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Pharmacology > Pharm 2 Exam 1 > Flashcards

Pharm 2 Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

cholinergic agonists- direct acting MOA

A

acts directly on muscarinic or nicotinic ACh receptors

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2
Q

2 types of direct acting cholinergic agonists include:

A

esters- bethanechol
alkaloids: pilocarpine, muscarine, nicotine

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3
Q

use of ester direct acting cholinergic agonists

A

urinary retention
non-obstructive post op ileus

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4
Q

use of alkaloid direct acting cholinergic agonists

A

acute angle closure glaucoma

pilocarpine–> xerostomia (dry mouth)

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5
Q

two types of indirect acting cholinergic agonists

A

reversible (don, neo, gal, pyrido, riva)

irreversible (insecticidies, malthioin, parathion, sarin)

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6
Q

use of indirect acting cholinergic agonists

A

MA
Alzheimers
open angle glaucoma
reverse NMB

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7
Q

indirect acting cholinergic agonist SE

A

DUMBELS:
diarrhea
urination
miosis
bronchospasm/ rrhea, bradycardia
emesis
lacrimation
salivation

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8
Q

name 2 muscarinic antagonists and their functions

A

atropine- increases HR, reversal agent before surgery

scopolamine- motion sickness

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9
Q

ADR of cholinergic antagonists

A

anti-sludge/ ABCDs
agitation
blurred vision
constipation
confusion
dry mouth
stasis- urinary retention

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10
Q

complication of cholinergic antagonists

A

anticholinergic syndrome-
psychosis
flushed skin
dryness
mydriasis
hyperthermia

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11
Q

anticholinergic syndrome reversal agent

A

physostigmine

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12
Q

alpha 1 agonist and its function

A

phenylephrine- decongestant and increases BP

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13
Q

alpha 2 agonist and its function

A

clonidine- lowers BP

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14
Q

beta 1 agonist and its function

A

dobutamine- increases heart contractility

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15
Q

beta 2 agonist and its function

A

albuterol- bronchodilation

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16
Q

indirect acting adrenergic agonists are used for what?

A

ADHD and narcoepilepsy

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17
Q

indirect acting adrenergic agonists are what class of medications?

A

class II- amphetamines and derivatives

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18
Q

name and use of alpha 1 blockers

A

-azosins (prazosin and tamsulosin)

HTN and BPH
*postural hypotension/ 1st dose hypotension

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19
Q

ADR of alpha 1 blockers

A

impaired ejaculation

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20
Q

list alpha 2 agonists

A

clonidine, methyldopa, tizaidine, guanfacine

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21
Q

beta 1 blockers cause______
beta 2 blockers cause _______

A

1- decreased HR
2- bronchoconstriction

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22
Q

uses of BB

A

arrhythmias, HTN, angina, HF

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23
Q

name the cardioselective BB

A

acebutolol
atenolol
bisoprolol
esmolol
metoprolol

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24
Q

name the nonselective BB

A

propanolol
nadolol
penbutolol
pindolol
timolol

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25
Q

ADRs of beta blockers

A

low BP, HR and CO
blocks effects of hypoglycemia
fatigue
heart block
ED

nonselective- bronchoconstriction

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26
Q

name 2 mixed alpha and beta blockers

A

labetaolol (pregnancy)
carbediolol

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27
Q

use of mixed beta blockers

A

HTN and HF

labetaolol preferred in pregnancy

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28
Q

DOC in HTN

A

alpha blockers- prazosin
beta blockers- atenolol
alpha 2 agonists- clonidine

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29
Q

DOC for asthma/ COPD

A

beta 2 agonists- albuterol
anticholinergics- ipratropium

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30
Q

DOC for HF

A

beta blockers- carvediolol
ACE-I

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31
Q

DOC for glaucome

A

muscarinic agonists- pilocarpine

32
Q

DOC for motion sickness

A

muscarinic antagonist- scopolamine

33
Q

DOC for parkinson’s

A

anticholinergic- benztropine

34
Q

DOC for alzheimer’s

A

cholinergic agonist- donepezil

35
Q

what are 5 vasopressors

A

NE
Epi
Dopamine
Vasopressin
Phenylephrine

36
Q

what 3 vasopressors may cause severe peripheral constriction?

A

dopamine
vasopressin
phenylephrine

37
Q

dopamine and epi has more of a ______ effect at higher doses and more of a _____ effect at lower doses

A

alpha
beta

38
Q

list 2 inotropes

A

milrinone
dobutamine

39
Q

this inotrope is also a potent vasodilator

A

milrinone (PDE inhibitor)

40
Q

a negative effect of this inotrope is tolerance development

A

dobutamine

41
Q

class I anti-arrhythmics are _____ channel blockers

A

Na+ channel blockers

42
Q

name class Ia anti-arrhythmics

A

quinidine
disopyramide
procainamide

43
Q

ADR of class Ia anti-arrhythmics

A

lupus like syndrome

44
Q

name class Ib anti-arrhythmics

A

lidocaine
mexilitine

45
Q

name class Ic anti-arrhythmics

A

fecainide
propafenone

46
Q

use of class Ib anti-arrhythmics

A

ventricular arrhythmias

47
Q

class II anti-arrhythmics are _____ blockers

A

beta blockers

48
Q

ADR of BB

A

AV block
bronchospasms

49
Q

name class III anti-arrhythmics

A

K+ channel blockers
amiodarone, dofetilide, ibutilide, sotalol

50
Q

ADR of class III anti-arrhythmics

A

QT prolongation–> torsades

amiodarone toxicity- n/v, pulmonary fibrosis, thyroid issues, corneal deposits, hepatotoxicity

51
Q

class IV anti-arrhythmics

A

CCB- diltiazem and verapamil

52
Q

AV blocking drugs

A

anti-arrhythmics (not Ib)
adenosine
BB
CCB
digoxin

53
Q

QT prolonging drugs

A

antiarrhythmics (Ia and III)
TCAs
Quinolones
Phenothiazines
Haloperidol
Ondansetron

54
Q

list 5 examples of anti-platelets

A

aspirin

ADP or P2Y12 inhibitors (clopidogrel and ticagrelor)

GPIIb/IIIa inhibitors (abciximab and eptifibatide)

dipyridamole

cilostazol

55
Q

ADP or PY212 inhibitor MOA

A

inhibits P2Y12 receptor and blocks ADP-induced platelet aggregation

56
Q

list ADP or PY212 inhibitors

A

clopidogrel
prasugrel
ticargrelor

57
Q

list GPIIb/ IIIa inhibitors

A

abciximab and eptifibatide

58
Q

MOA of GPIIb/ IIIa inhibitors

A

block GPIIb/ IIIa receptors and prevents platelet fibrinogen binding

59
Q

ADR of GPIIb/ IIIa inhibitors

A

anaphylaxis
thrombocytopenia
renal dysfunction- eptifbatide

60
Q

MOA of dipyridamole and cilostazol

A

inhibits phosphodiesterase activity

61
Q

cilostazol DI

A

increased fat and grapefruit levels increase drug levels

62
Q

this med needs bridge with indirect thrombin inhibitor until INR range

A

warfarin

63
Q

reversal agent of warfarin

A

oral vitamin K

64
Q

direct factor Xa inhibitors

A

apixaban
rivaroxaban

65
Q

reversal agent of direct factor Xa inhibitors

A

andexa

66
Q

DO NOT give apixaban in 2+ of these RFs:

A

age 80+
body mass 60kg or less
creatinine 1.5+

67
Q

direct thrombin inhibitor

A

dabigatran

68
Q

dabigatran black box warning

A

spinal and epidural hematomas and abrupt D/C

69
Q

reversal agent of dabigatran

A

idarucizumab

70
Q

heparin reversal agent

A

protamine sulfate

71
Q

low molecular weight heparins include…

A

tinzaparin
enoxaparin
dalteparin

72
Q

when are LMWH indicated?

A

TOP
trauma
oncology
pregnancy

73
Q

synthetic heparin example

A

fondaparinux

74
Q

list 2 fibrinolytics

A

alteplase
tenecteplase

75
Q

CI of alteplase and tenecteplase

A

last 3 mo: internal hemorrhage, stroke, head trauma, surgery
increased risk of bleeding
severe uncontrolled HTN
neoplasms, aneurysms

Pharmacology (10 decks)

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