Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Immunology > Practice Quizzes > Flashcards

Practice Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

A previously healthy 8yo boy upper respiratory virus for first time. During the first few hours of infection of the following events occurs?

A

B. The innate immune system responds rapidly to the viral infection and keep viral infection under control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is a unique property of the adaptive immune system?

A

A. Highly diverse repertoire of specificities for antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A standard treatment of animal bit victims, when there is a possibility animal is infected with rabies is administration of human immunoglobulin preparations containing anti rabies virus antibodies. Which type of immunity would be established by this treatment?

A

B. Passive humoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

15 mo, MMR vaccine. At age 22, living in Mexico that has not been vaccinated and she is exposed to measles. Despite the exposure, she does not become infected. Which of the following properties of the adaptive immune system is best illustrated by this scenario?

A

D. Memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The two major functional classes of effector T lymphocytes are which of the following?

A

A. Helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following best describes clonal expansion in adaptive immune responses?

A

D. Increased number of lymphocytes with identical specificities, all derived from a single lymphocyte stimulated by a single antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following statements about the innate immune system is NOT true?

A

C. Innate immunity is better suited for eliminating virulent, resistant microbes than is adaptive immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

TLRs are a family of homologous receptors expressed on many cell types and are involved in innate immune responses. Ten different mammalian TLRs have been identified, and several ligands for many of these receptors are known. Which of the following is a TLR ligand?

A

D. Unmethylated CpG DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The signaling pathways triggered by TLRs typically result in activation of which of the following pairs of transcription factors?

A

D. NFkB and AP-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following his a receptor on macrophages that is specific for a structure produced by bacteria but not by mammalian cells?

A

D. Mannose receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

APCs perform which of the following functions in adaptive immune responses?

A

C. Display MHC associated peptides on their cell surface for surveillance by T lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A helper T cell response to a protein Ag requires participation of APCs that express which of the following types of molecules?

A

A. Class II MHC and costimulators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which type of APC is most important for activating naive T cells?

A

B. Dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following statements about the Ag-presenting function of macrophages is NOT correct?

A

D. Macrophages express highly variable, high-affinity receptors for many different Ags, and these receptors facilitate the internalization of the antigens for processing and presentation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which one of the following statements about dendritic cells is true?

A

A. Inmature DCs are ubiquitously present in skin and mucousal tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A young adult is exposed to a virus that infects and replicates in mucous epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract. One component of the protective immune response to viral infection is mediated by CD8+ cytolytic T lymphocytes which recognizes and kill the infected cells because of which of the following?

A

B. Mucosal epithelial cells, like all nucleated cells, express class I MHC and are able to process cytoplasmic viral proteins and display complexes of MHC and bound viral peptides on cell surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Naive CD8 cells require signals in addition to TCR recognition of peptide-MHC to become activated and differentiate into CTLs. These signals are called costimulatory signals and provided by professional APCs such as dendritic cells. If a virus infects epithelial cells in the respiratory tract but does not infect pro APCs what process ensures that naive T cells specific for viral antigens will become activated?

A

D. Cross-presentation, whereby infected epithelial cells are captured by dendritic cells, and viral proteins originally synthesized in the epithelial cells are processed and presented in association with class I MHC molecules on the DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is the main criterion that determines whether a protein is processed and presented via the class I MHC pathway in an APC?

A

C. Present in the cytosol of the APC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In the class I MHC pathway of antigen presentation, peptides generated in the cytosol are translocated into the ER in which of the following ways?

A

A. By ATP-dependent transport via the transporter associated with antigen-precoessing (TAP) 1/2 pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In the class I MHC pathway of antigen presentation, cytoplasmic proteins are tagged by proteolytic degradation by covalent linkage with which of the following molecules?

A

D. Ubiquitin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Many vaccines now in development will include highly purified, recombinant, or synthetic peptide antigens. These vaccine Ags are expected to stimulate high specific immune responses but they are less immunogenic than vaccines containing interact killed or live microbes. Adjuvants are substances added to such vaccine to enhance their ability to elicit T cell immune responses. Which of the following statements about adjuvants is NOT correct?

A

E. Adjuvants bind to T cell antigen receptors and promote their proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which one of the following molecules does NOT play an important role in class II MHC pathway of antigen presentation?

A

A. Beta-2 microglobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In a clinical trial of a new antiviral vaccine composed of a recombinant viral peptide and adjuvant, 4% of the healthy recipients did not show evidence of response to the immunization. Further investigation revealed that all the non responders expressed the same, single allelic variant of HLA-DR but all the responders were heterozygous for HLA-DR alleles. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this finding?

A

A. response to the vaccine requires T cell recognition of complexes of the viral peptide with HLA-DR, but the peptide cannot bind to the allelic variant of HLA-DR found in non-responders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A 4yo suffers from an immunodeficiency disease characterized by impaired T cell activation. The disease is caused by genetic deficiency of a membrane protein whose cytoplasmic tail is involved in intracellular signaling in response to TCR recognition of antigen. Which one of the following proteins does NOT fir this description?

A

A. TCRalpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

After 2 years of hard work, a grad student final creates a gene knockout mouse lacking CD4. The student is particularly careful to keep this mouse lying in a microbe free animal facility because these mice are expected to show?

A

B. impaired ability to produce antibodies and activate macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A 4 yo girl stepped on a rusty nail in her backyard. 2 days later, she is taken to the pediatrician because her heel is painful (no shit), red and swollen and warm to the touch. All of the following mechanisms of innate immunity that may be protecting the patient against pathogenic microbes in the heel wound EXCEPT:

A

E. Circulating anti-tetanus toxin Abs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A 67yo homeless man is brought to the ER after being found behind a neighborhood bar in freezing weather. On arrival, he has a shaking chill, fever, and cough productive of blood-tinged sputum. Chest X-ray shows lobar consolidations consistent with bacterial pneumonia. Blood cultures are positive for streptococcus pneumonia. Which of the following molecular patterns recognized by TLRs expressed on the surface of this patient’s phagocytes is important for activating his innate immune system against this gram-positive bacterial infection?

A

A. Peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

43yo man hx of kidney transplant is immunosuppressive drugs. He presents to ER 84 days after transplantation with slight fever, shaking chills, rapid HR, dangerously low BP. culture positive for gram negative. Initially alert and responsive to fluids and antibiotic therapy, rapidly deteriorates into disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), hypoglycemia, and cardiovascular failure. Which of the following is an essential mediator of said patient’s condition?

A

B. TNF-alpha

29
Q

The principal function of the immune system is

A

C. Defense against microbial infections

30
Q

Previously healthy 8yo boy is infected with an upper respiratory tract virus for the first time. During the first few hours of infection, which one of the following events occurs?

A

B. The innate immune system responds rapidly to the virus and keeps the viral infection under control

31
Q

Antibodies and T cells are respective mediators of which two types of immunity?

A

D. Humoral and cell-mediated

32
Q

A vaccine administered in the autumn of one year may protect against the prevalent strain of influenza virus that originated in Hong Kong that same year, but it will not protect against another strain of influenza virus that originated in Russia. This phenomenon illustrates which property of the adaptive immune system?

A

A. Specificity

33
Q

Which of the following cell types is required for all humoral immune responses?

A

D. B lymphocytes

34
Q

During a humoral immune response to a newly encountered bacterial infection, B cells are first stimulated to proliferate and then secrete antibodies specific for the bacterium. The antibodies may then bind to the bacteria and facilitate ingestion of the microbes by phagocytic cells. In what phase of the humoral immune response does the binding of secreted antibodies to bacteria occur?

A

C. Effector phase

35
Q

Which of the following statements is consistent with the process of clonal selection?

A

E. The diversity of the lymphocyte repertoire for antigens is very large before exposure to antigen, with millions of different clones of lymphocytes, each having a different specificity.

36
Q

In addition to T cells, which cell type is required for initiation of all T cell-mediated immune responses?

A

D. Antigen-presenting cells

37
Q

Interleukin (IL)-2 is a cytokine produced by T lymphocytes that acts as a growth factor for T lymphocytes. A T cell may bind and respond to the same IL-2 molecules it secretes. Which of the following terms best describes this mode of action of a cytokine?

A

C. Autocrine

38
Q

Which one of the following pairs of cytokines has the most redundant functions in innate immune responses?

A

B. TNF and IL-1

39
Q

Anti-tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antibodies are now used in the treatment of patients with rheumatoid arthritis. A complication of this therapy, seen in a subset of patients, is infections with various microorganisms, including bacteria and fungi. Which of the following is a function of TNF that is important in the defense against infections and is likely to be impaired in the setting of TNF blockade?

A

E. Induction of E-selectin expression on endothelial cells

40
Q

One of the principal functions of interleukin (IL)-12 is to enhance the production of which of the following cytokines by natural killer (NK) cells and T lymphocytes?

A

E. IFN-gamma

41
Q

A 19-year-old woman sees the physician because of severe systemic Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare infections. She had a history of three similar mycobacterial infections between the ages of 4 and 17 years and severe systemic Salmonella type B infections when she was 4, 7, and 14 years of age. No abnormalities in numbers or cell surface markers of T cells, B cells, natural killer cells, or macrophage cells were detectable. Mononuclear cells from the patient’s blood produced very little IFN-gamma in response to various stimuli when compared with cells from a healthy donor. The patient responded well to treatment with antibiotic therapy. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s medical history?

A

C. Defect in cytotoxic T lymphocyte function

42
Q

Which of the following is a mechanism by which the type I interferons IFN-alpha and IFN-beta function to eradicate viral infections?

A

D. Enhance class I MHC expression

43
Q

Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is characterized by a dysregulated inflammatory response in the intestinal mucosa, including abnormally high expression of various inflammatory cytokines by macrophages. Which one of the following cytokines is the most logical choice as a potential therapeutic agent for IBD?

A

B. IL-10

44
Q

Which of the following cytokines is NOT a product of antigen-activated T cells?

A

E. IFN-alpha

45
Q

A 3-month-old boy is taken to the pediatrician because of diarrhea, failure to thrive, mucocuta neous candidiasis, and respiratory syncytial virus infection. Laboratory analyses indicate an absence of T cells, normal numbers of B cells, but very low immunoglobulin levels. This clinical presentation is consistent with a mutation in the gene encoding a signaling chain shared by which of the following groups of cytokine receptors?

A

A. IL-2, IL-4, and IL-7

46
Q

Which type of white blood cell is most numerous in normal human blood?

A

D. Neutrophil

47
Q

Which of the following cell types do NOT have clonally distributed antigen receptors?

A

A. Natural killer cells

48
Q

In the blood of a healthy individual, the most abundant type of lymphocyte is the:

A

A. CD4+T cell

49
Q

A 52-year-old man who receives radiation therapy and cytotoxic drugs for treatment of cancer sustains significant damage to his bone marrow. Which of the following changes will most likely occur?

A

A. Decreased production of B lymphocytes but not T lymphocytes

50
Q

In DiGeorge syndrome, the thymus fails to develop. Which of the following characterizes the immuno-deficiency state in this syndrome?

A

C. Deficiency in T lymphocytes and associated defects in cell-mediated immunity

51
Q

Which of the following statements about memory cells is NOT true?
A. Memory cells can survive for several years.
B. Memory cells are responsible for the more rapid and enhanced responses to antigen
upon secondary exposure, as compared with primary responses.
C. Memory cells can be distinguished from naive cells by the expression of certain cell
surface molecules.
D. Memory cells continuously produce effector cytokines.
E. Many memory cells express adhesion molecules that favor their migration to
peripheral sites of infection.

A

D. Memory cells continuously produce effector cytokines.

52
Q

Mononuclear phagocytes participate in adaptive immune responses in each of the following ways EXCEPT:

A

E. antigen-specific killing of virus-infected cells

53
Q

Tissue macrophages are derived from which type of circulating blood cell?

A

C. Monocytes

54
Q

Which of the following is the generative lymphoid organ for T lymphocytes?

A

D. Thymus

55
Q

All of the following protein-protein interactions are involved in activation of naive helper T cells by antigen-presenting cells (APCs) EXCEPT:

A

E. Binding of CD40L on the T cell with CD40 on the APC

56
Q

Which one of the following statements about T cells involved in an immune response is NOT true?

A

C. Memory T cells generated during a primary immune response express high levels of interleukin-2 receptors and actively proliferate long after the primary response is
completed.

57
Q

Which one of the following statements about the molecules B7-1 and B7-2 is NOT true?

A

C. Either B7-1 or B7-2, but not both, is expressed on activated APCs.

58
Q

Which one of the following descriptions of class I MHC molecules is NOT true?

A

D. Class I MHC molecules are normally expressed only on dendritic cells and other
professional APCs.

59
Q

Which of the following statements about class II MHC molecules is NOT true?

A

E. Class II MHC molecules are not expressed on cells that express class I MHC molecules.

60
Q

The three major families of antigen-binding molecules in the adaptive immune system are:

A

D. Antibodies, T cell receptors, and MHC molecules

61
Q

Which of the following statements about antibodies is NOT true?

A

C. They are specific for proteins and polysaccharides exclusively.

62
Q

Detection of antibodies specific for a particular microbe is commonly used as evidence of prior infection by that microbe. To obtain these antibodies, blood is collected into tubes and allowed to clot. Antibodies are found in the fraction of the blood that remains fluid after clotting. What is this fluid fraction called?

A

A. Plasma

63
Q

All of the following accurately describe the basic symmetric core structure of an antibody molecule EXCEPT:

A

D. Covalent bonds between light chains

64
Q

The structure of which portion of an antibody defines its isotype?

A

C. The constant regions of the heavy chains

65
Q

Which of the following is the major significance of isotypic differences between antibodies?

A

D. Function and bodily distribution of antibodies are determined by isotype.

66
Q

Toll-like receptors and other receptors are potent activators of various components of the innate immune system. All of the following proteins are expressed in response to signaling by these receptors EXCEPT:

A

E. CD28

67
Q

Complement activation in the innate immune system can be initiated in the absence of antibody. Which of the following molecular components of the complement system is involved in initiation of antibody-independent complement activation?

A

C. Mannose binding lectin

68
Q

Macrophages and neutrophils express several enzymes that are involved in biochemical mechanisms that kill ingested microbes. Which of the following is NOT an enzyme expressed by these cells?

A

B. Granzyme B

Immunology (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions