Pedia MUST KNOWS Flashcards

1
Q

Best initial treatment for RDS

A

Oxygen

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2
Q

Most effective treatment for RDS

A

Intubation and Exogenous surfactant administration

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3
Q

tachypnea usually observed in infants delivered via CS or NSD with rapud second stage of labor

A

Transient Tachypnea of the newborn

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4
Q

Anterolateral defect CDH

A

morgagni hernia

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5
Q

Posterolateral defect CDH

A

Bochdalek hernia

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6
Q

premature infants exposed to prolonged high-pressure mechanical ventilation and high concentrations of inspired oxygen

A

BPD

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7
Q

Pathological findings of BPD

A

alternating regions of overinflation and atelectasis, airway smooth muscle hypertrophy, squamous metaplasia of the airway epithelium, peribronchial fibrosis, constrictive obliterative bronchiolitis, and hypertensive pulmonary vascular changes

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8
Q

DOC for Sinusitis

A

Co-Amoxiclav x 14d

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9
Q

Known complications of GAHBS pharyngitis

A

Rheumatic fever

Post-strep GN

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10
Q

Walking pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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11
Q

Lobar consolidation

A

Pneumococcus

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12
Q

Hyperinflation with bilateral interstitial infiltrates and peribronchial cuffing

A

RSV

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13
Q

Prominent areas of cavitations and multiple pneumatocoeles

A

Staphylococcus

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14
Q

Right sided hilar adenopathy

A

PTB

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15
Q

Tx Pyloric stenosis

A

Ramstedt pyloromyotomy

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16
Q

Imaging test of choice for diagnosing Malrotation

A

Upper GI series

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17
Q

Tx of Malrotation

A

Ladd procedure

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18
Q

Intussusception is associated with what infection?

A

Adenovirus/Rotavirus Infection

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19
Q

Gold standard for Dx of Hirschprung disease

A

Rectal Suction Biopsy

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20
Q

Only causes (3) of Renal insufficiency that causes decrease in C3

A

PSGN
MPGN
Lupus Nephritis

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21
Q

Strawberry skull

A

Trisomy 18

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22
Q

Most important primary treatment of IgA nephropathy

A

Blood pressure control

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23
Q

Major complication of nephrotic syndrome

A

Infection

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24
Q

Most frequent type of infection assoc with nephrotic syndrome

A

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

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25
Most common bacteria causing SBP in nephrotic syndrome
Streptococcus pneumoniae
26
Single best test in diagnosing APSGN
Anti-DNAse antigen
27
T or F Acyclovir is routinely given to patients with varicella infection
False
28
Acyclovir is most effective in treating varicella infection if given within ____ hrs from the onset of ____
24 | Rash
29
Active vaccine for varicella can be given within ____ of exposure to modify course
5 days
30
Major Criteria For Rheumatic Fever
``` Joints (arthritis) Oh ny heart (myocarditis) Nodules (subcutaneous) Erythema marginatum Sydenham Chorea ```
31
Minor Criteria for Rheumatic Fever
``` Fever Risk factor Arthralgia Prolonged PR Elevated Acute phase reactants ```
32
Major Criteria for Infective Endocarditis | Duke's Criteria
Blood culture | ECG findings
33
Minor criteria for infective endocarditis
``` Fever Immunologic (GN, Osler, Roth, RF) Vascular (Janeway, Emboli, Aneurysm, pulmonary infarct) ECG Predisposing condition Microbiological evidence ```
34
ORS composition
``` Glc 75 Na 75 Cl 65 K 20 Citrate 10 ```
35
``` Growth deficiency Hypertension Flat nose Low set ears Micrognathua Limb position defect Impaired renal function, hyponatremia Heoatic fibrosis ```
Potter's syndrome (Oligohydramnios Complex)
36
Indications for Rifampicin
TB | Prophylaxis for Meningococcemia and acute epiglotittis
37
Endotracheal tube drugs
Lidocaine Atropibe Naloxone Epinephrine
38
Best single Ab titer to document skin infection
DNAse B antigen
39
MCC HUS
E. Coli
40
MCC of SBP
E. Coli | S. Pneumoniae
41
Upper limit of normal protein excretion in healthy children
150 mg/day
42
Edema Proteinuria Hypoalbuminemia Hyperlipidemia
Nephrotic Syndrome
43
Oliguria Hypertenson Hematuria Azotemia
Nephritic Syndrome
44
MC complication of Measles
Acute Otitis media
45
MC death in Measles
Pneumonia
46
MC complication in Mumps
Meningoencephalitis
47
Essential for Low BW infants
Cystine Arginine Taurine
48
MC esophageal disorder in children of all ages
GERD
49
PPI of choice for infants
Esomeprazole
50
Fully Immunized child
``` BCG1 HepB3 DPT3 Polio3 HiB3 RV3 PCV3 Measles1 ```
51
MCC thrombocytopenic purpura in Childhood
ITP
52
MC inherited bleeding disorder
Von Willebrand Disease
53
Aplastic anemia with microcephaly, microphthalmia, hearing loss, limb abnormalities
Fanconi Anemia
54
Long term sequelae of bacterial meningitis
Hearing loss
55
Pure red cell aplasia
Diamond-Blackfan Syndrome
56
MCC nonbilious vomiting
Pyloric stenosis
57
Surgical procedure for pyloric stenosis
Ramstedt pylorotomy
58
Most frequent congenital GI anomaly
Meckel's diverticulum
59
Age for definitive procedure for hirschprung
6-12 months
60
Appropriate time to surgically correct cleft palate
3 months
61
MCC intestinal obstruction between 3 months to 6 years old
Intussusception
62
Parts of brain affected by HSV
Frontal and temporal limbic system
63
Heterophile Ab in EBV
Paul-Bunnel Antibodies
64
Syndrome associated with Infectious Mononucleosis with symmetric rash on cheeks
Gianotti-Crosti Syndrome
65
Isolation of Polio Virus
End of 1st week- Blood End of 2nd week- Throat End of 3rd week- Feces Uncommon- CSF
66
Viral cause if neuronal destruction of braimstem and medulla
Rabies virus
67
Histologic findings of rabies virus in the brain
Negri bodies
68
DOC for Rabies
Co-Amoxiclav 40 mkd x 7 days
69
Single best prognostic indicator of HIV
Plasma Viral Load
70
Most Feared Complication due to trauma in infectious mononucleosis
Splenic Rupture
71
MC Solid Tumors in Childhood
Brain Tumors
72
MC location of brain tumors in Children
Infratentorial (Posterior Fossa)
73
MC Infratentorial Brain Tumor
Cerebellar Astrocytoma
74
MC Location of Medulloblastoma
Cerebellum
75
Agenesis of Cerebellar Vermis Cystic Dilatation of 4th ventricle Enlargement of Post. Fossa Prominent occiput
Dandy-Walker Malformation
76
Vertebral Adhesions Decreased range of motion Short webbed neck
Klippel-feil syndrome
77
Mass lesion | Cerebro-ocular dysgenesis
Walker-Warburg Syndrome
78
MCC of Non-communicating Hydrocephalus
Aqueductal Stenosis
79
Cracked-pot sensation on percussion of sku
Macewen Sign | HYDROCEPHALUS
80
MC anomaly of Upper airway
Laryngomalacia
81
Handedness
3 yo
82
20/20 vision
4 yo
83
Bedwetting until
Female: 4 yo Male: 5 yo
84
Egg shaped heart
TGA
85
Boot shaped heart
TOF
86
Snowman Sign/ Figure of 8
TAPVR
87
Rib notching | Inverted 3 sign
CoA
88
Agenesis of Corpus Callosum Infantile Spasm Chorioretinallacunae
Aicardi Syndrome
89
Sinuses present at birth
Maxillary | Ethmoid
90
SINUS Pneumatized at 4 yo
Maxillary
91
Sinus Pneumatized at 5 yo
Sphenoid
92
Most characteristic finding of Kawasaki Disease
Aneurysm of Major Coronary Arteries
93
Site to determine Bone Age
Xray of Left Wrist
94
MCC of congenital hypothyroidism
Thyroid dysgenesis
95
Tx of TGA
Senning/Mustarf Rastelli Jatene
96
Tx of TOF
``` Blalock Taussig (>3 months) Gore-Tex Shunt (<3 months) ```
97
Tx of Tricuspid Atresia
Bidirectional Glenn shunt (4-8 months) | Modified Fontan Operation (1.5-3 yo)
98
Always present in Truncus Arteriosus
VSD
99
Tx for TA
Rastellu Repair
100
Tx for TAPVR
PGE + Van Pragh Procedure
101
Common cardiac anomaly in turner's syndrome
CoA
102
Tx of AS
Ross procedure
103
Tx of PS
Brock's procedure
104
Test to rule out abusive head trauma
Ophthalmologic exam CT MRI
105
Most common primary immunodeficiency
Selective IgA deficiency
106
Chronic Respiratory infections. Nitroblue tetrazolium test is negative
Chronic Granulomatous Disease
107
Eczema Thrombocytopenia High IgA
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
108
Infant with life-threatening Pseudomonas infection
Bruton's X-linked Agammaglobulinemia
109
Tanner stage 3 in 6 yo girl
Precocious puberty
110
Cause of neonatal RDS
Surfactant deficiency
111
PPD necessary prior to BCG vaccination on what reasons?
Suspected congenital TB HX of close contact Clinical findings suggestive of TB Chest xray suggestive of TB
112
When will you give HepB vaccine to PRETERM infants born to HbsAg negative moms and are medically stable
1st dose may be given at the 30th day of life