Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Normal animal exam 3 > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

FDA approved proprietary drug

A

safety and efficacy with good laboratory practices
active ingredient, product were manufactured under good lab practices in FDA inspected facilities
therapeutic consistency, product quality, accurate shelf life, scientifically substantiated labeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

brand name vs pharmaceutical ingredient

A

brand name is capitalized
ingredient is lowercase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

steps for drug approval

A
  • drug concept is formed
    • investigational new animal drug number assigned
  • dosage regimen determined
  • target animal safety (1x, 2x, 3x, 5x for 90 days)
  • effectiveness (field trial)
  • human food safety (food animal)
  • chemistry, manufacturing, controls
  • environmental impact
  • new animal drug application # (on box)
  • post-marketing surveillance
    • crucial! report adverse effects to FDA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

VPCR

A

veterinary client patient relationship

vet has examined the animal, developed a prelim diagnosis, and determined the need for the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Schedule 1 drug

A

highest potential for abuse

no medical use

lack of accepted safety

none in vet med (heroin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

schedule II drug

A

high potential for abuse

accepted for medical use with severe restrictions

may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence

morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

schedule III drug

A

potential for abuse

accepted for medical treatment

abuse may lead to moderate or low physical dependence

ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

schedule IV drug

A

potential for abuse

accepted for medical use

may lead to limited dependence

diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

schedule V drugs

A

low potential for abuse

accepted for medical use

may lead to limited dependence

gabapentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

generic drugs

A

FDA approved

ANADA abbreviated

bioequivalent

may have brand name

prescription or OTC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

generic vs brand name drugs

A

generic= lower cost

different excipients (inactive ingredients)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

excipients

A

inactive ingredients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

compounded drugs

A

HAVE NOT been tested for bioequivalence, efficacy, safety, strength

may not be manufactured under GMP in federally inspected plants

are NOT approved by FDA

ex: mixing injectables, crushing pills for an oral suspension

changing concentration to fit size of patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

NDC numbers

A

national drug code

approved for a species, not necessarily for your species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

dose

A

quantity of a medicine or drug taken at a particular time

total mg or mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

dosage

A

quantity and frequency of a dose of medicine or drug

mg/kg/day, mg/kg every 12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

dosage regimen

A

includes the route of administration and duration of dosing

mg/kg IV every 12 hours for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

pharmacodynamics (PD)

A

what the drug does to the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

pharmacokinetics (PK)

A

what the body does to the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

pharmacogenetics

A

how genes affect responses to drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

chemotherapy

A

effect of drugs upon microorganisms, parasites, and neoplastic cells living and multiplying in an organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

toxicology/toxic effects

A

study of undesirable effects of chemicals on living systems

result from excessive pharmacological action due to overdose or prolonged usage

may occur in some patients at therapeutic dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

side effects

A

drug action outside the desired site

may be good or bad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

adverse drug reaction

A

relates to change in patient

similar to adverse drug effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

adverse drug effect

A

relates to effect of the drug

similar to adverse drug reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

adverse drug event

A

occurs while a patient is on a drug

causality has not been determined

may or may not be related to drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

dose-response curve for most drugs

A

Magnitude of pharmacologic response is proportionately related to the (log of) drug concentration at the tissue (receptor) site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

phase 2 dose response curve

A

linear response with desired effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

phase 1 dose response curve

A

no response observed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

dose response curve phase 3

A

no increased response seen, toxic effects possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

ED50

A

Effective dose in 50% of a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

TD50

A

Toxic dose in
50% of a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

LD50

A

Lethal dose in
50% of a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Therapeutic index

A

Ratio of TD50 to the ED50

Provides some indication of drug safety

The larger (wider) the index, the safer the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
A

A

wider therapeutic index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

most common drug receptor

A

GPCRs

increase/decrease enzyme activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

tachyphylaxis

A

acute tolerance of a drug after only a few doses

need break from the drug for it to work

38
Q

tolerance

A
  • Decreasing response to repeated constant doses of a drug
  • May be pharmacokinetic or dynamic

ex: opioid

39
Q

affinity

A

• Force of attraction between drug
and receptor
• Higher affinity drugs are harder to displace

works for longer, needs higher, more frequent doses of reversal

40
Q

selectivity

A

Specificity of the drug for the target receptor binding

ex: epinephrine (least selective) binds to most sympathetic receptors while dobutamine (more selective) only binds to 2

41
Q

why is selectivity important?

