS dictionary.
Rice Test - Question# 41
Which of the following would not be performed during a daily scrum? (Choose two)
a. Team members report what has been completed since the last daily scrum.
b. Team members resolve any surfaced issues or blockers.
c. Scrum master determines process improvements.
d. Team members report what will be worked on until the next daily scrum.
e. Blockers or impediments are identified.
b. Team members resolve any surfaced issues or blockers.
c. Scrum master determines process improvements.
Rice Test - Question# 42
What does the “P” in PESTLE identify?
a. Priority
b. Partners
c. Political
d. Purpose
c. Political
Rice Test - Question# 43
What is the interest rate that makes the net present value of all cash flows equal to zero?
a. FV
b. NPS
c. NPV
d. IRR
d. IRR
Rice Test - Question# 44
For a Net Promotor Score, what value would indicate a promotor?
a. 1
b. 5
c. 9
d. 7
c. 9
Rice Test - Question# 45
A project manager is using historical information and lessons learned from a previous project to help prepare for planning the project. What term is used to define these?
a. EEFs
b. EMVs
c. LLR
d. OPAs
d. OPAs
Rice Test - Question# 46
Every timeboxed iteration in the project has a demo scheduled at the end during the review session. What is the goal of the demo?
a. To obtain feedback from the product owner and other stakeholders.
b. To update the product roadmap.
c. To groom the sprint backlog.
d. To conduct a retrospective and get feedback from the team members.
a. To obtain feedback from the product owner and other stakeholders.
Rice Test - Question# 47
Which of the following would not be part of the quality management plan?
a. Identification of the quality tools on the project.
b. The definition of the MVP.
c. Procedures for dealing with nonconformance.
d. Identification of quality roles.
b. The definition of the MVP.
Rice Test - Question# 48
What is the purpose of the Configuration Management System?
a. Track change requests.
b. Define change management procedures.
c. Control versioning of product components.
d. Update the integrated plan.
c. Control versioning of product components.
Rice Test - Question# 49
The product owner is not available to make a product decision required by the team. What is this considered?
a. Risk
b. Request
c. Impediment
d. Priority
c. Impediment
Rice Test - Question# 50
Which of the following statements best describes the 100% rule?
a. 100% of the requirements are included in the scope of the project.
b. The WBS represents all product and project work, including the project management work.
c. All of the planning packages in the WBS have been included in the scope of the project.
d. All of the requirements listed in the Requirements Traceability matrix have been mapped to project objectives.
b. The WBS represents all product and project work, including the project management work.
Rice Test - Question# 51
You will be leading a new project which will require the development of a highly competitive credit card offering. The executive stakeholders are concerned that a traditional phased approach to the project will take too long. They have considered an agile approach but understand that this may be risky as the organization and project managers are new to Agile methods. You propose an approach which provides shorter iterative product development cycles which will allow for the release of a minimally viable product followed by enhanced functionality. Which of the following project cycles are you proposing?
a. Classic predictive
b. Phase gated approach
c. Iterative
d. Hybrid
d. Hybrid
Rice Test - Question# 52
Which of the following demonstrates the most effective use for a Requirements Traceability matrix?
a. Use the approved version of the Requirements Traceability Matrix as the scope baseline.
b. The Requirements Traceability Matrix can be used to trace the requirements to the project milestones.
c. Use the Requirements Traceability Matrix to plan your scope activities for the project.
d. The Requirements Traceability Matrix can be used to ensure that all requirements support project objectives.
d. The Requirements Traceability Matrix can be used to ensure that all requirements support project objectives.
Rice Test - Question# 53
The project manager and the project team are currently collecting bids from multiple sellers on the technology component of the project. The team will review the proposals and with the appropriate management and legal support will select the winning seller. What process is the Project Manager leading?
a. Plan procurement management
b. Acquire resources
c. Conduct procurements
d. Control procurements
c. Conduct procurements
Rice Test - Question# 54
Which of the following would not typically be a component of the Procurement Management Plan?
a. Roles and responsibilities
b. Selection process
c. Constraints and assumptions
d. Selected sellers
d. Selected sellers
Rice Test - Question# 55
You are leading a team and performing iterative scheduling with a backlog. Which of the following statements would not apply to this approach?
a. Rolling wave planning techniques would be considered.
b. Stories in the backlog would be prioritized.
c. A change control system would be enforced to control changes.
d. Work with the product owner to deliver high value stories first.
c. A change control system would be enforced to control changes.
Rice Test - Question# 56
Which of the following best describes the critical path on a project?
a. The activities in the project schedule with the most intensive project activity.
b. The sequence of activities constrained by resources.
c. The sequence of activities that represents the longest path through a project, which determines the earliest project duration.
d. The path on the project with the shortest duration.
c. The sequence of activities that represents the longest path through a project, which determines the earliest project duration.
Rice Test - Question# 57
In response to economic and market changes, the company is moving from a conservative strategy to a more market-driven strategy. As a result of this change, the company has just approved a project that aligns with the new strategy. A number of the stakeholders, however, are still risk-averse. The project manager is meeting with them to explain his risk management plan. The stakeholders are very interested in the concept of a risk review. Which of the following best describes a risk review?
(A) The process of determining the project risks
(B) The process of determining the characteristics of the project risks
(C) The process of determining the validity of the documented risks and looking for new risks that could occur
(D) The process of determining who will implement a risk response plan
Correct Answer: (C) The process of determining the validity of the documented risks and looking for any new risks that could occur
Explanation: Risk reviews verify that the risks are still valid and that no new risks have appeared on the project. The other answers come before or after risk reviews.
Exam Tip of the Day #93
During the plan stakeholder engagement process for the accounting system upgrade project, what tools and techniques are available to the project manager?
(A) Issue Logs, stakeholder analysis, reporting systems, and approved change requests
(B) Expert judgment, meetings, and mind mapping
(C) Management skills, communication methods, stakeholder analysis, and interpersonal skills
(D) Stakeholder analysis, issue logs, and approved change requests
Correct Answer: (B) Expert judgment, meetings, and mind mapping
Explanation: The tools and techniques for the plan stakeholder management process are expert judgment, data gathering, benchmarking, data analysis, assumption and constraint analysis, mind mapping, root cause analysis, stakeholder engagement assessment matrix, SWOT analysis, decision-making, prioritization/ranking, and meetings.
Exam Tip of the Day #95
Your project needs a video editing software program. The client has given you this project to test your ability to deliver. It doesn’t pay that much, but if you do well, you will likely get more projects from the client worth a lot more money. Your budget on the project doesn’t allow you the luxury of buying this software. What is the best way to acquire the software?
(A) Order a copy from the company or an authorized reseller
(B) Get a copy from a friend and buy it for future projects if needed again
(C) Use a demo copy from the software company
(D) Download a copy from a file sharing system
Correct Answer: (A) Order a copy from the company or an authorized reseller
Explanation: Per the exam “Theory Pill”, if you need more time and money to do the project, you get more time and money. Thus, if the software costs money, buy the software. Don’t try to circumvent copyrights by using demos even if provided by the software company. Software that is created by someone else should be purchased and the license terms and conditions followed. Such terms and conditions often define how copies, demo copies, and file sharing systems are to be used with the software.
Exam Tip of the Day #96
Which of the following is not an example of organizational culture and style?
(A) Accepting the majority of change requests the customer submits
(B) Working long hours, taking work home, and working weekends
(C) Empowering local managers to make most significant decisions
(D) Focusing most product development on a specific market segment
Correct Answer: (D) Focusing most product development on a specific market segment
Explanation: Focusing on a particular market is more a strategic business decision than a cultural aspect. All other answers are examples of the pervasive aspects of organizational culture.
Exam Tip of the Day #97
The team has just completed the process of evaluating how the project went. The team members analyzed what worked well and what didn’t. They evaluated the planning and executing. They documented how the sponsor and senior management supported the project. What process did they perform?
(A) Compiling lessons learned
(B) Closing the project or phase
(C) Directing and managing project work
(D) Monitoring and controlling the project
Correct Answer: (B) Closing the project or phase
Explanation: They completed closing the project or phase, which is in the closing process group. The activities described in the question are lessons learned. Controlling and executing have already occurred.
Exam Tip of the Day #98
All the following are reasons for outsourcing work except…
(A) Your company doesn’t possess the skills needed for the work
(B) Your company doesn’t have excessive capacity for the work
(C) Your company isn’t concerned about protecting the information associated with the work
(D) Your company has excessive capacity for the work
Correct Answer: (D) Your company has excessive capacity for the work
Explanation: Excessive capacity to do work is a good reason not to outsource the work. The other answers are good reasons to outsource the work.
Exam Tip of the Day #94
As the project manager establishes the scope baseline, which of the following best describes what she will create or reference?
(A) Requirements, scope statement, and WBS
(B) WBS and WBS dictionary
(C) Scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary
(D) Requirements, scope statement, and WBS dictionary
Correct Answer: (C) Scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary
Explanation: The scope baseline consists of the scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary.
Exam Tip of the Day #99
Which of the following, which best describes a milestone schedule?
(A) A high-level schedule that typically accompanies schedule variance reports
(B) A high-level schedule typically prepared for executives
(C) A high-level typically used to determine the critical path
(D) A high-level schedule typically used in daily briefings with the project team
Correct Answer: (B) A high-level schedule typically prepared for executives
Explanation: A milestone schedule is high-level schedule typically prepared for executives. The milestone schedule records a 0 duration for each milestone.
Exam Tip of the Day #100
The infrastructure project is behind schedule and over budget. So far, $3M has been spent on the project. The sponsor is considering if it should allow the project to continue. What should he consider the $3M that has been spent so far?
(A) The amount for phase one
(B) Sunk cost
(C) The budgeted cost of work performed
(D) Opportunity cost
Correct Answer: (B) Sunk cost
Explanation: Sunk cost is one that has already been spent on the project. It shouldn’t be taken into consideration when determining whether to continue on the project. There is nothing in the situation about phasing the project. The budgeted cost of work performed is the earned value (EV). Opportunity cost doesn’t apply here.
Exam Tip of the Day #101
The project manager needs to motivate his team and reviews Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs as a basis for his motivational strategy. Which of the following are the components of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?
(A) Physiological, achievement, esteem, psychological, safety, and self-actualization
(B) Physiological, belonging, esteem, safety, and self-actualization
(C) Physiological, achievement, esteem, safety, and self-actualization
(D) Physiological, belonging, esteem, psychological, safety, and self-actualization
Correct Answer: (B) Physiological, belonging, esteem, safety, and self-actualization
Explanation: The levels of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs are physiological, belonging, safety, esteem, and self-actualization.
Exam Tip of the Day #103
The project is going through the manage quality process. Which of the following is a key tool that will be utilized in this process?
