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Private & Commercial Pilot (DA 40NG) > PPL Oral - Aircraft Systems (DA 40NG) > Flashcards

PPL Oral - Aircraft Systems (DA 40NG) Flashcards

Objective: To obtain an in depth understanding of how aircraft systems work generally, with a heavy focus on the DA40 NG

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

What are the 3 primary flight control surfaces and what do they do?

A
  1. Ailerons (Roll)
  2. Elevator (Pitch)
  3. Rudder (Yaw)
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2
Q

What is Trim and what is it for?

A
  1. Small, adjustable, hinged surfaces on the aileron, rudder, or elevator (most common).
  2. Used for fine tuning of controls to relieve pressure on the controls.
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3
Q

What flight controls are operated via Cable connections on the DA 40NG?

A
  1. Rudder
  2. Pitch Trim Tab
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4
Q

What flight controls are operated via Pushrod connections on the DA 40NG?

A
  1. Ailerons
  2. Elevator
  3. Flaps (electronic)
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5
Q

How are the flaps operated on the DA 40NG?

A

They are electronically controlled by pushrods AND they are interconnected.

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6
Q

What are flaps and what are they for?

A
  1. Flaps are moveable panels on the inboard trailing edge of the wings
  2. When lowered they increase lift and drag, enabling us to make a steeper descent without a large increase in airspeed
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7
Q

What type of landing gear does the DA 40NG have?

A

1.Fixed Tricycle gear
- Spring steel strut Main Gear
- Free-castering Nose Wheel

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8
Q

Describe the Break System diagram for the DA 40NG.

A

DRAW IT OUT!
(at least do so in your head)

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9
Q

How does the breaking action occur on the DA 40NG?

A

Hydraulic fluid provides pressure to break disks and pads which squeez the wheel and the resutling friction causes the plane to stop.

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10
Q

If it can be said that the right seat breaks work, what conclusion can be made about the left seat breaks and why?

In the DA40 NG

A
  1. If the Right seat breaks work then you know the Left seat breaks work also.
  2. This is because the the breaks lines run through the Left TO the right. (The right seat breaks are connected to the rest of the system through the left seat breaks)
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11
Q

What effect does NOT having Wheel Fairings have on the DA 40NG?

A
  1. It increases drag and reduces our True Airspeed by 4%
  2. It decreases our glide distance
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12
Q

Normally, what color is Hydraulic fluid?

A

Red or pinkish

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13
Q

How do you steer the DA 40NG?

A
  1. Differential toe breaking at low speeds.
  2. Rudder at high speeds
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14
Q

What are the specific things you need to know a about the DA 40NG engine?

A
  1. NAME: Austro E4-A
  2. 165 Horsepower
  3. Four Cylinder
  4. Inline
  5. Common Rail Direct Fuel Injection
  6. Dual Digital Engine Control (2 ECUs)
  7. Vibration damper isolates engine from prop
  8. Its Turbo Charged
  9. Liquid cooled
  10. It has glow plugs instead of spark plugs

Get at least 7 of theses correct

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15
Q

How long can you set the power to 100% in the DA 40NG?

A

5 mins max.

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16
Q

What is Max continuous power (generally and specifically)

A
  1. The power setting at which the aircraft is designed to operate continuously
  2. It is 92% (2100 RPM) in the DA 40NG
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17
Q

What are the four cycles of an internal combustion engine?

A
  1. Intake (air and fuel)
  2. Compression
  3. Ignition (power stroke)
  4. Exhaust
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18
Q

How does combustion happen in the DA 40NG?

A

Combustions occurs by high compression in the cylinders

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19
Q

What is unique about the Austro E4-A compared to most GA aircraft?

A
  1. Its a Turbo-Diesel
  2. Its liquid cooled
  3. It uses Jet fuel
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20
Q

What does a Carburetor do?

A

Ads fuel to the air intake, providing the fuel/air mixture needed to induce combustion

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21
Q

How does Carburetor heat work?

A

Opening the Carb Heat valve allows hot, unfiltered air from around the engine to enter the air intake just before running through the Carburetor

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22
Q

What effect will Carb Heat have on your engine?

A

Carb Heat will result in a loss of engine power (up to 15%) due to the fact that warm air is less dense than cool air.

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23
Q

What does the Throttle due in the DA 40NG?

A

Adjusts engine power/load through…

  1. Mixture
  2. Prop pitch
  3. RPM

All done automatically through the ECUs

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24
Q

What does Mixture control do?

The DA40 NG does not have a mixture control knob

A

Regulates the fuel to air ratio

DA 40 NG: The fuel/air mixture is controlled automatically by the ECUs

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25
Q

What is a lean Mixture?

A

Less fuel is being introduced into the engine

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26
Q

What is a Rich Mixture?

A

More fuel is being introduced into the engine

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27
Q

Why, if unchanged, will the mixture become too rich at higher altitudes?

A

Because air is less dense at higher altitudes, resulting in an excessively rich mixture.

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28
Q

What are Glow Plugs?

A
  1. Devices used to heat up the cylinder in a diesel engine to a point at which combustion can freely occur
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29
Q

What are the advantages of having Magnetos AND multiple Spark Plugs per cylinder?

