Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Immunity > POPS > Flashcards

POPS Flashcards

1
Q

Provides immediate but short lived protection from tetanus

A

Passive immunity via tetanus immune globin (human) (i.e. tetanus antitoxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Provides antibodies for a longer period of time and also provides memory cells that can be quickly turned on in the future with a booster tetanus immunization

A

Active immunity via tetanus toxoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Should be given at the same time but at separate sites

A

Tetanus toxoid and tetanus immune globin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Should be avoided if possible because of the risk of serious anaphylactic or serum sickness reactions

A

Passive immunity with a heterologous antitoxin such as equine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Will stimulate the production of antitoxin, which will be protective

A

Tetanus toxoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Toxins that have been detoxified by moderate heat or treatment with a chemical (e.g. formaldehyde) but have intact antigenic and immunogenic properties

A

Toxoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Toxoid and toxin share

A

Antigenic sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Can be used in two different ways: 1) having the ability to induce antibody synthesis and 2) having the ability to combine with an antibody. Immunogenic refers specifically to the first property

A

Antigenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Previous passive immunization with heterologous (horse) antiserum (e.g. tetanus antitoxin [equine]) can stimulate the production of antibody to horse serum proteins. This can cause

A

Anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Active immunization with antigens such as tetanus toxoid does not produce sensitivity to

A

Horse serum protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The lethal dose of tetanus toxin is less than the dose required to produce

A

Antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Recovery from tetanus does not provide any immunity to

A

Future infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Passive antibody will not give prolonged protection but will prevent

A

Tetanus short term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Digest the cell wall of many bacteria and in so doing nonspecifically prevent conjunctivitis

A

Lysozymes in tears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Require one to two weeks before antibody can be detected in the serum

A

Primary immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The skin protects against many different infections and hence provides

A

Nonspecific immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This type of immunity is present before birth and does not require prior exposure to a pathogen to provide protection; therefore, it provides

A

Innate immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cell-mediated and antibody-mediated are terms that apply only to

A

Acquired immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Antibody-antigen complexes can form in the blood and be deposited in various tissues, producing pathologic changes in those tissues. More specifically, deposition of immune complexes in the renal glomeruli leads to

A

Glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This process produces the disease called

A

Serum sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the name of the zone where if you remove all precipitate, the supernatant reacts with antigen?

A

Antibody excess zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Will not agglutinate normal RBCs

A

Anti-IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Without washing, unbound IgG would inhibit a

A

Direct Coomb’s test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

IgM anti-RBCs can

A

Agglutinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Mother’s serum is first added to Rh-positive RBC, the RBCs are washed and then the Coombs reagent is added

A

Indirect Coomb’s Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When there is so much antibody present that it coats all the antigenic sites on all the particles and there are no antigenic sites available for “bridging” antibodies we get a

A

Prozone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Defined as the reciprocal of the highest dilution resulting in a positive reaction

A

The titer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Genotype refers to the actual genes on the patient’s chromosomes, whereas phenotype refers to the physical characteristics that the patient demonstrates. For example, a homozygous MM genotype appears as an

A

M Phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Although a population of people can sometimes have more than two alleles at one locus, one genetic locus has only two possible alleles in one person. Because M and N are alleles and S and s are alleles, M and/or an N allele must always be present, and S and/or an allele also must always be

A

Present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Antibody to blood group antigens stimulated by ubiquitous cross-reacting antigens found on some bacteria is called

A

Natural antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

People do not have natural antibody to

A

Rh, MN, or Ss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Rh, MN, and Ss antigens can all elicit an antibody response. This antibody is usually

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Used to detect “incomplete” or nonagglutinating antibody on RBCs. In this test, antibody to human immunoglobulin is mixed with the patient’s RBCs

A

Direct Coomb’s test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The antibody isotypes able to cause complement-mediated red cell hemolysis in a test tube are those able to activate complement by the classical pathway, i.e.

A

IgG1, IgG3, and IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Of these two isotypes, however, the most efficient complement activator is

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

IgM is the most efficient complement activator, since a single molecule can form the duplet structure necessary for C1q binding and

A

C1 activation

37
Q

React with configurational epitopes related to the antigen-binding site of immunoglobulin molecules

A

Anti-idiotypic antibodies

38
Q

A multivalent antigen is required to “fire off” the

A

Mast cell

39
Q

Thus, these can not fire off a mast cell because they are univalent

A

Haptens

40
Q

A laboratory procedure that is designed to measure specific antibodies against given antigens (allergens).

A

RAST assay

41
Q

Theoretically, any antibody class can be measured against any antigen, but the assay is usually used to look at IgE specific for common allergens

A

RAST assay

42
Q

Determines how much IgE antibody there is to a specific allergen

A

RAST assay

43
Q

Measures the in vivo activity of this antibody and is therefore susceptible to many additional complicating factors such as antihistamine therapy, blocking antibody concentrations, and number and activity of mast cells

A

Skin test

44
Q

However, there is usually a fairly good correlation between

A

Skin test and RAST

45
Q

In the RAST assay diagram on the next page, allergen extracts are covalently linked to insoluble polysaccharide (Sepharose) beads or cellulose discs. Patient serum is mixed with these allergen-coated beads, allowing

A

IgE binding

46
Q

After a thorough washing of the beads, radiolabeled anti-IgE is added. After a second incubation and washing, the radioactivity of the beads is

A

Measured

47
Q

Inhibits degranulation and histamine release. One proposed mechanism is stabilization of the mast cell membrane

A

Cromolyn sodium

48
Q

Late in an allergic attack, it is of no value since the histamine has already been released

A

Cromolyn Sodium

49
Q

Primarily used in upper respiratory allergies since it is administered locally by inhalation

A

Cromolyn Sodium

50
Q

Bind to the histamine-binding sites on smooth muscle and thereby competitively inhibit the binding and subsequent pharmacological action of histamine

A

Anti-Histamines

51
Q

Almost always produced by exposure to extrinsic allergens, whereas only about 25% of asthmatic attacks are precipitated by extrinsic allergens

A

Allergic Rhinitis

52
Q

Ashtma affects the

A

Lower respiratory tract

53
Q

Allergic Rhinitis affects the

A

Upper respiratory tract

54
Q

The IgG blocking antibody, if present in adequate amounts, will be more likely to bind the allergen and thereby prevent it from reaching the

A

IgE antibody on the mast cell surface

55
Q

The switch from IgM to IgE synthesis during the process of proliferation and differentiation of B cells induced by their recognition of a given allergen requires “help” by T helper cells with

A

TH2 activity

56
Q

TH2 cells are characterized by their release of a specific repertoire of cytokines, which includes

A

IL-4, 5, and 10

57
Q

Largely responsible (by unknown mechanisms) for the switch from IgM to IgE synthesis

A

IL-4

58
Q

Promotes the proliferation of all types of helper cells

A

IL-2

59
Q

A chemotactic factor for eosinophils

A

IL-5

60
Q

A cytokine released by antigen-presenting cells which promotes the differentiation of helper cells with TH1 activity profile

A

IL-12

61
Q

Has been recently shown to have the ability to induce the same effects as histamine at the bronchial level

A

IL-13

62
Q

The IgE that produces the symptoms of allergy is already bound to mast cells before it complexes with the

A

Allergen

63
Q

When a large dose of antigen is injected into a patient with IgG or IgM antibody to the antigen, enough anaphylatoxin can be released during complement fixation to cause anaphylaxis. This occurs via

A

C3a and C5a

64
Q

Work by competitively blocking histamine binding sites so that when mast cells release histamine, the histamine does not bind to the receptor and hence cannot cause its effects

A

Antihistaminic Drugs

65
Q

Whether antihistaminics block the action of histamine in lung tissue is debatable. In guinea pigs, the drugs definitely block bronchial smooth muscle contraction, but in humans this action (if it occurs) is

A

Not clear

66
Q

Block upper airway and skin effects of histamine

A

Antihistaminics

67
Q

There are two types of leukotriene inhibitors: those that block leukotriene receptors and those that inhibit leukotriene synthesis. Either type is mostly effective on the later stages of an

A

Immediate hypersensitivity reaction

68
Q

Leuokotrine inhibitors have mostly been used in the treatment of

A

Aspirin induced asthma

69
Q

Hyposensitization has two major effects: on one hand, the “allergy shots” stimulate the production of

A

IgG blocking antibody

70
Q

Binds antigen before it can get to the IgE antibody on the mast cell

A

IgG blocking antigen

71
Q

Associated with a decrease in the specific IgE antibody to the allergen that usually parallels the increase in IgG blocking antibody

A

Desensitization

72
Q

Takes several months, since very small doses of antigen must be given initially to prevent induction of anaphylaxis and the shots need to be repeated with increasing doses

A

Hyposensitization

73
Q

In respiratory allergies the ideal blocking antibody would be of the

A

IgA isotype

74
Q

Stabilizes the mast cell membrane so that histamine release is inhibited when the allergen combines with the IgE on the mast cell membrane

A

Cromolyn Sodium

75
Q

The drug is used locally (i.e., applied by aerosol to nasal or bronchial mucous membranes)

A

Cromolyn sodium

76
Q

It is not readily absorbed through the GI tract and is rapidly excreted, hence parenteral administration is impractical, and local application achieves highest local concentrations

A

Cromolyn Sodium

77
Q

Cromolyn sodium is of no value in

A

Anaphylaxis

78
Q

Have potent anti-inflammatory effects and strongly inhibit eosinophil degranulation

A

Glucocorticoids

79
Q

Inhibit the progression of the late phase of immediate hypersensitivity reactions (particularly asthma), preventing or reducing bronchial hyperresponsiveness

A

Glucocorticoids

80
Q

Glucocorticoids down-regulate the synthesis of

A

Pro-inflammatory cytokines

81
Q

Reduce expression of CAMs on the vessel wall

A

Glucocorticoids

82
Q

The modulation of CAM expression by glucocorticoids markedly alters the trafficking of human immune system cells, particularly

A

Neutrophils and T lymphocytes

83
Q

Down-regulate the synthesis of phospholipase A2

A

Glucocorticoids

84
Q

Thus, glucocorticoids reduce the synthesis of

A

Leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and platelet activation factor

85
Q

In contrast, glucocorticoids upregulate the expression of lipocortin-1, a protein which has

A

Anti-inflammatory effects

86
Q

Glucocorticoids administered by inhalation are now recommended for the treatment of

A

Chronic Ashtma

87
Q

Relaxes smooth muscles in the lung by stimulating the -adrenergic receptors and hence can directly reverse constriction of the bronchioles and bronchi

A

Epinephrine

88
Q

Is usually given subcutaneously (SC); in severe cases, it can be given intravenously (IV) for faster action, or even into the heart if the patient has no immediately accessible veins

A

Epinephrine

Immunity (33 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions