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Systemic Pathology I > Pathology of the Female Reproductive System, Pt. 2 > Flashcards

Pathology of the Female Reproductive System, Pt. 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 types of placenta?

A
  1. COTELYDONARY: ruminants
  2. DIFFUSE: pig, horse
  3. ZONARY: bitch, queen
  4. DISCOID: human
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2
Q

What are the 2 important structures in the placenta that are in contact with the fetus?

A
  1. AMNIOTIC SAC = in contact with the fetus first
  2. CHORIOALLANTOIS
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3
Q

Chorioallantois vs. amnion:

A
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4
Q

What structures are found on the placenta and uterus in pregnant ruminants?

A

PLACENTA = cotyledons

UTERUS = caruncles

cotyledons + caruncles = placentomes

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5
Q

What does the normal ruminant placenta usually look like?

A
  • translucent placenta
  • red cotyledons rich in vessels
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6
Q

How does the placenta attach to the endometrium?

A

chorionic villi attach to the endometrial surface

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7
Q

What are 6 common fetal anomalies (“monsters”)?

A
  1. amorphous globosus
  2. schistosomus reflexus
  3. anasarca
  4. meningocele/meningoencephalocele
  5. arthrogryposis
  6. cyclopia/holoprosencephaly
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8
Q

What is amorphus globosus? When does this most commonly happen?

A

spherical mass of CT and fat without ciable organs covered with skin

when a twin does not fully develop

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9
Q

Amorphus globosus:

A
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10
Q

What is schistososmus reflexus?

A

spinal inversion and exposure of the abdominal viscera due to a fissure of the ventral abdominal wall and limb ankylosis

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11
Q

What is anasarca?

A

generalized edema of a fetus

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12
Q

What is meningocele/meningoencephalocele?

A

abnormal sac of fluid that extends through a defect in the skull or vertebrae
- only meninges = meningocele
- meninges + brain = meningoencephalocele

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13
Q

What is arthrogryposis?

A

multiple joint contractures (stiffness) typically due to early infections with CNS tropism

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14
Q

What causes holoprosencephaly and cyclopia?

A

failure of the embryonic prosencephalon to properly divide, causing a fusion of the eyes in obe orbit

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15
Q

When is umbilical torsion most common? What makes a true torsion?

A

in horses when the umbilical cord is longer than 84 cm

10-20 twists and areas of edema and congestion

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16
Q

What is the difference between mummification and maceration?

A

MUMMIFICATION = desiccation of a dead fetus in utero without bacterial infection

MACERATION = fetal death in the presence of in utero bacterial infection and inflammation, resulting in liquefaction and loss of soft tissue

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17
Q

Mummification:

A
  • desiccation
  • sterile
  • no bacteria
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18
Q

Maceration:

A
  • loss of soft tissue
  • purulent
  • liquefaction
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19
Q

What’s the difference between resorption, abortion, and stillborn?

A

R = early embryonic loss usually due to chromosomal abnormalities that are not compatible with attachment or implantation

A = expulsion of a fetus prior to the time of expected viability

S = dead fetus delivered within the period of expected viability

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20
Q

What are the 6 most common causes of SMEDI in pigs?

A
  1. Parvovirus
  2. PRRS
  3. Enteroviruses
  4. Pseudorabies
  5. PCV-2
  6. Leptospira spp.

(stillborn, mummy, embryonic death, infertility)

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21
Q

What is the most common result when there are twin horses?

A

mummification of one of the twins - usually only one develops

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22
Q

How does bacterial infection usually affect the fetus?

A
  • placentitis
  • pneumonia
  • hepatitis
23
Q

What are the 3 most common bacteria responsible for fetal infections?

A
  1. Brucella spp.
  2. Coxiella burnetii
  3. Chlamydia abortus
24
Q

Bacterial infection, placenta:

A
  • purulent cotyledon
  • pink placenta
25
Q

Placentitis, bacterial infection:

A
26
Q

Where do Campylobacter fetus and Listeria monocytogenes typically disseminate after it affects the fetus?

A

C = liver, leaving target-like necrotic tissue

L = lungs, microabscesses

27
Q

What is characteristic of Brucella abortus infection?

A

fibrinous pleuritis

28
Q

What is ascending placentitis? How does it present? In what animals is it most common?

A

bacterial or fungal infection that enters the vagina and breaches the cervical barrier

cervical star covered in purulent or dry exudate

mares

29
Q

What are the 6 most common commensal bacteria causing ascending placentitis in mares? Fungus?

A
  1. Streptococcus spp.
  2. E. coli
  3. Pseudomonas
  4. S. aureus
  5. Klesiella pneumoniae
  6. A. aquuli

Aspergillus fumigatus

30
Q

What is the most common cause of mycotic placentits? How does transmission compare in cattle and mares?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

CATTLE = hematogenous

MARES = ascending infection from vagina

31
Q

What is the characteristic lesion in mycotic placentitis?

A

cutaneous lesions on the fetus presenting as raised plaques of epidermal hyperplasia

32
Q

What are the 2 most common protozoal infections that affect the placenta?

A
  1. Neospora caninum = no gross lesions, histological lesions seen on brain, heart, and skeletal muscle
  2. Toxoplasma gondii = foci of necrosis on cotyledons
33
Q

What 3 characteristic lesions of viral infections on the fetus?

A
  1. no gross placental lesions
  2. hepatitis, pneumonia
  3. malformations, like arthrogryposis and cerebella hypoplasia
34
Q

What are though to be 2 mechanisms for abortion associated with mare reproductive loss syndrome?

A
  1. penetration of the GI tract wall by caterpillar hairs, resulting in bacteremia and localization in the fetus
  2. toxin in the caterpillar hair that is detrimental to the fetus or placenta
    (KY)
35
Q

What are 3 non-lesions in the placenta?

A
  1. amniotic plaques (squamous metaplasia)
  2. endometrial cups in mares
  3. hippomane in mares
36
Q

Amniotic plaques:

A

non-lesion in the placenta
- squamous metaplasia

37
Q

What are endometrial cups?

A

outgrowths on the endometrium that are able to secrete chorionic gonadotropin to stimulate CL development

(regress starting at 7 days of gestation)

38
Q

Hippomane:

A

mares!
- rubbery growth

39
Q

What 2 important samples should be sent to diagnose the cause of abortions?

A
  1. serum from dam and some of the herd from the time of the abortion and 3-4 weeks later
  2. whole fetus/placenta
40
Q

What tissues should be sent in for bacterial culture, viral isolation, and histopathology to diagnose the cause of an abortion?

A

BACTERIA: placenta, abomasal contents, lung, liver, kidney, spleen; place tissues in separate sterile bags on ice (NO FREEZING)

VIRUS: lung, liver, spleen; place tissues in separate sterile bags on ice (CAN be frozen)

HP: everything

41
Q

What are the most common causes of vesiculoulcerative (pustular) vulvovaginitis in mares and cows?

A

MARE = EHV-3 = coital exanthema

COW = BHV-1 = infectious pustular vulvovaginitis

42
Q

When does the vulva typically swell? What are 3 causes of this?

A

in response to estrogen

  1. cystic follicular diseases
  2. estrogen secreting tumors
  3. mycotoxins, like Zearalenone from Fusarium spp.
43
Q

What differential diagnosis must be tested if there is thought to be vaginal leiomyoma?

A

vaginal polyps
- usually in incidental finding

44
Q

TVT:

A
45
Q

What is the most common cause of vulvular squamous cell carcinoma?

A

UV damage on non-pigmented skin in old dairy cows

46
Q

What are mammary gland tumors related to?

A

hormonal influence

  • benign = adenoma
  • malignant = carcinoma
    50/50 in dogs, more malignant in cats
47
Q

What are the 3 types of mammary tumors?

A
  1. SIMPLE - epithelium only
  2. COMPEX - epithelium + myoepithelium
  3. MIXED - epithelium + mesencymal tissue (cartilage, bone)
48
Q

What should be checked if a mammary gland tumor is found to be malignant?

A

lungs and local LN

49
Q

How does canine inflammatory mammary gland carcinoma present? What should be noted?

A

swelling, redness, heat, and edema of the mammary glands, often resembling mastitis

NO inflammation histologically

50
Q

How does canine inflammatory mammary gland carcinoma present histologially?

A

numerous dilated lymphatic vessels filled with luminal clusters of metastatic tumor cells

  • most malignant type of mammary gland tumor in dogs
51
Q

What is feline mammary fibroadenomatous hyperplasia?

A

benign, non-neoplastic proliferation of mammary ducts and CT of young intact female cats (<2 y/o), pregnant cats, or those on prolonged progesterone therapy

52
Q

When does feline mammary fibroadenomatous hyperplasia typically regress?

A

following an ovariohysterectomy or termination of pregnancy or progesterone therapy

53
Q

How does feline mammary fibroadenomatous hyperplasia typically present?

A

one or all mammary glands are markedly enlarged

Systemic Pathology I (25 decks)

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