(A) Cost-benefit analysis, which is used to analyze how to minimize rework due to lack of quality and how to maximize satisfaction and productivity
(B) Quality audits, which help verify process and output compliance
(C) Quality analysis, which is used to optimize project execution and achieve high process quality
(D) Quality management plan, which provides acceptable quality management methodology information
Correct Answer: (B) Quality audits which help verify process and output compliance
Explanation: The quality audit is used in Manage Quality to verify that process and output comply with organizational and project policies and procedures. The goals of quality audits are to identify best practices, identify gaps, and share best practices with all appropriate stakeholders. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #102
There are five basic performance reports. Of the following, which best describes the content of a variance report?
(A) Information related to the state of the schedule, budget, and scope of the project at various parts of time
(B) Information related to the difference between planned and actual occurrences
(C) Information related to future project occurrences
(D) Information related to recent project occurrences
Correct Answer: (B) Information related to the difference between planned and actual occurrences
Explanation: The variance report shows the difference between planned and unplanned occurrences. The forecast report shows what is expected to occur on the project. The progress report shows what has been completed since the last reporting period. The status report shows where the project is to date. The earned valued report shows the state of the schedule, budget, and scope of the project at various points in time.
Exam Tip of the Day #104
The project manager and the team created change requests as a result of unforeseen occurrences. Which of the following best describes the process they have just completed?
(A) Identify risks, which entails determining what risks and triggers could occur on the project
(B) Plan risk responses, which entails determining what will be done if risk events occur and who will be responsible for executing those actions
(C) Monitor risks, which entails observing project activities for risks and risk triggers and implementing the means to control them
(D) Perform qualitative risk analysis, which entails assigning probability and impact ratings to each risk
Correct Answer: (C) Monitor risks, which entails observing project activities for risks and risk triggers and implementing the means to control them
Explanation: Monitor Risks focuses on observing project activities for risk triggers and risks and implementing the means to control them. Plan Risk Responses documents who should do what if risk events occur. Identify Risks is the process of determining what risks and triggers could occur on the project. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis assigns probability and impact ratings to the risk.
Exam Tip of the Day #105
After assessing the critical path for a project, you calculate that the project has negative slack of five days. Which of the following actions might you consider first?
a. No action is required.
b. You would submit a change request to adjust the schedule.
c. You would evaluate the critical path for opportunities to reduce the duration by five days or more.
d. You would consider reducing the durations of activities not on the critical path by five days or more.
c. You would evaluate the critical path for opportunities to reduce the duration by five days or more.
Rice Test - Question# 58
In reviewing the progress for a new product development project, the project team identified a new major risk which might not only invalidate the project benefits but might also expose the organization to additional legal risk. As the project manager, how should you address this situation?
a. No additional action is required as the risk has been identified.
b. Submit a change request to update the risk register.
c. Apply the risk acceptance technique by submitting a change request to modify the project plan.
d. Assess the impacts of the risk and determine the best response which could include escalation and possibly terminating the project.
d. Assess the impacts of the risk and determine the best response which could include escalation and possibly terminating the project.
Rice Test - Question# 59
Identify two events from the list below that could result in project closure:
a. A scope change was approved.
b. The project met its completion objectives.
c. A major risk has been eliminated.
d. Adequate funding is no longer available to complete the requirements.
e. A positive risk has been realized.
b. The project met its completion objectives.
d. Adequate funding is no longer available to complete the requirements.
Rice Test - Question# 60
Which of the following statements best defines “acceptance criteria”?
a. Set of conditions that is required to be met before deliverables are accepted.
b. The activities listed in the WBS dictionary.
c. The documented results of a deliverable inspection or test.
d. The statement of work provided to a seller.
a. Set of conditions that is required to be met before deliverables are accepted.
Rice Test - Question# 61
Which of the following statements best describes a MBI?
a. The minimal business interruption expected of a new product.
b. The smallest collection of features to provide a functional product.
c. The “bare bones” product.
d. The smallest amount of value that can be added to an existing product or service.
d. The smallest amount of value that can be added to an existing product or service.
Rice Test - Question# 62
All of the following actions would be conducted during the Perform Integrated Change Control process except for:
a. Review change requests.
b. Conduct a change control board meeting.
c. Update the change control log.
d. Develop the change management plan.
d. Develop the change management plan.
Rice Test - Question# 63
Which of the following are least likely to be true of approved changes to predictive projects? (Choose two)
a. Project baselines must be updated when any change has been approved.
b. Approved changes become inputs to the Control Quality process.
c. Approved changes become inputs to the Monitor & Control Project Work process.
d. Approved changes become inputs to the Direct & Manage Project Work process.
a. Project baselines must be updated when any change has been approved.
d. Approved changes become inputs to the Direct & Manage Project Work process.
Rice Test - Question# 64
Your project is currently reporting a CPI of .80 and SPI of 1.10. Which of the following actions might be the most appropriate given this performance reporting?
a. You should assess alternatives to improve the schedule.
b. You should submit a change request to reset baseline.
c. You should evaluate alternatives to improve cost performance.
d. You should consider crashing the project schedule.
c. You should evaluate alternatives to improve cost performance.
Rice Test - Question# 65
During risk planning, the team identified an opportunity to add a feature which will add incremental revenue to the project’s benefits. To develop this feature will require some technical help. Two vendors are being considered. After performing a decision tree analysis, the team determined that the EMV of choosing Vendor A is $150K and the EMV of choosing Vendor B is $200K. As the project manager, which of the following actions would be the most appropriate?
a. As neither choice is cost justifiable, you should consider other alternatives or not add the feature.
b. Now that you have the EMVs of both options, you should increase your budget by $350K.
c. As the option of Vendor B is more attractive, you should consider moving forward with this option.
d. Both options should be added to the risk watch list until the plan risk response process has been completed.
c. As the option of Vendor B is more attractive, you should consider moving forward with this option.
Rice Test - Question# 66
Which of the following would be an example of a risk avoidance strategy?
a. You provide additional training to your key team members to prevent potential delays due to potential learning curve delays.
b. You change your project plan to move a resource from a critical path activity to a non-critical path activity due to the risk that the resource might not be available during the required timeframe.
c. You move a risk from the primary risk list to the watch list.
d. You purchase insurance to protect the project and your organization in the vent the risk occurs.
b. You change your project plan to move a resource from a critical path activity to a non-critical path activity due to the risk that the resource might not be available during the required timeframe.
Rice Test - Question# 67
What Tuckman stage is a team in if they move from independence to the ability to get more done as a whole than they could get done individually?
a. Forming
b. Norming
c. Storming
d. Performing
d. Performing
Rice Test - Question# 68
Which one of these is a risk?
a. The team has determined that the project finish date will not be met.
b. A project manager has assessed that the resources required for a critical task will be delayed.
c. The team indicates that there is a probability that the project could save costs by accelerating the purchase of key materials.
d. A key project member has unexpectedly resigned from the project.
c. The team indicates that there is a probability that the project could save costs by accelerating the purchase of key materials.
Rice Test - Question# 69
After completing risk response planning, the project team has assessed that the scope of the project should be modified to avoid a key risk. If the scope has been baselined, what action is preferred?
a. As long as the key risk has been identified and the response has been agreed, no additional action is required.
b. A change request should be submitted to formally modify the scope of the project.
c. The risk management plan should be updated to reflect the team’s recommendation prior to submitting a change request.
d. The contingency reserve should be increased to allow for any increase to cost due to the scope change.
b. A change request should be submitted to formally modify the scope of the project.
Rice Test - Question# 70
Which of the following is the best example of recognition?
a. Monetary bonus
b. Additional time off
c. Praise for effort
d. Commission payment
c. Praise for effort
Rice Test - Question# 71
Which of the following statements most reflects the approach of servant leadership?
a. Lead by supporting the team’s needs.
b. Lead by assigning tasks to team members.
c. Lead by micromanaging team activities.
d. Lead by facilitating project ceremonies.
a. Lead by supporting the team’s needs.
Rice Test - Question# 72
Which of the following is true about conflict in projects?
a. Too much conflict reflects poorly on the team.
b. Too much conflict reflects poorly on the project manager.
c. Conflict is inevitable.
d. Conflict should be addressed only when it disrupts the project.
c. Conflict is inevitable.
Rice Test - Question# 73
The product owner is not sure how to participate in a sprint review. What should the project manager do?
a. Remove the product owner from the review.
b. Have the Scrum master run the review.
c. Postpone product review until the product owner has been formally trained.
d. Coach the product owner on the sprint review process.
d. Coach the product owner on the sprint review process.
Rice Test - Question# 74
You help a team member by directing her to a file which includes building codes to be used on the project. Which type of knowledge is this?
a. Implicit
b. Explicit
c. Tacit
d. General
b. Explicit
Rice Test - Question# 75
What are some reasons for performance variations on a project? (Choose four.)
a. Specification changes
b. New regulations
c. Missed requirements
d. Approved changes to the project plan
e. Inaccurate initial estimates
a. Specification changes
b. New regulations
c. Missed requirements
e. Inaccurate initial estimates
Rice Test - Question# 76
Which of the following best describes the need for a stakeholder engagement strategy?
a. To effectively engage stakeholders in project decisions and execution based on the analysis of their needs, interests and potential impact.
b. To ensure stakeholders are receiving reports as requested.
c. To assign correct roles to project stakeholders.
d. To create strategies to move neutral stakeholders to leading.
a. To effectively engage stakeholders in project decisions and execution based on the analysis of their needs, interests and potential impact.
Rice Test - Question# 77
The product owner has requested the build of an initial product which can be released to get end users’ feedback before the entire product has been finished. What technique does this demonstrate?
a. MVP
b. MBI
c. COF
d. CPM
b. MBI
Rice Test - Question# 78
As the project manager, you determine that some adjustments to the schedule and budget may be required based on current project performance. You have the support of the project sponsor. What would allow you to make the changes?
a. Approval from all stakeholders
b. Change requests
c. Approved change requests
d. Quality control
c. Approved change requests
Rice Test - Question# 79
What are the primary components of the project management plan?
a. The scope, schedule and budget
b. Outputs of the planning processes
c. Acceptance criteria and transition requirements
d. Project phase requirements and project procedures
b. Outputs of the planning processes
Rice Test - Question# 80
You will be using a time-phased budget to measure the cost performance. What is that budget called?
a. Cost estimate
b. ROM
c. Cost consolidation
d. Cost baseline
d. Cost baseline
Rice Test - Question# 81
What is the graphical representation of the time-phased budget called?
a. Funding curve
b. S-curve
c. BAC
d. Histogram
b. S-curve
Rice Test - Question# 82
The current plan value for your work package is $50K. The earned value is $60K. Which statement best represents the current performance of the project?
a. The project is doing well financially.
b. The project is falling behind schedule.
c. The project is ahead of schedule.
d. The project is not performing well.
c. The project is ahead of schedule.
Rice Test - Question# 83
What are the goals of contract closeout? (Choose three.)
a. To arrange for final settlement of seller payments and claims.
b. To verify work was completed and delivered to specification.
c. To provide performance evaluation of seller staff.
d. To update contract records and documents.
a. To arrange for final settlement of seller payments and claims.
b. To verify work was completed and delivered to specification.
d. To update contract records and documents.