A
  • Stronger effects on the target receptor
  • Fewer effects on unwanted receptors (side effects)
42
Q

potency

A
  • Comparative term
  • Describes the concentration of different drugs necessary to induce the same magnitude of response
43
Q

True or False:
A more potent drug is a better drug.

A

false

44
Q

efficacy

A

MOST IMPORTANT

intrinsic activity

ability of a drug to have a response

complex relationship btwn drug concentration, receptor activation, cellular response

45
Q

agonist

A

receptor interaction results in activation

magnitude of effect is proportional to the # of receptors occupied

46
Q

partial agonist

A

binds and activates a receptor

only results in partial response

maximal response not observed

lower efficacy

47
Q

antagonist

A

drug interacts selectively with receptor but it lacks intrinsic efficacy

blocks or reduces action of an agonist at the receptor

48
Q

competitive vs non competitive antagonists

A
  • Competitive: Looks like the drug– binds at the same site
  • Non-competitive: Binds somewhere else (allosteric site), Changes receptor conformation so the agonist can’t bind

usually to reverse agonist drugs

49
Q

reversible antagonists

A

• Binds to receptor (affinity) but can easily dissociate from the
receptor
• H-bonds, van der waals = all weak/reversible
• Agonist present at sufficiently high concentrations can displace
an antagonist
• Decreases potency because a higher concentration is now necessary to induce the same response

50
Q

irreversible antagonist

A

Binds and stays
• Covalent bonds
• Agonist response can not occur until the receptor is replaced and any remaining unbound antagonist has been removed from the body
• Decreases efficacy preventing the maximal possible response

51
Q

inverse agonists

A

bind and has negative response

confused with antagonist in literature

52
Q

chemical antagonism

A

Direct chemical interaction between two drugs (i.e., a weak acid and weak base)

53
Q

physiologic antagonism

A

Two drugs act in the same physiologic system but act on different receptors or
pathways

54
Q

pharmacokinetic antagonism

A

One drug alters the response to another drug through changes in disposition

55
Q

molecular weight affect on drug transfer

A

smaller = increased

56
Q

lipid solubility affect on drug transfer

A

higher solubility = higher transfer

57
Q

pKa affect on drug transfer

A

unionized= higher transfer

58
Q

protein binding affect on drug transfer

A

lower = higher drug transfer

59
Q

concentration gradient affect on drug transfer

A

higher= higher drug transfer

60
Q

end receptor for parasympathetic NS

A

muscarinic

61
Q

end receptor for sympathetic NS

A

adrenergic

62
Q

neurotransmitters for the PNS

A

acetylcholine

63
Q

SNS neurotransmitters

A

norepinephrine, epinephrine (from adrenal gland)

64
Q

parasympathomimetic

A

aka cholinergic

agonists at muscarinic receptors in PNS

mimic ACh

65
Q

parasympatholytic

A

antagonists at muscarinic receptors

aka anticholinergic

block ACh

66
Q

M1 receptors effect:

A

forebrain,

PNS effector cells,

gastric mucosa,

neurons,

cerebral cortex

67
Q

M2 receptors effects:

A

heart, PNS effector cells, cardiac muscles

68
Q

M3 receptors effect

A

smooth muscle, exocrine

intestinal smooth muscle and glands

69
Q

M4 receptors

A

neostriatum, spinal cord, involved in pain

70
Q

M5 receptors

A

brain, dopamine response

71
Q

classes of Parasympathomimetic drugs

A

Cholinergic agonists
Anticholinesterases

72
Q

Cholinergic agonists

A

Mimic the action of acetylcholine

73
Q

Anticholinesterases

A

Inhibit the destruction of acetylcholine by blocking acetylcholinesterase

74
Q

In general, parasympathomimetic drugs stimulate muscles to contract or relax in target organs? What are the exceptions?

A

contract

S alivation

L acrimation

U rination

D efecation

D igestion

except HR- slows HR, slow breathing

75
Q

clinical uses of parasympathomimetic drugs

A
  • Stimulate GI motility and gastric emptying
  • Stimulate bladder emptying
  • Constrict the pupil (some forms of glaucoma)
76
Q

In general, parasympatholytic drugs relax or contract muscles in target organs?

A

Relax

A nhidrosis (lack of sweating)

B lurry vision (mydriasis/dry eye)

D ry mouth (decreased salivation)

U rine retention

C onstipation (ileus)

T achycardia

77
Q

parasympatholytic drugs clinical uses

A
  • Cause bronchodilation
  • Stop diarrhea
  • Antiemetics (stop vomiting)
  • Cause mydriasis (pupil dilation)
  • Treat bradycardia (low heart rate)
78
Q

major subtypes of sympathetic drugs

A

alpha adrenergic (a1 and a2)

beta adrenergic (b1 and b2)

79
Q

sympathomimetics

A

agonists at these receptors

adrenergic agonists

80
Q

sympatholytics

A

adrenergic antagonists/blockers

Drugs that act as antagonists

Block the actions of the sympathetic nervous system

Most drugs in this class will be specific for either alpha or beta receptors

81
Q

3 classes of sympathomimetic drugs

A

direct acting

indirect acting

dual acting

82
Q

direct acting sympathomimetic drugs

A

Directly stimulate adrenergic receptors

83
Q

indirect acting sympathomimetic drugs

A

Stimulate the release of NE from nerve endings in the synapse

84
Q

dual acting sympathomimetic drugs

A

Directly stimulate adrenergic receptors and Stimulate the release of NE from nerve endings in the synapse

85
Q

alpha 1 adrenergic receptor

A

main location: blood vessels, eye

main agonist actions: vasoconstriction, pupil dilation

main clinical uses: hypotension, antiarrhythmic, mydriasis

main adverse effects: Hypertension, Arrhythmias, CNS stimulation

86
Q

alpha 2 agonist drugs

A

main location: CNS, pancreas

main agonist actions: Decreased sympathetic outflow, Decreased NE release, Decreased insulin secretion

main clinical uses: sedative, analgesic, muscle relaxation, anxiolysis

main adverse effects: Initial hypertension which results in baroreceptor-mediated reflex bradycardia (As the peripheral effects diminish, central alpha-2 actions predominate, leading to decreased blood pressure and cardiac output)
• Arrhythmias
• Vomiting (particularly in cats!)
• Increased urine output
• Transient hyperglycemia
• Increased myometrial tone and intrauterine pressure 25

***stim of alpha 2 cause sympathetic inhibition!!

87
Q

beta 1 adrenergic agonist drugs

A

main location: heart, kidney

main agonist actions: increased HR, increased heart contractility, increased renin release

main clinical uses: hypotension, anesthesia/shock, bradycardia

main adverse effects: hypertension, tachycardia, arrhythmias

88
Q

beta 2 adrenergic agonist drugs

A

main location: lungs (we have 2 lungs), uterus, blood vessels (but not brain/skin

main agonist actions: bronchodilation, uterine relaxation, vasodilation

main clinical uses: Respiratory disease/asthma, Delaying parturition

main adverse effects: Tachycardia/myocardial necrosis, CNS excitement, Muscle tremors

89
Q

alpha 1 antagonists

A

• Treat congestive heart failure/hypertension; urine retention

90
Q

alpha 2 antagonists

A

Reverse the sedation and bradycardic effects of alpha-2 agonists

91
Q

beta 1 antagonists

A

treat congestive heart failure

92
Q

beta 2 antagonists

A
  • No specific uses
  • Most beta-1 antagonists have beta-2 antagonist ability

• Use with caution in asthmatic patients (cause bronchoconstriction)

Normal animal exam 3 (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions