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Pharmacology > Pharm: Mid Term test > Flashcards

Pharm: Mid Term test Flashcards

0
Q

A cough that does not produce an expulsion of fluid, mucus, or other material is termed:

productive
moist
purulent
non-productive

A

Non-productive

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1
Q

The cough center can be suppressed with antitussives. This center is located in the:

Cerebrum
Brain stem
Hypothalmus
Spinal cord

A

Brain stem

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2
Q

Diphenhydramine causes a side effect of drowsiness. The parnet class of this drug is?

a benzodiazapine tranquilizer
an opiate based emetic
an antitussive
an antihistamine

A

An antihistamine

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3
Q

Catecholamines function during which autonomic nervous system response?

sympathetic
parasympathetic
cholinergic
sympathetic blockade

A

sympathetic

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4
Q

Quinidine is a/an:

beta-adrenergic blocker; has the effect of a negative inotropic agent
arteriole dilator to help perfuse de-vascularized tissues
antiarrhythmic for atrial fibrillation
calcium channel blocker for hypertension

A

Antiarrhythmic for atrial fibrillation

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5
Q

you are assisting in a caesrian section and must stimulate respiration in one of the neonates. Name the drug that acts on the central respiratory drive center:

yohimbine
naloxone
doxapram
xylazine

A

doxapram

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6
Q

Intravenously administered lidocaine without epinephrine is used to treat?

Ventricular tachycardia and ventricular pre mature contractions
Atrial fibrillation
Hypotension form blood losses
overdose of morphine

A

Ventricular tachycardia and ventricular pre mature contractions

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7
Q

which of the following drugs has the greatest margin of safety?

TI of 5
TI of 2.5
TI of 18
TI of 7.75

A

TI of 18

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8
Q

what is the term used to describe the study of how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated (ADME) by the body?

pharmacology
Pharmacotherapeutics
Pharmacokinetics
Pharmacognsy

A

Pharmacokinetics

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9
Q

which of the following drugs cannot be prescribed by a veterinarian/physician/dentist?

C I drug
C III drug
C II drug
C V drug

A

C I drug

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10
Q

The ED50 is:

A drug dose producing an observable effect in 50% of test subjects
The same as the TI
Is numerically equivalent to the LD50
Is calculated by dividing the LD50 by the ED50

A

a drug dose producing an observable effect in 50% of test subjects

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11
Q

when a drug is given by the IV route: When is the time of peak blood concentration?

15 mins
10 mins
30 mins
Immediately

A

Immediately

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12
Q

What type of tablet can be divided?

Molded
Enteric-coated (“safety caplet”)
Sustained release (Designated XR)
Scored

A

Scored

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13
Q

which of the following organs is often a primary site of drug biotransformation?

Brain
Liver
Kidney
Pancreas

A

Liver

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14
Q

Which routes might be an expected excretion pathway for a lipophilic drug?

Sputum and coughing
Bile/Feces
Expired breath
Renal Filtration/Urine

A

Bile/Feces

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15
Q

For which of the following drugs must a separate inventory and record of use/disposal be kept for eventual federal inspection?

DEA controlled substances
Generic drugs
Refrigerated drugs
Expired drugs

A

DEA controlled substances

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16
Q

The strength of binding between a drug and its cell receptor surface is termed?

Affinity
Antagonism
Synergism
Reversal agent strength

A

Affinity

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17
Q

The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration, against a concetration gradient, occurs during which physiologic process?

Active transport
Passive transport
Facilitated transport
Osmosis

A

Active transport

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18
Q

Drugs that are absorbed well into the brain after crossing the blood-brain barrier, are frequently:

Lipophilic
Hydrophilic
Hydrophobic
Cationic

A

Lipophilic

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19
Q

Equal amount of what drug is most commonly combined with diazapam in order to produce a hypnotic cocktail for short term, minor surgery or for the induction of general anesthesia?

Ketamine
Xylazine
Metetomidine
Oxymorphone

A

Ketamine

20
Q

Which of the following drug(s) is/are an alpha 2 agonists?

Medetomidine
Xylazine
Prochlorperazine
a & b

A

a & b

21
Q

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated as an anticonvulsant?

Diazepam
Potassium bromide
Phenobarbital
Medetomidine

A

Medetomidine

22
Q

What neurotransmitters is (are) associated with the sympathetic nervous system

Epinephrine, nor-epinephrine and dopamine
GABA
Serotonin
None of these

A

Epinephrine, nor-epinephrine and dopamine

23
Q

What is the reversal agent for medetomidine or dexamedetomidine?

acepromazine
xylazine
diazepam
GABA
none of these
A

none of these

24
Q

If the viscosity of respiratory secretions is reduced the agent class is termed a

decongestant
antitussive
mucolytic
expectorant

A

Mucolytic

25
Q

Atropine is a/an?

cholinergic agent
adrenergic agent
anticholinergic
adrenergic antagonist

A

anticholinergic

26
Q

Which is the most accurate statement regarding the hormone aldosterone?

is released into the blood stream in response to low sodium levels
Release is controlled from the hypothalmus
Release is controlled from the level of circulating calcium
Conserves sodium and water
a and c

A

conserves sodium and water

27
Q

Which of the following drugs used in the respiratory system is a expectorant?

Theophylline
Terbutaline
Guaifenesin
Doxopram

A

Guaifenesin

28
Q

Acepromazine is a/an:

opiod
phenothiazine class tranquilizer
alpha-2 agonist class hypnotic
cerebral-thalamic dissociative anesthetic agent

A

phenothiazine class tranquilizer

29
Q

An example of an adrenergic agonist drug would be?

Phenylpropanolamine
Xylazine
Diazepam
Methohexital

A

Phenylpropanolamine

30
Q

Which of the following is a dissociative anesthetic?

Hydromorphone
Diazepam
Methohexital
Bethanecol
none of these
A

none of these

31
Q

Which group of anesthetics causes lots of muscle rigidity with mild analgesia?

Dissociatives
alpa-2 agonists
phenothiazine class tranquilizer
thiobarbiturates if given quickly

A

Dissociatives

32
Q

Propofol is most properly described as a/an?

hypnotic
opioid
alpha-2 agonist anesthetic agent
major tranquilizer

A

hypnotic

33
Q

An example of a loop diuretic class member is

mannitol 25%
spironolactone
furosemide
hydrochlorothiazide

A

furosemide

34
Q

An example of a urinary acidifier is

Hydrochloric acid
ascorbic acid 
potassium citrate
dl-methionine
b & d
A

b & d ascorbic acid and dl-methionine

35
Q

For acquired incontinence in an elderly female dog: a hormone that may provide a benefit to her urinary incontinence is?

Winstrol-V an anabolic steroid with masculinizing and testosterone-like effects
Estriol or diethylstilbesterol (DES); estrogenic compounds
Ovaban; a synthetic progestogen

A

Estriol or diethylstilbesterol (DES); estrogenic compounds

36
Q

As mentioned as class oxygen gas can be considered a ‘drug’ for therapy when use in which mannor

Hypobaric pressures
Hyperbaric pressures
When carrying nebulized agents such a Terbutaline
When carrying vaporized agents such as Sevoflurane

A

Hyperbaric pressures

37
Q

Mibolerone (Cheque) is an agent designed to suppress the canine estrus cylcle?

T
F

A

T

38
Q

A frequent and important site of drug biotransformation

Spleen
Liver
Kidney
Adrenals

A

Liver

39
Q

The percentage of the total drug dose that ultimately reaches the blood stream is called

Absorption
Distribution
Bioavailability
Clearance

A

Bioavailability

40
Q

Ten milliliters of a 2.5% solution will contain

250mg
25mg
2.5g
2.5mg

A

250

2.5% is .25g x 1000 = 250mg

41
Q

Which statement (s) seems to best apply to Propofol which is an intravenous hypnotic commonly used to induce hypnosis prior to general anesthesia

looks like milk
wide margin of safety
short duration of action due to re-distribution to fat
a and b
a and c
b and c
A

a and c, looks like milk and short duration of action due to re-distribution to fat

42
Q

which of the following opiate(s) has a combined agonist/antagonist effect on receptors

oxymorphone
meperidine
butorphanol
fentanyl

A

butorphanol

43
Q

loop diuretics such as furosamide are so powerful they can cause

dehydration in normal animals
cannot be used simultaneously with ACE inhibitors such as Enalapril
Poor safety in cats with pulmonary edema
Hypokalemia (with chronic use)

A

Hypokalemia (with chronic use)

44
Q

The regulatory agency that oversees development/approval of animal topical pesticides is the

FDA
EPA
USDA
DEA

A

EPA

45
Q

When a drug is said to have a narrow therapeutic range it means that

its effective and toxic doses are close to each other
it may only be used to treat a few disorders
it must be dosed frequently
it must be given in higher concentrations to be effective

A

its effective and toxic doses are close to each other

46
Q

You are working a shift in an emergency clinic and a 50lb dog presents in full Grand Mal seizures. Your clinician requests 1 mg/kg diazepam for IV administration. The drug concentration is 5 mg/mL. How many milliliters will you draw into a syringe? Please show your calculation.

A

50lb=22.7kg

1mg/kg = x mg/22.7kg = 22.7mg

5mg/mL = 22.7mg/x mL = (4.5mL)

47
Q

“Buttons” a 4.5 Y M/C cat, is recovering from general anesthesia after an exploratory laparotomy. The drug given, in addition to others, was morphine. Because of the morphine you anticipate all of the following EXCEPT:

He will be most comfortable recovering in a dark, quite room
He will probably vomit and defecate
He will have a rapid and deep breathing pattern (hyperventilation)
He will by hypersensitive to sounds such as kennel clatter and barking dogs

A

He will have a rapid and deep breathing pattern (hyperventilation)

48
Q

A cow is accidentally given an equine dose of xylazine which is a 5 to 10 times overdose due to interspecies differences in response to this drug. What drug can be given to moderate the effects of overdosage

Dopamine
Yohimbine
Naloxone
Atropine

A

Yohimbine

Pharmacology (20 decks)

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