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YEAR 1 MED > Physiology > Flashcards

Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 4 types of tissue?

A
  • epithelial
  • muscle
  • nervous
  • connective
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2
Q

how is the nervous system divided, and what is afferent vs efferent?

A
  • Central nervous system: brain and spinal cord
  • Peripheral nervous system: sympathetic and parasympathetic
  • AFFERENT: sensory info from outside into CNS (visual, auditory, chemoreceptors, somatosensory/touch)
  • EFFERENT: motor info from CNS to periphery, results in contraction of skeletal muscles (somatic NS) which provides movement, or contraction of smooth muscles (autonomic NS)
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3
Q

what is it called when 2 neurons meet?

A
  • synapse
  • (neurotransmitters released)
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4
Q

Basal ganglia diagram and how it works…

A
  • basically prevents undesire movement (regulates speed and size of movement)
  • eg. when walking, stops front leg from moving when planted
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5
Q

Diencephalon diagram and function (thalamus, hypothalamus, pituitary gland)…

A
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6
Q

Cerebellum diagram and function…

A
  • it can facilitate stretch reflexes at the spinal cord level, so that the ability to manage an unexpected change in load is enhanced
  • in the brain stem, the cerebellum is interconnected with the vestibular system to help regulate posture, equilibrium, and eye movements.
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7
Q

Spinal cord diagram and anatomy…

A

spinal cord level:
- patterns of movement that involve nearly all muscles in the body are organized in the spinal cord
- these patterns range from the relatively simple withdrawal reflexes to coordinated movement of all four extremities

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8
Q

Peripheral nervous system (sympathetic and parasympathetic)…

A
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9
Q

Motor pathway lesions (give examples of cerebellum motor pathway lesion and basal ganglia motor pathway lesion)…

A

-

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10
Q

define the term homeostasis

A
  • any self-regulating process by which biological systems maintain stability while adjusting to changing external conditions
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11
Q

what is the main mechanism for homeostasis?

A
  • negative feedback
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12
Q

what senses internal temperature variations and where and what senses external temperature changes?

A
  • internal temp. changes: nerve thermoreceptors (in the anterior hypothalamus)
  • external temp. changes: skin thermoreceptors
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13
Q

what are the roles of the anterior hypothalamus and the posterior hypothalamus?

A

ANTERIOR hypothalamus:
- responds to increases in environmental temperatures
- controls core temperature of the body
POSTERIOR hypothalamus:
- responds to decreases in environmental temperatures

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14
Q

which thermogenic hormones are stimulated when the body needs to generate heat?

A
  • Thyroid hormones
  • thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3)
  • note: T3 is the active form
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15
Q

how do thryoid hormones stimulate heat production?

A
  • conversion of T4 (inactive form) to T3 (active form)
  • T3 then increases the production of ATP in the body
  • the more ATP, the more energy/heat that can be generated
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16
Q

in hypothyroidism (low levels of thyroid hormones), what will the person be sensitive to? (heat or cold?)

A
  • very sensitive to the cold
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17
Q

what are the two physiological effects that occur to generate/retain body heat when the sympathetic nervous system is activated (usually in a fight or flight situation)?

A

Causes Catecholamine production…
- Catecholamine binds to β-receptors in brown fat cells (‘good fat’)
- brown adipose cells burn calories and generate heat

Stimulates α-1-receptors in vascular smooth muscle and skin blood vessels…
- this causes vasoconstriction (narrowing of the arterioles) which decreases blood flow to the surface of the skin and therefore reduces heat loss

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18
Q

what physiological effect does the posterior hypothalamus signal to generate body heat?

A

Posterior hypothalamus signals skeletal muscles causing rhymic contractions (shivering)…
- shivering causes ATP to break down into ADP (the phosphate group breaks off)
- electrons in the bond are in a high energy state, so when the bond is broken by a chemical reaction (eg. hydrolysis), energy is released in an exothermic reaction

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19
Q

which receptor senses when body heat becomes too high and where are signals sent to activate heat-dissipating mechanisms?

A
  • skin thermoreceptors
  • signals are sent to the anterior hypothalamus to activate the heat-loss mechanisms
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20
Q

what two physiological effects does the anterior hypothalamus have which allow the body to lose heat?

A

Increases the activity of the sympathetic cholinergic fibers…
- this stimulates thermoregulatory sweat glands which increases sweating
- sweating results in perspiration evaporating from the skin (evaporation is a heat-losing mechanism)

Decreases the activity of the sympathetic nervous system in skin blood vessels…
- this causes arterioles to dilate (vasodilation) and blood flow increases
- therefore, more warm blood flows from the body core to the body surface where heat is lost by radiation, conduction, and/or convection

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21
Q

what does fever (pyrexia) mean and what does anapyrexia mean?

A
  • fever = an increase in the thermoregulatory set point
  • anapyrexia = a decrease in body temperature below normal
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22
Q

which part of the brain regulates core temperature?

A
  • hypothalamus
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23
Q

are central thermoreceptors predominantly cold-sensitive or warm-sensitive?

A
  • warm-sensitive
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24
Q

under anapyrexic conditions, which direction is the internal thermal set point generally shifted? (higher or lower)

A
  • lower
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25
Q

what is the skin like in fever? (pink and warm to touch, bluish and cold to touch)

A
  • pink in colour and warm to touch
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26
Q

Neuron anatomy diagram…

A
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27
Q

Motor unit (diagram…)…

A
  • one motor nerve cell (axon) supplies multiple muscle fibres
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28
Q

Physiology of a reflex diagram…

A
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29
Q

Normal gait cycle…

A
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30
Q

What is the circuit used in rhythmic movements such as walking?

A
  • central pattern generator (CPG)
  • note: walking requires very little cerebral involvement
  • note: Ia inhibitory interneurone basically doesn’t allow both flexor MN pool and extensor MN pool to work at the same time
  • note: the smaller circuit seen in both pools is controlled by negative feedback
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31
Q

Cell membrane (diagram + properties)…

A
  • fluid-like lipid (fatty acid chain) bilayer of phospholipids
  • largely impermeable to water-soluble (hydrophilic) compounds and ionic species (Na+, K+,Ca2+ proteins-)
  • selectively permeable due to embedded proteins and water-filled pores which function as: signal receptors, ion channels, transport mechanisms, surveillance/recognition monitors, enzymes
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32
Q

How is the resting membrane potential generated?

A
  • due to selective permeability of the membrane (sodium-potassium pump)
  • sodium-potassium pump = 3 Na+ out, 2K+ in
  • the neuron is polarised (-70mv inside cell)
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33
Q

How does the sodium ATPase pump (active transport) work?

A
  • pumps 2 K+ ions into cell in exchange for 3 Na+ ions out of the cell
  • leaving a net negative charge inside the cell (-70mv)
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34
Q

What is the resting potential inside of a neuron?

A
  • -70mv
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35
Q

Action potential video…

A
  • DR MATT AND MIKE YOUTUBE: action potential - neuron
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36
Q

What stimulates the start of an action potential (depolarisation)?

A
  • excitatory neurotransmitters (eg. glutamate) binds to glutamate receptors on end of neuron, this allows sodium to move into the neuron
  • more excitatory neurotransmitters (eg. glutamate) binds to receptors and more sodium ions move into the neuron
  • when the threshold (-55mv) is reached inside the neuron this stimulates voltage-gated sodium channels to open and more sodium ions move in along the neuron
  • (depolarisation = the movement of sodium ions into the cell)
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37
Q

What causes the voltage-gated potassium channels to open along the neuron (repolarisation)?

A
  • when the threshold of +30mv is reached inside the neuron (this is due to the sodium ions moving into the neuron)
  • once +30mv inside the cell, potassium ions move out of the cell (this causes hyperpolarisation to occur)
  • (repolarisation = movement of potassium ions out of cell)
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38
Q

What is hyperpolarisation of a neuron?

A
  • once inside of neuron has been repolarised (back to -70mv) then goes to -90mv inside cell (this is hyperpolarisation)
  • (hyperpolarisation = inside of cell going from -70mv to -90mv)
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39
Q

What is the refractory period when talking about action potential?

A
  • refractory period = the duration before another action potential can be generated
  • eg. in epilepsy, the refractory period is non-existent, therefore signals fire too fast one after the other
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40
Q

Action potential diagram…

A
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41
Q

Nerve conduction velocity (Schwann cells, Node of Ranvier, saltatory conduction)…

A
  • saltatory conduction = the propagation of action potentials along myelinated axons from one node of Ranvier to the next node
  • conduction rate is higher the more myelination there is
42
Q

Synaptic transmission video…

A
  • DR MATT AND MIKE YOUTUBE: synaptic transmission - neuron
43
Q

Describe synaptic transmission (action potential reaches end of a neuron and how this is transmitted to the next neuron).

A
  • the action potential has travelled to the end of the neuron (inside of end of neuron becomes more postive)
  • this stimulates voltage-gated calcium channels at end of neuron to open and calcium ions (Ca2+) enters the neuron
  • Ca2+ ions stimulate vesicles (plasma membranes with neurotransmitters inside) to move and fuse with the plasma membrane of neuron and contents (neurotransmitters are released)
  • if neurotransmitters are excitatory (eg. glutamate) then they diffuse across synaptic cleft and bind to their receptors on the next neuron (post-synaptic neuron) and this stimulates the start of another action potential
  • if neurotransmitters are inhibitory (eg. GABA) then they diffuse across synaptic cleft and bind to receptors on post-synaptic neuron which releases chloride ions (Cl-) into cell which makes inside of cell more negative and action potential isn’t propagated
44
Q

Neuromuscular junction video…

A
  • DR MATT AND MIKE YOUTUBE: neuromuscular junction
45
Q

How does a neuron send a signal to a muscle to make it contract (neuromuscular junction)?

A
  • motor neuron to skeletal muscle
  • action potential is propagated along the neuron
  • at end of neuron, voltage-gated calcium channels open and Ca2+ ions move into end of neuron
  • Ca2+ ions then fuse with vesicles which fuse with plasma membrane and neurotransmitters (acetylcholine) are released and move across synpatic cleft
  • neurotransmitters (acetylcholine) then binds with nicotinic receptors (acetylcholine specific receptors) on the end of skeletal muscle, this then allows Na+ ions to then move into skeletal muscle
  • the influx of Na+ ions into the inner membrane of the skeletal muscle causes it to become depolarised
  • this causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release Ca2+ ions (calcium is needed for muscle contraction)
  • Ca2+ ions allow myosin heads to bind to actin (if ATP is present) and muscle contracts
46
Q

What is a Schwann cell?

A
47
Q

What is muscle?

A
  • a bundle of fibrous tissue that can contract to produce movement
  • movement can be voluntary or involuntary
48
Q

What is the function of a muscle spindle?

A
  • prevents muscles from stretching too much and tearing/getting damaged
49
Q

What does hypertrophy mean?

A
  • increase in size
50
Q

What does hyperplasia mean?

A
  • increase in number
51
Q

Structure of a striated (skeletal) muscle fibre…

A
  • sarcolemma = plasma membrane of muscle
  • sarcoplasm = cytoplasm of muscle
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) = smooth endoplasmic reticulum
  • transverse tubular system (TT) = invaginations of sarcolemma (foldings into the membrane)
52
Q

The sarcomere diagram…

A
  • Z-line: either end of the sarcomere, thin filaments insertion
  • M-line: origin of thick filaments
  • A-band: overlap of thick and thin filaments
  • I-band: only thin filaments
53
Q

Another sarcomere diagram…

A
54
Q

Describe the main physiological processes involved in the sensation and transmission of pain from one part of the body to the brain (eg. from a joint to the brain).

A
  • Initial pain is sensed by nociceptors (free nerve endings in skin, muscle, other tissues)
  • Pain is transmitted by primary sensory neurons to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
  • Type A-delta fibres (myelinated) for fast, acute pain and type C fibres (unmyelinated) for slow, throbbing/dull pain
  • In the dorsal horn, the primary sensory neuron will synapse with a second neuron of the spinothalamic tract
  • This second order neuron immediately decussates and passes up to the thalamus
  • In the thalamus, second order neurons synapse with third order neurons leading to the sensory cortex to register pain and mediate emotional components
55
Q

Nociceptors in the skin…

A
  • nociception = the CNS and PNS responding to noxious stimuli (eg. tissue damage or temp. extremes)
56
Q

Is myelin damage more severe / permanent than axon damage?

A
  • NO: myelin damage is more temporary
  • Axons: axon loss results in loss of function
  • Myelin: slow nerves (generally does not cause symtpoms), secondary axon loss does
57
Q

What are the effects of sensory nerve damage and what are the effects of motor nerve damage (clinical symptoms)?

A
  • Sensory nerve damage: altered sensation (numbness, pain, paraesthesia)
  • Motor nerve damage: atrophy, weakness, paralysis
58
Q

In which anatomical structure is cortisol synthesised and what is the precursor molecule from which it is made?

A
  • Synthesised in the zona fasciculata of adrenal cortex/gland
  • note: precursor molecule is cholesterol
59
Q

Hormones act by binding to receptors to transduce their signal into cells, describe how cortisol transduces its signal

A
  • It is a lipid soluble hormone which diffuses into cells
  • To bind to its receptor inside the cell in the cytoplasm
  • The receptor/hormone complex moves into the nucleus to bind to DNA and activates or repress gene expression
60
Q

State two immunological/physiological changes that are apparent in the immune response of stressed individuals

A
  • Individuals have a lower T-helper cell (CD4) count
  • Less rapid spread of CD4 cells
  • Reduced natural killer cell activity
  • Altered cytokine activity that leads to a reduction in wound healing
61
Q

The sleep-wake cycle is an example of a circadian rhythm, describe the role of the Suprachiasmatic Nucleus (SCN) and the Pineal gland in the sleep-wake cycle

A
  • The SCN becomes activated by changes in light levels detected via the optic chiasm
  • In turn, the SCN sends a signal to the pineal gland
  • Once activated, the pineal gland produces melatonin (sleep hormone) which reduces arousal in the brain and leads to sleep
62
Q

Describe infradian rhythms vs ultradian rhythms.

A
  • Infradian rhythms: where each cycle happens less frequently than every 24 hours (eg. Menstrual cycle)
  • Ultradian rhythms: where each cycle happens more than once in 24 hours (eg. Hormone release, heart rate, bowel activity)
63
Q

Describe how calcium is removed from the muscle cell to start muscle relaxation

A
  • Calcium needs to be removed from sarcoplasm (cytoplasm of striated muscle cells)
  • Sarco Endoplasmic Reticulum Calcium ATPase (SERCA) pumps two calcium ions out of sarcoplasmic reticulum via active transport
  • Plasma Membrane Associated Calcium ATPase (PMCA) actively transports calcium ions across sarcolemma membrane into extracellular space
  • Calcium is also removed via Na/Ca pump by facilitated diffusion across the sarcolemma membrane into extracellular space
64
Q

What structure in the brain responds to the inflammatory cytokines, whose production is stimulated by pathogens?

A
  • Hypothalamus
65
Q

Describe the physiology behind the mechanism of action of the oral contraceptive pill

A
  • Synthetic oestrogens inhibit FSH release by negative feedback, suppressing follicular development
  • Synthetic progesterone like compounds (progestins) block the oestrogen-mediated positive feedback surge in LH release, preventing ovulation, also changes the properties of cervical mucous so that it is hostile to sperm
  • Endometrial layer development is less and not favourable for implantation
66
Q

what is the endometrium and what happens to it at the end of the menstrual period?

A
  • layer of tissue lining the inside of the uterus
  • the endometrium lining breaks down and leaves via the vagina (menstrual period)
67
Q

how long is the average menstrual cycle, what day does ovulation usually occur?

A
  • 28 days
  • ovulation usually occurs at day 14
68
Q

what is the pre-ovulatory period of the menstrual cycle called and what is the post-ovulatory period of the menstrual cycle called, and what hormones are at their highest in each of the phases?

A
  • follicular phase (oestrogen at highest)
  • luteal phase / secretory phase (progesterone at highest)
69
Q

describe the process of the menstrual cycle (pre-ovulation, day 10-14, post-ovulation(up to day 15), after day 15)

(image shows hpo axis)

A

PRE-OVULATION:
- hypothalamus releases gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
- this stimulates the pituitary gland to release FSH and LH

DAY 10-14:
- positive feedback loop due to the follicle stimulating lots of oestrogen which acts on the pituitary gland making it more responsive to GnRH and therefore releases lots of FSH and LH
- this increase in FSH and LH occurs 1-2 days before ovulation and this stimulates ovulation

POST-OVULATION (up to day 15):
- increase in progesterone which acts as a negative feedback signal on the pituitary so less FSH and LH released
- also, inhibin is released by luteinised granulosa cells which inhibits FSH and LH production
- oestrogen levels decrease, progesterone increases

AFTER DAY 15:
- hormones are gradually stopped being produced
- oestrogen and progesterone levels decrease
- cervical mucus thickens (less hospitable for sperm)
- endometrium layer breaks down

70
Q

when is the optimal chance for fertilisation period in the average menstrual cycle and what effect does an increase in oestrogen levels have on cervical mucus?

A
  • day 11 to day 15
  • increased oestrogen levels make the cervical mucus more hospitable for sperm
71
Q

The 3 types of muscle and their functions…

A
72
Q

what are long muscle fibers good for and what are short muscle fibers good for? (in terms of type of movement)

A
  • long fibers good for rapid movement
  • short fibers good for large forces
73
Q

what are the 3 types of muscle fiber, what colour do they stain with myosin ATPase, and what are they used for?

A
74
Q

what are the 2 main types of muscle contraction?

A

ISOMETRIC: contraction against resistance where length of muscle remains the same

ISOTONIC: contraction against resistance where length of muscle changes

  • concentric: in direction of contraction
  • eccentric: opposite to direction of contraction
75
Q

what effect does the muscle fiber cross-sectional area have on maximal force generated?

A
  • the larger the fiber CSA, the larger the force generated
76
Q

what effects does endurance exercise training have at a cellular level?

A
  • increased mitochondrial function
  • hypoxia inducible factors (HIFs) involved in gene control of red muscle cell production and regulation of glycolytic enzymes
  • increased Haemoglobin concentration
77
Q

what type of fibers do marathon runners (endurance activity) have more of and what type of fibers do sprinters (short intense activity) have more of?

A
  • marathon runners (endurance activity) have more slow fibers, these do not fatigue as quick as fast fibers
  • sprinters (short intense activity) have more fast fibers, these fatigue quickly
78
Q

how does smoking effect muscle fibers?

A
  • reduces cross-sectional area (and therefore force generated is lower)
  • less type 2 fibers (fast twitch fibers)
79
Q

how is creatine phosphate produced and what is produced when resting muscle becomes active muscle?

A
  • ATP + creatine = creatine phosphate + ADP
  • when resting muscle is becoming active muscle, creatine kinase acts on creatine phosphate and ADP and turns it into creatine and ATP (energy for muscle contraction)
80
Q

Where does the electron transport chain occur and is it oxidative or non-oxidative?

A
  • occurs in the inner mitochondrial membrane
  • ETC is an oxidative process
81
Q

Recovery phase after exercise…

A
82
Q

how is nicotine excreted and where is it metabolised?

A
  • 50% in urine (also excreted by faeces, saliva, bile, sweat)
  • metabolised in the liver
83
Q

what are the physiological effects of nicotine?

A
  • activation of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors: nicotine binds to and activates nAChRs in the CNS and PNS (leads to release of dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and glutamate)
  • stimulation of sympathetic nervous system: resulting in release of adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine), this leads to increased HR/B
  • inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system: parasympathetic endings contain acetylcholine
  • dopaminergic effects: acts on mesolimbic pathway (reward-pathway in the brain), dopamine released
  • cognitive effects: acute nicotine exposure can enhance cognitive function (nicotine acts on nAChRs in the prefrontal cortex)
  • note: skin temp. decreases
84
Q

what diseases are smokers of more risk of?

A
  • coronary heart disease
  • peripheral vascular disease (hypertension)
  • chronic lung disease (bronchitis and emphysema)
  • abnormal foetal development
  • lung cancer (more because of carcinogens not the nicotine)
85
Q

what are the UK recommendations for alcohol intake per week?

A
  • 14 units per week
86
Q

Where is alcohol (ethanol) metabolised and by what enzyme?

A
  • metabolised in liver by alcohol dehydrogenase (90% of ethanol is metabolised)
87
Q

what effects does alcohol have on the body?

A

CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM:
- cutaneous vasodilation and makes you feel warm but you lose heat
- cardiomyopathy
ENDOCRINE:
- diuresis (wee more often): ethanol inhibits ADH release from the pituitary
GI:
- increased salivary and gastric secretions
- peptic ulcers
- pancreatitis
LIVER:
- increased fat accumulation: leads to hepatitis and hepatic necrosis and fibrosis
- also affects lipid metabolism, platelet function, and atherosclerosis
FOETUS:
- fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) and alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder (ARND)
CNS:
- acute intoxication: slurred speech, affects motor function (lose coordination)
- chronic intoxication: irreversible neurological effects, peripheral neuropathy, and dementia (chronic effects due to ethanol or thymine deficiency)

88
Q

what is the mechanism by which ethanol acts?

A
  • enhances GABA mediated inhibition
  • inhibits transmitter release by inhibiting voltage-gated calcium channels
89
Q

Describe components of a simple reflex arc

A
  • receptor: detects stimulus and generates electrical signals
  • sensory neuron (or afferent neuron): transmits electrical signals from receptor to CNS
  • interneurons (in spinal cord): receive and process sensory info and act as a middle-man between sensory (afferent) neurons and motor (efferent) neurons
  • motor neuron (or efferent neuron): carries signal to effector
  • effector (eg. muscle): when motor neuron reaches effector, stimulates muscle to contract or relax (generating a motor response)
90
Q

What are some physiological changes seen in aging?

A
  • atherosclerosis (narrowing of arteries): hypertension, heart disease, stroke
  • muscle and bone changes: sarcopenia (decreased muscle mass and strength), osteoporosis (risk of fractures)
    frailty ( falls )
  • respiratory changes: reduced respiratory function, more susceptible to respiratory infections
  • cognitive decline: severe could be dementia or Alzeihmer’s disease, poor balance
  • vision and hearing: presbyopia (difficulty focusing on nearby objects), cataracts, glaucoma (fluid in front of eye), age-related macular degeneration
  • digestive system changes: reduced digestive enzymes, decreased absorption of nutrients, slower bowel movement (constipation)
  • decline in renal function
  • changes in metabolism of drugs cleared in the liver
91
Q

PRISMA 7 questions and gait speed test (used to assess frailty)…

A
92
Q

What are some medications which can cause an increased risk of falls in the elderly?

A
  • benzodiazepines: eg. diazepam
  • anti-depressants: eg. tricyclic antidepressants (eg. amitriptyline), sertraline
  • anti-psychotics
  • hypertension meds (used to treat high BP): alpha blockers (eg. doxazosin), beta-blockers (eg. propanolol), diuretics (eg. hydrochlorothiazide)
  • note: a lot of medications have side effects such as dizziness or drowsiness which can lead to increased risk of falls
93
Q

what are the mechanisms for homeostasis of temperature ?

A
  • cooling : vasodilation, sweating
  • heating : shivering, vasoconstriction
  • note: mediated by hypothalamus (afferent, efferent neurons)
94
Q

Intro to nervous system quiz Q1, 2, 3…

A
95
Q

Intro to nervous system quiz Q4…

A
96
Q

Physiology of booze and fags quiz Q 1, 2, 3…

  1. Skin temperature is increased with… (alcohol / nicotine / both)
  2. Nicotine inhibits the… (parasympathetic NS / sympathetic NS / both)
  3. What is the equation to assess alcoholic units?
A
97
Q

Physiology of booze and fags quiz Q4, 5…

  1. The release of which hormone is inhibited by alcohol, resulting in dehydration?
  2. The effects of alcohol on the brain are mediated through the activity of… (Dopamine / GABA / both / neither)
A
98
Q

Physiology of temperature regulation quiz Q1, 2, 3…

  1. Central thermoreceptors are predominantly… (cold-sensitive / warm-sensitive / they are evenly balanced)
  2. In which direction is the internal thermal set point ‘generally’ shifted under anapyrexic conditions? (Lower / Higher)
  3. In fever… (Vasoconstriction of the arterioles in the skin allows more blood flow there / the skin is pink in colour and warm to touch / the temperature regulation centre responds directly to changes in blood oxygen levels / chemicals known as neurotransmitters reset the thermostat in the hypothalamus)
A
99
Q

Physiology of temperature regulation quiz Q4, 5…

  1. Which of the following thermoeffectors has a somatic component? (sweating / piloerection / vasoconstriction / shivering)
  2. Cold sensitive thermoreceptors are more responsive to… (temperature change / absolute temperature)
A
100
Q

Basal ganglia diagram and how it works…

A
  • basically prevents undesire movement
  • eg. when walking, stops front leg from moving when planted
101
Q

Cerebellum diagram and function…

A
102
Q

Arteries vs veins vs capillaries…

A

YEAR 1 MED (49 decks)

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