Rice Test - Question# 84
Which situation would not require performing the Close Project or Phase process?
a. When a project is terminated.
b. When a project phase is complete.
c. When the customer validates the interim deliverables.
d. When the project is completing.
c. When the customer validates the interim deliverables.
Rice Test - Question# 85
Which of the following are not planning processes? (Choose two.)
a. Perform qualitative analysis.
b. Define scope
c. Conduct procurements
d. Implement risk responses
e. Sequence activities
c. Conduct procurements
d. Implement risk responses
Rice Test - Question# 86
The project plan will continuously increase in the level of detail as the project progresses. What is this process known as?
a. Life cycle
b. Resource planning
c. Scope creep
d. Progressive elaboration
d. Progressive elaboration
Rice Test - Question# 87
The organization is exploring a new project with many unknowns and will require developing the solution in collaboration with the customer. Which of the following approaches might be best suited for this project?
a. Agile
b. Predictive
c. Phased
d. Waterfall
a. Agile
Rice Test - Question# 88
You will be upgrading the plumbing in an older facility on a University campus. This type of project has been performed many times in the past for other older buildings. Which method would you recommend?
a. Agile
b. Predictive
c. Iterative
d. Incremental
b. Predictive
Rice Test - Question# 89
Your team will be developing a fairly complex compliance procedure. Multiple versions of the procedure may be required in order to get the proper feedback from the stakeholders. The procedure will not be placed into use until after the final iteration and approvals. Which method would work best for this project?
a. Incremental
b. Agile
c. Iterative
d. Predictive
c. Iterative
Rice Test - Question# 90
What is the difference between the scope management plan and the project scope statement?
a. There is no difference.
b. The scope management plan contains the scope baseline while the project scope statement does not.
c. While both the scope management plan and the project scope statement are components of the scope baseline, only the scope statement is protected from change.
d. The scope management plan is used to define the process and procedures for determining and controlling scope while the project scope statement is a component of the scope baseline.
d. The scope management plan is used to define the process and procedures for determining and controlling scope while the project scope statement is a component of the scope baseline.
Rice Test - Question# 91
Which of the following is not a component of the requirements management plan?
a. The requirements list.
b. Procedure for planning, tracking and reporting requirements.
c. The traceability structure.
d. The requirements prioritization process.
a. The requirements list.
Rice Test - Question# 92
Which of the following tools and techniques can be used to verify scope? (Choose three)
a. Definition of done.
b. Control accounts.
c. Validate scope process.
d. Acceptance criteria.
e. Planning packages.
a. Definition of done.
c. Validate scope process.
d. Acceptance criteria.
Rice Test - Question# 93
What are some techniques used to elicit project requirements?
a. Document analysis
b. Project Management Plan
c. Observations
d. Work breakdown structure
e. Interviews
f. Questionnaires
a. Document analysis
c. Observations
e. Interviews
f. Questionnaires
Rice Test - Question# 94
Which of the following is not a schedule management process?
a. Plan schedule management
b. Estimate activity durations
c. Define activities
d. Acquire resources
d. Acquire resources
Rice Test - Question# 95
Your project has completed several milestones and is proceeding well. Your primary stakeholder comes to you to request a schedule extension. Your project is governed by a project steering committee. What should you do first?
a. Submit a change request to be reviewed by the steering committee.
b. Request that the stakeholder prepare and submit the schedule change request.
c. Consult the schedule management plan.
d. Update the schedule baseline and report the update to the steering committee.
c. Consult the schedule management plan.
Rice Test - Question# 96
Which of the following items would be helpful in creating an activity list? (Choose two)
a. The WBS
b. Cost-benefit analysis
c. Activity lists from similar projects
d. Control accounts
e. Work performance data
a. The WBS
c. Activity lists from similar projects
Rice Test - Question# 97
The quality engineers have proposed the purchase of a scanning tool which will cost $30,000 to procure and install. The scanning tool will scan for foreign objects which could contaminate the food product being produced. What kind of project cost is this?
a. Warranty cost
b. Variable cost
c. Cost of conformance
d. Cost of non-conformance
c. Cost of conformance
Rice Test - Question# 98
Which of the following statements best represents SAFe?
a. A quality process to ensure all products have tested properly.
b. A holistic view of agile approaches across an organization or enterprise.
c. A method to minimize risk by using hybrid approaches.
d. A predictive methodology.
b. A holistic view of agile approaches across an organization or enterprise.
Rice Test - Question# 99
Your team is developing a sub-plan which describes the problems the project might encounter if government standards, municipal laws or internal processes are not correctly followed. What plan is the team working on?
a. Configuration management plan
b. Control management plan
c. Quality management plan
d. Compliance management plan
d. Compliance management plan
Rice Test - Question# 100
What is the primary mechanism that needs to be in place for a single source noncompetitive procurement?
(A) A mechanism that ensures there are no kickbacks
(B) A mechanism that ensures that there is no impropriety or unreasonable pricing
(C) A mechanism that ensures there is no price gouging
(D) A mechanism that ensures there is no inappropriate relationship between the procurer and the source
Correct Answer: (B) A mechanism that ensures that there is no impropriety or unreasonable pricing
Explanation: One type of noncompetitive forms of procurement is single source, in which a single company is chosen even though others are available. There must be a mechanism in place to insure there is no impropriety or unreasonable pricing.
Exam Tip of the Day #106
Which processes does the project manager use to manage the project stakeholders?
(A) Plan stakeholder engagement, manage stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement
(B) Identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder engagement, manage stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement
(C) Identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement
(D) Identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder engagement, manage stakeholder engagement
Correct Answer: (B) Identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder engagement, manage stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement
Explanation: The processes associated with the stakeholder knowledge area are: Identify Stakeholders, Plan Stakeholder Engagement, Manage Stakeholder Engagement, and Monitor Stakeholder Engagement.
Exam Tip of the Day #107
A project manager has been working on the quality process for a project at a major defense contractor. The project manager discovers that an employee has been declaring repair material as scrap metal, then reselling it at a small profit. The item is very costly. What should the project manager do?
(A) Report this to the company
(B) Report this to Homeland Security
(C) Report this to General Accounting Office (GAO)
(D) Report the employee to the local authority
Correct Answer: (A) Report this to the company
Explanation: The company is responsible for resolving this issue, because the company has jurisdiction over materials. Reporting the employee to the local authority is the company’s option. The answers on reporting to the General Accounting Office (GAO) and to Homeland Security are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #108
Which process updates progress and manages changes to the schedule baseline?
(A) Control schedule
(B) Develop schedule management plan
(C) Direct and manage project work
(D) Create project management plan
Correct Answer: (A) Control schedule
Explanation: This is the basic definition of Control Schedule. There is no process called develop schedule management plan, though the schedule management plan (a document) would give guidance on the basic tools and techniques of HOW to update progress and manage changes through the Control Schedule process. Note the verb tense: “Which process updates progress and manages.” This implies doing it, not planning it, making Control Schedule the correct answer.
Exam Tip of the Day #109
The project manager for the electric engine improvement project has implemented a work authorization system. What is the main benefit of utilizing a work authorization system?
(A) To show what work is to be done during the project
(B) To show who is responsible for what work
(C) To control gold plating
(D) To serve as a time-tracking system
Correct Answer: (C) To control gold plating
Explanation: The question focuses on the benefit, as opposed to the purpose, of a work authorization system. The Work Authorization System sanctions or releases certain work to be done at a certain time in a certain order by a particular organization. The primary benefit of the system is to minimize gold plating on a project, which can occur if this control mechanism is not in place. The work breakdown structure (WBS) shows what work is to be done on the project. The responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) shows who is responsible for what work. To serve as a time-tracking system is a distracter.
Exam Tip of the Day #110
The project to consolidate the accounting departments of two recently merged hospitals is extremely complex. The project manager and his team are keenly aware of the importance of properly decomposing the work of the project. If they decompose the work beyond work packages, what is the likely result?
(A) The application of rolling wave planning
(B) The creation of activity lists
(C) A variance in the scope definition
(D) The creation of the WBS dictionary
Correct Answer: B) The creation of activity lists
Explanation: If they decompose the work beyond work packages, the creation of activity lists is the likely result. This occurs in the Define Activities process in the Schedule knowledge area.
Exam Tip of the Day #111
Of the following statements about the critical path, which is accurate?
(A) There can only be one critical path per project
(B) If ahead of schedule, a project can have negative slack (float)
(C) The least project risk occurs on the critical path
(D) The critical path is the longest path on the project network diagram
Correct Answer: (D) The critical path is the longest path on the project network diagram
Explanation: The critical path is the longest path on the project network diagram. There can be multiple critical paths. If the project is behind schedule, there can be negative slack (float). The greatest project risk occurs along the critical path.
Exam Tip of the Day #112
The highway project is in the middle of planning when the project manager presents a status reporting method to the team. The team members haven’t heard of this method before. It’s called earned value. To attain buy-in from the team, the project manager begins to explain what earned value status reporting can do for the project, explaining that it will measure which of the following?
(A) Schedule and cost
(B) Scope, schedule, and cost
(C) Scope and cost
(D) Scope and schedule
Correct Answer: (B) Scope, schedule, and cost
Explanation: Earned value deals with scope, schedule, and cost. Actual cost (AC) shows cost. Planned value (PV) shows state of the schedule. Earned value (EV) shows scope. The formulas that work with these three variables show how the three are interacting together.
Exam Tip of the Day #113
You are performing the plan quality management process on a project. The sponsor puts into the project charter that the quality standard wanted on the project is +/- 2 sigma. This translates to what percentage?
(A) 68.26%
(B) 95.46%
(C) 50%
(D) 99.73%
Correct Answer: (B) 95.46%
Explanation: The percentage for 1 sigma is 68.26%, for 2 sigma is 95.46%, and for 3 sigma is 99.73%. 50% is a distracter.
Exam Tip of the Day #114
The project manager of the systems upgrade project uses a variety of power types. Which of the following is an example of formal power?
(A) The project manager instructs the team leaders to prepare status reports for the weekly meeting
(B) The project manager takes the most productive team member to lunch at an expensive restaurant
(C) The project manager announces that bonuses will not be awarded to those who do not complete their tasks in a timely manner without sacrificing quality
(D) The project manager’s degree and prior work experience were in systems engineering
Correct Answer: (A) The project manager instructs the team leaders to prepare status reports for the weekly meeting
Explanation: Formal power is derived from the project charter for the project manager. Reward power comes from the project manager’s ability to reward an employee for good work. Penalty power comes from the project manager’s ability to penalize an employee when his work is inadequate. Expert power derives from expertise in a discipline.
Exam Tip of the Day #115
Sam and Tracy are running their project in planning Sam and Nikki’s wedding. Communication is a big issue with all the stakeholders and their geographical locations. Of the following, which is an input they will use in the manage communications process?
(A) Project management plan
(B) Communications management plan
(C) Power interest grid
(D) Feedback
Correct Answer: (B) Communications management plan
Explanation: The inputs for Manage Communications are: project management plan, resource management plan, communications management plan, stakeholder engagement plan, project documents, change log, issue log, lessons learned register, quality report, risk report, stakeholder register, work performance reports, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.
Exam Tip of the Day #116
The reservation system has been working well. Today, the main database engine crashed, preventing the airline from creating reservations for its flights. The risk response didn’t fix the problem, so the airline must respond. Which of the following should it perform first?
(A) Fix the problem with a work-around
(B) Determine why the risk response plan failed
(C) Adjust the risk response plan
(D) Determine why the problem occurred
Correct Answer: (A) Fix the problem with a work-around
Explanation: This is a chicken or the egg question in that you more than likely will do all the answers, but what comes first? Fixing the problem, then determining why the risk response plan failed, and why the problem occurred, then adjusting the risk response plan is the sequence for the other answers.
Exam Tip of the Day #117
A city is buying services from a construction company to build a new freeway for $4M over three years. At the start of each year, the amount fluctuates relative to the national cost of living. This is an example of what type of contract?
(A) Cost plus economic price adjust
(B) Cost plus incentive fee
(C) Fixed-price cost of living adjust
(D) Fixed-price economic price adjust
Correct Answer: (D) Fixed-price economic price adjust
Explanation: A fixed-price economic price adjust contract is a contract that generally has a fixed price, but because of contract length, will adjust year-by-year as a neutral economic indicator moves upward or downward. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #118
During the identify stakeholders process, the project manager of the security project has what key tools and techniques at his disposal?
(A) Stakeholder analysis, stakeholder management strategy chart, and expert judgment
(B) Power/interest grid, stakeholder analysis, and expert judgment
(C) Stakeholder management strategy chart, stakeholder analysis, power/interest grid, and expert judgment
(D) Expert judgment and stakeholder analysis
Correct Answer: (D) Expert judgment and stakeholder analysis
Explanation: The tools and techniques for the Identify Stakeholder process are: expert judgment, data gathering, questionnaires and surveys, brainstorming, data analysis, stakeholder analysis, document analysis, and meetings.
Exam Tip of the Day #119
During a meeting you discover that a project manager has prepared a report that states that a project had a SPI of 1.You also learn that the way the project manager was calculating earned value was not correct and that the project is behind schedule. What is your professional and social responsibility toward this project manager?
(A) Report the project manager to the sponsor
(B) Mentor the project manager on the correct way to calculate earned value
(C) Mentor the project manager on the correct way to calculate earned value and review with him what he is reporting
(D) Review with the project manager what he is reporting
Correct Answer: (C) Mentor the project manager on the correct way to calculate earned value and review with him what he is reporting
Explanation: Part of professional and social responsibility is to review the conduct of other project management practitioners and mentor them. Reviewing what is being reported helps you provide feedback that they are managing the project correctly and improving their skills. Reporting the project manager to the sponsor has no effect.
Exam Tip of the Day #120
Which of the following uses cross-functional work teams?
(A) A data warehouse practice
(B) An offshore company
(C) A project that utilizes all groups across a company
(D) Union-approved workplaces
Correct Answer: (C) A project that utilizes all groups across a company
Explanation: A project that utilizes all groups across a company utilizes cross-functional teams to take advantage of the knowledge and skills available. A data warehouse practice is likely a projectized organization. An offshore company is too vague an answer. Union-approved workplaces is a distracter.
Exam Tip of the Day #121
Neal the project manager has started the planning for the frontiers project. Neal and his team are focusing on assumptions that the planning is based on. The assumptions are key as much of the planning revolves around them. Which of the following best describes the earliest that the assumptions will potentially be identified?
(A) With change requests as needed
(B) The project management plan
(C) The charter
(D) The assumptions log
Correct Answer: (C) The charter
Explanation: Assumptions are identified as early as possible in the project. That means the charter is the best answer. The other answers are applicable as needed because the assumptions will be updated as the project evolves. Planning is established based on the assumptions and as the assumptions evolve, the planning and changes evolve.
Exam Tip of the Day #122
The WBS has been created for the textbook selection project and the team is creating the WBS dictionary. How will they go about this?
(A) By documenting the work packages and listing the organizations responsible for completion of the work
(B) By documenting the work packages, documenting the control accounts, and listing the organizations responsible for completion of the work
(C) By documenting the work packages, documenting test criteria and test cases, documenting the control accounts, and listing the organizations responsible for completion of the work
(D) By documenting the work packages, documenting the scope baseline, and listing the organizations responsible for completion of the work
Correct Answer: (C) By documenting the work packages, documenting test criteria and test cases, documenting the control accounts, and listing the organizations responsible for completion of the work
Explanation: The team will create the WBS dictionary by documenting the work packages, documenting test criteria and test cases, documenting the control accounts, and listing the organizations responsible for completion of the work.
Exam Tip of the Day #123
The e-commerce project is six weeks behind schedule with five team members working on it. Three of these team members are working on the critical path-related items. What is the slack (float) of the critical path?
(A) Negative six weeks
(B) 30
(C) 0 (Zero)
(D) Not enough information
Correct Answer: (A) Negative six weeks
Explanation: Technically, a critical path has a slack (float) of zero. If the project is truly behind schedule, and the baseline date is still being used as the reference, the project could actually have negative slack (float) on the critical path. In this case, the negative slack (float) is six weeks.
Exam Tip of the Day #124
You are having a home theater room added to your house. The project should take five days and cost $1,500 per day to complete. After three days, the project is 30% complete and $5,000 has been spent. What is the amount of work that should have been done so far?
(A) $7,500
(B) $2,250
(C) $5,000
(D) $4,500
Correct Answer: (D) $4,500
Explanation: To determine the PV (planned value) for the days already worked, multiply the cost per day by the number of days worked: $1,500 multiplied by three days equals $4,500. Note that planned value is defined as the work that should have been completed either to date or during a particular time period (in this case, to date through day three).
Exam Tip of the Day #125
There is a variance in the manufacturing process that is causing concern among the team. Some results have been above the specification limits, and some within the control tolerances. You want to learn more about the output of the process over the last month. Which of the following items is the most useful for this purpose?
(A) Run chart because it indicates output over time and provides the opportunity to determine trends and variances
(B) Pareto diagram because the closer the percentages are on the separate problems, the easier it is to determine trends and variances
(C) Control chart because it indicates output and highlights trends and variances
(D) Scatter diagram because the closer the output resembles a diagonal line, the more obvious trends and variances
Correct Answer: (A) Run chart because it indicates output over time and provides the opportunity to determine trends and variances
Explanation: The run chart’s main purpose is to show output over time. This provides an opportunity to catch any trends and variance with the process. The Pareto diagram shows defect by count. A control chart is similar to a run chart, but the reason given is not accurate. A scatter diagram indicates dependencies between variables.
Exam Tip of the Day #126
Perform qualitative risk analysis uses a variety of tools for analysis. Which of the following is most closely associated with this process?
(A) A probability and impact matrix
(B) The expected monetary value (EMV) formula
(C) Templates for work-around documentation
(D) Risk trigger determination
Correct Answer: (A) A probability and impact matrix
Explanation: Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis uses a risk rating matrix to rank risks and create an overall risk rating for the project. Expected monetary value (EMV) is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #129
The project will be using a company to provide the technicians for a national network upgrade project. Presently, the team is in the process of conducting a make-or-buy analysis. What is the primary factor that will influence the team’s decision?
(A) The comparison of skill sets between alternatives
(B) The comparison of resource availability between alternatives
(C) The comparison of costs between alternatives
(D) The comparison of experience between alternatives
Correct Answer: (C) The comparison of costs between alternatives
Explanation: Assume for the exam, that cost comparison is the only factor considered during a make-or-buy analysis. In reality, skill sets, experience, and resource availability are also considered.
Exam Tip of the Day #130
To effectively manage stakeholders to increase support for and minimize negative impact to a project, project managers often rely on strategy tools during the identify stakeholders process. A key tool is the analysis matrix. Of the following, which best represents typical matrix entries?
(A) Level of impact on the project, strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact, stakeholder name, level of interest in the project, requirements for level of communication
(B) Level of interest in the project, stakeholder name, political influence within the organization, strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact
(C) Strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact, level of interest in the project, stakeholder name, level of impact on the project
(D) Requirements for level of communication, stakeholder name, level of interest in the project, political influence within the organization, strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact
Correct Answer: (C) Strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact, level of interest in the project, stakeholder name, level of impact on the project
Explanation: The stakeholder analysis matrix typically contains the stakeholder name, level of interest in the project, strategies to gain support or minimize negative impact, and level of impact on the project. The other answers are noise.
Exam Tip of the Day #131
Six full time and one part time person report to the project manager. Three more people are added to the project. How many communication channels were added to the project?
(A) 56 channels
(B) 28 channels
(C) 55 channels
(D) 27 channels
Correct Answer: (D) 27 channels
Explanation: The formula for communication channels is N x (N - 1) /First, calculate the number of communication channels based on the existing team 6.5 people (rounds up to a full person) 7 AND the project manager = 8) That is 28 communication channels. Next, calculate the number of communication channels with the new people added. This is 55 communication channels. Finally, subtract the difference (55 – 28 = 27) to establish that 27 communication channels were added.
Exam Tip of the Day #128
Six full time and one part time person report to the project manager. Three more people are added to the project. How many communication channels were added to the project?
(A) 56 channels
(B) 28 channels
(C) 55 channels
(D) 27 channels
Correct Answer: (D) 27 channels
Explanation: The formula for communication channels is N x (N - 1) /First, calculate the number of communication channels based on the existing team 6.5 people (rounds up to a full person) 7 AND the project manager = 8) That is 28 communication channels. Next, calculate the number of communication channels with the new people added. This is 55 communication channels. Finally, subtract the difference (55 – 28 = 27) to establish that 27 communication channels were added.
Exam Tip of the Day #128
Prescott University is putting together its fall schedule. It is currently trying to align classes, instructors, and classrooms to ensure that every class offering has a room and an instructor. Which of the following is the best basis for this alignment?
(A) Resource list
(B) Resource breakdown structure
(C) Resource sheet
(D) Resource breakdown list
Correct Answer: (B) Resource breakdown structure
Explanation: The resource breakdown structure is used to show where resources (in this case, the rooms and instructors) are being used. The resource list simply shows what resources are available. The resource sheet is similar to a resource list. The resource breakdown list is a distracter.
Exam Tip of the Day #127
You are studying for your PM certification with a study group and a member of your study group says he has a copy of questions from a PM exam. You have been studying the PMI® Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. What is your primary responsibility as described by this document?
(A) Continue to study with them because it has not been proven that these are exam questions
(B) Inform the group that you cannot study with them because these could be exam questions
(C) Inform PMI® of this possible violation
(D) Continue to study with the group because your exam time is next week
Correct Answer: (C) Inform PMI® of this possible violation
Explanation: Your primary responsibility is to alert PMI® of this possible ethics violation. Subsequent to that notification, you should remove yourself from the study group. Continuing to study with the group because it has not been proven that these are exam questions and continuing to study with the group because your exam time is next week could put you in violation.
Exam Tip of the Day #132
Which of the following is the most important job for the project manager?
(A) Controlling stakeholders
(B) Controlling unnecessary change
(C) Creating the project management plan
(D) Exceeding customer expectations
Correct Answer: (B) Controlling unnecessary change
Explanation: Controlling unnecessary change is one of the biggest challenges for project managers. If they don’t do this well, the project can go out of control. Creating the project management plan is a good answer, but if changes are out of control, the best plan won’t do any good. Exceeding customer expectations is unnecessary and could likely result in gold plating, which isn’t good. Controlling stakeholders is a distracter. The expectations of stakeholders are to be managed, not controlled.
Exam Tip of the Day #133
Project management roles not only describe project participation levels of various personnel, they also indicate responsibility. Which of the following is the most accurate in terms of its description?
(A) Senior management has ultimate control over project personnel
(B) Project management reports directly to the CEO
(C) Functional management manages the functionality of the project
(D) The sponsor pays for the project and could own the work of the project when it is complete
Correct Answer: (D) The sponsor pays for the project and could own the work of the project when it is complete
Explanation: Typically, the sponsor’s responsibility is to pay for the project, own it when it is complete, and provide support as the champion if escalation is necessary. Senior management is responsible for a number of areas on a project. Its main responsibility is to help support the project and resolve resource conflicts as they occur. Remember, unless otherwise stated, for situational questions assume that you are in a balanced matrix environment. This environment has functional managers controlling resources. The project manager’s responsibility is to drive the completion of the work of the project.
Exam Tip of the Day #134
The medical billing system project has entered closure. As the project manager and the team prepare for closure, they are told that validate scope will be very important to the success of the project. Of the following, which best describes the importance of validate scope?
(A) Validate scope should have been done earlier in the project and since it wasn’t done then, it’s important to complete it before the project is complete
(B) Validate scope authenticates that the sponsor signed the project scope statement at the beginning of planning
(C) Validate scope is the process of comparing what the project created to the project scope statement, product description, and anything else that helps ensure that the results of the project will function as intended
(D) Validate scope is used to confirm that the project team understands the scope of the project
Correct Answer: (C) Validate scope is the process of comparing what the project created to the project scope statement, product description, and anything else that helps ensure that the results of the project will function as intended
Explanation: Validate Scope is used to compare the work the project created to that which was planned to build, and to ensure that the results of the project will function as intended. It can include using the project management plan, requirements documentation, and validated deliverables. If the validation process is satisfactory, the work of the project is typically viewed as acceptable
Exam Tip of the Day #135
A new project has just completed the initiating process group. The planning process group is getting ready to begin. Which process has just been accomplished, and which process is getting ready to start?
(A) Develop project management plan and direct and manage project work
(B) Identify stakeholders and develop project management plan
(C) Develop project management plan and manage project knowledge
(D) Develop project charter and direct and manage project execution
Correct Answer: (B) Identify stakeholders and develop project management plan
Explanation: The initiating process group ends with the Identify Stakeholders process, and the planning process group begins with Develop Project Management Plan.
Exam Tip of the Day #136
Which of the following statements is most accurate?
(A) The project management team and project team are the same thing
(B) The project management team includes project team members
(C) The project team includes project management team members
(D) None of these statements are accurate
Correct Answer: (C) The project team includes project management team members
Explanation: The project team consist of everyone associated with the project, including project management team members. The project management team members only do project management work.
Exam Tip of the Day #137
The project has had some challenges. Members of the team have needed constant supervision to perform the activities for which they are responsible, they do not seem to trust management, and often appear unmotivated. This is an example of what?
(A) Insufficient team building
(B) Theory X environment
(C) Insufficient project team training
(D) Theory Y environment
Correct Answer: (B) Theory X environment
Explanation: Typically, in a Theory X environment, employees must be told what to do, have distrust for management, and lack motivation. Theory Y is the opposite. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #138
You are a project manager and have just created the stakeholder engagement plan. What process will you perform next?
(A) Identify stakeholder
(B) Manage stakeholder engagement
(C) Monitor stakeholder engagement
(D) Monitor communications
Correct Answer: (B) Manage stakeholder engagement
Explanation: Plan stakeholder engagement creates the stakeholder engagement plan. Manage stakeholder engagement follows plan stakeholder engagement. Identify stakeholder engagement. Monitor communications is a communications process.
Exam Tip of the Day #139
All the following are examples of communication requirements on a project except…
(A) Project status, meeting time, and location
(B) The product functionality required by the primary customer
(C) Steps to take regarding a project change request
(D) Names and contact information for the members of the project change control board
Correct Answer: (B) The product functionality required by the primary customer
Explanation: Project status meeting, time and location, steps to take regarding a project change request, and contact information for the members of the CCB are all communication requirements on a project. Product functionality is communicated using some type of requirements documentation. Notice that this answer does not indicate how or when or how often the product requirements will or should be communicated.
Exam Tip of the Day #140
eXtreme Programming (XP) roles consist of…
(A) Coach, customer, and tracker
(B) Coach, product owner, programmer, and tracker
(C) Coach, customer, and programmer
(D) Programmer, coach, and tracker
Correct Answer: (C) Coach, customer, and programmer
Explanation: The roles used in eXtreme Programming (XP) are coach, customer, and programmer. Some XP projects include a tracker and designated tester, but those roles may fail to the programmer.
Exam Tip of the Day #141
The company is implementing an enterprise reporting system. This system will integrate a number of business units. This project is something that is new at the company. They realize they will learn a great deal as they adjust while going through the project. Which process best fits tracking their knowledge related to the project?
(A) Perform integrated change control
(B) Manage project issues
(C) Manage project knowledge
(D) Manager communications
Correct Answer: (C) Manage project knowledge
Explanation: Manage project knowledge results in the creation of the lessons learned register and the best fit for the question. Perform integrated change control references change management. Managing project issues is a distracter and not a process. Manage communications might be used to share the information learned, but it’s not as good an answer as manage project knowledge.
Exam Tip of the Day #142
The project manager is working with the business analyst to create requirements for the upgrade to the security platform of the company website. Which of the following best describes the order in which the processes will be created?
(A) Business requirements, solution requirements, stakeholder requirements, transition requirements
(B) Stakeholder requirements, business requirements, solution requirements, transition requirements
(C) Business requirements, stakeholder requirements, solution requirements, transition requirements
(D) Transition requirements, business requirements, stakeholder requirements, solution requirements
Correct Answer: (C) Business requirements, stakeholder requirements, solution requirements, transition requirements
Explanation: The order in which requirements are created is: business requirements, stakeholder requirements, solution requirements, and then transition requirements. Business requirements define business needs; stakeholder requirements align with specific stakeholder needs; solution requirements are created from the stakeholder requirements; and transition requirements are established to move to the new product, service, or result from the project to a business environment.
Exam Tip of the Day #143
You are the project manager on a defense project and are creating a network diagram. Activity A (3 days) and Activity B (6 days) can start immediately. Activity C (2 days) can start after Activity A is complete. Activity D (1 day) and Activity F (2 days) can start after Activity B is complete. Activity E (4 days) can start after Activity C and Activity D are complete. Activity G (5 days) can start after Activity D and Activity F are complete. When Activity E and Activity G are complete, the project is done. What is the critical path?
(A) BDE
(B) ACE
(C) BFG
(D) BDG
Correct Answer: (C) BFG
Explanation: The critical path is the longest path in the diagram. Of the four paths, BFG is the longest at 13 days. ACE is nine days long. BDE is 11 days. BDG is 12 days.
Exam Tip of the Day #144
The project manager of the On-line Loan Application Interface project instructs his team to ensure that the manage quality process is performed thoroughly. What is involved in this process?
(A) Auditing the quality processes to ensure that appropriate standards are used
(B) Identifying quality requirements for the project and product, and auditing them appropriately
(C) Implementing predefined and validated methodologies to record the results of quality activities
(D) Evaluating proposed quality initiatives considering factors such as expected customer satisfaction, the cost of conformance, and the cost of nonconformance
Correct Answer: (A) Auditing the quality processes to ensure that appropriate standards are used
Explanation: This is the generally-accepted definition of the manage quality process. All other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #146
Of the following, which best describes a secondary risk?
(A) A vendor was unable to fulfill a contract commitment by the due date in the contract
(B) A vendor was unable to fulfill a contract commitment by the due date in the contract due to a strike
(C) A vendor was unable to fulfill a contract commitment by the due date in the contract because a sub-contractor delivered a defective product
(D) A vendor was unable to fulfill a contract commitment by the due date in the contract, so the team chose another vendor that also could not meet the due date because of the late start
Correct Answer: (D) A vendor was unable to fulfill a contract commitment by the due date in the contract, so the team chose another vendor that also could not meet the due date because of the late start
Explanation: Secondary risk is what occurs when a risk event occurs and its response creates new risk.
Exam Tip of the Day #147
The project utilizes a vendor to provide the technicians for a national network upgrade project. The buyer agrees to pay the vendor an incentive fee. Of the following, which is the most logical reason the buyer would pay the fee?
(A) The buyer wants to ensure that the vendor will be responsive to any issues that arise during the upgrade
(B) The buyer wants to ensure that the vendor’s standard of productivity is aligned to that of the buyer
(C) The buyer wants to ensure that the vendor will work well with the buyer’s employees
(D) None of the answers
Correct Answer: (B) The buyer wants to ensure that the vendor’s standard of productivity is aligned to that of the buyer
Explanation: Incentive fees are used by the buyer to get the seller aligned to a standard of productivity similar to the buyer’s. All the other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #148
The project utilizes a vendor to provide the technicians for a national network upgrade project. The buyer agrees to pay the vendor an incentive fee. Of the following, which is the most logical reason the buyer would pay the fee?
(A) The buyer wants to ensure that the vendor will be responsive to any issues that arise during the upgrade
(B) The buyer wants to ensure that the vendor’s standard of productivity is aligned to that of the buyer
(C) The buyer wants to ensure that the vendor will work well with the buyer’s employees
(D) None of the answers
Correct Answer: (B) The buyer wants to ensure that the vendor’s standard of productivity is aligned to that of the buyer
Explanation: Incentive fees are used by the buyer to get the seller aligned to a standard of productivity similar to the buyer’s. All the other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #148
A change control system is best described as which of the following?
(A) Enterprise environmental factor
(B) Process
(C) Organizational process asset
(D) Document
Correct Answer: (C) Organizational process asset
Explanation: A change control system is an organizational process asset that helps define how the organization does project management and is associated with the Perform Integrated Change Control process. An enterprise environmental factor is a factor that cannot be controlled by the project team but has a significant impact on how the project is managed or on the outcome of the project. A process asset is a plan, process, policy, procedure, or knowledge base specific to and used by the performing organization. A process is comprised of sequential procedures that are performed to convert inputs into outputs. A document is a material substance that contains a representation of a thought or thoughts.
Exam Tip of the Day #149
Which of the following stakeholders typically “owns” the work of the project when the project is complete?
(A) Stockholders
(B) The project manager
(C) Functional manager
(D) Operations management
Correct Answer: (D) Operations management
Explanation: Notice the word “typically”. Virtually anyone could own the work, depending on the nature of the project and the product. However, operations management accepts the product from project management, and then operations management incorporates the product or service into normal operations, as well maintains the product or service.
Exam Tip of the Day #150
Senior management has promoted their best electrical engineer to the position of engineering project manager. The promotion was based on the Halo Theory. Of the following, what is the best definition of the Halo Theory?
(A) An effective employee in a discipline will become an effective employee in another discipline
(B) An effective employee in a discipline will become an effective manager in that discipline
(C) An effective employee in a discipline will become an effective employee in another discipline with training
(D) An effective employee in a discipline will become an effective manager in that discipline with training
Correct Answer: (B) An effective employee in a discipline will become an effective manager in that discipline
Explanation: The Halo Theory implies that supervisors often rate employees as having wholly desirable traits, or wholly undesirable traits. Making the assumption that an effective technical employee (a single favorable characteristic) WILL transfer to an effective project manager is an example of this bias. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #151
Which of the processes can update the issue log?
(A) Identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder engagement, manage stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement
(B) Identify stakeholders, manage stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement
(C) Plan stakeholder engagement, manage stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement
(D) Identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder engagement, manage stakeholder engagement
Correct Answer: (B) Identify stakeholders, manage stakeholder engagement, monitor stakeholder engagement
Explanation: Three of the four stakeholder processes can result in the issue log being updated. They are: identify stakeholder, manage stakeholder engagement, and monitor stakeholder engagement.
Exam Tip of the Day #152
Michelle is in pharmaceutical research. As she is mapping out details for a new compound, she is sensitive to communication with key stakeholders. Communication is key to campaign success. As she focuses on monitoring communications, which is a tool or technique she will use during this process?
(A) Organizational process assets
(B) Expert judgment
(C) Change requests
(D) Stakeholder management strategy
Correct Answer: (B) Expert judgment
Explanation: The tools or techniques for Monitor Communications include expert judgment, project management information system (PMIS), data analysis, stakeholder engagement assessment matrix, interpersonal and team skills, observation/conversation, and meetings.
Exam Tip of the Day #153
Which of the following best describes a good user story?
(A) Independent, negligible, valuable, estimable, small, and transparent
(B) Independent, negligible, variable, estimable, small, and transparent
(C) Independent, negotiable, valuable, estimable, small, and testable
(D) Independent, negotiable, valuable, estimable, short, and testable
Correct Answer: (C) Independent, negotiable, valuable, estimable, small, and testable
Explanation: The characteristics that describe a good user story are represented by the acronym INVEST: independent, negotiable, valuable, estimable, small, and testable. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #154
As a best practice, who should create the project management plan?
(A) Project manager alone
(B) Project manager and the project team
(C) The project manager, the project team, and the owner of the project
(D) The project owner alone
Correct Answer: (B) The project manager and the project team
Explanation: The project manager and project team should create the project management plan and the estimates that feed into it. They are the people doing the work, so they should have the opportunity to estimate and plan it. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #155
You are the project manager for a building restoration project. You are creating the project scope statement. Which of the following documents do you need to review to create this document?
(A) Requirements documentation
(B) Project exclusions
(C) Work breakdown structure
(D) Activity lists
Correct Answer: (A) Requirements documentation
Explanation: Collect requirements is the process that precedes the define scope process. Collect requirements creates requirements documentation and define scope creates the project scope statement. The create work breakdown structure follows the define scope process. Activity lists are created with the define activities process, which is part of the schedule creation.
Exam Tip of the Day #156
The project management team has performed earned value analysis on its project and discovered that the project is behind schedule and over budget. The SPI is 0.82 and the CPI is 0.73. The team is trying to determine how efficient it needs to be with the remaining resources to complete the project on budget. Which of the following is the team trying to calculate?
(A) Cost variance
(B) Cost performance index
(C) Estimate to complete
(D) To-complete performance index
The project management team has performed earned value analysis on its project and discovered that the project is behind schedule and over budget. The SPI is 0.82 and the CPI is 0.73. The team is trying to determine how efficient it needs to be with the remaining resources to complete the project on budget. Which of the following is the team trying to calculate?
(A) Cost variance
(B) Cost performance index
(C) Estimate to complete
(D) To-complete performance index
Correct Answer: (D) To-complete performance index
Explanation: The to-complete performance index (TCPI) shows the efficiency needed of the remaining resources to come in on budget. Cost variance (CV) shows the difference between work done and what was paid for it. Cost performance index (CPI) shows the ratio between the work done and what was paid for it. The estimate to complete (ETC) shows the amount remaining to be spent based on the current spending efficiency (CPI).
Exam Tip of the Day #158
```
~~~
The project is going through the control quality process. Which of the following is a key tool that will be utilized in this process and why?
(A) Flowcharting shows what areas are causing the most issues and point to what needs it most on the project
(B) A cause-and-effect diagram (also known as Ishikawa and fishbone) helps to isolate any potential problems that relate to quality on a project
(C) The control chart helps to verify that the process is followed accurately
(D) A Pareto chart shows output over time so monitoring for variance and trends can be completed
Correct Answer: (B) A cause-and-effect diagram (also known as Ishikawa and fishbone) helps to isolate any potential problems that relate to quality on a project
Explanation: A cause-and-effect diagram (also known as Ishikawa and fishbone) helps to isolate any potential problems that relate to quality on a project. The other answers are distracters because their descriptions are inaccurate.
Exam Tip of the Day #159
If a risk on the project has a high probability of occurring and a high-impact if it does occur, the project team will more than likely do what?
(A) Determine the insurable risk amount
(B) Perform qualitative risk analysis
(C) Determine the pure risk amount
(D) Perform quantitative risk analysis
Correct Answer: (D) Perform quantitative risk analysis
Explanation: The team will undertake the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process if the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process shows that the risk has a high probability of occurring and high-impact if it does. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis helps determine the probability and impact of a risk; therefore, you must complete this analysis before you can evaluate the probability and impact of the risk. Determination of insurable risk and determination of pure risk are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #160
You are the project manager on a defense project. The buyer wants to get an idea of how much he will pay for cost overruns. With the following variables, calculate the point of total assumption: Expected Cost = $125,000; Expected Profit = $25,000; Target Price = $150,000; Buyer/Share Ratio = 60%/40%; Ceiling Price = $180,000; Maximum Overrun = 130%.
(A) $175,000.00
(B) $137,019.23
(C) $151,442.31
(D) $129,807.69
Correct Answer: (A) $175,000.00
Explanation: The formula for point of total assumption (PTA) is as follows:
(Ceiling Price - Target Price) /Buyer Share) + Expected Cost
$175,000 = ($180,000 - $150,000) /0.60) + $125,000
Exam Tip of the Day #161
What is the difference between a project management life cycle and a project life cycle?
(A) They are the same
(B) The project management life cycle is the project management piece of the project, and the project life cycle is the process of completing the work of the project
(C) The project management life cycle is done in the project and the project life cycle is done after the project is complete
(D) The project management life cycle is the process of completing the work of the project and the project life cycle is the project management piece of the project
Correct Answer: (B) The project management life cycle is the project management piece of the project, and the project life cycle is the process of completing the work of the project.
Explanation: The project management life cycle (PMLC) is the project management methodology used on a project. The project life cycle applies to whatever is being built. It can be the software approach for a software project or a building approach for construction.
Exam Tip of the Day #162
Eric is the PM of a project that is using a waterfall schedule to roll out an ERP system across six departments over six months. The plan is to give each department a month-long timebox to roll out the higher priority features within that department. There is a product owner assigned to each department to determine the higher priority items. What type of structure does this describe?
(A) Waterfall
(B) Agile
(C) Hybrid
(D) Virtual
Correct Answer: (C) Hybrid
Explanation: This type of structure is hybrid because it combines a waterfall schedule with Agile elements (timeboxing and prioritizing). Virtual doesn’t necessarily apply as there isn’t enough information to identify it as an option.
Exam Tip of the Day #163
Of the following, which are the key tools and techniques of the acquire resources process?
(A) Multi-criteria decision analysis, negotiation, interpersonal and team skills, pre-assignment, and virtual teams
(B) Multi-criteria decision analysis, negotiation, pre-assignment, and virtual teams
(C) Multi-criteria decision analysis, negotiation, networking, pre-assignment, and virtual teams
(D) Multi-criteria decision analysis, negotiation, interpersonal and team skills, networking, pre-assignment, and virtual teams
Correct Answer: (B) Multi-criteria decision analysis, negotiation, pre-assignment, and virtual teams
Explanation: The tools and techniques of the Acquire Resources process are: decision making, interpersonal and team skills, multi-criteria decision analysis, negotiations, pre-assignment, and virtual teams.
Exam Tip of the Day #164
You are a project manager and have just discovered that your sponsor who is the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) on your project has changed. The sponsor is now the Chief Information Office (CIO). Previously the CIO was a key stakeholder, but not the sponsor. Which of the following documents would you update first?
(A) The stakeholder register
(B) The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
(C) The stakeholder engagement plan
(D) The issue log
Correct Answer: (A) The stakeholder register
Explanation: The stakeholder register would be the first document to be updated, as that would reflect changes in stakeholders and roles. The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix would be used to identify gaps between stakeholder engagement and needed levels of engagement. The stakeholder engagement plan identifies how to engage stakeholders. The issue log contains items that require attention.
Exam Tip of the Day #165
The project manager has scheduled several meetings to facilitate information sharing with the project management team and the customer. The meetings have been unorganized, chaotic, and lacking direction. Which of the following would improve the meetings?
(A) Determine who is in charge of the meeting
(B) Send the team to communication training
(C) Create and publish an agenda, and establish the leader of the meeting
(D) Create and publish an agenda
Correct Answer: (C) Create and publish an agenda, and establish the leader of the meeting
Explanation: Creating and publishing an agenda and knowing who is in charge of a meeting are two ways to have a highly organized effective meeting. Though the project manager may organize a meeting, he or she may not necessarily be in charge of the meeting, as it sometimes the case with highly technical subject matter.
Exam Tip of the Day #166
The best description of the approach utilized for a lean-agile project is…
(A) Maximize speed
(B) Maximize velocity
(C) Maximize work not yet done
(D) Maximize deliverables
Correct Answer: (C) Maximize work not yet done
Explanation: The approach utilized for Lean-Agile projects is maximization of work not yet done. That means that you should do only what needs to be done when it needs to be done.
Exam Tip of the Day #167
Sam is creating the project management plan for the infinity tour project. He is having a discussion with Sarah about the project management plan. They are having a disagreement about the plan and can’t come to a common understanding. Which of the following best describes the project management plan?
(A) The project management plan can change whenever the team feels it’s necessary
(B) The project management plan is a static picture of what the project is to accomplish and should not change
(C) The project management plan is a living document that evolves as the project evolves
(D) Change should only occur when there is no schedule or budget impact
Correct Answer: (C) The project management plan is a living document that evolves as the project evolves
Explanation: The project management plan is a living document that will evolve as the project evolves. Changes can occur, but will only be implemented when approved. Changes can be implemented when approved even if there is schedule, budget or other area impacted, if the change is approved. Just because the team wants a change doesn’t mean it happens. It has to be approved first.
Exam Tip of the Day #168
You are the project manager for a TV studio rebuilding project. You are creating the project scope statement. Which of the following documents do you create next?
(A) Requirements documentation
(B) Project exclusions
(C) Work breakdown structure
(D) Activity lists
Correct Answer: (C) Work breakdown structure
Explanation: The create work breakdown structure follows the define scope process. Collect requirements is the process that precedes the define scope process. Collect requirements creates requirements documentation and define scope creates the project scope statement. Activity lists are created with the define activities process, which is part of the schedule creation.
Exam Tip of the Day #169
Using the information in question 14, if Activity D increases from one to three days, what is the critical path, and what is the length?
(A) BDE, 13 days
(B) ACE, 14 days
(C) BFG, 13 days
(D) BDG, 14 days
Correct Answer: (D) BDG, 14 days
Explanation: By increasing Activity D from one day to three days the path BDG increases to fourteen days. This is the longest of the paths on the network diagram.
Exam Tip of the Day #170
What is the range of a rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate?
(A) -10% to +10%
(B) -5% to +10%
(C) -25% to +75%
(D) -300% to +75%
Correct Answer: (C) -25% to +75%
Explanation: The range of a rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate is -25% to +75%. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #171
The project to improve the insurance section of the customer service division is very complex in terms of updating the quality management plan. Which of the following best describes the appropriate time to update these assets?
(A) Updates should occur during the manage quality process
(B) Updates should occur as validation data is available from the manage quality process
(C) Updates should occur as validation data is available from the plan quality management process
(D) Updates should occur during the control quality process
Correct Answer: (B) Updates should occur as validation data is available from the manage quality process
Explanation: Updating organizational process assets should occur as validation data is available from the manage quality process.
Exam Tip of the Day #172
The construction company has been awarded a $40M contract to build an upscale community shopping center. Of the following, which is the best example of an exploit type of risk response strategy?
(A) The company hires inexperienced workers and pays them only 25% of the salary received by union workers
(B) The company realizes the adjoining land will increase in value upon completion of the project, so it purchases the adjoining land at current prices
(C) The company purchases materials below the grade specified in the contract, although satisfying local building standards
(D) The company hires inexperienced workers and pays them scale, but does not provide the benefits given to the union workers
Correct Answer: (B) The company realizes the adjoining land will increase in value upon completion of the project, so it purchases the adjoining land at current prices
Explanation: Exploiting the risk is to undertake activity that grows or expands the positive aspects of the risk. Sharing the risk is to work with someone else to maximize the risk. Mitigate attempts to minimize the negative impact of the risk. Accepting the risk is to tolerate whatever occurred.
Exam Tip of the Day #173
The project will be using a company to provide the technicians for a national network upgrade project. The buyer of the solution is providing a design scope of work to the seller. Of the following, which is the most logical reason this scope was selected?
(A) The buyer knows exactly what is needed and wants no variance from the specifications
(B) The buyer’s only concern is that the vendor achieves the required goals
(C) The buyer must have the solution in place within a tight timeframe and needs the vendor to conform to a rigid schedule
(D) The buyer does not have the personnel to ensure that each step in the process is completed according to specifications
Correct Answer: (A) The buyer knows exactly what is needed and wants no variance from the specifications
Explanation: A design scope of work shows specifically what is to be created. The functionality scope of work shows the general functional specifications that the outcome of the project needs to have when complete. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #174
The functional manager is planning the billing system replacement project with the newest project manager at the company. In discussing this project, the functional manager focuses on the cost associated with running the system after it is created and the number of years the system will last before it must be replaced. What best describes what the functional manager is focusing on?
(A) Project life cycle
(B) Product life cycle
(C) Project management life cycle
(D) Program management life cycle
Correct Answer: (B) Product life cycle
Explanation: The product life cycle focuses on the overall ownership cost of the product of the project, not just the project cost to create the product. The project life cycle involves the processes used to create the product of the project such as the steps to build a house or a computer system. The project management life cycle is the project management approach to the project. Program management life cycle is a distracter.
Exam Tip of the Day #175
Jeff is based in Dallas and is the PM of a project to upgrade the network equipment of over 250 popular retail store locations. He has an accounting team member and an HR team member based in Denver. Jeff estimates that at least 59 network engineers will be required for the multi-state, multi-time zone project. The team will work on the project until all store upgrades are complete. What type of structure is Jeff most likely to use to maximize results?
(A) Projectized
(B) Virtual
(C) Balanced matrix
(D) Departmental
Correct Answer: (B) Virtual
Explanation: A virtual structure will work best since the project has to accommodate people in their local areas. A projectized structure is a possible answer but doesn’t specifically accommodate the varied time zones and states. A balanced matrix structure uses resources from a functional manager. A departmental structure is a distracter.
Exam Tip of the Day #176
The project manager is taking a leave of absence and the company has just designated his replacement. The new project manager is known as a director. Of the following, which best describes negative characteristics of this type of manager?
(A) This style of management is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner
(B) This style of management is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project
(C) This style of management is focused on specific activities and goals and may fail to see opportunities that arise in the project
(D) This style of management is focused on helping employees take on new skills and roles, which may create quality issues
Correct Answer: (C) This style of management is focused on specific activities and goals and may fail to see opportunities that arise in the project
Explanation: The director is focused on specific activities and goals and may fail to see opportunities that arise. The facilitator is not proactive and may fail to avert issues in a timely manner. The visionary is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project. The mentor is focused on helping employees take on new skills and roles that may create quality issues.
Exam Tip of the Day #177
During which process is the stakeholder engagement plan created?
(A) Identify stakeholders
(B) Plan stakeholder engagement
(C) Manage stakeholder engagement
(D) Control stakeholder engagement
Correct Answer: (B) Plan stakeholder engagement
Explanation: The Plan Stakeholder Engagement process creates, among other documentation, the stakeholder engagement plan. The Identify Stakeholders process creates the stakeholder register. The Manage Stakeholder Engagement process creates, among other documentation, change requests and project management plan updates.
Exam Tip of the Day #178
All the following could be considered mediums for communication by a project team member except…
(A) Staff meetings
(B) Email
(C) Message
(D) Video conference
Correct Answer: (C) Message
Explanation: The message is what is actually conveyed in the communication. The other three answers are formats for conveying information.
Exam Tip of the Day #179
Which tool can be used to evaluate what could potentially cause defects in a project or process?
(A) Ishikawa diagram
(B) Cumulative flow diagram
(C) Effect diagram
(D) Kanban board
Correct Answer: (A) Ishikawa diagram
Explanation: An Ishikawa diagram can be used to evaluate what could potentially cause defects in a project or process. A cumulative flow diagram charts the progress of each significant product feature. The effect diagram is a distracter. The Kanban board is used to track workflow.
Exam Tip of the Day #180
The project will be starting the executing process group next week. The project sponsor and project manager have a meeting scheduled with the team and the business units that are impacted by the project. They explain what is expected to occur on the project and how each of the people can help contribute to the success of the project. What is this event called?
(A) Kickoff meeting to officially start the project
(B) An integral part of the team building effort
(C) Perform quality assurance and validate scope
(D) Project management plan development
Correct Answer: (A) Kickoff meeting to officially start the project
Explanation: The kickoff meeting is what is commonly used on a project to formally start the project and it can occur at the beginning of planning or executing depending on priority or approach. It allows the sponsor to set expectations, and the team to learn about details of the plan. Team building occurs in the executing process group, but it’s not as definitive an answer as kickoff meeting. Project management plan development produces a project management plan. Perform Quality Assurance and Validate Scope are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #181
All the following are true about a work breakdown structure (WBS) except…
(A) The project management team and the project manager should be involved in creating it
(B) It will resemble an organizational chart in appearance when complete
(C) Activity sequencing of WBS components requires parallel or concurrent dependencies
(D) It is a decomposition of the work of the project
Correct Answer: (C) Activity sequencing of WBS components requires parallel or concurrent dependencies
Explanation: Answer C is a distracter because it makes no logical sense. The other answers are characteristics of a work breakdown structure (WBS).
Exam Tip of the Day #182
The project is using a new server that cost $25,000. The project manager is told to set up depreciation for the server over a five-year schedule, with the server having a value of $0 at the end of five years. Standard depreciation will be used in the calculation. What is the amount per year the server will depreciate?
(A) $5,000
(B) $10,000
(C) $2,500
(D) Not enough information
Correct Answer: (A) $5,000
Explanation: To calculate this value, determine a few values first. What is the value of the asset at the end of the schedule? What is the amount of the asset to begin with? What is the number of years of the depreciation schedule? First, subtract the ending value of the asset from the beginning value of the asset ($25K - $0 = $25K). The $25K is then divided by the years (5) of the depreciation schedule. This calculation results in $5K per year of depreciation.
Exam Tip of the Day #184
While establishing an overall picture of process output over time, the team plots a chart based on the data available. The plotted chart has seven consecutive data points on one side of the mean. What can be determined from the plotted chart?
(A) The control limits are too tight
(B) The control limits are acceptable
(C) The control limits are too loose
(D) A seven-run rule violation has occurred
Correct Answer: (D) A seven-run rule violation has occurred
Explanation: The seven-run rule has been violated. This doesn’t necessarily mean there is a problem, but at a minimum a situation that warrants investigation to see if there is a problem and the specific details.
Exam Tip of the Day #185
The project manager is discussing risk with a risk-averse stakeholder regarding the market expansion project. The stakeholder has been exposed to project management concepts, but wants to know more about management reserves. The project manager explains that management reserves are created specifically for…
(A) Risk events you know can occur on the project
(B) Risk events you cannot logically forecast for the project
(C) Risk events that do occur with a cumulative cost greater than the amount set aside in management reserves
(D) Risk events that do occur with a cumulative cost greater than the amount set aside in contingency reserves
Correct Answer: (B) Risk events you cannot logically forecast for the project
Explanation: Management reserves are created for unknown unknowns: risk events you cannot forecast for the project. Contingency reserves are created for known unknowns: risk events you know can occur during the project. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #186
Of the following, what best represents a contract component and the reason for including it in a contract between a buyer and vendor in connection with the purchase of a debit card add-on system?
(A) Share because the buyer needs the work done in a timely manner
(B) Incentive because the buyer needs the costs to come in as low as possible
(C) Incentive because the buyer needs the work done with minimal resources
(D) Share because the buyer needs the costs to come in as low as possible
Correct Answer: (D) Share because the buyer needs the costs to come in as low as possible
Explanation: A share is a contract component that divides any remaining money between the buyer and the seller. It is normally a negotiated split between the two parties. It is typically different from a traditional incentive fee in that an incentive fee pays compensation based on certain measurable performance metrics that have been established and agreed upon.
Exam Tip of the Day #187
Which of the following best describes Regulatory requirements?
(A) Enterprise environmental factor
(B) Process
(C) Organizational process asset
(D) Document
Correct Answer: (A) Enterprise environmental factor
Explanation: An enterprise environmental factor is a factor that cannot be controlled by the project team but has a significant impact on how the project is managed or on the outcome of the project. A process asset is a plan, process, policy, procedure, or knowledge base specific to and used by the performing organization. A process is comprised of sequential procedures that are performed to convert inputs into outputs. A document is a material substance that contains a representation of a thought or thoughts.
Exam Tip of the Day #188
What is the ideal project manager function regarding project changes?
(A) To delay changes so the project can be completed
(B) To control unnecessary change
(C) To prevent the change control board from seeing any more change than it needs to see
(D) To expedite all change requests to the change control board
Correct Answer: (B) To control unnecessary change
Explanation: The main job of a project manager, other than managing the project itself, is to control unnecessary changes that can derail the project. Delaying changes and protecting the change control board from changes are both unprofessional. Expediting changes to the CCB is not a bad answer but not the best because it doesn’t help in controlling unnecessary change.
Exam Tip of the Day #189
Which of the following are the processes in the resource knowledge area?
(A) Identify stakeholders, plan resource management, acquire resources, develop team, manage team, control resources
(B) Plan resource management, acquire resources, develop team, monitor project team
(C) Plan resource management, estimate activity resources, acquire resources, develop team, manage team, control resources
(D) Plan resource management, acquire resources, train project team, manage project team
Correct Answer: (C) Plan resource management, estimate activity resources, acquire resources, develop team, manage team, control resources
Explanation: The six processes in the Resource knowledge area are Plan Resource Management, Estimate Activity Resources, Acquire Resources, Develop Team, Manage Team, and Control Resources. Identify Stakeholders comes from the Stakeholder knowledge area. Monitor project team and train project team are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #190
Given the complex nature of projects, which area of change generally has the highest impact?
(A) A change in the company that is creating the project
(B) A change in the market for which the work of the project is intended
(C) A change in the team on the project
(D) A change in the project
Correct Answer: (B) A change in the market for which the work of the project is intended
Explanation: The highest impact is a change in the market for which the work of the project is intended. A negative change could result in a radically altered or eliminated market. A positive change could result in a totally reinvented market.
Exam Tip of the Day #191
One of the activities a project manager performs on a day-to-day basis is communicating with individual team members, the team, company personnel, vendors, and customers. Approximately how much of a project manager’s job is spent communicating?
(A) At least 30%
(B) Not more than 50%
(C) Approximately 90%
(D) 100%
Correct Answer: (C) Approximately 90%
Explanation: Approximately 90% of a project manager’s time is spent communicating. This could be via email, meetings, listening, speaking, web conference, etc.
Exam Tip of the Day #192
Who is primarily responsible for updating the product backlog?
(A) The product owner
(B) The team
(C) The ScrumMaster
(D) The project manager
Correct Answer: (A) The product owner
Explanation: The product owner is responsible for managing the backlog. The team is responsible for completing sprint work. The ScrumMaster is responsible for maintaining Scrum principles in the project environment. The project manager is responsible for delivering project results in a traditional project environment.
Exam Tip of the Day #193
You have joined a project team to upgrade the network security at your company. You are executing the project management plan and getting project deliverables created. What process do you do next?
(A) Manage project knowledge
(B) Monitor and control project work
(C) Validate scope
(D) Close project or phase
Correct Answer: (A) Manage project knowledge
Explanation: Direct and manage project work is the process that executes the project management plan and creates project deliverables. That process is followed by manage project knowledge. Monitor and control project work follows manage project knowledge. Validate scope is getting customer acceptance of project deliverables after the control quality process. Close project or phase is the formal closing of the project.
Exam Tip of the Day #194
The project manager is in the process of creating the scope statement. There are a number of items that can exist both in the requirements and scope statement. Which of the following items are most likely to be only in the scope statement?
(A) The systems involved in the project
(B) Items to be excluded from the project
(C) Items that are required for the project
(D) The areas of the company impacted by the project
Correct Answer: (B) Items to be excluded from the project
Explanation: There can be some overlap between requirements and the scope statement. The scope statement is typically a summary of intent: what the project will do, include, and exclude. The requirements typically references what the project needs, should do, and should accomplish, with a focus on systems and areas of the company.
Exam Tip of the Day #195
Of the following, which best describes the logic bar chart?
(A) The ideal tool to view activity sequencing
(B) A chart that represents high-level activities and their durations
(C) A chart used to track day-to-day activities
(D) A chart that represents the logical sequence of high-level activities
Correct Answer: (C) A chart used to track day-to-day activities
Explanation: A logic bar chart, sometimes called a Gantt chart, is a common chart used to track the day-to-day details of the project.
Exam Tip of the Day #196
You are having a home theater room added to your house. The project should take five days and cost $1,500 per day to complete. After three days, the project is 30% complete and $5,000 has been spent. What is the ETC?
(A) $11,666.67
(B) $16,666.67
(C) $5,000
(D) $0
Correct Answer: (A) $11,666.67
Explanation: The formula for calculating the ETC (estimate to complete) is ETC = EAC – AC. In this instance five steps are required. First, determine the BAC (budget at completion) by multiplying the cost per day by the number of days it will take to complete the project: $1,500 x 5 = a BAC of $7,500. Second, calculate the EV (earned value) by multiplying the BAC (budget at completion) by the percentage complete: $7,500 BAC x 30% complete = an EV of $2,250. Third, calculate the CPI (cost performance index) by dividing the EV (earned value) by the AC (actual cost): $2,250 EV divided by $5,000 AC = a CPI of .45. Fourth, calculate the EAC (estimate at completion) by dividing the BAC by the CPI: $7,500 / .45 = $16,666.67. Fifth, subtract the AC from the EAC: $16,666.67 - $5,000 = $11,666.67.
Exam Tip of the Day #197
Of the following, which is the best description of the relationship between quality control measurements and the manage quality process?
(A) They are an output of the manage quality process
(B) They can be fed into the manage quality process to validate the efficiency and cost effectiveness of control quality
(C) They are an output of the control quality process
(D) Both A and C
Correct Answer: (B) They can be fed into the manage quality process to validate the efficiency and cost effectiveness of control quality
Explanation: They can be fed into the manage quality process to validate the efficiency and cost effectiveness of the Control Quality process. They are an output of the Control Quality process, but that does not describe the relationship. The other answers are distracters.
Exam Tip of the Day #198
The mobile application transition project is going basically as planned, but a market related risk has occurred: two competitors have merged. While a possible merger was anticipated, there was a great deal of uncertainty as to which competitors would be involved. The team has identified the potential impact. Which of the following will graphically demonstrate the impact to the project and company?
(A) Probability and impact matrix
(B) Tornado diagram
(C) Expected monetary value
(D) Risk register
Correct Answer: (B) Tornado diagram
Explanation: The tornado diagram graphically demonstrates the potential impact of the event to the project and the company via sensitivity analysis. The probability and impact matrix demonstrates the probability and impact of the risk. Expected monetary value (EMV) demonstrates what the opportunity is worth, but doesn’t necessarily show it graphically. The risk register contains all the information about the project risks.
Exam Tip of the Day #199
The project will be using a company to provide the technicians for a national network upgrade project. The buyer is providing to the prospective seller a greatly detailed description of what the buyer wants the seller to do on the project. What type of document is being provided to the seller?
(A) Request for information (RFI)
(B) Request for proposal (RFP)
(C) Invitation for bid (IFB)
(D) Request for quote (RFQ)
Correct Answer: (B) Request for proposal (RFP)
Explanation: A request for proposal (RFP) deals with a detailed, very specific approach to a customized solution. A request for information (RFI) deals with finding potential vendors for consideration for proposals or quotes. A request for quote (RFQ) obtains prices from a company for goods or services. An invitation for bid (IFB) is similar to the RFP but typically used in government contracting.
Exam Tip of the Day #200
What is created in the initiating process group?
(A) Project charter and requirements documentation
(B) Project scope statement and various management plans
(C) Project charter and project knowledge
(D) Project charter and stakeholder register
Correct Answer: (D) Project charter and stakeholder register
Explanation: Answer D contains all documents created during the initiating process group. All others are created during the planning process group.
Exam Tip of the Day #201
Leadership and managerial style evolve within the project management life cycle. Of the following, which is the best description of the evolution of leadership and managerial style?
(A) Directing, coaching, delegation, facilitation, and support
(B) Directing, mentoring, facilitation, and support
(C) Directing, mentoring, delegation, facilitation, and support
(D) Directing, coaching, facilitation, and support
Correct Answer: (D) Directing, coaching, facilitation, and support
Explanation: The evolution of leadership and managerial style starts with directing. As the project gains momentum, coaching is applied. When significant work is completed facilitation comes into play. Support is applied as the project is closing.
Exam Tip of the Day #203
Your company is doing market analysis to see about creating a next generation thermostat that will increase the efficiency of home energy use and can be controlled by a smartphone. While the company is evaluating the market potential for this product and determining its target audience, which of the following stakeholder groups will they likely engage?
(A) Distribution customers
(B) End users
(C) Regulatory agencies
(D) Advertising agencies
Correct Answer: (B) End users
Explanation: Your company will engage the end users, probably selected as a focus group, since they can provide feedback on their interest in purchasing the product. Other stakeholder groups would have either a lesser influence or their influence would be greatest at another point in the project. Distribution customers would influence the product’s deployment. Regulatory agencies would influence product requirements. Advertising agencies would influence the marketing of the product.
Exam Tip of the Day #204
What is the most effective use of feedback on a project?
(A) To give the sender of the message a chance to ensure their message is delivered
(B) To ensure that the receiver of a message understands the message
(C) To give the receiver of the message a chance to get status updates from the sender
(D) To ensure that the sender of the message understands the message
Correct Answer: (B) To ensure that the receiver of a message understands the message
Explanation: It is vital that the receiver correctly interprets the message sent, so the sender requests feedback. The request is typically in the form of asking additional questions to clarify the recipients understanding of the message.
Jesse is a ScrumMaster on a New Blue marketing campaign project. What will Jesse and his team use as a reference to the work in the current iteration?
(A) Sprint backlog
(B) Product backlog
(C) Burnup chart
(D) Burndown chart
Correct Answer: (A) Sprint Backlog
Explanation: The sprint backlog lists all items in the current sprint that the team commits to doing. The product backlog lists all current items that the product owner potentially wants the team to complete. The burnup chart shows points total done across all sprints. The burndown chart shows the points still remaining to do, and the done points in a sprint so far.
Exam Tip of the Day #206
