oncology Flashcards

1
Q

half lives CEA, PSA, AFP

A

CEA: 18 days
PSA: 18 days
AFP: 5 days

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2
Q

most radiosensitive tumors?

A

seminomas, lymphomas

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3
Q

most radioresistant tumors?

A

epithelial, sarcomas

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4
Q

brachytherapy?

A

radiation source is right next to or IN tumor (Au-198, I-128) for very concentrated doses

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5
Q

gamma knife?

A

cobalt XRT

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6
Q

Retinobastoma gene. Rb1

A

TSG. Ch 13. Cell cycle regulation

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7
Q

P53?

A

TSG. Ch. 17. Controls arrest to apoptosis.

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8
Q

APC ?

A

TSG. Ch 5. Cell cycle regulation.

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9
Q

DCC?

A

TSG. Ch 18. Cell adhesion.

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10
Q

Proto oncogenes… ras?

A

GTPase

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11
Q

Src proto-onc?

A

Tyroskine kinase defect

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12
Q

Sis proto-oncogene

A

PDGF-R defect.

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13
Q

Erb B proto onc

A

EGFR defect

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14
Q

Myc proto-onc?

A

Transcription factors

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15
Q

Li-Fraumeni syndrome?

A

P53 gene defect…
SARCOMA
BREAST
BRAIN
LEUKEMIA
ADRENAL

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16
Q

KRAS gene mutation

A

LUNG
PANCREATIC
COLON

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17
Q

Colon ca associated genetic mutations?

A

APC, p53, DCC, K-ras

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18
Q

Virchow’s nodes

A

Stomach ca related supraclavicular nodes

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19
Q

Sister Mary Joseph’s node?

A

Pancreatic ca related periumbilical node

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20
Q

Krukenberg tumor

A

Stomach cancer to OVARY.

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21
Q

type of T cell lymphomas?

A

HTLV-1 (skin lesions)
Mycosis fungoides (Sezary cells)

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22
Q

common chemo regimens
breast
colon
gallbladder ca \
pancreatic

A

Gemcitabine with cisplatin: gallbladder carcinoma.

Doxorubicin and paclitaxel: breast cancer and sarcoma.
FOLFOX: colorectal cancer.
FOLFIRINOX: pancreatic cancer as neoadjuvant chemotherapy in an attempt to convert the tumor to resectability.

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23
Q

retinoblastoma presentation

A

strabismus, leukocoria, and a white mass on the retina on fundoscopy

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24
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau disease

A

von Hippel-Lindau tumor suppressor gene.

CNS
clear cell renal carcinoma
pheochromocytoma
neuroendocrine tumors of the pancreas.

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25
Q

desmoid tumors

A

stable in size for many years or even spontaneously regress

homogenous on imaging

Bx: reveals bundles of spindle cells and an abundant fibrous stroma

can just watchful wait (image q3 mos MRI)

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26
Q

mgmt desmoid tumor that is sx (intraabdominal)

A

resect en bloc with SBR
if malignant, will need RADIATION.

medical therapy: sulindac and tamoxifen

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27
Q

dx of desmoid tumor

A

because need to rule out like a met.
so image guided core needle bx (no incisional bx because it can seed)
Bx; spindle cell bundles and fibrous stroma

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28
Q

MC melanoma sites

A

skin > eyes > anal *canal (APR)

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29
Q

if can’t give octreotide for sx NET, what else

A

Everolimus

30
Q

rhabdomyosarcoma dx

A

first CNBx

MRI for invasion of organs, LNs

31
Q

RMS txS

A

if no invasion, then PRIMARY COMPLETE EXCISION

if invasion, then NEOADJ CHEMO then resection +/- radiation if residual disease

SLNB if changes treatment

Routine LN dissection if perineal or anal (without SLNB)

32
Q

SB mets

A
  1. melanoma
  2. lung, breast, RCC
33
Q

intraperitoneal mets

A
  1. ovarian
  2. colon, appendix, gastric
34
Q

chemotx for recurrent medullary thyroid

A

vadetanib - TK inhibitor

35
Q

pembrolizumab

A

celld eath protein -1 blocking Ab for MELANOMA

36
Q

ipilimumab

A

cytotoxic T lympho associated protein CTL-4 blocking Ab for MELANOMA

37
Q

cetuximab

A

inhibits EGFR in CRC

38
Q

imatinib

A

TK-receptor bcr-abl for GIST, CML

39
Q

undiff spindle cell tumor

A

of bone….

MC prox tibia, distal metaphyses of femur

tx; chemo and wide resection

40
Q

levamisole

A

immune modulator; given with FLUROURACIL in colon ca
given within1 mo of FU and extended for 1 yr

adverse: agranulocytosis, AMS-syndromes, disulfiram like rxn

41
Q

purine synth inhibitors

A

azathioprine, Mycophenolate mofetil

42
Q

mitotic MT kinetics

A

vincrinstine, vinblastineDN

43
Q

A alkylation

A

chlorambucil, cyclophosphamid, streptozocin

44
Q

ttopoisomerase inhibitors

A

irinotecan, doxorubicin, etoposide-VP-16

45
Q

most sensitive localization test for PNETS

A

gadolinium dotatate PET CT

46
Q

EBV ca

A

nasopharyngeal
Hodgkin
Burkitt
gastric ca
lymphoproliferative disease in AIDS

47
Q

EBV gastric

A

DNA methylation of promoter to SILENCE genes…. (maybe escapes immune detection in dormancy)

MALE
CARDIA or postsurgical STUMP
LYMPHOCYTIC INFILTRATION
DECREASE LN METS
BETTER PX

48
Q

histology for Burkitts

A

B cell with MYC translocation…. starry sky appearance of mature B cells

49
Q

histology of MALTomas

A

reactive follicles of CD20+ neoplastic cells in MARGINAL zones…. h pylori

50
Q

histology of DLCBL

A

prominent nucleoli large CD20+ cells

very responsive to chemo

51
Q

histology of Hodgkin type lymphoma

A

numerous 45 um cells with multiple nuclei with large inclusion like nucleoli Reed Sternberg cells

52
Q

best prognosis HL

A

lymphocyte predominant

53
Q

MC lymphoma type

A

nodular sclerosing

54
Q

celiac lymphoma

A

T cell enteropathy associated lymphoma EATL….
adjacent villous atrophy… monotonous anaplastic clonal cells expressing T cell markers CD 3 CD 7

55
Q

false negative for PETs

A

bronchoalveolar lung cancer
carcinoid cancer

56
Q

highest sensitivity tumor marker

A

PSA (low specificity though)

57
Q

stages of cancer progression during latency period

A
  1. initiation (carcinogen acts on DNA)
  2. promotion (of cancer cells)
  3. progression (to clinically detectable tumor)
58
Q

neuron specific enolase NSE

A

marker for small cell lung ca and neuroblastoma

59
Q

burkitts oncogene

A

EBV with 8;14 translocation

60
Q

nasopharyngeal ca oncogene

A

EBV with c=myc

61
Q

most susceptible to XRT

A

M

62
Q

cyclphosphamide active metabolite

A

acrolein

63
Q

side effect cyclophosphamide

A

hemorrhagic cystitis (give mesna)
SIADH
gonadal dysfunction

64
Q

methotrexate MOA

A

inhibit DHFR, purine synthesis

save with leukovorin

65
Q

5-FU MOA

A

thymidylate synthetase

leukovorin actually makes it MORE toxic

66
Q

MC met TO BONE

A

BREAST > prostate

67
Q

coal tar association

A

larynx
skin
bronchial carcinoma

68
Q

beta-naphtylamine association

A

bladder cancer

69
Q

benzene association

A

leukemia

70
Q

asbestos association

A

mesothelioma

71
Q

sweet syndrome

A

febrile acute neutropenic dermatitis after GCSF (side effect)

72
Q
A