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Pharmacology > Pharm 2 Exam 1 > Flashcards

Pharm 2 Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

cholinergic agonists- direct acting MOA

A

acts directly on muscarinic or nicotinic ACh receptors

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2
Q

2 types of direct acting cholinergic agonists include:

A

esters- bethanechol
alkaloids: pilocarpine, muscarine, nicotine

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3
Q

use of ester direct acting cholinergic agonists

A

urinary retention
non-obstructive post op ileus

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4
Q

use of alkaloid direct acting cholinergic agonists

A

acute angle closure glaucoma

pilocarpine–> xerostomia (dry mouth)

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5
Q

two types of indirect acting cholinergic agonists

A

reversible (don, neo, gal, pyrido, riva)

irreversible (insecticidies, malthioin, parathion, sarin)

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6
Q

use of indirect acting cholinergic agonists

A

MA
Alzheimers
open angle glaucoma
reverse NMB

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7
Q

indirect acting cholinergic agonist SE

A

DUMBELS:
diarrhea
urination
miosis
bronchospasm/ rrhea, bradycardia
emesis
lacrimation
salivation

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8
Q

name 2 muscarinic antagonists and their functions

A

atropine- increases HR, reversal agent before surgery

scopolamine- motion sickness

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9
Q

ADR of cholinergic antagonists

A

anti-sludge/ ABCDs
agitation
blurred vision
constipation
confusion
dry mouth
stasis- urinary retention

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10
Q

complication of cholinergic antagonists

A

anticholinergic syndrome-
psychosis
flushed skin
dryness
mydriasis
hyperthermia

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11
Q

anticholinergic syndrome reversal agent

A

physostigmine

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12
Q

alpha 1 agonist and its function

A

phenylephrine- decongestant and increases BP

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13
Q

alpha 2 agonist and its function

A

clonidine- lowers BP

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14
Q

beta 1 agonist and its function

A

dobutamine- increases heart contractility

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15
Q

beta 2 agonist and its function

A

albuterol- bronchodilation

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16
Q

indirect acting adrenergic agonists are used for what?

A

ADHD and narcoepilepsy

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17
Q

indirect acting adrenergic agonists are what class of medications?

A

class II- amphetamines and derivatives

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18
Q

name and use of alpha 1 blockers

A

-azosins (prazosin and tamsulosin)

HTN and BPH
*postural hypotension/ 1st dose hypotension

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19
Q

ADR of alpha 1 blockers

A

impaired ejaculation

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20
Q

list alpha 2 agonists

A

clonidine, methyldopa, tizaidine, guanfacine

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21
Q

beta 1 blockers cause______
beta 2 blockers cause _______

A

1- decreased HR
2- bronchoconstriction

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22
Q

uses of BB

A

arrhythmias, HTN, angina, HF

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23
Q

name the cardioselective BB

A

acebutolol
atenolol
bisoprolol
esmolol
metoprolol

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24
Q

name the nonselective BB

A

propanolol
nadolol
penbutolol
pindolol
timolol

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25
ADRs of beta blockers
low BP, HR and CO blocks effects of hypoglycemia fatigue heart block ED nonselective- bronchoconstriction
26
name 2 mixed alpha and beta blockers
labetaolol (pregnancy) carbediolol
27
use of mixed beta blockers
HTN and HF labetaolol preferred in pregnancy
28
DOC in HTN
alpha blockers- prazosin beta blockers- atenolol alpha 2 agonists- clonidine
29
DOC for asthma/ COPD
beta 2 agonists- albuterol anticholinergics- ipratropium
30
DOC for HF
beta blockers- carvediolol ACE-I
31
DOC for glaucome
muscarinic agonists- pilocarpine
32
DOC for motion sickness
muscarinic antagonist- scopolamine
33
DOC for parkinson's
anticholinergic- benztropine
34
DOC for alzheimer's
cholinergic agonist- donepezil
35
what are 5 vasopressors
NE Epi Dopamine Vasopressin Phenylephrine
36
what 3 vasopressors may cause severe peripheral constriction?
dopamine vasopressin phenylephrine
37
dopamine and epi has more of a ______ effect at higher doses and more of a _____ effect at lower doses
alpha beta
38
list 2 inotropes
milrinone dobutamine
39
this inotrope is also a potent vasodilator
milrinone (PDE inhibitor)
40
a negative effect of this inotrope is tolerance development
dobutamine
41
class I anti-arrhythmics are _____ channel blockers
Na+ channel blockers
42
name class Ia anti-arrhythmics
quinidine disopyramide procainamide
43
ADR of class Ia anti-arrhythmics
lupus like syndrome
44
name class Ib anti-arrhythmics
lidocaine mexilitine
45
name class Ic anti-arrhythmics
fecainide propafenone
46
use of class Ib anti-arrhythmics
ventricular arrhythmias
47
class II anti-arrhythmics are _____ blockers
beta blockers
48
ADR of BB
AV block bronchospasms
49
name class III anti-arrhythmics
K+ channel blockers amiodarone, dofetilide, ibutilide, sotalol
50
ADR of class III anti-arrhythmics
QT prolongation--> torsades amiodarone toxicity- n/v, pulmonary fibrosis, thyroid issues, corneal deposits, hepatotoxicity
51
class IV anti-arrhythmics
CCB- diltiazem and verapamil
52
AV blocking drugs
anti-arrhythmics (not Ib) adenosine BB CCB digoxin
53
QT prolonging drugs
antiarrhythmics (Ia and III) TCAs Quinolones Phenothiazines Haloperidol Ondansetron
54
list 5 examples of anti-platelets
aspirin ADP or P2Y12 inhibitors (clopidogrel and ticagrelor) GPIIb/IIIa inhibitors (abciximab and eptifibatide) dipyridamole cilostazol
55
ADP or PY212 inhibitor MOA
inhibits P2Y12 receptor and blocks ADP-induced platelet aggregation
56
list ADP or PY212 inhibitors
clopidogrel prasugrel ticargrelor
57
list GPIIb/ IIIa inhibitors
abciximab and eptifibatide
58
MOA of GPIIb/ IIIa inhibitors
block GPIIb/ IIIa receptors and prevents platelet fibrinogen binding
59
ADR of GPIIb/ IIIa inhibitors
anaphylaxis thrombocytopenia renal dysfunction- eptifbatide
60
MOA of dipyridamole and cilostazol
inhibits phosphodiesterase activity
61
cilostazol DI
increased fat and grapefruit levels increase drug levels
62
this med needs bridge with indirect thrombin inhibitor until INR range
warfarin
63
reversal agent of warfarin
oral vitamin K
64
direct factor Xa inhibitors
apixaban rivaroxaban
65
reversal agent of direct factor Xa inhibitors
andexa
66
DO NOT give apixaban in 2+ of these RFs:
age 80+ body mass 60kg or less creatinine 1.5+
67
direct thrombin inhibitor
dabigatran
68
dabigatran black box warning
spinal and epidural hematomas and abrupt D/C
69
reversal agent of dabigatran
idarucizumab
70
heparin reversal agent
protamine sulfate
71
low molecular weight heparins include...
tinzaparin enoxaparin dalteparin
72
when are LMWH indicated?
TOP trauma oncology pregnancy
73
synthetic heparin example
fondaparinux
74
list 2 fibrinolytics
alteplase tenecteplase
75
CI of alteplase and tenecteplase
last 3 mo: internal hemorrhage, stroke, head trauma, surgery increased risk of bleeding severe uncontrolled HTN neoplasms, aneurysms

Pharmacology (13 decks)

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