Pharmaco Flashcards

1
Q

What is the study of drugs?

A

pharmacology

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2
Q

What is the branch of pharmacology concerned with therapeutic agents used in the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of disease in humans?

A

clinical pharmacology

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3
Q

True or false: drugs do NOT confer any new functions on a tissue or organ, they only modify existing functions.

A

true

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4
Q

What name describes the chemical structure of the drug?

A

chemical name

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5
Q

What name is the nonproprietary name of the drug that is general preferred but not always used?

A

generic name

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6
Q

What name is the trade name for a drug that is picked by the drug’s manufacturer and can only be used by the company that owns the name?

A

brand name

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7
Q

This refers to what the drug does to the body, including mechanism(s) of action and its effects

A

pharmacodynamics

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8
Q

This refers to what the body does to the drug and “ADME”

A

pharmacokinetics

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9
Q

This is a target that binds a drug or endogenous ligand and mediated the pharmacologic action

A

drug receptor

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10
Q

This refers to when the drug and the receptor are bound together and leads to the biological response

A

drug-receptor complex

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11
Q

True or false: the magnitude of the response to a drug is NOT proportional to the number of drug-receptor complexes

A

false

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12
Q

This refers to when all drug receptors are bound so no other complexes form

A

saturation

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13
Q

True or false: most drugs are lipid soluble

A

true

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14
Q

What type of molecule binds to the receptor and stimulates the biological response?
This usually mimics the response of the endogenous ligand.

A

agonist

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15
Q

This type of molecule blocks or reverses the effect of agonists and can also block the effects of endogenously produced compounds. It does not stimulate its own response.

A

antagonist

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16
Q

What type of molecule produces a biological response but it is not 100% effective even at high doses?

A

partial agonists

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17
Q

These are all reasons why ____ agonists are not as effective:
occupies all receptors but doesn’t active ligand binding site
opens ion channels differently or incompletely
can act as antagonist if given with full antagonist

A

partial agonists

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18
Q

What type of molecule competes for the same site on the receptor that the agonist wants?

A

competitive antagonist

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19
Q

What type of molecule opposes the action of the agonist without competing for the binding site and cannot be overcome by increase the concentration of the agonist?

A

noncompetitive antagonist

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20
Q

What type of molecule has the opposite effects of agonists by making receptors tilt toward the inactive state or decreasing the amount of time receptor ion channels are open?

A

inverse agonist

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21
Q

This is the maximal response a drug can pose

A

efficacy

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22
Q

This is a measure of the dose required to produce a response

A

potency

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23
Q

This is a measure of drug safety; lethal dose (LD)/ effective dose (ED)

A

therapeutic index

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24
Q

True or false: a therapeutic index that is larger/ wide is safer

A

true, more room for error

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25
Q

What value is referred to as a narrow therapeutic window?

A

2 or less

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26
Q

This refers to when two drugs with the opposite effects are given together

A

functional antagonism

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27
Q

This refers to when an antagonist is administered with an agonist

A

competitive antagonism

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28
Q

This refers to diminished response to the same drug over time and may be due to receptor desensitization or receptor down-regulation

A

tolerance

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29
Q

When the body quickly develops response to a drug and requires a higher dose for the same effect

A

tachyphylaxis

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30
Q

These are three reasons for _______ drug activity (increased or decreased?)
1. hyperactivity
2. potentiation
3. synergism

A

increased

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31
Q

This is an enhanced response to a drug

A

hyperactivity

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32
Q

This is the enhancement of one drug by another which has no effect on its own

A

potentiation

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33
Q

This is the production of a greater response by two drugs when given together, than each individually

A

synergism

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34
Q

What does LADME stand for?

A

Liberation
Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion

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35
Q

What does liberation refer to?

A

how the drug was administered

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36
Q

This is the movement of the drug from the site where it was administered into the body

A

absorption

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37
Q

This refers to the amount of drug that is absorbed after oral administration compared with the amount of drug that is absorbed after intravenous (IV)

oral/ injection x 100

A

Bioavailability

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38
Q

Is absorption faster or slower if the drug is dissolved in aqueous solutions vs. oily solutions?

A

faster

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39
Q

Do smaller molecules absorb faster or slower than large ones?

A

faster

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40
Q

Can only the ionized or nonionized form of a drug cross membranes?

A

nonionized

41
Q

Are acidic drugs nonionized in acidic or basic medium?

42
Q

Are basic drugs nonionized in acidic or basic medium?

43
Q

Are more or less concentrated solutions absorbed faster?

A

higher concentrated

44
Q

Is absorption faster or slower with increased surface area?

45
Q

Is absorption faster or slower in areas with more blood flow?

46
Q

This refers to the fact that drugs administered orally often are metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation.

A

First Pass Effect/ Bioavailability

47
Q

These are inactive drugs metabolized by the liver to the active form.

48
Q

This refers to the process in which an absorbed drug moves from the site of absorption to other areas of the body

A

distribution

49
Q

What type of macromolecule do many drugs bind to when in the bloodstream?

A

plasma proteins, especially albumin

50
Q

This is the process of converting a drug into another chemical called a metabolite

A

biotransformation/ metabolism

51
Q

What is the major metabolizing organ?

52
Q

Does biotransformation aim to make molecules more water-soluble or lipid-soluble for excretion?

A

more water- soluble/ hydrophilic

53
Q

This phase of metabolism involves the cytochrome P-450 enzymes which introduces a polar functional group to increase renal elimination

54
Q

What is the most important cytochrome P-450 enzyme involved in phase 1 of metabolism in the liver and metabolizes around 50% of drugs?

55
Q

In this phase of metabolism, acids are combined with the drug to increase polarity and therefore increase renal excretion

56
Q

Three processes of renal elimination of drugs include:

A

glomerular filtration
proximal tubular secretion
distal tubular reabsorption

57
Q

What is the apparent volume in which a drug is dissolved? This assumes that a drug is evenly distributed and has not undergone metabolism or excretion.

A

Volume of distribution (Vd)

58
Q

dose (mg)/ plasma concentration (mg/ mL)

A

volume of distribution (Vd)

59
Q

This is the rate at which a drug is cleared from a volume of blood in a given time

A

Clearance (CL)

60
Q

rate of drug elimination (mg/min)/ plasma concentration (mg/mL)

A

clearance (mL/ min)

61
Q

Sum of the clearances from the various organs involved in drug metabolism and elimination

A

total body clearance

62
Q

The % of drug that is lost or cleared from the blood per unit time

A

elimination rate

63
Q

What is the fraction of a substance that is removed per unit time measured at any particular instant

A

elimination rate constant (ke)

64
Q

This is the time it takes for the blood level drug to fall exactly half

A

half-life (t1/2)

65
Q

When the drug accumulates until the amount administrated per unit time is equal to the amount eliminated per unit time (amount absorbed= amount cleared)

A

steady-state concentration (Css)

66
Q

How many half-lives are needed to reach a steady-state?

67
Q

5 x t1/2 = ?

A

Css- steady-state concentration

68
Q

This is a single large dose of a drug that is used to raise the plasma concentration to a therapeutic level more quickly than would occur through repeated smaller doses

A

loading dose (LD)

69
Q

constant amount of drug that is lost per unit time is under _______ order kinetics

70
Q

This refers to the fraction of drug removed during one pass through the liver

A

hepatic extraction rate

71
Q

What is the study of genetic factors that affect drug responses?

A

pharmacogenomics

72
Q

Refers to one of the alternate forms of a gene

73
Q

What is a series of alleles found in a linked locus on a chromosome?

74
Q

What is an inherited variation in the DNA sequence?

A

polymorphism

75
Q

What refers to a variation in a single base pair within the DNA?

A

single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)

76
Q

Polymorphisms involved with larger stretches of DNA

A

structural variations (SV)

77
Q

This alerts the immune system to target a pathogen for destruction and can possess SVs with high clinical significance

A

human leukocyte antigen (HLAs)

78
Q

What is the most common phase 1 P450 enzyme in drug metabolism

79
Q

This phase 1 P450 enzyme has a preference for acidic drugs and polymorphism is more prevalent in Asian populations

80
Q

This phase 1 P450 enzyme has disproportional polymorphisms in the east asian and oceania populations

81
Q

Phase 2 enzymes are important in _______ and immunological treatments

82
Q

UGT1A1 and TMPT are phase _____ enzymes

83
Q

This enzyme is the rate limiting step in the pentos phosphate pathway, is a significant source of NADPH in the body, and deficiency is defined as less than 60% enzymes activity and is more prevalent in the African and Mediterranean populations and may lead to hemolysis.

84
Q

This is a genetic component that determines if sustained virologic response of anti-viral medication is likely and is more present in European populations

85
Q

This refers to combination effects of multiple gene mutations on drug response

A

polygenic effects

86
Q

HIV pts with the HLA-B*5701 gene variant have hypersensitivity to what drug?

A

abacavir (ziagen)

87
Q

Pts of Asian descent with epilepsy, neurogia, or bipolar disorder with the HLA-B*1502 gene variant may develop Stevens-Johnson syndrome or toxic epidermal necrosis in response to what drug?

A

Carbamazepine (tegretol)

88
Q

Pts with HIV must test CCR5 positive to use this drug

A

Maraviroc (selzentry)

89
Q

Pts of Chinese, Thai, or Korean descent with renal impairment should not test positive for HLA-B*5801 to use this medication for gout

A

allopurinol

90
Q

The CYP2C19 genotype should be tested for pts before taking what medication

A

Clopidogrel (plavix)

91
Q

The CYP2D6 genotype should be tested before giving what medication

92
Q

the CYP2C9 and VKORC1 genotype should be tested before giving what medication

A

warfarin (coumadin)

93
Q

This phase of drug evaluation includes when experiments are done to define a drug’s mechanism of action, pharmacologic activity, and selectivity

A

pre-clinical phase: screening

94
Q

In this phase of drug evaluation, clinical testing is carried out in human volunteers in three formal phases

A

clinical phase: clinical trials

95
Q

This clinical phase is the first stage of testing in human subjects w/o target disease, it evaluates safety, determines dosage range, and identifies adverse reactions

A

Clinical phase 1

96
Q

In this clinical phase, the new drug is studied in patients with the target disease and it determines the medication’s efficacy and the dose to be used in further trials

A

Clinical phase 2

97
Q

In this clinical phase, the drug is tested in the formulation intended for the market in a much larger group of individuals with the target condition; this phase usually lasts 2-10 years

A

clinical phase 3

98
Q

This clinical phase starts when the drug has been approved for the market and is being given to large numbers of pts.

A

clinical phase 4