A
  1. Increased safety, redundancy in case of failure
  2. More complete and even combustion will improve performance
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30
Q

What type of fuel system does the DA 40NG have?

A

Electrical and engine powered fuel pump common rail injection system

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31
Q

Describe the Fuel Schematic for the DA 40NG

A

DRAW IT OUT!
(at least in your head)

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32
Q

How fast does the fuel flow through our fuel lines in the following scenarios?

  1. Fuel Pump switch set to ON
  2. Fuel Selector Emergency & Fuel Pumps Off
A
  1. Fuel Pumps on = 60-63 gal PER HOUR (up to 71gph according to the diamond slideshow)
  2. Fuel Selector Emergency & Fuel Pumps Off = 45 gal PER HOUR
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33
Q

Approximately how fast does our Fuel Transfer Pump transfer fuel between tanks?

A

At about 1gal PER MIN or 60 gal per hour

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34
Q

When the Fuel Selector Valve is on Normal, which fuel tank is the engine running on?

A

The left wing tank

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35
Q

How many fuel pumps does our aircraft have?

A

There are 4:

  1. High pressure engine driven fuel pump
  2. ECU A fuel pump
  3. ECU B fuel pump
  4. Fuel Transfer Pump
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36
Q

Will you be able to transfer fuel from the Right tank to the Left (main tank) tank if the Fuel Transfer Pump is broken?

A

Yes
1. By turning the fuel selector valve to Emergency

  1. Now the engine will draw fuel from the Right tank and the excess will flow into the Left tank
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37
Q

Which tank is our Main fuel Tank?

A

The Left wing fuel tank

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38
Q

What happens when the fuel selector valve is switched to Emergency?

A
  1. Engine will use fuel from the Right tank
  2. Excess fuel gets dumped into the Left tank and will overflow eventually
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39
Q

How much fuel can each tank hold?

A

19.5 gal

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40
Q

What is our max indicated fuel?

A

28 gal total, 14 gal per tank

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41
Q

What is our max Usable Fuel?

A

39 gal

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42
Q

What is our full fuel amount?

A

41 gal (39 usable)

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43
Q

What is the maximum fuel imballance?

A

9 gal

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44
Q

When the Right tank is full, how will you know when you have reached the maximum fuel imbalance?

A

At about 10 gal indicated in the Left tank

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45
Q

How long will the main battery last if your alternator fails?

A
  1. 30 mins at most
    BUT
  2. There is NO guarantee because the battery may be old
    *After the Main Battery is drained, the engine will be powered by the ECU backup batteries.
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46
Q

How long will the Backup ECU batteries last?

A

About 30 mins

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47
Q

How long will the Emergency Battery last

A

About 1.5hrs

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48
Q

What happens if you leave the Fuel Transfer Pump on indefinitely?

A

It will eventually stop once the Left tank becomes full at 19.5 gal.

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49
Q

What happens to the Fuel Return when the Fuel Selector is in the Emergency Position?

A
  1. It will continue to transfer fuel to the Left tank through the return line
  2. The Left tank will eventually fill and start to overflow through the fuel dump
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50
Q

Since our max indicated fuel per tank is 14gal, what must we do to determine the actual amount of fuel in each tank?

A

You must use the fuel quantity measuring device and the AFM to find the exact fuel available.

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51
Q

What is especially unique about the Austro E4-A engine?

A

Its a Turbo-Diesel

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52
Q

What color is Jet fuel?

A

Clear to straw colored

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53
Q

What position must the rear door be in when flying?

A

Unlocked

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54
Q

Above what RPM is considered Propeller Overspeed?

A

Above 2300 RPM

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55
Q

What happens if you move the throttle to full too quickly?

A

You risk Propeller Overspeed

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56
Q

What is the max and min oil Quantity ?

A

7L = Max
5L = Min

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57
Q

What kind of Oil can we use?

A
  1. 5W-30
  2. 5W-40
  3. OW-40
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58
Q

Will your engine run/start if its accidentally fueled with AvGas?

A

NO

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59
Q

What powers our standby Attitude Gyro?

A

It is electrically powered

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60
Q

Describe our Propeller

A
  1. NAME: MTV-6
  2. 3 blade
  3. Constant Speed
  4. Hydraulically operated
  5. Wooden (composite) with plastic coating and metal edge
  6. Coated with PU tape near the hub

*They are made this way because they provide the lowest weight, while minimizing vibration

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61
Q

What controls the pitch of the propeller?

A
  1. The ECUs via the prop governor
    How?
  2. Via an electro-mechanical actuator
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62
Q

What type of engine lubricating system does our engine have?

A

Wet Sump

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63
Q

What is a Wet Sump oil system vs a Dry Sump oil system for oil?

A

Wet Sump system = Oil sits in a drain pan
Dry Sump System = Oil sits in a reservoir

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64
Q

What purposes does oil serve for an engine?

A
  1. Lubrication
  2. Cooling
  3. Prevents corrosion
  4. Cleans out contaminants
  5. Seals parts of the engine
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65
Q

What are some secondary flight controls?

A
  1. Trim
  2. Flaps
  3. Spoilers
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66
Q

Why do we sump fuel?

