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micro Flashcards

1
Q

toxins acting by EF2

A

coryn. diptheria
pseudomonas(exotoxin A)

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2
Q

volutin granules aka(2)

A

babes ernst/metachromatic granules
of coryn diptheria

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3
Q

granules of coryn m/o
contains

A

polymetaphosphates
act as enzymes
toxin

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4
Q

toxin acting by ADP ribosylation

A

corynaebact.diptheria

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5
Q

elek gel ppt test for which toxin

A

coryn.diptheria

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6
Q

shick’s skin test for

A

coryn.diptheria

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7
Q

A and B units of exotoxin

A

A=action
B=binding

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8
Q

toxin acting by 60S inhibition

A

shiga toxin
shiga like/vero like=EHEC

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9
Q

hemolytic uremic syndrome by?
strain?

A

EHEC
O157:H7

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10
Q

triad
1 microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
2 thrombocytopenia
3 renal failure

A

hemolytic uremic syndrome

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11
Q

O157:H7 EHEC does not fremnt?

A

sorbitol

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12
Q

O157:H7 grows on

A

McConkey agar
Lactose

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13
Q

cholera toxin binds to

A

GM1ganglioside receptor

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14
Q

toxin working on zonaoccludens

A

cholera toxin

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15
Q

cholera toxin which sub unit binds to gm1 ganglioside recptor

A

alpha

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16
Q

hemorrhagic diarrhea/dysemtry is caused by which toxins?
class?

A

shiga toxin/ EHEC(SLT/VLT)
60s inhibitors

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17
Q

which toxins act by cAMP

A

cholera
anthrax
LT(ETEC=heat labile)
pertussis

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18
Q

whooping cough on inspiration
infants=apnea
by?

A

pertussis

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19
Q

toxin acting by cGMP

A

ETEC=ST(heat stable)

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20
Q

toxin causing spastic paralysis

A

tetanus
strychnine

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21
Q

travellars diarrhea by

A

ETEC

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22
Q

toxin acting by inhibiting SNARE
GABA/glycine

A

tetanus

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23
Q

toxin inhibiting pre synaptic release of NT

A

tetanus
botulinum

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24
Q

toxin inhibiting post synaptic excitation

A

strychnine

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25
Q

toxin inhibiting Ach release

A

botulinum

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26
Q

rhisus sardonicus/lock jaw
seen in
tetanus/strychnine?

A

tetanus

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27
Q

posturing seen in tetanus/strychnine?

A

both

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28
Q

preformed botul.toxin seen in

A

canned food

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29
Q

spores of botulinum seen in

A

honey
wounds

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30
Q

honey causes?in infants

A

descending flaccid paralysis

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31
Q

superantigen sits over ? in MHC complex

A

antigen site

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32
Q

superantigen causes?

A

toxic shock syndrome
cause shock
inc cytokines
fever

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33
Q

bacteria acting by superantigen

A

staph
strep

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34
Q

history of retained? in toxic shock syndrome(2)

A

tampons
nasal gauge in epistaxis

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35
Q

catalase positive organisms?(7)

A

staph aureus
Serratia
pseudomonas
aspergillus
cryptococcus
candida
enterobacter

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36
Q

enterobacter class?

A

gram negative
facultative
anaerobe
Fast Lactose fermenting

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37
Q

pseudohemoptysis causing prodogesin produced by?

A

serratia

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38
Q

pigment producing catalase positive bacteria

A

staph aureus=golden yellow
serratia=red (prodogesin)
pseudomaonas= bluegreen

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39
Q

catalase positive organism infections predisposed in which disease

A

chronic granulomatous disease

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40
Q

chronic granulomatous disease has which deficiency

A

NADPH oxidase

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41
Q

tests(2) for CGD

A

1 (NBT) nitro blue tetrazolium test
2 (DHR) dihydro rhodamine test

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42
Q

strep
alpha hemolysis=
partial/complete?
color?

A

partial
green

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43
Q

classi. of alpha hemolytic strep by?(2)

A

optochin sensitivity
bile solubility

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44
Q

@hemolyt.strep
optochin sensitive
bile soluble?

A

strep. pneumoneae

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45
Q

strp .pneumonae organism morpho

A

capsulated(polysacc)
diplococci
lanceolate
Carom coin

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46
Q

quelling’s reaction seen in?
due to ?

A

strp.pneumonae
capsule

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47
Q

mcc of lobar pneumonae

A

strp.pneunomiae

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48
Q

colony morpho of strp.pneumonae

A

draughtsman/ carrom coin

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49
Q

SHIN bacteria properties(3)
names(3)

A

1 polysacc capsule=vaccines
2 IgA protease
3 griffith transformation
names
1 strep pneumonae
2 haemophilous influenza
3 Neisseria meningitides

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50
Q

which genetic method in bacteria takes up naked DNA

A

transformation

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51
Q

which genectic method in bacteria require competence factor

A

transformation

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52
Q

strp class with complete hemolysis

A

beta hemolytics

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53
Q

classification basis for beta hemolytic strep

A

bacitracin sensitivity
pyr status

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54
Q

pyr status used to classify ?(2)

A

strep beta and strep gamma

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55
Q

color of complete hemolysis in strep

A

yellow

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56
Q

color of beta hemolysis in strep

A

yellow

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57
Q

bacitracin senitive and PYR positive?

A

group A
strp.pyogens

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58
Q

scarlet fever
erysipelas
impetigo caused by

A

GAS strp pyogens

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59
Q

bacitracin resistance
pyr negative?

A

grp B strp. Agalactia

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60
Q

hippurate hydrolysis seen in

A

grp B Agalactae

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61
Q

mcc early onset neonatal sepsis(<1 month)
meningitis

A

GBS Agalactae

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62
Q

reverse camp test for?

A

clostridium perfringens
Gbs

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63
Q

no hemolysis in which class of strep

A

gamma hemolytics

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64
Q

classification of gamma strep

A

growth in NaCl 6.5%
pyr status

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65
Q

strp showing bile solubility

A

gamma

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66
Q

pyr + grows on 6.5% NaCl

A

enterococcus

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67
Q

pyr-
Not growing on 6.5% NaCl

A

strp Bovis

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68
Q

strp Bovis aka

A

Strp Galactolysicus

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69
Q

colon ca by which strp

A

strp Bovis

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70
Q

bile esculide agar for?

A

enterococcus(strep)

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71
Q

Guttate psoriasis a/w bacteria?

A

beta hemolytic strep

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72
Q

beta hemolytic lancefield classification on basis of

A

carbohydrate antigen

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73
Q

beta hemolytic classification griffith on basis of

A

M protien

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74
Q

kerby bauver test for

A

disc diffusion test
antigen sensitivity

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75
Q

endocarditis lesions along line ofclosure in heart valve(2)

A

1 RHD (small)
2 marantic=non bacterial thrombotic/paraneoplastic

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76
Q

ring abscess in which endocarditis

A

infective

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77
Q

destruction of chorda tendonae in which endocarditid

A

infective

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78
Q

libmann sac endocarditis seen in

A

SLE

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79
Q

lesions above and under surface of chorda tendonae in

A

SLE /Libman ssac endocarditis

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80
Q

mcc acute endocarditis

A

staph aureus

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81
Q

mcc of endocarditis ivdu(iv drug users)

A

staph aureus

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82
Q

mcc of hospital acquired endocarditis

A

staph aureus

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83
Q

mcc of community acquired endocarditis by
Class?

A

strep viridans
Alpha sensitive

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84
Q

mcc of prosthetic valve infective endocarditis

A

CONS=staph epidermidis=biofilms

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85
Q

which staph produces biofils

A

CONS/staph epidrmidis

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86
Q

mcc of endocarditis associated with colon cancer

A

strep Bovis

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87
Q

g +ve bacilli Aerobes(4)

A

bacillus
listeria
corynaebacterium
mycobaterium

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88
Q

g+ve bacilli anaerobes(1)

A

clostridium

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89
Q

g+ve branching filaments
anaerobic

A

actinomyces

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90
Q

g+ve branching filament
aerobe

A

nocardia

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91
Q

g+ve branching filament acid fast

A

nocardia

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92
Q

h2so4 conc for nocardia
in AF stain

A

1%

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93
Q

h2so4 conc for leoginella in AF stain

A

1%

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94
Q

doc for nocardia infection

A

cotrimoxazole(tmp smx)

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95
Q

doc for pneumocystis jeruvecii

A

cotrimoxazole

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96
Q

cotrimoxazole contains

A

trimethoprime+sulfamethoxazole

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97
Q

doc for actinomyces

A

penicillin

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98
Q

3 disease presentation of actinomyces

A

1 chronic osteomyelitis of mandible
2 mycetoma foot(yellow draining sinus)
3 PID a/w IUCD

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99
Q

granules color in actinomyces foot

A

yellow

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100
Q

granule color in eumycetoma d/t madurella

A

black/brown/reddish brown

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101
Q

spidery colony
lumpy jaw by

A

actenomyces israelli

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102
Q

molar tooth colonies by?

A

actinomyces

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103
Q

polypeptide capsule seen in which g+ve bact

A

bacillus

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104
Q

D glutamate capsule seen in

A

bacillus

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105
Q

medussa head colonies

A

bacillus

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106
Q

mcfaeden reaction

A

bacillu

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107
Q

PLET for

A

b.anthrax

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108
Q

MYPA for

A

b.cereus

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109
Q

hemorrhagic mediastinitis seen in which g+ve bacilli

A

b.anthrax

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110
Q

inverted fir tree appearance

A

bacillus

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111
Q

jet actin motility seen in

A

listeria

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112
Q

only g+ve bact to produce endotoxin

A

listeria

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113
Q

tumbling motility

A

listeria

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114
Q

differential motility seen in
at temp?

A

listeria
22-25
no motility at 37 or higher

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115
Q

cold culture in

A

listeria

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116
Q

palcam agar for

A

listeria

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117
Q

meningitis in extreme ages by

A

listeria

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118
Q

doc for literia

A

ampicillin

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119
Q

type of rash in listeria

A

bull’s eye rash

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120
Q

drugs for meningitis

A

vancomycin emperical
ceftriaxone emperical
ampicillin only for extreme ages
ceftazidine
meropenem

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121
Q

mcc of meningitis in 2yo to 50 yo

A

strep pneumoniae

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122
Q

drugs for meningitis in neonate

A

3rd gen cephalosporin
ampicillin

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123
Q

Chinese letter arrangement

A

coryn.dipthyria

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124
Q

LSS for ?

A

coryn.dipthyria

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125
Q

K tellurite for?

A

coryn.dipthyria

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126
Q

food poisoning
early<6hrs
chinese food

A

B.cereus

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127
Q

food poisoning early<6 hrs
milk

A

staph. aureus

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128
Q

g+ve anaerobes
subterminal spores
terminal

A

clostridium

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129
Q

g+ve anaerobes
tennis racquet

A

clostridium tertium

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130
Q

g+ve anaerobe
drumstick

A

clostridium tetani

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131
Q

bull’s neck swelling
pseudomembrane
granules on albert stain

A

coronation.diptheri

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132
Q

Zn phospholipase/lecithinase
in?

A

alpha toxin
clostridium perfringes

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133
Q

naeglar test for organism?
enzyme?
breaks down?

A

clostridium perfringes
phospholipase/alpha toxin
egg yolk

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134
Q

gas gangrene caused by

A

clostridium perfringens

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135
Q

volcano erruption sign on histo

A

pseudomembranous enterocolitis

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136
Q

pseudomembranous enterocolitis cuased by

A

clostridium defficle

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137
Q

clostridium defficle toxins(2)

A

1 A=enterotoxin
2 B=cytotoxin

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138
Q

oral vancomycin given only in

A

pseudomembranous enterocolitis

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139
Q

doc for pseudomembranous enterocolitis

A

fidoxamycin

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140
Q

diagnosis pseudomembranous

A

PCR>ELISA

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141
Q

g-ve diplococcicocci

A

neisseria

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142
Q

According sign seen in

A

Pseudomembranous enteroxolitis

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143
Q

h/o wide spectrum antibiotic use (cephalosporin)
hospital admission
diarrhea

A

pseudomembranous enterocolitis

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144
Q

pseudomem.enterocol. volcano erruption sign cells?

A

neutrophil >lympho

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145
Q

colonoscopy finding in pseudomemb.enterocol

A

diffuse thickening of bowel/colon

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146
Q

maltose fermentation/ maltose acid detection in which which gram negative cooci

A

n.meningitidis

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147
Q

which type meningococci vaccine for at risk patients

A

type B

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148
Q

vaccine and polysacc capsule in which neisseria

A

N.meningitidis

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149
Q

g-ve cocci

A

moraxella
vilinella
diplococci=neiserria

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150
Q

g-ve bacilli classification on basis of

A

lactose fermenters
on mcConkey agar

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151
Q

g-ve SLOW lactose fermenting

A

serratia
citrobacter

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152
Q

g-ve FAST lactose fermenters

A

E.coli
klebsiella
enterobacter

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153
Q

contents of McConkey agar

A

peptone
lactose
agar
neutral red(indicator)
taurocholate

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154
Q

waterhouse fredrichson syndrome BY which diplococci

A

Neisseria meningitidis

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155
Q

meningitis
followed by diffuse petechial rash
shock
B/L adrenal hemorrhage

A

water house Frederickson syndrome

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156
Q

transport media for neisseria

A

stuart/amies

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157
Q

culture media for neisseria

A

thayer-martin

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158
Q

cervicitis’/urethritis
smear=intracellular diplococci

A

n.gonorrhea

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159
Q

n.cgonorrhea coexists with

A

chlamydia

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160
Q

treartment for cervicitis urethritis scrotal swelling(2)

A

1 cefaxime
2 azithral

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161
Q

gonorrhea drug

A

ceftriazone

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162
Q

chlamydia drug

A

azithromycin

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163
Q

fitz curtiz hugh syndrome by

A

Chlamydia
.gonorrhea PID complication

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164
Q

perihepatitis
violin string sign seen in

A

fitz curtis hugh syndrome

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165
Q

g-ve oxidase +ve
curved rods(all)
Shapes

A

campylobacter apmhitrichous
vibrio uni
helicobacter .pylori ?

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166
Q

skirrow’s media culture fo?

A

campylobacter

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167
Q

reiter’s syndrome caused by(2)

A

sheigella
campylobacter

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168
Q

which g-ve rod grows in 42 degree

A

campylobacter

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169
Q

g-ve curved rod that is amphitrichous

A

campylobact

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170
Q

g-ve curved rod that is monotrichous

A

vibrio

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171
Q

g-ve bacilli that is monotrichous

A

pseudomonas

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172
Q

motility by bacilus.subtulis

A

tumbling

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173
Q

motility by salmonella typhimurium

A

tumbling

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174
Q

motility by listeria and e.coli

A

tumbling

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175
Q

vibrio parahemolyiticus motility

A

swarming

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176
Q

proteus motility

A

swarming

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177
Q

clostridium motility

A

swarming

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178
Q

b.cereus motility

A

swarming

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179
Q

vibrio cholera motility

A

darting

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180
Q

TCBS culture for

A

vibrio cholera

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181
Q

string test for(2)

A

giardia
vibrio cholera

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182
Q

cary blair transtort medium for

A

vibrio cholera

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183
Q

venkutraman ramakrishnan/VR transport medium for

A

vibrio cholera

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184
Q

shellfish history in which oxidase +ve bacteria

A

vibrio parahemolyticus

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185
Q

sepsis cause by which vibrio

A

vibrio vulnificus

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186
Q

urea breath test +ve in

A

H.pylori

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187
Q

hydrogem breath test in

A

lactose intolerance

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188
Q

classification of g-ve bacilli on basis of

A

lactose fermenter on mcconkey agar

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189
Q

e.coli and klebsiella d/d by

A

I/M/V/C

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190
Q

what are IMVC test

A

indole
methyl red
VP
citrate

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191
Q

which IMVC test are positive for klebsiella
color

A

VP=gives red
citrate=gives blue

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192
Q

IMVC test +ve for E.coli
color

A

indole=gives red ring
methyl red =gives red color

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193
Q

mcc of UTI

A

E.coli

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194
Q

EMB culture media for

A

E.coli

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195
Q

CLED culture media for

A

E.coli

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196
Q

CLED/EMB for which disease

A

UTI

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197
Q

cefotixin agar culture media for

A

clostridium defficle

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198
Q

non selective culture media for UTI

A

E.coli

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199
Q

middlebrook culture med.for

A

TB

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200
Q

LJ cuture med. for

A

TB

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201
Q

chinese leter arragnement on HISTOLOGY

A

fibrous dysplasia

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202
Q

g-ve lactose NON fermenting
classified on basis of

A

oxidase

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203
Q

g-ve lactose non fermenting oxidase positive bact.(3)

A

pseudomonas
burkholderia
hemophilus

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204
Q

cetrimide agar culture media in

A

pseudomonas

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205
Q

common infection in cystic fibrosis in adults

A

pseudomonas

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206
Q

common infection in cystic fibrosis in children

A

staph.aureus

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207
Q

oxidase -ve g-ve classified on basis of

A

H2S production onTSI agar

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208
Q

TSI agar ingredients?
organisms?

A

triple sugar iron agar
for
1 h2s producing=salmonella
proteus
2 h2s non producing sheigella
yersinia

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209
Q

urease positive
oxidase negative
lactose non fermenting
g-ve bact?

A

proteus

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210
Q

diene’s phenomenon shown by

A

proteus

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211
Q

staghorn calculi by organism

A

proteus

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212
Q

bubonic plague caused by

A

yersinia pestis

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213
Q

RIF pain due to LN involvement by organism

A

yersinia pseudoappendisitis

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214
Q

pediatric diarrhea caused by pili attachment/effacement leasion in

A

EPEC

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215
Q

Sereney’ test for?

A

EIEC

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216
Q

toxin producing e.coli

A

ETEC

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217
Q

DAEC fullform

A

diffusely adherentE.coli

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218
Q

persistent diarrhea by which E.coli

A

EAEC(aggregating)

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219
Q

ecthyma gangrenosum caused in immunocompromised by

A

pseudomonas

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220
Q

ecthyma contagiosum caused by

A

pox -ORF virus

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221
Q

zoonosis disease caused by orf virus in fingers k/s

A

ecthyma contagiosum

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222
Q

most specific infection in cystic fibrosis by

A

burkholderia

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223
Q

mcc of malignant otitis externa

A

pseudomonas

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224
Q

mcc of sepsis in burns

A

pseudomonas

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225
Q

mcc of corneal ulcer in contact lens users

A

pseudomonas

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226
Q

mcc of corneal ulcer in contact lens misuse

A

acanthamoeba

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227
Q

mcc of hot tub folliculitis

A

pseudomonas

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228
Q

mcc of osteomylitis

A

staph aureus

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229
Q

mcc of osteomyelitis in nail in bone

A

pseudomonas

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230
Q

mc site involved in acute osteomyelitis due to nail

A

metaphysis

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231
Q

mcc of acute osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease

A

salmonella

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232
Q

IOC for acute osteomyelitis d/t nail

A

MRI (see BM edema)

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233
Q

reaction to detect antigen of proteus

A

weil felix(with rickettsia)

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234
Q

urine alkaline struvite syndrome by

A

proteus

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235
Q

2 species of proteus show separation of colonies in which phenomenon

A

diene’s phenomenon

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236
Q

factors needed by h.influenza to grow

A

5th(nad)(heat labile)
10th(hemin)
not factors

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237
Q

satellitism on blood agar shown by

A

H.influenza

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238
Q

blood gives which factor to H.influenza

A

10th
Hemin

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239
Q

what gives factor 5 for sattelitism to H.influenza

A

staph aureus(produces NAD)

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240
Q

diene’s staining in

A

mycoplasma

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241
Q

mollicutes/joker/no call wall in

A

mycoplasma

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242
Q

fried egg colony by which bacteria

A

mycoplasma

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243
Q

atypical walking pneumonia in

A

mycoplasma

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244
Q

PPLO culture

A

mycoplasma

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245
Q

mycoplasma shows which agglutinin

A

cold
IgM

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246
Q

g-ve spirochetes(3)

A

treponema
borrelia
leprospira

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247
Q

EMJH medium for

A

Leptospira

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248
Q

weil’s disease by

A

leptospira

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249
Q

icterohemorrhagic fever aka?
caused by?

A

weil’s disease/leptospirosis
leptospira

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250
Q

association with rat urine in paddy fields

A

leptospirosis

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251
Q

hooks present in which spirochetes

A

leptospira

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252
Q

which agglutination test in leptospira

A

microscopic (MAT)

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253
Q

dairy products food poisoning/zoonosis

A

brucella

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254
Q

SAT(standard agglutination test)for

A

brucella

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255
Q

eaton agar culture media for

A

mycoplasma

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256
Q

ashdown culture media for

A

burkholderia

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257
Q

selenite F culture media for

A

sheigella /salmonella

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258
Q

ludlams culture media for

A

staph aureus

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259
Q

mannitol salt agar culture med for

A

staph aureus

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260
Q

regan lowe culture media for

A

bordetella pertussis

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261
Q

bordet genghou culture media for

A

bordetella pertussis

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262
Q

corkscrew motility seen in

A

treponema

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263
Q

lashing motility

A

borrelia

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264
Q

borrelia recurrentis causes(2)

A

epidemic relapsing fever
endemic relapsing fever

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265
Q

epidimic relapsing fever transmitted by

A

louse

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266
Q

endemic relapsing fever transmitted by

A

soft tick

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267
Q

lyme’s disease transmitted by

A

hard tick

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268
Q

lyme’s disease caused by

A

borellia burkdoferri

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269
Q

atypical pneumonia with h/o water by

A

leioginella

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270
Q

cat scratch disease caused by

A

bartonella henslii

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271
Q

BCYE(buffer charcoal yeast) culture media for

A

legionella

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272
Q

cat scratch disease show which granuloma

A

stellate

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273
Q

erythema migrans seen in

A

lyme’s disease

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274
Q

which coxsackie cause hemorrhagic conjunctivitis

A

coxackie A24

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275
Q

castened biphasic agar for

A

brucella

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276
Q

palms and soles involving diseases(3)

A

sec syphilis
coxsackie A16
RMSF

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277
Q

great imitator
all types of rash except vescicobullous/pruritic

A

syphilis(sec?)

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278
Q

deep dermal tenderness on pressing in syphilis which sign

A

bushke ollendorf sign

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279
Q

condyloma lata by

A

treponema pallidum/syphilis

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280
Q

what type of lesion is condyloma lata

A

on oral mucosa
snail track lesion

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281
Q

condyloma accuminata caused by

A

HPV

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282
Q

primary syphilis shows

A

primary chncre
hard
painless

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283
Q

alopecia in syphilis

A

scarring/non scarring
moth eaten

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284
Q

tertiary syphilis
skin
cvs
cns

A

skin=gummas
cvs=aortic dissection
cns=tabes dorsalis/argyll robertson pupil(accomodates but does not react)

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285
Q

test to confirm syphilis
most specific

A

FTA ABS

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286
Q

epidemic typhus caused by

A

R.prowazekii

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287
Q

endemic typhys caused by

A

R.typhi

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288
Q

RMSF caused by

A

R.reketsii

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289
Q

indian tick typhus caused by

A

R.conori

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290
Q

african tick tuphus caused by

A

R.africae

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291
Q

ehrilichiosis affects

A

monocytes(GAME)

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292
Q

anaplasmosis affects

A

granulocytes(GAME)

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293
Q

rikettsial pox caused by

A

R.akari

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294
Q

scrub typhus caused by

A

R.tsutsugamushi

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295
Q

Q fever caused by

A

coxiella

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296
Q

IP for scrub typhus

A

1-3 weeks
7-21 days

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297
Q

ehrlichiosis transmit by

A

hard tick

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298
Q

anaplasmosis transmit by

A

hard tick

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299
Q

scrub typhus transmit by

A

mite

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300
Q

indian tick typhus transmit by

A

hard tick

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301
Q

babesiosis transmit by

A

hard tick

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302
Q

rekettsial pox transmit by

A

mite

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303
Q

RMSF transmit by

A

hard tick

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304
Q

african tick typhus tranmit by

A

hard tick

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305
Q

endemic typhus transmit by

A

flea

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306
Q

epidemic typhus transmit by

A

louse

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307
Q

larva of mite

A

chiggus

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308
Q

not killed by pasturization

A

coxiella

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309
Q

scrub typhus transmit by

A

mite

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310
Q

rikettsial pox transmit by

A

mite

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311
Q

cremean congo hemorrhagic fever transmit by

A

hard tick

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312
Q

kyanasaur forest disease transmit by

A

hard tick

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313
Q

orrentia transmit by

A

mite

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314
Q

red colored
transovarian transmission by

A

mite

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315
Q

D.lataum transmission by

A

cyclops

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316
Q

mosquito

A
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317
Q

mosquito sitting at angle

A

anopheles’

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318
Q

mosquito parallel to body

A

aedes

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319
Q

mosquito with hunchback

A

culex

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320
Q

mosquito with pistia plant

A

mansonia

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321
Q

mosquito in clean water

A

aenopheles

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322
Q

mosquito in artficial water

A

aedes

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323
Q

mosquito in dirty water

A

culex

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324
Q

mosquito with shortest flight

A

aedes(100m)

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325
Q

mosquito with largest flight

A

culex(10km)

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326
Q

mosquito with stripes on body

A

aedes

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327
Q

mosquito spotted wings

A

anopheles

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328
Q

mosquito causing malaria

A

anopheles female

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329
Q

mosquito causing dengue

A

aedes

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330
Q

mosquito causing chikungunya

A

aedes

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331
Q

mosquito causing yellow fever

A

aedes

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332
Q

mosquito causing west nile fever

A

culex

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333
Q

mosquitocausing zika virus fever

A

aedes

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334
Q

mosquito causing rift valley fever

A

aedes

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335
Q

mosquito causing JE

A

cules

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336
Q

mosquito causing filariasis by w.bankrofti

A

culex

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337
Q

mosquito causing filariasis by brugia malayi

A

mansonia

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338
Q

breateau index seen in

A

dengue

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339
Q

virus a/w pig
fruit bat
palm tree

A

nipah

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340
Q

virus a/w bat
deer

A

ebola

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341
Q

dead end/accidental host in JE

A

humans

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342
Q

amplifiers in JE

A

pig

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343
Q

amplifier that is vaccinated in JE

A

pig

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344
Q

reservoir in JE

A

water fowl

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345
Q

hairy sand fly transmit

A

kala azar

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346
Q

Rk39 text +ve in

A

kala azar

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347
Q

kinetoplast
geimsa stain in?

A

kala azar

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348
Q

amastigotes seen in

A

kala azar

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349
Q

LD bodies seen in

A

kala azar

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350
Q

fever+hsm+bihar/jharkhand

A

kala azar

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351
Q

monternegro test in

A

kala azar

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352
Q

JSB stain for peripheral smear in

A

malaria

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353
Q

smear for species identificatio

A

thin

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354
Q

smear for sensitivity/+/_

A

thick

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355
Q

1 microscope in _ population in malaria

A

25k

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356
Q

most imp measure of malaria control

A

annual parasite index

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357
Q

best indicator for operational efficacy

A

annual blood examination rate

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358
Q

best during outbreak

A

slide positivity rate

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359
Q

LDH/ aldolase for which malari species

A

all

360
Q

HRP2 antigen in malaria for

A

p.falciparum

361
Q

LDH/aldolase/hrp2 used in

A

card test /optimal test for
malaria

362
Q

ring seen in for?

A

trophozoit

363
Q

schizonts has

A

merozoits

364
Q

schiff bodies seen in

A

p.vivax

365
Q

james bodies seen in

A

p.ovale

366
Q

trophozoit and schizonts seen in

A

p.ovale/p.vivax

367
Q

merozoits relapse not seen in

A

p.falciparum

368
Q

drug for relapse d/t merozoits

A

primaquin

369
Q

Acole/multiple ring form seen in

A

p.falciparum

370
Q

banana gametocyte seen in

A

p.falciparum

371
Q

maurier bodies seen in

A

p.falciparum

372
Q

band/Zeimann bodies seen in

A

p.malaria

373
Q

maltese cross seen in infection

A

babesiosis

374
Q

2 nucleus in giardia/trichomonas

A

giardia

375
Q

nocyst in giardia/trichomonas

A

trichomonas

376
Q

twitching/quivering motility

A

trichomonas

377
Q

infective form in giardia

A

cyst

378
Q

dimond culture media

A

trichonomas

379
Q

giardia motility

A

falling leaf

380
Q

darting/shooting star motility seen in

A

vibrio/campylobacter

381
Q

what% agar inhibit swarming in proteus

A

6%

382
Q

yeast i?

A

cryptococcus

383
Q

yeast like is

A

candida

384
Q

true hyphae in

A

mold

385
Q

molds are

A

rhizopus
mucor
absidia
aspergillus

386
Q

pseudohypae seen in

A

candida/east like

387
Q

dimorphic fungi are

A

HSBC-PP
histoplasma
sporotrichosis
blastomycosis
coccidiomycosis
paracoccidiomycosis
penicillium/talaromycis

388
Q

LPCB what preserves morphology

A

lactose

389
Q

LPCB what is disinfectant

A

phenol

390
Q

LPCB what is dye

A

cotton blue

391
Q

galactomannan seen in

A

aspergillus

392
Q

13 d Bglucan + aglactomannan investigation of

A

invasive aspergillosis

393
Q

13DB galucan not +nt in

A

cryptococcus
mucor/rhizopus/absidia
blastomyces

394
Q

G test for?
organism?

A

alpha 3 glucan
candidiasis

395
Q

galactomannan is useful in which transplant

A

hematopoitic stem cell transplant

396
Q

13DB glucan inhibited by

A

ecchinocandins

397
Q

tuberculate/macroconidia seen in

A

histoplasmosis

398
Q

intracellular yeast

A

histoplasmosis

399
Q

ohio disease

A

histoplasmosis

400
Q

mississippi disease

A

histoplasmosis

401
Q

darling disease

A

histoplasmosis

402
Q

mold in dimorphic yeast seen at tem?

A

cold(culture)

403
Q

yeast form in dimorphic yeast seen at temp?

A

hot(h/p)

404
Q

Chicago disease

A

blastomycoses

405
Q

north american disease

A

blastomycoses

406
Q

gilchrist disease

A

blastomycoses

407
Q

broad base/ figure of 8 yeast
cutaneous
pulmonary/hilar LN Consolidation
granulomatous

A

blastomycoses

408
Q

california disease

A

coccidiomycosis

409
Q

valley fever

A

coccidiomycosis

410
Q

spherules with endospores seen in yeast

A

coccidiomycosis

411
Q

barrel shaped arthrospores in dimorphic yeast

A

coccidiomycosis

412
Q

desert rheumatism by

A

coccidiomycosis

413
Q

derest rheumatism involve

A

loints skin

414
Q

south american disease/blastonycosis by

A

paracoccidiomycosis

415
Q

lutz mycosis by

A

paracoccidiomycosis

416
Q

paracoccidiomycosis involve

A

LN
hsm
skin

417
Q

bamboo bats reservoir seen in

A

talaromyces/penicillium

418
Q

chronic granulomatous south american/yeast

A

paracoccidiomycosis

419
Q

mickey mouse/pilot wheel appearance

A

paracoccidiomycosis

420
Q

broom brush appearance

A

talaromyces/penicillium

421
Q

reddish on culture dimorphic yeast

A

talaromyces/penicillium

422
Q

talaromyces/penicillium septate/non septate

A

septate

423
Q

rose gardners disease

A

sporotrichosis

424
Q

rossette of conidia in yeast

A

sporotrichosis

425
Q

granulomatous diasease
spread via ln
yeast

A

sporotrichosis

426
Q

asteroid bodies seen in yeast

A

sporotrichosis

427
Q

thorn prick
linear noduloulcerating lesions

A

sporotrichosis

428
Q

splendor horplii phenomenon seen in

A

sporotrichosis

429
Q

immune complex with yeast
centre=basophilic
radiation-eosiniphilic

A

sporotrichosis

430
Q

verrucous warty lesions
h/o bare foot
yeast

A

chromoblastomycosis

431
Q

copper penny bodies seen in

A

chromoblastomycosis

432
Q

medlar bodies seen in

A

chromoblastomycosis

433
Q

sclerotic bodies seen in yeast

A

chromoblastomycosis

434
Q

satellite lesions produed by scratching in yeast

A

chromoblastomycosis

435
Q

mx in chromoblastomycosis

A

surgery—flucytosine/itraconazole

436
Q

draining sinu=black granules in

A

eumycetoma/madura foot

437
Q

painless mycetoma

A

eumycetoma/madura foot

438
Q

draining sinus=yellow granules

A

actinomycetoma

439
Q

mx of actinomycetoma

A

rifampicin/penicillin/cotrimoxazole

440
Q

sub himalayan yeast

A

chromoblastomycosis

441
Q

botyromycosis caused by

A

staph aureus

442
Q

staph aureus skin infection drugs

A

amoxi-clav

443
Q

drug for local fungal infection

A

itraconazol

444
Q

drug for systemic fungal/dimorphic

A

amphotericin

445
Q

cryptococcus polysaccharide capsule on microscopic in

A

india ink /nigrosine

446
Q

cryptococcus CD4+ ?

A

<100/microliter

447
Q

laccase +ve in which cryptococcus

A

cryptococcus=neoformans(A/D/AD serotype)
=gatti(B/C serotype)

448
Q

most sensitive test for cryptococcus

A

csf/latex agglutinatin/card test

449
Q

bird seed agar for

A

cryptococcus

450
Q

niger seed agar colony color

A

brown colonies

451
Q

cryptococcus catalase +ve or -ve

A

catalase +ve

452
Q

otomycosis
mycotic ketatisis seen in

A

aspergillus

453
Q

BEST test for

A

cryptococcus

454
Q

acute angle branching
septate hypae in which fungus

A

aspergillus

455
Q

mcc of fungal (2)rhinosinusitis

A

aspergillus fumigatus>flavua

456
Q

aspergillus flavus color

A

yellow

457
Q

aspergillus fumigatus color

A

dark green

458
Q

aspergillus niger color

A

black

459
Q

doc for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis

A

voriconazol

460
Q

fruiting body seen in fungu

A

aspergillus

461
Q

phillides
basipital arrangement of conical vesicles
arial hyphae (septate)
aseptate conidiospores in?

A

aspergillus

462
Q

obtuse /right angle branching
aseptate hyphae funguf

A

rhizopus/mucor

463
Q

broad ribbon like hyphae in fungus

A

rhizopus/mucor

464
Q

iron avoided in fungus

A

rhizopus/mucor

465
Q

ubiquitous thermotolerant saprobes(3)

A

rhizopus/mucor
cladosporium

466
Q

stain for rhizopus/mucor

A

grocott
gomori methamine silver

467
Q

voriconazol/flucytosine does not work for

A

rhizopus/mucor

468
Q

drugs for rhizopus/mucor(3)

A

isavaconazol
posaconazol
amphotericin B

469
Q

pseudohyphae seen in

A

candida

470
Q

corn meal agar test for?
shows?

A

candida
chlamydiospores

471
Q

germ tube test for
on?

A

candida
corn meal agar

472
Q

germ tube test +ve for(2)

A

candida albicans
c.dubiliensis
(c.tropicalis)

473
Q

germ tube test shows which phenomenon

A

raynaud’s braud phenomenon

474
Q

chrome agar to differentiate

A

candida species

475
Q

red color on chrome agar

A

c.kruzie

476
Q

green color on chrome agar

A

c.albicans

477
Q

pink color on chrome agar

A

c.glabrata

478
Q

yellow/white on chrome agar

A

c.parapsilosis

479
Q

resistant to voriconazol candida(2)

A

c.kruzei
c.glabrata

480
Q

oral non azole (triterpenoi)for candida

A

ibrexagungrep

481
Q

dose of ibrexafungrep

A

600mg devided in 2 doses 12 hrs apart

482
Q

fuction of ibrexafungrep

A

inhibit glucan synthesis

483
Q

drug for vaginal candidiasis
dose

A

fluconazol
150mg

484
Q

moniliasis caused by

A

candida

485
Q

b/l ggo+cysts
b/l interstitial infiltrates

A

pneumocystis jeruvecii

486
Q

ping pong cells on gms stain onBAL

A

pneumocystis jeruvecii

487
Q

hiv CD4 count for pneumocystis jeruvecii

A

<200/ <15%

488
Q

retrosternal chest pain
increased LDH
non productive cough
dense perihilar infiltrate

A

pneumocystis jeruvecii

489
Q

b/l ggo+cysts
b/l interstitial infiltrates
retrosternal chest pain
increased LDH
non productive cough
dense perihilar infiltrate

A

pneumocystis jeruvecii

490
Q

prophylaxis amd treatment for pneumocystis jeruvecii

A

cotrimoxazol

491
Q

drugs for pneumocystis jeruvecii

A

cotrimixazol
aerolised pentamide
glucocorticoids

492
Q

glucocorticoid inpneumocystis jeruvecii used when

A

paO2 <70%`

493
Q

non bile stained eggs(3/4)

A

NEHA
nectar
enterobius vermicularis
H.nana
ancylostoma

494
Q

eggs that dont float(3)

A

SUIT
strongyloides
unfertilised ascaris
intestinal tapeworm(tenia)

495
Q

autoinfection caused by(5)

A

CHEST
cryptosporidium
H.nana
enterobius
strongyloides
tenia

496
Q

cestodes(4)

A

1 tenia
2 H.nana
3 H.dimunita
4 D.latum

497
Q

non bile stained egg
no intermediate host

A

H(hymenolepis).nana

498
Q

dwarf tapeworm

A

H.nana

499
Q

intermediate host pig
central scoles

A

tenia soluem

500
Q

ncc=starry sky appearance in

A

tenia soleum

501
Q

intermediate host cattle a/w burkitt’s lympnoma

A

tenia saginata

502
Q

rat tapeworm

A

h.dimunita

503
Q

Intermediate hosts=
1 cyclops
2 fish

A

d.latum

504
Q

fish tapeworm

A

d.latum

505
Q

which deficiency in D.latum infestation

A

B12

506
Q

only cestode egg with operculum

A

D.lataum

507
Q

3 parts in egg

A

H.dimunita

508
Q

2 parts of egg
non bile stained
polar filaments

A

H.nana

509
Q

2 parts in egg
radial striae

A

tenia

510
Q

nematodes(5)

A

1 enterobius vermicularis
2 thichuns trichura
3 ascaris
4 nectar americans
(old=ancylostoma duodenale)
5 strongyloides

511
Q

non bile stained plano convex egg

A

enterobius vermi

512
Q

egg flag at 2 ends

A

trichuns trichura

513
Q

largest eggs

A

ascaris

514
Q

fertilised egg 2 parts

A

ascaris

515
Q

unfertilised egg=irregular globules filled

A

ascaris

516
Q

pinworm

A

enterobius vermi

517
Q

perianal pruritis worm

A

enterobius

518
Q

NIH swab test

A

entrobius vermi

519
Q

scotch tape test

A

enterobius

520
Q

rectal prolapse in which worm

A

trichuns trichura

521
Q

non bile stained egg filled with blastomeres

A

hookworm(nectar americans/ancylostoma duodenale)

522
Q

hookworm

A

(nectar americans/ancylostoma duodenale)

523
Q

rhabtidiform larva(smallest) in

A

strongyloides

524
Q

worm a/w crab

A

strongyloides

525
Q

ovo-vivi turn egg immediately??? into larva

A

strongyloides

526
Q

trematodes(7)

A

s.mansoni
s.japonicum
s.hematobium
clonorchis
ophistorchis
paragonium
fasciola

527
Q

infective form of all trematodes?
excet?

A

metacercaria
exp=shistosoma=cercaria

528
Q

tranmission of all trematodes by?
except?

A

feco oral
exp.shistosoma=skin

529
Q

sexes in all trematodes?
except?

A

hermaphrodites
exp.shistostoma=separate sexes

530
Q

eggs in all trematodes?
except?

A

operculated
exp=shistosoma=spines

531
Q

definitive host in all trematodes

A

humans

532
Q

primary intermediate host in all trematodes

A

snail

533
Q

secondary intermediate host in clonorchis

A

fish

534
Q

secondary intermediate host in ophisthorchis

A

fish

535
Q

secondary intermediate host in fasciola

A

fresh aquatic vegetation

536
Q

secondary intermediate host in paragonimus

A

crab

537
Q

paragonimus infection in body where?

A

lungs

538
Q

secondary intermediate host is absent in which trematode

A

shistostoma

539
Q

lateral spine in trematode long egg

A

in s.mansoni

540
Q

inferior mesentric plexus involved in trematode

A

s.mansoni

541
Q

round egg(tissue paper like inside) without spine in shistostoma

A

s.japonicum

542
Q

s.japonicum affects which plexus

A

superior mesentric

543
Q

s.japonicum/s.mansoni go to liver cause

A

portal fibrosis/htn

544
Q

katayama disease

A

portal fibrosis d/t s.japonicum/s.mansoni

545
Q

terminal spine in long shistosoma egg

A

s.hematobium

546
Q

squamous cc in bladder by trematode?

A

s.hematobium

547
Q

s.hematobium involves which plexus

A

visceral plexus

548
Q

fetal skull appearance on radiology d/t peripheral calcification of bladder in

A

s.hematobium

549
Q

% of neutral buffer saline/formaline in microscope

A

10%

550
Q

fixative used by light microscope

A

10% neutral buffer saline

551
Q

fixative used in EM

A

cidax
2-2.5 % gluteraldehyde

552
Q

slide used in EM

A

copper slide

553
Q

slide used in LM

A

glass

554
Q

resolution of EM

A

0.1/0.2/0.5 nm

555
Q

resolution of LM

A

0.2 micrometer

556
Q

EM for internal structures

A

transmission EM

557
Q

EM for 3D image

A

scanning EM

558
Q

embedding used in EM

A

resin

559
Q

embedding used in LM

A

paraffin wax

560
Q

max magnification in LM

A

1000x

561
Q

ocular lens in LM +nt where

A

eye piece

562
Q

magnific. of ocular lens

A

10x

563
Q

objective lens magnufic.

A

4x

564
Q

low power lens in LM magnific.

A

10x

565
Q

high power lens in LM magnific

A

40x

566
Q

oil immersion lens in LM magnific

A

100x

567
Q

vacuum in EM needed for

A

e- transmission

568
Q

which light used in LM

A

transmitted light

569
Q

light used in dark field microscopy

A

reflected light

570
Q

light used in phase contrast microscopy

A

refracted light

571
Q

light used in fluorescent microscopy

A

UV light

572
Q

UV light in fluorescent microscopy converted from-to

A

low wavelength to higher

573
Q

UV light fluorescent microscopy converted by

A

dichroic mirror

574
Q

auramine/rhodamine stain for

A

mycobacterium in fluorescent microscopy`

575
Q

rhodanine stain fluorescent microscopy for?

A

copper

576
Q

acridine orange stain fluorescent microscopy fro

A

malaria

577
Q

acridine orange stain for malaria technique

A

kawamoto technique

578
Q

calcofluor white stain fluorescent microscopy

A

fungal-chitin

579
Q

FITC=?

A

flow cytometry

580
Q

auto fluorescence seen in(2)

A

cyclospora
NADPH

581
Q

G6PD deficiency shows

A

NADPH

582
Q

flourospot test for

A

G6PD deficiency

583
Q

coccidian parasites cause infection in ?

A

hiv AIDS

584
Q

kinyon’s modification of?
used for?

A

zeil nelson stain/AF
coccidion parasites

585
Q

kinyon stain does not have

A

heating

586
Q

what acts as mordant in kinyon stain

A

increased phenol in carbol fuschin

587
Q

cold acid fast stain is?

A

kinyon stain

588
Q

smallest coccidian

A

cryptosporidium(4-8 micron)

589
Q

non round coccidian/oval

A

cystoisospora/isosporsa

590
Q

round coccidian(2)
sizes?

A

1 cryptosporidium(4-8 micron)
2 cyclospora=8-10 microns

591
Q

cryptospora doc

A

nitazoxanide

592
Q

cyclospora doc

A

cotrimixazole/tmp/smx

593
Q

cystoisospors doc

A

cotrimoxazole/tmp/smx

594
Q

unsheathed microfilaria(2)

A

1 oncocerca volvulus
2 mansonella perstans

595
Q

sheathed microfilaria(3)

A

1 wuchereria bankroftii
2 brugia malai
3 loa loa

596
Q

provocation test for microfilaria?

A

wuchereria bankrofti

597
Q

absent nucleus in tail(2)

A

1 wuchereria bankroftii(sheathed)
2 onchocerca volvulus(unsheated)

598
Q

2 nuclei in tail

A

brugia malayi

599
Q

line of nuclei in tail(2)

A

1 loa loa
2 mansonella perstans

600
Q

ssdna virus?

A

parvovirus

601
Q

non enveloped ssdna virus

A

parvovirus

602
Q

smallest virus

A

parvovirus

603
Q

classification of dsdna

A

enveloped and non enveloped

604
Q

non enveloped dsdna

A

adenovirus
papova(papilloma and polyoma)

605
Q

BK virus under which class

A

polyoma -papova-non enveloped-dsdna

606
Q

JC virus under which class

A

polyoma-papova-non evnelopes-dsdna

607
Q

enveloped dsdna that replicates thru rna intermediate

A

hepatitis B /hepadna

608
Q

enveloped dsdna(3)

A

herpes family
pox
hep B/hepadina

609
Q

cmv belongs to which family

A

herpes(enveloped dsdna

610
Q

space ship shaped virus
classification

A

adenovirus
nonenveloped
dsdna

611
Q

hpv class

A

papiloma-papova-nonenveloped-dsdna

612
Q

hiv+white matter involvement in

A

progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy

613
Q

progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy caused by

A

JC virus(junky cerebrum)

614
Q

graft nephropathy in kidney transplant caused by virus

A

BK virus

615
Q

mcc of viral corneal ulcer

A

hsv1

616
Q

decoy cells found in

A

kidney graft nephropathy by BK cells

617
Q

icosahedral symmetry seen in ?
except?

A

DNA virus
except=pox (complex symmetry)

618
Q

mcv show which phenomenon in skin

A

pseudokobners phenomenon

619
Q

nucliec acid replication seen in ?
except?

A

1 all dna (except pox=cytoplasm)
2 rna=retro/influenza/measles

620
Q

non immune hydrops caused

A

parvovirus B19

621
Q

virus mimicking joint d/o

A

parvo B19

622
Q

glove and stalking papulopruritis by virus

A

parvoB19

623
Q

herpes family contains(5)

A

hsv1
hsv2
ebv
cmv
vzv

624
Q

dsrna

A

rota/rheo

625
Q

rna virus with single copy?
except?

A

all
except=retroviru(2 copies)

626
Q

examples of rtro virus(2)

A

hiv/htlv

627
Q

rna virus that are unsegmented?
except?

A

all
except=BIRA(segmented
1 bunya=3
2 uinfluenza=8
3 rota=11
4 arena=2

628
Q

rna virus replicating in nucleus

A

retro
influenza
measles

629
Q

rna virus replicating in nucleus with 2 copies of ssrna
first converts to dna then thru reverse transcriptase converts to rna

A

retro

630
Q

rna virus replicating in nucleus segmented with 8 segments

A

influenza

631
Q

central umbilication in cutaneous lesion

A

molluscum contagiosum
(pox virus)
(enveloped ds dna)
(replicating in cytoplasm)

632
Q

henderson peterson bodies seen in

A

mcv

633
Q

only dna virus family replicating in cytoplasm

A

pox(includes mcv)

634
Q

only dna virus with complex symmetry

A

pox

635
Q

stain used for nrgri bodies

A

seller stain

636
Q

negri bodies seen in infection

A

rabies

637
Q

negri bodies seen in organs(2)

A

purkinje cells of cerebellum
hippocampus

638
Q

2 types of cowdry A bodies

A

1 lipshultz(in hsv)
2 torres bodies(in yellow fever)

639
Q

margination multinucleation
moulding seen in virus

A

hsv

640
Q

ballooning on zank smearseen in

A

hsv

641
Q

cowdry A are intranuclear or intra cytoplasmic

A

intranuclear

642
Q

cowdry B bodies seen in(2)

A

1 adeno
2 polio

643
Q

HaY bAP?

A

cowdry A in hsv and yf
cowdry B in adeno and polio

644
Q

koilocytes in virus

A

HPV

645
Q

pap smear with perinuclear clearing cells k/s?
seen in?

A

koilocytes
hpv

646
Q

intracytoplasmic+intranuclear bodies in virus
cells k/s
seen in

A

warthin kickeldey gaint cells
measles

647
Q

intranuclear+intracytoplasmic bodies +owl eye (basophilic)

A

cmv

648
Q

eosinophic owl eye in? v/s basophilic owl eye

A

eosino=hodgkins lymphoma(reidsternberg)

baso=cmv infection

649
Q

vzv infection?
reinfection?
reinfection in geniculate ganglion?

A

chickenpox
shigles
ramsay hunts yndrome

650
Q

shingles lesion along?

A

dermatomal distribution

651
Q

mc complication of shingles/vzv

A

post herpetic neuralgia/pain

652
Q

bells’ palsy
erosions vesicles in pinna and EAC seen in

A

ramsay hunt syndrome

653
Q

ebv enters which cells?
via?

A

B cells
via CD21

654
Q

ebv infection thru entering b cells cause(5)

A

hl
nhl-dlbcl
NPca
ohl
Ca.stomach

655
Q

ebv thru saliva in adolescence causes

A

kissings disease
aka infectious mononucleosis

656
Q

infectious mononucleosis sign symptoms

A

fever
hsm
psot cervical ln

657
Q

smear on ebv infection(infectious mononucleosis)

A

ballarina skirt (in cytokine t cells) k/s Downey’s cells

658
Q

agglutination test for ebv?
which type of agglutination

A

paul bunnel/monospot test
hetrophile agglutination

659
Q

monospot test is aka

A

paul bunnel test

660
Q

diffuse morbiliform rash after taking ampicillin is seen in

A

infectious mononucleosis

661
Q

blunting of villi in duodenum and proximal jejunum by virus

A

rota viruss

662
Q

extensive colonic injury with yellow white adherent layer in

A

c.defficle

663
Q

flask shaped ulceration in cecum and ascending colon

A

entamoeba histolytica

664
Q

foamy macrophages in small intestine lamina propria

A

whipple’s

665
Q

blunting of intestinal villi by bacteria

A

EPEC

666
Q

mcc of uti in females

A

E.coli

667
Q

second mcc of uti in females

A

staph.saprophyticus

668
Q

uti+catalase +ve +coagulase negative (cons)+ g+ve

A

staph saprophyticus

669
Q

novobiocin resistant cons

A

staph. saprophyticus

670
Q

novobiosin sensitive cons

A

staph epidermidis

671
Q

prosthetic devise/biofilms infection/early IE

A

staph epidermidis

672
Q

liquid/oily/greasy
liquid paraffin sterlized in

A

hot air oven

673
Q

heat sensitive vaccine sterlized by

A

membrane filtration

674
Q

lss /lj medium(egg containing)
sterlised in

A

not heat
inspissation

675
Q

all sutures sterlized by?
except?

A

autoclave
except catgut (gamma sterlization)

676
Q

kopliks spots seen in place

A

oral mucosa -near molar tooth

677
Q

koplik’s spots seen in disease

A

measles

678
Q

does measles rash involve palms and soles?

A

no

679
Q

mc complication of measles

A

om

680
Q

mcc of mortality in measle

A

pneumonia

681
Q

delayed complication of measles

A

sspe=subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

682
Q

which is the first disease

A

measles

683
Q

which is the second disease

A

scarlet fever

684
Q

scarlet fever caused by

A

strep.pyogenes

685
Q

scarlet fever caused by which class of strep

A

gas

686
Q

scarlet fever to be differentiated from

A

kawasaki

687
Q

non vaccinated child h/o rash deteriorating in school

A

complication of measles =sspe

688
Q

scarlet fever features

A

=mimicking kawasaki
strawberry tongue
rash
=unique to scarlet fever
sandpaper rash
pastia lines(linear lines on flexion)

689
Q

diagnosis of kawasaki “

A

crash and burn
c=conjunctivitis
r=rash
a=adenopathy
s=strawberry tongue
h= hand swelling
burn=fever >5days

690
Q

management of kawasaki

A

IVIG+aspirsn

691
Q

u/ enlarged ln >1.5cm
kawasaki v/s scarlet?mc complication in kawasaki

A

kawasakimyocarditis

692
Q

most specific complication for kawasaki

A

coronary artery aneurism
MI in pediatrics

693
Q

aspirin not given in children because

A

it causes reye’s syndrome

694
Q

reye’s syndrome

A

vasculas asteatosis
acute liver failure

695
Q

which is th third disease

A

rubella

696
Q

rubella spots?

A

forchiemer’s spots/ palatal spots

697
Q

ln involved in rubella

A

post auricular ln

698
Q

rubella in pediatrics features

A

pda>ps>vsd>asd
forchiemer’s spot/palatal
post auricular ln

699
Q

which is the fourth disease

A

duke’ disease

700
Q

which is the fifth disease

A

erythema infectiosum

701
Q

erythema infectiosum caused

A

parvo B 19

702
Q

slapped cheek disease k/s

A

erythema infectiosum/parvoB19

703
Q

dog ear appearance on rbc in

A

parvo b19infection
pure red cell aplasia

704
Q

parvo b 19 attackes rbc thruparvo b19 infections

A

pAG

705
Q

mcc of non immune hydrops

A

parvo b19

706
Q

parvo b19 infections

A

erythema infectiousum(slapped cheek)
pure red cell aplasia
pruritic papular glove and stolkind syndrome(ppgs)rare
nih
rheumatoid arthritis

707
Q

which is the sixth disease

A

roseola infantum

708
Q

roseola infantum aka

A

exenthema subitum

709
Q

sixth disease caused by

A

hhv 6

710
Q

petechial palatal rash /like rubella k/s

A

nagayama spots

711
Q

seizure can be seen in which exenthema of pediatrics?
other organism?

A

sixth disease
shiegella

712
Q

very high fever
goes down
then rash in which enenthema

A

sixth dieases

713
Q

2 phenomenon in influenza

A

1 reassortment(ag shift)
2 point mutation(ag drift)

714
Q

sudden ag shift in influenza causes pandemic or epidemic or endemic

A

pandemic

715
Q

gradually accumulating point mutation ag drift causes in influenza

A

endemics/epidemics

716
Q

‘SR-DP’

A

shift=reassortment
drift=point mutation

717
Q

antibody dependent enhancement seen in virus

A

dengue

718
Q

what is antibody dependent enhancement in dengue

A

antibody of previous infection serovere facilitate infection of new serovere
causes severe infection

719
Q

ioc for any calcification

A

ncct

720
Q

calcific in brain 3 types in congenital infections

A

1 gm-wm junction=zika
2 periventricular=cmv
3 =parenchymal=toxoplasmosis

721
Q

Australian ag =epidemiological factor (hep)

A

HBsAg

722
Q

first marker to rise in hep b(by 1/2 month/peek by 3 months)

A

HBsAg

723
Q

hep b active infection present if which ag present

A

HBsAg(surface)

724
Q

acute or chronic hep b infection seen by

A

ANTI-HBc
IgM=acute
IgG=chronic

725
Q

what in hep b does not come out in blood

A

HBcAg(core)

726
Q

presence oh ANTI HBsAg?

A

HBsAg disappeared(no more infection)
immunity present
recovered/vaccinated

727
Q

infectivity given by

A

HBeAg(envelope)

728
Q

when only ANTI HBcAg present
between fall of HBsAg and rise of ANTI HBsAg

A

window period

729
Q

bioterrorism cat A(4)

A

1 anthrax
2 botulism
3 plague
4 viral hemorrhagic fever(yf/ebola/kfd/marburg/lassa)

730
Q

viral hemorrhagic fevers are

A

1 yf
2 ebola
3 kfd
4 marburg
5 lassa

731
Q

bioterrorism cat c

A

emerging infections
1 nipah
2 hanta
3 sars

732
Q

bioterrorism cat b(12)

A

1 brucella
2 epsilon toxin(c.perfringens)
3 salmonella
4 shigella
5 e.coli o157;h7
6staph=enterotoxin B
7 v cholera
8 q fever
9 typhus
10 psittacosis
11 glanders
12 melioidosis

733
Q

toxoplasmosis=oocyst/bradyzoits/tachyzoits

A

oocysts=cat feces
bradyzoid=cat meat
tachy=verticle transmission

734
Q

SUMANK for

A

hand wash

735
Q

phase contrat microscopy for seeing(3

A

1 hairy cells
2 motility
3 internal contents

736
Q

dark field microscopy for (2)

A

spirochetes
flagella

737
Q

dark microscopy from lm change in?

A

condensor

738
Q

background is stained in

A

india ink/nigrosine/negative stain

739
Q

india ink/nigrosine/negative stain for

A

cryptococcus

740
Q

silver impregnation types (2)

A

1 levaditi for tissue
2 fontana for fluid

741
Q

silver impregnation used for

A

spirochetes

742
Q

warthin starry stain for(3)

A

1 h.pylori
2 trichoferma whipelli
3 bartonella

743
Q

gomori methamine stain for which organism

A

fungus(whole not cw)

744
Q

come in and stain for=?

A

gram stain
1 crystal voilet/methyl violet/gention violet
2 idodine
3 alcohol/acetone
4 saffranine/carbol fuschin/neutral red

745
Q

mordant/fixer in gram stain

A

iodine

746
Q

mordant/fixer in zn stain

A

heat

747
Q

decolorizer in gran stain

A

alcohol/acetone

748
Q

decolorizer in zn ztain

A

H2So4

749
Q

gram stain stains +ved/t

A

more peptidoglycans

750
Q

‘came’

A

zn ztain
1 carbolfuschin
2 heat
3 acid(h2so4)
4 methelene blue/malachite green

751
Q

acid fast firstgiven by

A

paul ehrlich

752
Q

acid fast modified by

A

zeilnelson

753
Q

conc of decoloriser for TB

A

25-20%

754
Q

conc of decoloriser for nocardia/leioginella

A

1%

755
Q

conc of decoloriser for leprosy

A

5%

756
Q

fite foraco stain ?
for?

A

5% h2so4 in zn ztain
leprosy

757
Q
A
758
Q

conc of decoloriser for cryptospora/isospora/
bacterial spore
sperm head

A

0.5%

759
Q

stain for spores

A

0.5%h2so4-zn
shaeffer and Fulton
ashby
ponder/albert/niesser

760
Q

stain for coryn diptheri spores

A

ponder
albert
niesser’s

761
Q

albert stain for(2)

A

1 coryn dipth
2 mast cells

762
Q

steps albert stain

A

dry fixation
albert stain for 3-4 mins
alb iodine=1 min
wash
oil emersion

763
Q

TIM for albert stain

A

toludine blue
iodine
malachite green

764
Q

ashby stain ?

A

cytoplams=safranin
counter stain=malachite green

765
Q

ashby stain for spores?

A

bascilli
clostridium

766
Q

pentapeptide cross bridge present in g+ve or g-ve

A

g+ve

767
Q

peptidoglycans more in present in g+ve or g-ve

A

g+ve

768
Q

teichoic acid present in g+ve or g-ve

A

g+

769
Q

lipoteichoic acid present in g+ve or g-ve

A

g+

770
Q

endotoxin/lps present in g+ve or g-ve

A

g-ve

771
Q

O ag present in g+ve or g-ve

A

g-ve

772
Q

periplasmic space present in g+ve or g-ve

A

g-ve

773
Q

lps present in g+ve or g-ve

A

g-ve

774
Q

endoflagella present where

A

inperiplasmic space

775
Q

beta lactamase are present where

A

periplasmic space

776
Q

outer membrane of g-ve m/o

A

o=o ag
c=core polysaccaride
a=lipid A

777
Q

lipid A present in g+ve or g-ve

A

gram -ve

778
Q

linnulus amoebocyte assay(LAL) for?

A

endotoxin testing in g-ve

779
Q

unique amino acid to g+ve bact

A

diaminopimetic acid(dap)

780
Q

h antigen present on ?
present in g+ve or g-ve

A

flagella
both

781
Q

present in g+ve AND g-ve

A

1 flagella
2 pilus
3 capsule

782
Q

widal test fro?

A

salmonella

783
Q

ag for widal test

A

h-o
endotoxin

784
Q

SHIN bact

A

s= strp pneumoniae
hi=hemophilus influenza
n=neisseria meningitidis

785
Q

all bacteria containig polysaccharides(8)

A

1 S
2 HI
3 N
4 klebsiella
5 clostridium perfringes
6 b pertussis
7 yersinia pestis
8 vibrio parahemolyticus

786
Q

wayson stain for

A

yersinia pestis

787
Q

bipolar safety pin appearance in

A

1 y.pesti
2 v.parahemplyticus
3 klebsiella granulomatis
4 hemophilus ducryi
5 burkholderia pseudomalayi

788
Q

hyaluronic acid capsule in

A

strep pyogenes

789
Q

cell wall deficient stable

A

mycoplasma

790
Q

protoplast is

A

g+ve cw deficient L form

791
Q

spheroplast is

A

g-ve cw deficient L form

792
Q

only gram +ve that produces endotoxin

A

listeria

793
Q

cold enrichment media for

A

listeria

794
Q

exotoxin +nt in g+ve or g-ve

A

both

795
Q

heat stable
exotoxin or endotoxins

A

endotoxin
(except ETEC ST exotoxin)

796
Q

heat labile exotoxin or endotoxins

A

exotoxin(except ETEC ST exotoxin)

797
Q

low antigenicity/toxicity
exotoxin or endotoxins

A

endotoxin

798
Q

released by lysis
exotoxin or endotoxins

A

endotoxin

799
Q

cannot be develope/no vaccine/no toxoid exotoxin or endotoxins

A

endotoxin

800
Q

high antigenicity
exotoxin or endotoxins

A

exotoxin

801
Q

exotoxin
lipid A actions on(3)

A

1 macrophage activation(TLR4/CD14)
2 complement action
3 tissue factor activation

802
Q

complement action works by (2)

A

1 C3a=histamine release(hypotension/edema)
2 C5a= histamine release
neutrophil epistaxis

803
Q

coagulation cascade by

A

tissue factor
DIC

804
Q

macrophage activation acts by

A

1 1l-1/il-6
tnf alpha
no

805
Q

tnf alpha causes

A

fever and hypotension

806
Q

IL-1/IL-6 causes

A

fever

807
Q

IL-1/IL-6 acted by

A

mcrophages activation

808
Q

no derived from

A

arginine

809
Q

organ of locomotion

A

flagella

810
Q

organ of adherence

A

pili

811
Q

organ of conjugation

A

pili

812
Q

stain for flagella

A

leifson and ryu

813
Q

leifson and ryu stain for

A

flagella

814
Q

monotrichous flaggelate(2)

A

vibrio
pseudomonas

815
Q

lophotrichous flagellate(2)

A

h.pylori
bartonella-bascilliformis

816
Q

ampnitrichous flagellate(1)

A

spirilla

817
Q

peritrichous flagellate

A

1 listeria
2 e.coli
3 clostridium
4 b.ceres
5 proteus

818
Q

soild agar %

A

2%

819
Q

agar % to prevent swarming

A

6%

820
Q

nutrition in solid agar +/-

A

-nt

821
Q

semi solid %

A

0.5 %

822
Q

semi solid agar to see

A

motilty

823
Q

ovo vivi parus?

A

parthenogenesis

824
Q

parthenogenesis seen in

A

strongyloides

825
Q

cholangiocarsinoma by which worm

A

trematode=clonorchis/ophisthorchis

826
Q

which ecchimococcus mimc hcc

A

e.multilocularis

827
Q

cartwheel nuclei
4 nucli in cyst
1 nucli in trophozoit

A

ent.histolytica

828
Q

flask shaped /ancovy sauce

A

ent histolytica

829
Q

fruit bat
palm tree
pig

A

nipah virus

830
Q

bat deer monkey?

A

ebola virus

831
Q

cow tick(2)

A

cremean congo
KFD

832
Q

cow tick primates humans FOREST

A

kfd

833
Q

frenkle test

A

toxoplasmosis

834
Q

fairley test

A

schistosomiasis

835
Q

bachmann test

A

trichinellosis

836
Q

icterohemorrhagic sewage worker

A

wiel’s disease
leptospira
dinger’ring on EMJH

837
Q

gcs v4

A

confused

838
Q

cold agglutinition

A

in mycoplasma
ebv

839
Q

typer 4 pili seen in

A

neiserria

840
Q

cilia in which organism

A

balantidium coli

841
Q

mc coccidian parasite causing diarrhea in hiv/aids

A

c.hominis

842
Q

7 year of symmetry

A

7x wt
1:1 ht

843
Q

biosafety level of xdr

A

3

844
Q

molecular handling covid bsl?
rtpcr

A

2

845
Q

sars covid bsl
culture /isolation

A

3

846
Q

receptor for hiv binding to cd4 cells

A

gp 120

847
Q

receptor for fusion of hiv with cd4

A

gp41

848
Q

anti hiv drug for gp 41

A

enfuviritide

849
Q

anti hiv drug for cd4

A

ibalizumab

850
Q

salvasan
french for

A

syphillis

851
Q

fullborne test for

A

strongyloides

852
Q

mazzotti test for

A

oncocerca

853
Q

montenegro test for

A

leishmania

854
Q

casoni test for

A

hydatid cyst

855
Q

Bachmann Test for

A

Trichenella

856
Q

Frenkel test for

A

toxoplasma

857
Q
A
858
Q

non enveloped rna virus=

A

PERC
1 picorna
2 hep e
3 rota
4 calci?
picorna=perch
1 polio
echo
3 rhino
4 coxsaci
5 hep a

859
Q

hep a is enveloped or non enveloped

A

non enveloped

860
Q

hep e is enveloped or non enveloped

A

non enveloped

861
Q

rota is enveloped or non enveloped

A

non enveloped

862
Q

polio is enveloped or non enveloped

A

non enveloped

863
Q

coxsaci is enveloped or non enveloped

A

non enveloped

864
Q

rhino is is enveloped or non enveloped

A

non enveloped

865
Q

herpes is enveloped or non enveloped

A

enveloped

866
Q

mcv is enveloped or non enveloped

A

enveloped

867
Q

malaria form in mosquito bite

A

sporozoit

868
Q

malaria form in transfusion

A

trophozoite

869
Q

malaria form in placental transfer

A

merozoit

870
Q

red fungus(2)

A

talaromyces/penicillium
trychophyton rubrum

871
Q

hair perforation test for(3)

A

t mentegrophytes
(shonleni
tonsurans)

872
Q

mcc of kerion(2)

A

t mentegrophytes>t verrucosum

873
Q

smallest nematodes

A

strongyloides

874
Q

PAH pulmonary artery hypertension in which worm

A

schistostoma hematobium

875
Q

which coxsaci for palm and soles

A

coxsaci 16

876
Q

ox 2+/ox 19 in

A

r recketsii

877
Q

how many samples for IE
how many +ve for coxiella

A

> =3 diff sites
diff time=30 mins apart
for coxiella 1 +ve

878
Q

ox k+ in

A

scrub typhus

879
Q

portal htn /liver cirrhosis in which worms

A

schistosoma 1 mansoni
2 japonicum

880
Q

jet actin motility

A

listeria

881
Q

malachite green in culture for

A

m.tb

882
Q

nicotinic Ach receptors for which virus

A

rabies

883
Q

receptor for rhino virus

A

ICAM 1

884
Q

ace2 are receptors for

A

sars cov 2

885
Q

urine specimen = pp65 antigen test

A

cmv

886
Q

devil’ grip appearence in

A

coxsaci b

887
Q

shipyard eye appearance in

A

adenovirus

888
Q

Torres body appearance in

A

yellow fever

889
Q

breateau index seen in

A

dengue

890
Q

Cat feces contains

A

oocyst

891
Q

meat feces contains

A

bradycyst/zoit

892
Q

vertical transmission of toxoplasm

A

tachyzoite

893
Q

Chaga’s disease caused by

A

T.cruzi

894
Q

reduvid bug transmits

A

Chaga’s disease
T.cruzi

895
Q

Romana’s sign seen in

A

Chaga’s disease
T.cruzi

896
Q
A

AM (12 decks)

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