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pedia Flashcards

1
Q

Amniotic fluid l:s ratio

A

More than 2

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2
Q

shake test for?
how much ethanol

A

for lung maturity
95%ethanol +af

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3
Q

hyaline membrane diseases x ray findings

A

white out
b/l ggo
black+patent bronchus
air bronchogram sign

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4
Q

preterm 1st day resp distress diagnosis

A

hyaline membrane dis

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5
Q

hyaline memb dis in preterm less than ?weeks

A

less than 34 weeks

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6
Q

4 tests for Hyaline M D

A

1 shake test
2 amniotic fluid l:s ratio
3 nile blue sulphatase test
4 phosphatidyl glycerol level

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7
Q

what color what cells in nile blue sul.test
%?

A

orange colored fat cells
50%

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8
Q

resp distress preterm 1_7 days

A

apnea of prematurity

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9
Q

doc for apnea of prematurity

A

caffiene

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10
Q

resp distress in preterm baby who is on persistent oxygen support

A

bronchopulmonary dysplasia

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11
Q

bronchopulmonary dysplasia in preterm cause

A

> 21% oxy + >28 days

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12
Q

multifocal cystic luscencies in preterm lung in ?

A

bronchopulmonary dysplasia

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13
Q

term baby
resp distress
cxray-fluid in fissure/pulmonary effuson
diagnosis

A

TTNB
transient tachypnea of new born

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14
Q

TTNB xray findings

A

fluid in fissure
plueral effusion

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15
Q

post term baby
resp distress MAS cxray

A

1 perihilar linear opacities
2 hyperinflation(small airway obstructed)

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16
Q

post term baby resp distress is seen in

A

meconium aspiration syndrome- meconium stained liquor

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17
Q

resp distress in neonate with scaphoid abdomen

A

congenital diaphragmatic hernia

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18
Q

“BPL”
full form and found in

A

bockdeleck hernia- poterior- left
found in -congenital diaphragmatic hernia

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19
Q

nasogastric tube in neonate goes in thorax?

A

congenital diaphragmatic hernia

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20
Q

resp distress in baby
h/o sibling death
surfactant protein B

A

pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

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21
Q

crazy pavement appearance on hrct in neonate
h/o sibling death

A

pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

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22
Q

surfactant protien deficient in PAP

A

SP-B

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23
Q

Low birth weight baby

A

<2.5 kg

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24
Q

Very low birth weight baby

A

<1.5 kg

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25
Q

Extremely low birth weight baby

A

<1 kg

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26
Q

Small for gestational age sga

A

<10th percentile

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27
Q

Large for gestational age lga

A

> 90th percentile

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28
Q

Average for gestational age a g a

A

> 10th<90th percentile

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29
Q

Physiological weight loss of term baby recovered by how many days

A

10% by 10D

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30
Q

Physiological weight loss of Pritam baby recovered by how many days

A

15% by 15D

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31
Q

I U G R definition

A

<10th percentile + abN doppler indices

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32
Q

Causes of symmetrical i u g r

A

Congenital Malformation congenital infections

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33
Q

Causes of asymmetrical iugr

A

utero placental insufficiency

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34
Q

pOnderal index

A

wt(gm)/femur lt cube cm

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35
Q

Pondral index more than two in symmetrical or asymmetrical

A

Symmetrical

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36
Q

Pondral index less than 2 in symmetrical or asymmetrical or normal

A

Asymmetrical and normal

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37
Q

Poor prognosis in symmetrical or asymmetrical i u g r

A

In symmetrical

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38
Q

Good progresses in symmetrical or asymmetrical iugr

A

In asymmetrical

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39
Q

Head circumference decreased in symmetrical or asymmetrical iugr

A

In symmetrical

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40
Q

Heads circumference normal in symmetrical or asymmetrical i u g r

A

In Asymmetrical

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41
Q

Abdominal circumference decrease in symmetrical or asymmetrical iugr

A

in both

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42
Q

Head sparing scene in symmetrical or asymmetrical iugr

A

In asymmetrical

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43
Q

Most common cause of mortality in neonate

A

prematurity>birth asphyxia>sepsis >congenital anomalies

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44
Q

Most common cause of mortality under 5

A

Pneumonia >diarrhoea >injury >malaria

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45
Q

10 newborn benign lesions

A

1 Erythema toxicum 2neonatal pastular dermatosis
3 milaria 4 harley quin 5 cutis marmorata 6 mangolian spots 7 capillary
hemangioma 8 acne 9 cradle cap 10 nipple discharge also known as mastitis
neonatorum or vaginal discharge

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46
Q

erythema toxicum aspirate has eosinophils or neutrophils

A

eosinophils with erythematous base

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47
Q

erythema neonatorum also known as

A

Erythma toxicum

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48
Q

erythema toxicum seen in which part of body

A

Trunk

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49
Q

Neonatal pustular dermatosis has eosinophils or neutrophils

A

Neutrophils

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50
Q

Sweat duct occlusion in neonates is

A

Milaria

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51
Q

Half body colour change in neonate due to

A

vasospasm

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52
Q

Cutis marmorata due to

A

vasospasm

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53
Q

Mongolian spots commonly seen at which level

A

LS

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54
Q

Mongolians disappear by

A

2 years

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55
Q

capillary hemangioma also known as

A

Strawberry Hemangioma/ stork bites/ salmon patch/ naevus simplex / port wine stain/ nevus flammeus

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56
Q

Does capillary hemangioma resolve on its own

A

Yes by 2 years

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57
Q

Does cavernous hemangioma resolve on its own

A

No

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58
Q

Cradle cap also known as

A

seboric dermatitis

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59
Q

Seboric dermatitis in neonates resolves by

A

One week

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60
Q

Seboric dermatitis also seen in

A

LCH

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61
Q

Black Harry cerebriform appearance in

A

Congenital melanocytic nevi

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62
Q

Mastitis neonatarum due to

A

Maternal estrogen

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63
Q

Minimum apgar score

A

Zero

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64
Q

Severe asphyxia in apgar score

A

<3

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65
Q

apgar score prognostic or guide

A

Prognostic

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66
Q

Timing of apgar score

A

1 and 5 minutes after birthminute

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67
Q

Components of apgar score

A

1 appearance= pink/ blue extremities/ cyanosis
2 pulse =>100/<100/no pulse
3 grimace= cries and pullsaway/ gremace and weak cry/ no response
4 activity= active/ arms and legs flexed/ no movement
5 respiratory effort= strong cry/ slow irrregular /no breathing

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68
Q

4thcomponent of apgar score

A

activit=active movement/arms legs flexed/movement

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69
Q

R in apgar score stands for

A

respiratory efforts

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70
Q

Sepsis screen components

A

Leukopenia tLC<5000
Neutropenia anc<1800
Immature neutrophils to total neutrophils ratioI/T ratio>0.2
Micro ESR in first hour>15mm
CRP positive

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71
Q

Leukopenia inseps score is

A

<5000

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72
Q

Neutropenia in sepsis score is (anc)

A

<1800

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73
Q

sepsis score is used in

A

Neonatal sepsis

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74
Q

What sepsis score is indicator of starting antibiotics

A

> =2

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75
Q

Most common cause of neonatal sepsis

A

KLEBSIELLA

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76
Q

Most common cause of early onset sepsis in neonates

A

gbs= s.agalacti

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77
Q

Most effective measure to prevent neonatal sepsis is

A

handwash

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78
Q

Earliest clinical feature of neonatal sepsis

A

reduced feeding

79
Q

Initial investigation for neonatal sepsis

A

sepsis screen

80
Q

Investigation of choice for neonatalsepsis

A

culture

81
Q

Risk factor of neonatal surface

A

Preterm/ r o m18hrs/ p p v

82
Q

s agalacti is found in

A

vaginal flora

83
Q

Micro ESR in neonatal sepsis

A

> 15mm in 1st hr

84
Q

Temperature range for neonates

A

36.5-37.5

85
Q

Hypothermia in neonates

A

<36.5

86
Q

Cold stress in neonates

A

36-36.5

87
Q

Moderate hypothermia in neonates

A

32-36

88
Q

Severe hypothemia in neonates

A

<32

89
Q

Non shivering thermogenesis seen in

A

babies
cold stress

90
Q

Brown fat produces heat by

A

Non shivering thermogenesis
uncoupling

91
Q

Brown fat present in(4)

A

nape of neck/ axilla /scapula/ adrenals

92
Q

Is shivering present in cold stress in neonates

A

no

93
Q

For components of kangaroo Mother Care

A

1 position
2 nutrition
3 support
4 discharge early

94
Q

KMC to be continued till what age

A

> 35 weeks

95
Q

Incubator heating by

A

convention

96
Q

Axiliary temperature >37.5 is

A

hyperthermia

97
Q

Pathological jaundice appears when(2)

A

1 <24hrs
2after 3 weeks

98
Q

Most common cause of pathological jaundice appearing in less than 24 hours

A

abo/rh incompatibility

99
Q

Pathological jaundice persisting for

A

> 14 days

100
Q

Pathological jaundice persisting for .14 days seen in

A

1Hypothyroidism
2 crigler najar
3 breast milk jaundice

101
Q
A
102
Q

Crammar rule

A

Palms and soles involved in jaundice

103
Q

Palms and souls involved in jaundice at what concentration

A

More than 15mg per DL

104
Q

Palms and souls involved in jaundice at what concentration

A

More than 15mg per DL

105
Q

Pathological jaundice when bilirubin increases by what in one day

A

5 mg per DL per day

106
Q

Pathological jaundice at what bilirubin concentration

A

15 MG per DL

107
Q

Stool play coloured urine staining yellow

A

In conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

108
Q

Direct bilirubin in conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

A

More than 2 mg per DL

109
Q

Most common cause of direct bilirubinemia

A

Extra hepatobiliary atresia EHBA

110
Q

initial investigation for E H B A

A

USG

111
Q
A
112
Q

USG finding in Ehba

A

1 Small contracted gallbladder
2 Triangular chord sign

113
Q

Highest negative predictive value in ehba in

A

hida scan

114
Q

Gold standard for EHBA

A

Intraop cholangiogram or percutaneous cholangiogram

115
Q

Iordinated contrast under fluoroscopy puncture liver insert contrast to see while radical done in

A

Intraop cholangiogram or percutaneous choLangiogram

116
Q

Pregnandiol Present in
Causes

A

breast milk
Breast mikk jauncice(unconjug)

117
Q

Pregnandiol is

A

Beta glucoronidase

118
Q

Breast milk jaundice presents

A

Two to three weeks

119
Q

Management of breast milk jaundice

A

Phototherapy

120
Q

Stool yellow urine pale seen in

A

Unconjugated Breast milk jaundice

121
Q

Breastfeeding jaundice due to

A

Dehydration

122
Q

Management of breastfeeding jjaundice

A

Breastfeeding

123
Q

UDP Glucoronye transferase Deficiency

A

Unconjugated Bilirubinemia

124
Q

UDPGT mildly deficient in

A

Gilbert syndrome

125
Q

Gilbert syndrome is autosomal dominant or recessive

A

AR>AD

126
Q

Gilbert syndrome presents when

A

In adults due to fever or stress

127
Q

Criggler Nazar Types

A

Type one complete absence of udp gt
Type two severely deficient udp gt

128
Q

Type one criggler Nazar Presents as

A

Neonatal kernicterus

129
Q

Criggler najar Type two managed by

A

Phenobarbitone

130
Q

Duvin Johnson is type of

A

Conjugated Hyperbilirubinemia

131
Q

Dubin Johnson autosomal recessive

A

Autosumal Recessive

132
Q

Crigglar Nazar autosomal recessive or dominant

A

Autosomal recessive

133
Q

MRP2 defect Seen in

A

Dubin Johnson

134
Q

Black liver in Devin Johnson due to

A

Epinephrine metabolites

135
Q

Rotor syndrome is what type of bilirubinemia

A

Conjugated

136
Q

OATP 1B1/OATP1B2 Defects seen in

A
137
Q

Structural isomerization converts bilirubin into what

A

LumiRubin

138
Q

Structural isomerisation is reversible or irreversible

A

Irreversible

139
Q

Photo isomerization does what

A

Turns z form into E form

140
Q

Three mechanisms in photo therapy

A

Structural isomerisation photoisomerization photo oxidation

141
Q

Distance of phototherapy lamp

A

30 to 40 centimetre

142
Q

Wavelength in photo therapy

A

460-490 nanometer

143
Q
A
143
Q

Colour of light in phototherapy

A

Blue Green more than blue

144
Q

Type of lamp In photo therapy

A

L E D

145
Q

Irredians using flux metre

A

30uW/cm2/nm

146
Q

Screening for pathological joints done by

A

TCB Transcutaneous Billy Rubinometer

147
Q

Drug of choice for neonatal seizures

A

phenobarb

148
Q

Most common type of neonatal seizure

A

Subtle type
Grimace

149
Q

Most common cause of neonatal seizures

A

Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy

150
Q

Causes of neonatal seizures

A

Hypolycemia <45gm%electrolyte imbalance pyredoxin deficiency

151
Q

Best prognosis in neonatal seizures in

A

Focal Clonic

152
Q

Worst prognosis in neonatal seizures

A

myoclinic

153
Q

Bedside monitor for neonatal seizures

A

AIE amplitude integrated eeg

154
Q

Initial investigation in neonatal seizures in H I E

A

Transcranial usg to rule out ivh Intra ventricular haemorrhage

155
Q

Ivh is more common in pre term or term

A

Preterm

156
Q

Investigation of choice for H I E

A

Diffusion weighted imaging mri to pick up ischemia

157
Q

para sagital injury In term or pre term infant

A

Term

158
Q

Para sagital or watershed injury causes

A

Spastic quadriplegia in turn babies

159
Q

Status Marmoratus Seen in pre term or term babies

A

Term babies

160
Q

Most common type of HIE

A

Chorioathetoid

161
Q

status marmoratus show

A

chorioathetoid

162
Q

Germinal matrix haemorrhage Seen in pre or term babies

A

Preterm

163
Q

Periventricular leukomakasia seen in term or pre term babies

A

peterm

164
Q

periventricular leukomalasia cause

A

spastic diplagia

165
Q

garnet and sarnet staging for

A

hie

166
Q

hyperalert baBy in which sarnet stage

A

1

167
Q

mydriasis in which sarnet stage of hie

A

1

168
Q

Miosis in which sarnet stage of hie

A

2

169
Q

seizures common in which sarnet stage of hie

A

2

170
Q

tonic neck reflex is strong in which sarnet stage of hie

A

2

171
Q

stretch reflex overactive in which sarnet stage of hie

A

1 and 2

172
Q

GATA 2 gene involved in

A

pulmonary alveolor proteinosis

173
Q

downe’s score components(5)

A

1rr
2 cyanosis
3 retraction
4 grunting
5 air entry

174
Q

Silverman Anderson

A

1 upper chest
2 lower chest retraction
3 xiphoid
4 nares dilation
5 expiratory grunt

175
Q

Sea saw upper chest in which grade of Silverman andersongrade

A

3

176
Q

expiratory grunt in Silverman Anderson heard on stethoscope in what grade

A

2

177
Q

silveman Anderson is 123or 012

A

012

178
Q

downe’s is 123or 012

A

012

179
Q

rr conssered in downe’s score is

A

0=<60
1=60-80
2=>80

180
Q

No cyanosis with oxygen what score on downe’s score

A

1

181
Q

air entry decreased in what score of dwne’s score

A

1

182
Q

IV fluids for what age of gestation in baby

A

<28wks

183
Q

Lack of gut motiliy present at what age of gestation in baby

A

<28wks

184
Q

Lack of coordination between suck and breathing at what age of gestation in baby

A

28-31wk

185
Q

Coordination between suck and swallow and breathe appears between what gestational age in baby

A

32-34 wks

186
Q

Mature sucking reflects present at what age of gestation of babies

A

> 34wks

187
Q

Palladi or spoon feeding at word gestational age of baby

A

32-34wks

188
Q

Gavage feeding or orrogastric or nasogastric tube feeding in what gestational age of baby

A

28-32wks

189
Q

Breastfeeding in what gestational age of baby

A

> 34wks

190
Q

Modified bells staging for

A

Necrotising enterocolitis

191
Q

Management of 1A stage of necrotizing enterocolitis

A

NPO. Antibiotics three days

192
Q

Gross bloody stool at what a stage of necrotizing Enterocolitis

A

1B

193
Q
A

AM (12 decks)

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