A

To look for…
1. Water
2. Dirt
3. Improper fuel

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67
Q

If the Alternator fails, will our Engine fail as well?

A

Yes
- after the main battery and ECU backup batteries are depleted

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68
Q

What are the 4 main components of an electrical system?

A
  1. Sources (alternator, battery)
  2. Distribution (buses)
  3. Consumers (electronics)
  4. Storage (batteries)
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69
Q

How many batteries does our aircraft have?

A

5 in total:

  1. Main battery (24v 13.6A)
  2. ECU A Backup battery (12V 7.2A )
  3. ECU B Backup battery (12V 7.2A)
  4. Emergency battery (30v)
  5. ELT battery (6v)
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70
Q

s

What is the Voltage/Amps of all 5 batteries on our aircraft?

A
  1. Main Battery - 24V, 13.6A
  2. ECU A Backup battery - 12V, 7.2A
  3. ECU B Backup battery - 12V, 7.2A
  4. Emergency Battery - 30V (Three 10v batteries)
  5. ELT Battery - 6V
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71
Q

How many Volts and Amps is our Alternator?

A

28v
70A

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72
Q

If the Left (main) fuel tank becomes unusable and you have to switch the Selector to Emergency, what happens to your fuel flow?

A

Fuel flow will increase dramatically to about 60 gal per hour (with fuel pumps switched on), or 45 gal per hour (fuel pumps off).

So if you had 15 gal in the R tank, you will only have 15 mins of fuel remaining.

Pumps On: Up to 71gph according to the Diamond Systems slideshow

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73
Q

How many Volts and Amps is our Main Battery?

A

24v
13.6A

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74
Q

If your Alternator fails, what will power your aircraft next, and how long will that last?

A
  1. The Main battery (24v 13.6A) MIGHT last 30 mins
  2. ECU backup batteries will last 30 mins
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75
Q

If your Alternator fails and your Main Battery is emptied, how will the engine be powered and for how long?

A

The ECU Backup Batteries will power ECU B, keeping your engine running for another 30 mins

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76
Q

What is the DA 40NG Gearbox reduction ratio?

A

1:1.69

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77
Q

What exactly does the Gearbox do and why?

A
  1. It ensures that the Prop is at a lower RPM than the engine
  2. This is because automotive engines run at higher RPMs than a Propeller can be efficient at, thereby necessitating the need for an RPM reducer for the propeller.
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78
Q

Where does our prop governor get its oil from?

A

It uses Gearbox oil

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79
Q

What will happen if your ECU B Backup battery fails?

A

ECU A Backup Battery and ECU A will also fail because they are wired in series (together) with ECU Backup Battery B

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80
Q

What will turning on the Essential Bus do?

A
  1. Eliminate all unnecessary electrical equipment to increase battery life
  2. Everything NOT on the Essential Bus circuit breaker will be INOP.
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81
Q

What does a BUS do?

A

It distributes power to the electrical components

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82
Q

What are the 4 divisions of an Electrical System?

A
  1. Power Generation
  2. Storage
  3. Distribution
  4. Consumers
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83
Q

How many BUS’s do we have and what are they?

A

We have 7:

  1. Hot Battery BUS
  2. Battery BUS 1
  3. Battery BUS 2
  4. ECU BUS
  5. Main BUS
  6. Essential BUS
  7. Avionic BUS
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84
Q

What does the Hot Battery Bus do?

A

Distributes power to the…
1. Accessory plug
2. ELT

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85
Q

How is our electrical equipment protected from circuit overload?

A

Via the Circuit Brakers

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86
Q

What does the Ammeter do?

A

It displays..

  1. The current/Amps being supplied to electrical equipment by the Alternator
  2. The electrical load being placed on the alternator for either Consumers or to recharge the battery
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87
Q

What does the Voltmeter do?

A

It Indicates the Voltage of the Alternator under normal conditions, otherwise it shows the voltage of the battery.

  1. When the engine is not running it will read just over 24v, which is the voltage of the battery. (25.1v)
  2. When the engine is running it should read 28v (voltage of our alternator)
88
Q

Why is the Alternator voltage (28v) higher than the Main Battery voltage (24v)?

A

Because the Alternator is intended to keep the Main Battery Charged

89
Q

How does the DA 40NG Cabin Heat work?

A

Air around the Cabin Heat Exchanger heats up from hot coolant and is routed into the cabin

90
Q

What kind of deicing and anti-icing equipment does the DA 40NG have?

A
  1. Pitot Heat (anti icing)
  2. Cabin Heat window defrost (deicing)
  3. Alternate Air
91
Q

Describe how our Cooling system works

A

DRAW IT OUT!
(at least in your head)

92
Q

When does the Thermostat open on our aircraft and what happens?

A
  1. When the engine Temp reaches 80c
  2. Coolant now gets routed through the Radiator
93
Q

What Causes Carburetor icing?

A

Humid air expands rapidly (due to the venturi effect) near the throttle valve, causing a drop in temperature, this leads to the water vapor condensing and if its cold enough it will turn to ice around the throttle valve.

94
Q

What is the first indication of Carburetor icing?

A

Fixed Pitch Prop = A loss of RPM

Constant Speed Prop = Loss of Manifold pressure

95
Q

In an aircraft that is Carburated (not fuel injected) How can you confirm if Carburetor Ice is present?

A
  1. Turn on Carb Heat
  2. RPM/Man Pres will drop further due to the air being warmed
  3. If your RPM/Man Pres INCREASES then you have carburetor ice!
96
Q

What are favorable conditions for Carburetor Icing?

A

Mostly likely to occur..
1. Below 21c
2. Relative humidity above 80%

BUT carb ice can occur in much warmer and dryer conditions than these

97
Q

What is Anti-Icing and Deicing equipment?

A

Anti-Ice = Prevents ice from forming
- Pitot Heat
- Carb Heat
- Windshield defrost

Deicing = Removes existing ice
- Inflatable wing boots

98
Q

What is Detonation

A

Uncontrolled ignition of the Fuel/Air mixture

99
Q

What causes Detonation?

A
  1. Using a lower fuel grade than recommended
  2. Operating at high Manifold Pressure and Low RPM settings
  3. Operating at high power settings with too Lean of a mixture
  4. Extended taxis
  5. Steep climbs where air cooling is reduced and power settings are high

*get at least 3 of these right

100
Q

If you suspect Detonation is occurring in your engine, what should you do?

A
  1. Climb slower and Enrich your mixture
  2. Avoid steep, high power climbs
101
Q

What is Preignition?

A

When the Fuel/Air mixture is ignited too EARLY

102
Q

Why is Preignition bad?

A

Because it causes ignition to happen while the piston head is at or near the top of its cycle, which will create too much pressure in the cylinder.

103
Q

What causes Preignition?

A

Can be caused by..

  1. Carbon deposits creating a hot spot
  2. Cracks in the spark plug
104
Q

What should you do if you suspect you are experiencing Preignition?

A
  1. Reduce power
  2. Reduce climb for betting air cooling
  3. Enrich the mixture to cool down the cylinder
105
Q

What does it mean if your Ammeter reads zero?

A
  1. Inflight - Your Alternator has died. Congrats and don’t panic but your engine will die once the batteries run dry.
  2. Ground - This is normal and just means that the aircraft is using the battery instead of the alternator
106
Q

What type of Ammeter do we have?

A

A Left-Zero Ammeter

107
Q

What instruments use the Pitot Static System?

A
  1. Airspeed Indicator
  2. Altimeter
  3. Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)
  4. ADC
108
Q

What could be suspected if your Oil Pressure is low, but your Oil Temperature is normal?

A
  1. Insufficient or loss of Oil
  2. Clogged Oil system
109
Q

How does an Airspeed Indicator work?

A
  1. Dynamic Pressure (ram air) is fed to the Aneroid Wafer in the Airspeed Indicator from the Pitot Tube and Static Pressure is fed to the Airspeed Indicator chamber through the Static Port. The Aneroid Wafer inflates and deflates as Dynamic Pressure increases or decreases.
  2. The Aneroid Wafer is connected to the Airspeed Indicator needle through a series of gears and linkages.
110
Q

What are the elements of a Pitot Tube?

A
  1. The Tube itself
  2. The drain hole
  3. The heating element
111
Q

What are the 3 kinds of pressure that the Pitot-Static System rely on?

A
  1. Dynamic Pressure (ram air)
  2. Static Pressure (weight of the atmosphere)
  3. Total Pressure (total of Dynamic and static)
112
Q

What type of Pitot-Static Pressure decreases with altitude?

A

Static Pressure (weight of the atmosphere)

  • The higher you go the less atmosphere there is on top of you
113
Q

What will happen to our instrument readings if the Static Port becomes blocked and we have to use Alternate Static Air?

A

All of our instruments will read higher than they actually are.

And VSI will temporarily read a climb

114
Q

Why does the Airspeed Indicator need to be connected to both the Pitot Tube and the Static Port?

A
  1. To get Airspeed readings we need Dynamic Pressure (ram air)

BUT

  1. The Pitot Tube reads both Dynamic and Static Pressure (total pressure)
  2. So the Static pressure is fed to the Airspeed Indicator chamber surrounding the Pitot Tube fed Aneroid Wafer, thereby subtracting Static Pressure from Total pressure to get JUST Dynamic Pressure (ram air)
115
Q

How does an Altimeter work?

A
  1. An Aneroid Wafer that is sealed at 29.92Hg pressure expands and contracts based on the Static Pressure readings provided to the Altimeter Chamber.
  2. When the Static Pressure (atmospheric pressure) is low, the Aneroid Wafer will will expand causing the gears and linkages to move the needle
116
Q

How do you know if the Pitot Heat is working?

A

Amps will increase when we turn Pitot Heat on

117
Q

How does the VSI work?

A
  1. An Aneroid Wafer is connected to the full-flow-instant Static Pressure line that will instantly respond to changes in pressure
  2. There is a Calibrated Pressure Leak line connected to the VSI chamber where Static Pressure changes more slowly than inside the Aneroid Wafer
118
Q

What will happen if the main Pitot Tube port is clogged?

A

EFFECT:
1. Only the Airspeed Indicator will be effected

CAUSE:
2. Drain Hole now acts as an additional Static Port, feeding Static Pressure to the Aneroid Wafer
3. Pressure in the Wafer and the Chamber are now both reading Static Pressure equally

RESULT:
4. Airspeed Indicator now reads ZERO

119
Q

What will happen if both the Pitot Tube and its Drain hole become clogged?

A

EFFECT:
1. Airspeed Indicator will not read accurately

CAUSE:
2. Total Pressure is now trapped in the Aneroid Wafer and remains unchanged
3. Only Static Atmospheric Pressure in the chamber is allowed to change

RESULT
4. Airspeed indicator will be STUCK at the failure speed IF altitude is unchanged
5. Airspeed indicator will now act like an Altimeter
6 Climbing will show an increase in speed, Descending will show a decrease in speed. (this is the opposite of what we would normally expect).

120
Q

What will happen if only the Static Port becomes clogged?

A

EFFECT:
1. Altimeter will freeze where the failure occurred
2. VSI will now always show zero
3. It will be hard to detect an Airspeed change..

CAUSE:
1. Altimeter freezes because the Static Pressure is clogged in the chamber and the Aneroid Wafer is constantly set to 29.92 Hg
2. VSI will now always show zero because the Static Pressure remains unchanged in the wafer
3. The Airspeed Indicator will appear to be working but will actually be inaccurate. This will be hard to detect at first.

RESULT:
1. Altimeter is frozen and will not change
2. VSI will read zero
3. Airspeed Indicator will only read accurately at the failure altitude. Above the failure altitude it will read higher than actual, below, it will read lower than actual. The farther away you get from the failure altitude the more inaccurate the Airspeed

121
Q

Which instruments rely on the Static System?

A
  1. Altimeter
  2. VSI
122
Q

Which instruments rely on the Pitot Tube?

A

Only the Airspeed Indicator

123
Q

If your altimeter setting is 30.14 and your destination altimeter setting is 29.84 and you FAIL to change your altimeter setting, what will happen to your Altimeter?

A
  1. It will read HIGHER than you actually are. In other words you will really be at a lower altitude than you think you are.
  2. “From high to low (pressure), look out below!”
124
Q

If you fly from a Hot area to a Cold area without changing your altimeter setting, what will happen to your Altimeter?

A
  1. It will read Higher than you actually are.
  2. “From Hot to Cold, look out below!”
125
Q

What is Pressure Altitude and how can you determine it?

A
  1. Its the Altitude corrected for Non-Standard Pressure. It is the height above the standard datum plane.

We can find it by…
1. 29.92-current altimeter setting X 1000 and adding the positive or negative value to our Field Elevation
2. Set the Altimeter to ISA, 29.92 and read what altitude shows, this will be Pressure Altitude.

126
Q

What is Density Altitude and how can we find it?

A
  1. Density Altitude is Pressure Altitude corrected for non-standard Temperature.
    - It effects the aircrafts performance in all areas
    - As Density Altitude increases, performance decreases
  2. We find it by using our flight computers to correct Pressure Altitude for Non-Standard temperatures
127
Q

What is Absolute Altitude?

A

Hight above the ground (AGL)

128
Q

What is True Altitude?

A

True altitude is the height above Seal Level (MSL)

129
Q

How does the Altimeter work?

A

By sensing a pressure change between an Aneroid Wafer set constantly to 29.92Hg, and the chamber which is set to changing Static Pressure (atmospheric)

130
Q

How does an Airspeed Indicator work

A

By sensing Dynamic Pressure (ram air) from the Pitot Tube.

This is done by..
1. Total pressure from Pitot Tube is sent to the Aneroid Wafer and Static Pressure is subtracted form Total Pressure by adding it to the surrounding chamber.
2. The result is that we are left with a Dynamic Pressure reading (ram air).

131
Q

What errors may exist with an Airspeed Indicator?

A
  1. Position Error - Static Port readings may be disrupted by slipstream around the aircraft depending on airspeed, altitude, or configuration
  2. Density Error - Changes in Altitude and Temperature are not corrected for by the Static Port
  3. Compressibility Error - Air gets packed into the Static Port when at higher airspeeds, resulting in higher than normal Airspeed readings
132
Q

What are the different types of speed?

A
  1. Indicated Airspeed - The speed read directly from the Airspeed Indicated
  2. Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) - Indicated Airspeed corrected for Installation and Instrument error.
  3. True Airspeed - CAS corrected for Non-Standard temperature and pressure Altitude (the speed the aircraft actually moves through the air)
    - True airspeed increases as altitude increases. This is due to the fact that the air is less dense and therefore more air particles are needed to flow through the Pitot Tube to maintain a particular IAS.
  4. Groundspeed - The speed that the aircraft physically moves over the ground.
    ** It is TAS adjusted for wind.
133
Q

How does the VSI work?

A
  1. The Vertical Speed Indicator works by receiving Static Pressure data from the Static Port into an Aneroid Wafer and a Calibrated leak in the chamber
  2. The instant Static Pressure in the wafer changes against the slowly changing Calibrated pressure Leak in the chamber
134
Q

What are the limitations of the VSI?

A
  1. A 6 to 9 second lag is required to equalize or stabilize the pressure recorded by the Static Port after movement begins
  2. Turbulent air can cause erroneous VSI readings due to the sudden changes in airflow over the Static Port
135
Q

What instruments contain Gyroscopes?

A
  1. Attitude Gyro
  2. Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)
  3. Turn Coordinator
136
Q

What are the 2 fundamental properties of a Gyroscope?

A
  1. Rigidity in Space - The tendency for a spinning object to remain on the plane in which it is spinning (vertical spinning wheel)
  2. Gyroscopic Precession - A force applied to a rotating plane is felt 90 degrees in the plane of rotation
137
Q

How is the rotation for a Gyroscope powered?

A

They can be powered by..
1. Vacuum pressure
2. Electronic

138
Q

How does the G1000 get its instrument readings?

A

Through both the…
1. AHRS (Attitude & Heading Reference System)
2. ADC (Air Data Computer)

139
Q

Which G1000 instruments use AHRS and would be effected in a complete AHRS failure?

A
  1. Attitude indicator
  2. Heading information (HSI)
140
Q

What G1000 instruments use the ADC and would be effected in a complete ADC failure?

A
  1. Airspeed
  2. Altimeter
  3. VSI
  4. TAS
  5. OAT
141
Q

What are the limitations of a traditional Attitude Indicator?

A

If the pitch and bank limits are exceeded it may cause the instrument to start tumbling

142
Q

How does the AHRS system work?

A

It works by using a IMU (Inertial Measurement Unit) that contains Silicon..

  1. Gyroscopes
  2. Accelerometers
  3. Magnetometers
143
Q

How does the ADC work?

A

It converts Pitot-Static data into digital information that is used on the G1000

144
Q

How does the Magnetic Compass work?

A

A magnetized and cardinally labeled device floats inside of a case filled with Kerosene

145
Q

What errors does a Magnetic Compass have?

A
  1. Oscillation error
  2. Deviation error
  3. Variation error

(Do Mona acronym)
DIP ERRORs
4. Acceleration/Deceleration error (ANDS)
5. Northerly Turning error (UNOS)

146
Q

What is Magnetic Compass Oscillation error?

A

Erratic movement of the aircraft caused by turbulence or drastic control inputs cause the compass to oscillate.

147
Q

What is Magnetic Compass Deviation error

A

The electronics inside the aircraft cause the compass to be slightly inaccurate.

148
Q

What are the 2 Magnetic Compass Dip errors?

A

Acceleration/Deceleration error - On EASTERLY or WESTERLY headings, while Accelerating, the compass shows a turn to the north, while Decelerating it shows a turn to the south

A - Accelerate
N - North (needle will turn)
D - Decelerate
S - South (needle will turn)

Northerly Turning error - When turning from south to north, the compass leads the turn. When turning from North to South, the compass lags the turn.

U - Undershoot
N - North (when turning N)
O - Overshoot
S - South (when turning S)

149
Q

How can you ensure that your G1000 databases are up to date?

A

Check the dates of the maps and charts on the MFD’s start up screen

150
Q

What are your standby instruments?

A
  1. Altimeter
  2. Attitude Gyro (electric)
  3. Airspeed Indicator
151
Q

What happens if your PFD or MFD fails?

A
  1. PFD failure - You can press the red Display Backupbutton to show a combined PFD/MFD on the right screen
  2. MFD Failure - The engine parameters will now be displayed in a hybrid screen on your PFD.
152
Q

What is the FMS?

A

Flight Management System
- Allows us to program routes, approaches, departures.
- Calculates fuel consumption and time remaining
- Provides data to the Flight Director and Autopilot

153
Q

What are the two types of ADS-B equipment?

A

ADS-B OUT - Transmits your GPS position, altitude and velocity to ATC ground stations as well as other aircraft. Required where ever a transponder is required.

ADS-B IN -Receives ADS-B OUT signals from other aircraft to inform a Traffic Display. Provides FIS-B and TIS-B

154
Q

What is TIS-B?

A

Traffic Information Services Broadcast

  1. Enables the inflight receipt of traffic that does not have ADS-B but is Transponder equipped AND within ATC radar coverage
  2. Bridges the gap between ADS-B and Transponder/Radar aircraft
155
Q

What are the limitations of TIS-B?

A
  1. In addition to ADS-B traffic, TIS-B allows us to see Transponder ONLY aircraft, but ONLY IF they are within ATC radar range
  2. TIS-B shadows may appear of your own aircraft
  3. TIS-B traffic data may be up to 15 seconds delayed depending on radar quality
156
Q

Will the parking break work if the Breaks fail?

A

No

157
Q

What effect will turning the Electric Master off have on the aircraft?

A

It will basically cause a total electrical failure

158
Q

How could using the Autopilot negatively impact risk?

A
  1. Cause complacency via overreliance
  2. Degrade our stick and rudder skills
  3. Unexpectedly having to reprogram an FMS while in flight may distract us from flying the plane
159
Q

Where is the Air Inlet for the Engine Induction system?

A

Front righthand side of the engine cowling

160
Q

Where is the Air Inlet for the Radiator Cooling system?

A

Lower front of the engine cowling

161
Q

Where is the Air Inlet for the Intercooler?

A

On the upper front side of the engine cowling, on the righthand side

162
Q

Where is the Air Inlet for GearBox cooling?

A

On the upper front side of the engine cowling, on the right hand side, closest to the propeller.

163
Q

Describe how our Turbocharger works.

A

DRAW IT OUT!
(or at least do so in your head)

In the DA40 NG, when the waste gate is OPEN, the air flows throught the exhaust, when the waste gate is CLOSED, air flows through the turbine

164
Q

What is a Turbocharger for?

A

It allows us to be less effected by degradations in aircraft performance due to changes in altitude or high Density Altitude.

165
Q

Explain the BASIC concept of what a turbocharger does

A

It works by compressing the air tightly, simulating low altitude conditions

166
Q

What is an Intercooler and why do we have one?

A

The intercooler is part of the Turbo system
1. It allows us to have even more engine power and performance by cooling the air, since cold air is more dense than warm air.

*it essentially compresses the air even further.

167
Q

Where is the Air Inlet for the Cabin Air Heater?

A

On the upper front left portion of the engine cowling, farthest from the propeller.

168
Q

What Antennas are located on the top of the aircraft, tail included?

A
  1. GPS (canopy)
  2. COMM 1 (middle)
  3. VHF & NAV (tail)
169
Q

What Antennas or located on the bottom of the aircraft?

A
  1. Transponder (bottom front)
  2. Marker Beacon (part of the ILS system) (middle)
  3. COMM 2 (rear)
170
Q

What are the two types of ECU failures?

A
  1. Latched - Remains until cleared by MX
  2. Non-Latched - Disappears when cleared through an SOP/FOM by the pilot
171
Q

Where is the ELT antenna located?

A

It is internal to the aircraft, behind the baggage compartment (near COMM 1)

172
Q

What is the Autopilot Minimum Engagement Height for the G1000?

A

800ft AGL

173
Q

What is the Autopilot Minimum use Height?

A

200ft AGL

174
Q

What is an electrical Load?

A

It is basically the consumption or ‘power draw’ of an electrical component such as your Position Lights or battery charging.

175
Q

How would you know if there is an issue with your main battery?

A

Voltmeter will read about 2v lower than normal (28v while engine running)

176
Q

Why are Diesel engines more efficient?

A
  1. Higher Compression ratio
  2. Jet fuel (Diesel) fuel is more energy dense than gasoline, due to having longer chains of hydro carbons.
  3. Ignition happens more quickly and evenly due to compression ignition (instantaneous) vs spark ignition (longer burn).
177
Q

What systems rely on the ECU to function?

A
  1. Prop governor
  2. Fuel System
    * ECU pumps
    * Fuel/Air mixture
    * Common Rail Fuel pressure
  3. Turbocharger - Wastegate
  4. Glow Plugs
178
Q

What will Detonation lead to?

A
  1. Excessive Temperatures
  2. Excessive Pressure
  3. Engine failure
  4. Engine roughness
  5. Loss of power
179
Q

What is a major disadvantage of a traditional gyroscopic HSI?

A

It suffers from Gyroscopic Drift, resulting in the need to correct it with the Magnetic Compass

180
Q

What type of Ailerons does the DA 40NG have?

A

A combination of Differential and Frise Type Ailerons

  1. Differential because the aileron on the outside of the turn deflects down LESS than the aileron on the inside of the turn deflects UP. This is to counteract Adverse Yaw
  2. Frise because we have a drag producing structure (scoop) that descends into the airflow on the up moving aileron
181
Q

What are Differential Ailerons?

A

The Aileron on the inside of the turn (up aileron) moves up MORE than the aileron on the outside of the turn moves DOWN.

This is done to counteract Adverse Yaw
- Adverse Yaw is caused by the down aileron on the outside of the turn producing more lift AND drag which causes the nose to rise.

182
Q

What are Frise type Ailerons?

A

A portion of the UP aileron on the inside of the turn dips below the wing creating more drag to counteract Adverse Yaw

183
Q

How fast does the High Pressure engine driven fuel pump fuel through the system?

A

AFM

At about 45 gallons per hour

184
Q

When the DA40 NG has an Alternator failure (or the engine is not running on the ground) what is giving power to the ECUs?

A

The Main Battery

185
Q

What does switching the Electronic Master to OFF, ON, and START do? (DA40 NG)

A
  1. OFF - Disconnects battery power to distribution systems (buses)
  2. ON - Connects battery power to the distribution systems (buses)
    START - For starting the engine (engages the Starter?)
186
Q

Which ECU Backup Battery would be worse to lose?

A

ECU Backup Battery B

Because Both Battery A & B are wired in series. (one after the other)
And power runs through B first.

187
Q

What materials is our propeller made out of?

A

Name: MTV-6

Wood composite with fiber reinforced plastic coating and metal leading edge protection, it is coated with PU tape near the hub

188
Q

Why do we have to wait 1 min if we run the engine above 10% Load while on the ground after landing? (DA40 NG)

A

To allow for the Turbo Charger to slowly cool

Running the engine at high power settings without sufficient airflow may overheat the Turbo

189
Q

What does turning the Fuel Pump switch to ON do?

A

It turns BOTH ECU A & B fuel pumps on.

Otherwise just one ECU pump will always be on.

190
Q

What does the Emergency Battery power?

A
  1. Standby Attitude Indicator
  2. Flood light
    *it will last for 1.5hrs.
191
Q

What does Battery Bus 1 do, and what controls it?

A

Provides power to Battery Bus 2 and to the Starter

Controlled by the Electronic Master Switch

192
Q

What does Battery Bus 2 do?

A

Gets its power from Battery Bus 1 and provides it to the ECU Bus and to the Main Bus

**Power to the Main Bus is controlled by the Electronic Master and the Essential Bus Switch

192
Q

What does the HOT Battery Bus do?

A

It provides power to the Accessory Plug and the ELT

193
Q

What does the ECU Bus do?

A

Gets its power from Battery Bus 2 and provides it to the EECUs and the ECU Fuel pumps, as well as charging the ECU backup batteries

**It is connected to the Alternator so that it can charge the backup batteries
** Engine Master must be on to activate power to ECU A & B.

194
Q

What does the Main Bus do?

A

Gets its power from Battery Bus 2 and provides it to all consumers on the Main Bus CB panel, it also provides power to the Avionic Bus and its consumers.

195
Q

What does the Essential Bus do?

A

Gets its power from the Main Bus and provides power to its ‘essential’ consumers (normal ops)
**In the event of an Alternator failure, the Essential Bus is turned on and NOW connected to Battery Bus 2 for power
**Avionics master must be set to on for the Essential Bus to connect to it.

196
Q

What does turning on the Essential Bus do?

A

It disconnects the Main Bus and its equipment from the electrical system, therefore no power will be provided to the Main Bus.

This allows for us to keep priority equipment running & decreases the overall electrical load on the battery

197
Q

What type of fuselage and empenage construction does the DA40 NG employ?

A

Semi-Monocoque

Meaning that the skin of the aircraft is supported internally by oval bulkheads which are further supported by connecting stringers and longerons.

198
Q

How are the Ailerons moved?

A

(AFM)
Control Rods connected to the stick

199
Q

How is the Rudder moved?

A

Through cables connected to the stick

200
Q

How are the flaps operated?

A

Electronically through interconnected push rods

201
Q

How is the elevator moved?

A

Control Rods connected to the stick

202
Q

What is the HP of the Austro E4-A engine?

A

165 HP

203
Q

What emergency equipment is available onboard the DA40 NG?

A
  1. First Aid kit in the cargo compartment
  2. Fire Extinguisher behind the co-pilots seat
  3. Crash Axe underneath the co-pilots seat
  4. Emergency exit on the ceiling of the rear door.
204
Q

What kind of Flaps does the DA 40 NG have?

A

Hybrid between Split flaps and Plane flaps

They are split flaps near the fuselage where the flaps blend into the wing, and plane flaps elsewhere

205
Q

What type of Ailerons do we have?

A

We have Differential and Frise type Ailerons

Differential because the Ailerons do no extend upwards the same number of degrees that they extend downwards (this is to counteract adverse yaw)
Frise type because the Ailerons have an air scoop under them

206
Q

What is one very important thing to remember in regards to the operation of Pitot Heat and icing conditions?

A

Pitot Heat is Anti-Icing, therefore, it is not an effective or guaranteed way to remove already accumulated ice.

**It is recommended to turn on Pitot Heat anytime the OAT is 5c or below (AOPA)

207
Q

Describe the layout of the G1000 system in the DA40 NG

A

Draw it out
(at least in your head)

208
Q

What is the Glide Ratio of the DA 40 NG?

A

Glide ratio is 9.4

For every 1,000FT of altitude lost, 1.54 NM distance can be gained

209
Q

What is the Maximum allowable Oil Consumption rate per hour?

A

AFM

0.1 Liters per hour

210
Q

What is the maximum amount of time the starter can be engaged (Key ignition on START position) and what is the required cooldown time??

A

AFM

Starter can be engaged for a maximum of 10 seconds, after which a 60 second cooldown is required.

**This is to ensure no damage is done to the starter

211
Q

What type of Autopilot does our aircraft have?

A

GFC 700

212
Q

You are flying an aircraft in cold conditions and notice your oil temperature is lower than normal, what could be the possible cause?

A

The wrong oil viscosity is being used for cold temps

213
Q

Why is it important that we turn off the Air Conditioner (Aux PWR) durring take off and landing?

A

Engine will not have full power available because it is being used to power the Air Conditioner

214
Q

As fuel is consumed enroute, what action should be taken as the aircraft becomes lighter?

A

Decrease power to maintain a constant airspeed for maximum efficiency
* As weight decreases, optimum airspeed and power setting may also decrease

PHAK Pg 11-10 & 11-11

215
Q

When the Turbocharger fails, will the Waste Gate be open or closed?

A

The Waste Gate will fail in the Closed position, which allows for all the exhaust gas to flow through the turbine, which will power the compressor

216
Q

What are stall strips for & how do they work?

A

Purpose
* To make a stall more controllable by ensuring the wing stalls away from the Ailerons first

Function
* Stall strips work by changing the Stagnation point on that part of the wing (point at which the air separates above and below the wing)
* The stall strip causes the airflow behind it to separate from the wing before the rest of the wing normally stalls.

Private & Commercial Pilot (DA 40NG) (28 decks)

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