Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

what lines the auditory meatus and the external ear canal?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

continuous with skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does the dermis of the external ear canal contain?

A

hair follicles
sebaceous glands
ceruminous glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what lines the middle ear?

A

columnar mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what lines the nasal vestibule?

A

squamous epithelium

continuous with the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what type of gland are the salivary glands?

A

exocrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the three major salivary glands?

A

parotid
submandibular
sublingual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what epithelium lines the ducts of the salivary glands?

A

columnar/cuboidal epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is otitis media?

A

inflammation of the middle ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

who most commonly gets otitis media?

A

children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the usual aetiology behind otitis media?

A

viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are some more common causes of acute bacterial otitis media?

A

strep pneumoniae
h influenzae
moraxella catarrhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are some possible causes of chronic otitis media?

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa
staph aureus
fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what causes acquired cholesteatoma?

A

chronic otitis media and a perforated tympanic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what causes congenital cholesteatoma?

A

proliferation of embryonic rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what can be seen in the ear in cholesteatoma?

A

a pearly white mass in the middle ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is seen on histology of cholesteatoma?

A

squamous epithelium
abundant keratin production
associated inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the most common type of ENT tumour?

A

squamous cell carcinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is vestibular schwannoma?

A

tumour of the vestibular portion of CN VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

where is a vestibular schwannoma found?

A

within the temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

if a young patient has bilateral vestibular schwannoma what should be considered?

A

neurofibromatosis type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what causes vestibular schwannoma?

A

unknown
often sporadic
may be linked to loud noise exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the two growth patterns seen in vestibular schwannoma?

A

antoni A

antoni B

23
Q

what is another name for allergic rhinitis?

A

hay fever

24
Q

who are nasal polyps not commonly seen in?

A

children

25
Q

if a young person has nasal polyps, what should be considered?

A

cystic fibrosis

26
Q

what epithelium lines nasal polyps?

A

respiratory or squamous epithelium

27
Q

what is GPA?

A

an autoimmune disorder of unknown cause

28
Q

what characterises GPA?

A

small vessel vasculitis and necrosis, usually limited to the resp tract and kidneys

29
Q

what age group gets GPA/

A

> 40’s

30
Q

how does GPA preent?

A

respiratory symptoms
renal disease
nasal symptoms

31
Q

what antibody is seen in GPA?

A

ANCA (anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody)

32
Q

if cANCA is seen, what vasculitis is it?

A

GPA

33
Q

if pANCA is seen, what vasculitis is it?

A

microscopic polyangiitis

34
Q

what are three possible benign nasal tumours?

A

squamous cell papilloma
sinonasal papilloma
angiofibroma

35
Q

what are five possible malignant nasal tumours?

A
SCC
adenocarcinoma
nasopharyngeal carcinoma
neuroblastoma
lymphoma
36
Q

what are the three types of sinonasal papilloma?

A

inverted
exophytic
oncocytic

37
Q

who usually gets sinonasal papilloma?

A

over 50’s

more common in males

38
Q

what are two risk factors for sinonasal papilloma?

A

HPV

organic solvents

39
Q

how does sinonasal papilloma present?

A

blocked nose

40
Q

where do inverted and oncocytic sinonasal papillomas affect?

A

the lateral walls of the nose and the paranasal sinuses

41
Q

where do exophytic sinonasal papillomas affect?

A

the nasal septum

42
Q

who is more commonly affected by nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A

males

more common in the middle east

43
Q

what are two strong risk factors for nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A

EBV

volatile nitrosamines in food

44
Q

what are the three types of nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A

keratinising
non keratinising
baseloid

45
Q

what causes a laryngeal polyp or nodule?

A

a reactive change in the laryngeal mucosa secondary to trauma (vocal abuse, infection, smoking)

46
Q

what are laryngeal polyps and nodules rarely associated with?

A

hypothyroidism

47
Q

what is a contact ulcer?

A

a benign response to injury on the posterior vocal cord

48
Q

name four examples of things that can cause a contact ulcer

A

chronic throat clearing
vocal abuse
GORD
intubation

49
Q

what are the two peaks of incidence of laryngeal squamous cell papilloma?

A

<5

20-40

50
Q

what is laryngeal squamous cell papilloma related to?

A

HPV types 6 and 11

51
Q

what is a paraganglioma?

A

a tumour arising form clusters of neuroendocrine cells in the body

52
Q

what is sialolithiasis?

A

stones in the salivary gland

53
Q

what is the most common site for a salivary gland tumour?

A

parotid gland

54
Q

what is the most common salivary gland tumour?

A

pleomorphic adenoma