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abx Flashcards

1
Q

this type of drug inhibits growth and replication of bacteria

A

bacteriostatic

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2
Q

this type of drug kills bacteria

A

bactericidal

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3
Q

name off bacteriostatic drugs

A

Clarithromycin
Erythromycin
Trimethoprim
Sulfamethoxazole
Chloraamphenicol
Tetracyclines

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4
Q

name off bactericidal drugs

A

Vancomycin
Fluoroquinolones
PCN
Aminoglycosides
Cephalosporins
Metronidazole

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5
Q

name off 3 classes of cell wall inhibitors

A

beta lactams
glycopeptides
lipopeptides

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6
Q

beta lactam MOA

A

binds PBPs to inhibit cell wall synthesis

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7
Q

are beta lactams bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

A

bactericidal

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8
Q

what beta-lactam/ beta-lactamase inhibitors cover pseudomonas?

A

piperacillin/ tazobactam and ticarcillin/ clav

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9
Q

what are 4 major examples of beta- lactams

A

PCNs
cephalosporins
carbapenems
monobactem

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10
Q

list 3 subtypes of PCNs

A

natural
aminopenicillins
anti-staph/ penicillinase resistant

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11
Q

natural PCNs include…

A

PCN G and PCN VK

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12
Q

what 2 conditions do natural PCNs target?

A

syphilis and strep pharyngitis

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13
Q

what are 2 examples of aminopenicillins?

A

amoxicillin and ampicillin

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14
Q

aminopenicillins require the addition of what to be bactericidal against against enterococci?

A

aminoglycosides

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15
Q

list 3 examples of anti-staph/ penicillinase-resistant abx

A

nafcillin, oxacillin, methicillin

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16
Q

list 1st gen cephalosporins

A

cefazolin, cephalexin, cefadroxil

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17
Q

should yo use 1st gen cephalosporins for MSSA in the CNS?

A

NO

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18
Q

list 2nd gen cephalosporins

A

cefuroxime- respiratory
cefoxitin and cefotetan- enteric

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19
Q

2nd gen cephalosporin that targets h flu

A

cefuroxime

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20
Q

2nd gen cephalosporin that is used for abd surgeries and prophylaxis

A

cefoxitin and cefotetan

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21
Q

3rd generation cephalosporins

A

ceftriaxone
cefpodoxime
cefixime
cefdinir
ceftazidine
cefotaxime

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22
Q

what 3rd gen cephalosporin is the only one that covers pseudomonas?

A

ceftazidime

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23
Q

list ceftriaxone and ceftazidime txs

A

ceftriaxone- lyme disease, gonorrhea, meningitis
ceftazidime- nosocomial infections, febrile neutropenia

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24
Q

what generation cephalosporins penetrate the CNS?

A

3rd and 4th gens

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25
Q

list a 4th gen cephalosporin

A

cefepime

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26
Q

does cefepime cover pseudomonas?

A

yes

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27
Q

list a 5th gen cephalosporin

A

ceftaroline

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28
Q

list 2 cephalosporin combinations

A

ceftolozane-tazobactam
ceftazidime-avibactam

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29
Q

ceftolozane-tazobactam coverage

A

ESBL and pseudomonas

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30
Q

ceftazidime- avibactam coverage

A

CRE

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31
Q

what carbapenems have IV pseudomonas coverage?

A

imipenem
meropenem
doripenem

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32
Q

list an example of a monobactam

A

aztreonam

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33
Q

do monobactams have G+ coverage

A

NO, NO G+ COVERAGE

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34
Q

these two beta lactams have no need for renal adjustment

A

nafcillin
ceftriaxone

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35
Q

name an example of a glycopeptide

A

vancomycin

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36
Q

ADRs of vancomycin

A

red man syndrome
nephrotoxicity
ototoxicity

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37
Q

glycopeptide MOA

A

inhibits cross-linking of linear peptidoglycans

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38
Q

is vancomycin bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bactericidal

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39
Q

list an example of lipopeptides

A

daptomycin

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40
Q

is daptomycin bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bactericidal

41
Q

lipopeptide MOA

A

binds to membrane and causes depolarization–> loss of cell wall function

42
Q

what condition should daptomycin not be used for?

43
Q

ADRs of daptomycin

A

rhabdomyolysis, hepatic effects

44
Q

list 2 30S protein synthesis inhibitors

A

aminoglycosides
tetracyclines

45
Q

are aminoglycosides bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

A

bactericidal

46
Q

aminoglycosides MOA

A

irreversibly binds 30S

47
Q

ADRs of aminoglycosides

A

ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

48
Q

name 3 examples of aminoglycosides

A

gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin

49
Q

name 3 examples of tetracyclines

A

tetracycline
doxycycline
minocycline

50
Q

are tetracyclines bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

bacteriostatic

51
Q

MOA of tetracyclines

A

blocks binding of aminoacyl tRNA by binding 30S

52
Q

ADR of tetracyclines

A

stains teeth <8yrs old
photosensitivity

53
Q

DI of tetracyclines

A

polyvalent cations (do not take within 2 hrs)

54
Q

list 3 examples of 50S protein synthesis inhibitors

A

macrolides
oxazolidinones
lincosamide

55
Q

list 3 macrolide examples

A

azithromycin
clarithromycin
erythromycin

56
Q

are macrolides bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

bacteriostatic

57
Q

macrolide MOA

A

inhibits translocation of peptidase chain and polypeptide synthesis

58
Q

major DI of macrolides

A

clarithromycin and erythromycin are CYP450 INHIBITORS

59
Q

ADR of macrolides

A

QTc prolongation

60
Q

does erythromycin cover h flu?

A

no, but other macrolides do (azithro and clarithro)

61
Q

which macrolide covers helicobacter?

A

clarithromycin

62
Q

list an example of an oxazolidinone

63
Q

is linezolid bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

bacteriostatic

64
Q

linezolid MOA

A

binds 23S rRNA of 50S to prevent translation

65
Q

ADR of linezolid

A

thrombocytopenia

66
Q

DI of linezolid

67
Q

does linezolid cover MRSA or VRE?

A

yes, both
*typically tx in hospitals, not clinics

68
Q

lincosamide example

A

clindamycin

69
Q

is clindamycin bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

bacteriostatic

70
Q

clindamycin MOA

A

reversibly binds 50S

71
Q

ADR of clindamycin

A

GI effects–> may lead to c diff

72
Q

folate antagonist example

A

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

73
Q

ratio of TMP: SMX

A

1 TMP : 5SMX

74
Q

is TMP- SMX bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

bactericidal

75
Q

MOA of TMP-SMX

A

inhibits production of nucleic acids and proteins

76
Q

DI of TMP-SMX

A

warfarin–> displaces warfarin from albumin–> increased INR

77
Q

example of topisomerase inhibitor

A

fluoroquinolones

78
Q

are fluoroquinolones bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

bactericidal

79
Q

MOA of fluoroquinolones

A

inhibits DNA gyrase

80
Q

ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin elimination

81
Q

moxifloxacin elimination

82
Q

ADR of fluroroquinolones

A

QT prolongation and achilles tendon rupture

CONTRAINDICATED in pregnancy

83
Q

DI of fluoroquinolones

A

warfarin–> inhibits warfarin metabolism–> increased INR

polyvalent cation binding

84
Q

prominent use of fluoroquinolones

A

complicated UTIs (not moxifloxacin)

85
Q

metronidazole MOA

A

DNA synthesis inhibitor via disruption of helical structure

86
Q

ADR of metronidazole

A

metallic taste
dark urine

87
Q

2 DI of metronidazole

A

disulfuram like rxn with ethanol

warfarin–> increased INR

88
Q

nitrofurantoin MOA

A

damage ribosomal proteins and other macromolecules like DNA and RNA

*flavoproteins activate

89
Q

this drug should NOT be used in pts with renal function CrCl < 50 mL/min

A

nitrofurantoin

90
Q

what is nitrofuratoin commonly used for?

A

uncomplicated UTIs

91
Q

gonorrhea tx

A

IM ceftriaxone

92
Q

chlamydia tx

A

doxycycline

93
Q

trich (strawberry cervix) tx

A

metronidazole

94
Q

syphilis tx

A

benzathine PCN G

95
Q

strep throat tx

A

penicillin

96
Q

pneumonia tx in healthy pts

A

doxycycline
clarithromycin
azithromycin

97
Q

pneumonia tx in pts with comorbidities

A

macrolide or doxy + beta lactam

or fluoroquinolone

98
Q

erysipelas tx

A

IV dicloxacillin or 1st gen cephalosporins

99
Q

hidradenitis suppurativa tx

A

topical BPO or clindamycin

add doxycycline

Pharmacology (13 decks)

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