pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

CSF absorption requires lipid soluble vs insoluble? ionized vs nonionized?

A

soluble. nonionized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how many half lives to reach steady state?

A

5.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

meaning of tachyphylaxis?

A

tolerance after only a few doses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

drug metabolism via liver p450.

A

phase I. demthy/ox/redux/hydrol reactions… NADPH/oxygen required.
phase II. glucuronic acid and sulfates attach to make water soluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

p450 inhibitors

A

cimetidine, isoniazid, ketoconazle, erythromycin, cipro, flagyl, allopurinol, verapamil, amiodarone, MAOIs, disulfuram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

p450 inducers

A

cruciform vegetables, ETOH, cigarettes, phenobarbital, phenytoin, theophylline, warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

urate crystals on microscopy

A

negative birefringent (yellow, needle shaped)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

podagra?

A

1st MTP joint gout; MC area effected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

colchicine MOA

A

binds tubulin and inhibits migration CHEMOTAXIS of WBC in gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

allopuriol MOA

A

xanthine oxidase inhibitor; blocks urate from xanthine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

probenecid MOA gout

A

increase renal secretion of uric acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

niacin MOA

A

inhibits cholesterol synthesis; can cause FLUSHING.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

statin MOA

A

HMG COA REDUCTASE INHIBITOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

alvimopan MOA

A

binds and inhibits mu-opioid receptor for postop ileus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

zofran MOA

A

serotonin (central) receptor inhibitor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

promethazine and metoclopramide MOA

A

DA receptors; increase gastric and gut mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what agent improves survival in CHF?

A

ACEi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what agent improves survival after MI?

A

Bblocker.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

highest MAC?

A

nitrous oxide NO2; low potency = high MAC = fastest!

20
Q

malignant hyperthermia MOA?

A

ryanodine receptor defect… mucsle excitation from Ca release
after succinylcholine (IRREVERSIBLE).

21
Q

malignant hyperthermia sx?

A

increased end tidal, fever, tachycardia, rigidity, acidosis, hyperkalemia, rhabdomyolysis

22
Q

mgmt malignant hyperthermia?

A

dantrolene (10 mg/kg) inhibiting Ca release and decouples complex
cool, bicarb
glucose
supportive care.

23
Q

succinylcholine and hyperkalemia

A

causes more; (depol = release K)
so avoid in: burn, neurologic injury, neuromusclar disorders, SCInjury, trauma, renal failure)

24
Q

Hoffman effect?

A

degradation of drug in blood spontaneously.
nimbex.

25
Q

reverse nondepolarizing roc?

A

neostigmine/edrophonium: block Achase to increase ACh.
with atropine/glycopyrrolate to reverse overwhelming ACh.

26
Q

dose of local anesthetic?

A

0.5 cc/kg of 1% lidocaine.

27
Q

max dosing lido and bup

A

lido 4 mg/kg
bup 2 mg/kg

28
Q

SE of meperidine demerol?

A

tremors, fasciculations, seizures (normeperidine) avoid in RENAL FAILURE.

29
Q

contraindication to epidural and spinal anesthesia?

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, cyanotic heart disease (sympathetic denervation can cause decreased afterload which worsens conditions).

30
Q

epidural location for different thoracotomy vs laparotomy?

A

thoracotomy: T6-T9
laparotomy: T8-T10.

31
Q

spinal anesthesia location?

A

L2 to avoid spinal cord (subarachnoid)

32
Q

LR composition

A

Na 130
K 4
Ca 2.7
Cl 109
lactate 28 (converts to HCO3- in body though)

33
Q

NS vs HTS?

A

Na 154 … 513
Cl 154 … 513

34
Q

calculate plasma osmolarity?

A

2Na + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8.
normal 280-295.

35
Q

fluid loss in major abdominal operations?

A

0.5-1L/hr.

36
Q

gastrointestinal losses by organ per day?

A

stomach 1-2L
biliary system 0.5-1L
pancreas 0.5-1L
duo 0.5-1L

37
Q

hyponatremia

A

FW restriction and NS
no more than 1 mEq/hr (8 per day) otherwise central pontine myelinosis

38
Q

DI

A

decreased ADH… lots of diluted urine, hypernatremic, high serum osm
etiology: head injury
treat: DDAVP (or free water if chronic)

39
Q

SIADH

A

increased ADFH… minimal concentrated urine, hyponatremic, low serum osm
etiology: head injury, carbamazepine, SSRI, cyclophosphamid, cipro, haldol, amiodarone, vincristine, vinblastine, cisplatin, bromocriptine
treat: conviaptan, tolvaptan
chronic: slow diuresis and fluid restriction

40
Q

protein adjustment for calcium

A

for every 1 g decrease in protein, add 0.8 to Ca

41
Q

vit D metabolism

A

made in skin 7DHC to cholecalciferol goes to liver for 25 OH and then kidney for 1 OH (active)

42
Q

flumazenil dosing

A

0.2 mg over 30 seconds
repeat up to 3 mg

43
Q

hofman elimination

A

not cleared by liver

44
Q

renal excretion narcotics

A

yes: morphine, oxy, tramadol, hydrocodone
no: dilaudid = hydromorphone, fentanyl, sufentanil,

45
Q

spinal anesthesai

A

into intrathecal space

46
Q
A