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oncology Flashcards

1
Q

half lives CEA, PSA, AFP

A

CEA: 18 days
PSA: 18 days
AFP: 5 days

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2
Q

most radiosensitive tumors?

A

seminomas, lymphomas

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3
Q

most radioresistant tumors?

A

epithelial, sarcomas

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4
Q

brachytherapy?

A

radiation source is right next to or IN tumor (Au-198, I-128) for very concentrated doses

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5
Q

gamma knife?

A

cobalt XRT

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6
Q

Retinobastoma gene. Rb1

A

TSG. Ch 13. Cell cycle regulation

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7
Q

P53?

A

TSG. Ch. 17. Controls arrest to apoptosis.

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8
Q

APC ?

A

TSG. Ch 5. Cell cycle regulation.

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9
Q

DCC?

A

TSG. Ch 18. Cell adhesion.

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10
Q

Proto oncogenes… ras?

A

GTPase

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11
Q

Src proto-onc?

A

Tyroskine kinase defect

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12
Q

Sis proto-oncogene

A

PDGF-R defect.

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13
Q

Erb B proto onc

A

EGFR defect

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14
Q

Myc proto-onc?

A

Transcription factors

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15
Q

Li-Fraumeni syndrome?

A

P53 gene defect…
SARCOMA
BREAST
BRAIN
LEUKEMIA
ADRENAL

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16
Q

KRAS gene mutation

A

LUNG
PANCREATIC
COLON

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17
Q

Colon ca associated genetic mutations?

A

APC, p53, DCC, K-ras

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18
Q

Virchow’s nodes

A

Stomach ca related supraclavicular nodes

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19
Q

Sister Mary Joseph’s node?

A

Pancreatic ca related periumbilical node

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20
Q

Krukenberg tumor

A

Stomach cancer to OVARY.

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21
Q

type of T cell lymphomas?

A

HTLV-1 (skin lesions)
Mycosis fungoides (Sezary cells)

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22
Q

common chemo regimens
breast
colon
gallbladder ca \
pancreatic

A

Gemcitabine with cisplatin: gallbladder carcinoma.

Doxorubicin and paclitaxel: breast cancer and sarcoma.
FOLFOX: colorectal cancer.
FOLFIRINOX: pancreatic cancer as neoadjuvant chemotherapy in an attempt to convert the tumor to resectability.

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23
Q

retinoblastoma presentation

A

strabismus, leukocoria, and a white mass on the retina on fundoscopy

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24
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau disease

A

von Hippel-Lindau tumor suppressor gene.

CNS
clear cell renal carcinoma
pheochromocytoma
neuroendocrine tumors of the pancreas.

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25
desmoid tumors
stable in size for many years or even spontaneously regress homogenous on imaging Bx: reveals bundles of spindle cells and an abundant fibrous stroma can just watchful wait (image q3 mos MRI)
26
mgmt desmoid tumor that is sx (intraabdominal)
resect en bloc with SBR if malignant, will need RADIATION. medical therapy: sulindac and tamoxifen
27
dx of desmoid tumor
because need to rule out like a met. so image guided core needle bx (no incisional bx because it can seed) Bx; spindle cell bundles and fibrous stroma
28
MC melanoma sites
skin > eyes > anal *canal (APR)
29
if can’t give octreotide for sx NET, what else
Everolimus
30
rhabdomyosarcoma dx
first CNBx MRI for invasion of organs, LNs
31
RMS txS
if no invasion, then PRIMARY COMPLETE EXCISION if invasion, then NEOADJ CHEMO then resection +/- radiation if residual disease SLNB if changes treatment Routine LN dissection if perineal or anal (without SLNB)
32
SB mets
1. melanoma 2. lung, breast, RCC
33
intraperitoneal mets
1. ovarian 2. colon, appendix, gastric
34
chemotx for recurrent medullary thyroid
vadetanib - TK inhibitor
35
pembrolizumab
celld eath protein -1 blocking Ab for MELANOMA
36
ipilimumab
cytotoxic T lympho associated protein CTL-4 blocking Ab for MELANOMA
37
cetuximab
inhibits EGFR in CRC
38
imatinib
TK-receptor bcr-abl for GIST, CML
39
undiff spindle cell tumor
of bone.... MC prox tibia, distal metaphyses of femur tx; chemo and wide resection
40
levamisole
immune modulator; given with FLUROURACIL in colon ca given within1 mo of FU and extended for 1 yr adverse: agranulocytosis, AMS-syndromes, disulfiram like rxn
41
purine synth inhibitors
azathioprine, Mycophenolate mofetil
42
mitotic MT kinetics
vincrinstine, vinblastineDN
43
A alkylation
chlorambucil, cyclophosphamid, streptozocin
44
ttopoisomerase inhibitors
irinotecan, doxorubicin, etoposide-VP-16
45
most sensitive localization test for PNETS
gadolinium dotatate PET CT
46
EBV ca
nasopharyngeal Hodgkin Burkitt gastric ca lymphoproliferative disease in AIDS
47
EBV gastric
DNA methylation of promoter to SILENCE genes.... (maybe escapes immune detection in dormancy) MALE CARDIA or postsurgical STUMP LYMPHOCYTIC INFILTRATION DECREASE LN METS BETTER PX
48
histology for Burkitts
B cell with MYC translocation.... starry sky appearance of mature B cells
49
histology of MALTomas
reactive follicles of CD20+ neoplastic cells in MARGINAL zones.... h pylori
50
histology of DLCBL
prominent nucleoli large CD20+ cells very responsive to chemo
51
histology of Hodgkin type lymphoma
numerous 45 um cells with multiple nuclei with large inclusion like nucleoli Reed Sternberg cells
52
best prognosis HL
lymphocyte predominant
53
MC lymphoma type
nodular sclerosing
54
celiac lymphoma
T cell enteropathy associated lymphoma EATL.... adjacent villous atrophy... monotonous anaplastic clonal cells expressing T cell markers CD 3 CD 7
55
false negative for PETs
bronchoalveolar lung cancer carcinoid cancer
56
highest sensitivity tumor marker
PSA (low specificity though)
57
stages of cancer progression during latency period
1. initiation (carcinogen acts on DNA) 2. promotion (of cancer cells) 3. progression (to clinically detectable tumor)
58
neuron specific enolase NSE
marker for small cell lung ca and neuroblastoma
59
burkitts oncogene
EBV with 8;14 translocation
60
nasopharyngeal ca oncogene
EBV with c=myc
61
most susceptible to XRT
M
62
cyclphosphamide active metabolite
acrolein
63
side effect cyclophosphamide
hemorrhagic cystitis (give mesna) SIADH gonadal dysfunction
64
methotrexate MOA
inhibit DHFR, purine synthesis save with leukovorin
65
5-FU MOA
thymidylate synthetase leukovorin actually makes it MORE toxic
66
MC met TO BONE
BREAST > prostate
67
coal tar association
larynx skin bronchial carcinoma
68
beta-naphtylamine association
bladder cancer
69
benzene association
leukemia
70
asbestos association
mesothelioma
71
sweet syndrome
febrile acute neutropenic dermatitis after GCSF (side effect)
72

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