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AGRC1041 > past exams > Flashcards

past exams Flashcards

1
Q

When an action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction, the wave of depolarisation triggers the opening of voltage-gated channels. Which ion passes through these voltage-gated channels?

Chloride
Potassium
Sodium
Calcium

A

Calcium

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2
Q

When a blood vessel is injured, what is the first response that takes place?

Primary haemostasis: platelets immediately form a “plug” and stop blood loss

A blood clot forms

Exposed collagen fibres promote the adhesion of platelets to the site of injury

Vascular spasm - smooth muscle cells of the damaged vessels constrict, reducing the amount of blood flow through the area

A

Vascular spasm - smooth muscle cells of the damaged vessels constrict, reducing the amount of blood flow through the area

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3
Q

When a cell is immersed in a hypotonic solution, what happens to the cell volume?

Osmotic pressure forces fluid to move out of the cell. The cell volume decreases, and the cell shrinks

Osmotic pressure forces fluid to move from the cytosol to the extracellular fluid. The cell volume increases, and the cell swells

There is no change to the cell volume, and the cell stays its normal size

Due to osmotic pressure, water diffuses into the cell. The cell volume increases, and the uptake of water produces enough pressure to rupture the cell

A

Due to osmotic pressure, water diffuses into the cell. The cell volume increases, and the uptake of water produces enough pressure to rupture the cell

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4
Q

In a cat that weighs 5kg, what is the approximate percentage of fluid within all the cells of the body (intracellular fluid), and what is the approximate amount of fluid in this compartment?

20%; 2L
40%; 2L
40%; 1L
20%; 1L

A

40%; 2L

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5
Q

A blood gas sample has been taken from a dog that’s been coughing and dyspnoeic (having trouble breathing) for the past 5 days. Results show that the patient has a blood pH of 7.27 (normal is 7.35–7.45), and a pCO2 concentration of 57 mmHg (normal is 29–42 mmHg). What type of acid-base disorder does this dog have?

Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis

A

Respiratory acidosis

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6
Q

Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is INCORRECT?

Enzymes have high specificity with which they bind their substrates, due to the 3D structure of the active site

Non-competitive inhibitors bind reversibly to the active site, mimicking the substrate

For an enzyme to work at maximum efficiency, there must be sufficient substrate to saturate the active site

Enzymes lower the activation energy barrier, decreasing the energy investment required in order for the reaction to proceed

A

Non-competitive inhibitors bind reversibly to the active site, mimicking the substrate

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7
Q

At the neuromuscular junction, the neurotransmitter (Acetylcholine or Noradrenaline/norepinephrine) is released and diffuses across the synaptic cleft where it binds to a (muscarinic type 2, nicotinic type 2, nicotinic type 1, or beta type 1) receptor on the sarcolemma.

A

Acetylcholine
nicotinic type 1

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8
Q

As an action potential travels down the T-tubules on the sarcolemma of a skeletal myocyte, it activates (SERCA, voltage-gated calcium channel, 5HT, or DHP) receptors which line the T-tubule.

A

DHP

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9
Q

The resting membrane potential of neurons can be altered. When a glycine receptor on a post-synaptic neuron is activated, a ligand-gated ion channel opens allowing an influx of chloride ions into the cell. This (hyperpolarizes, depolarizes, or repolarizes) the cell membrane, therefore having an (excitatory or inhibitory) effect on the post synaptic membrane, bringing it (closer to or further away from) its threshold for generating an action potential.

A

hyperpolarizes
inhibitory
further away from

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10
Q

In skeletal muscle, calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. The calcium binds to (troponin T, troponin I, troponin C, or tropomyosin) resulting in a conformational change. This change in shape moves the (tropomyosin, troponin I, troponin T, troponin C) off the active site on (myosin or actin), allowing cross-bridges to form.

A

troponin C
tropomyosin
actin

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11
Q

Cellular respiration generates a maximum of 30-32 molecules of ATP from a single molecule of glucose under ideal conditions. In the inner mitochondrial membrane (Complex III, Complex IV, Complex I, or ATP Synthase) is responsible for catalysing ATP synthesis.

A

ATP Synthase

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12
Q

The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve has a sigmoidal shape. As oxygen molecules bind to haemoglobin, the affinity of the haemoglobin protein for the next molecule of oxygen (increases or decreases). During exercise, the temperature, partial pressure of carbon dioxide, and amount of acid in environment of the peripheral tissues increases, shifting the oxygen-haemoglobin curve to the (left or right), delivering (more or less) oxygen to the tissues.

A

increases
right
more

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13
Q

Carbon dioxide is transported from the peripheral tissues to the lungs. Identify the 3 methods by which the blood transports CO2.

A

Convert (converts co2 into HCO3)

Carry (Carries co2 by Hb)

Dissolve (Co2 dissolved in plasma)

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14
Q

What are the 2 variables that can be controlled in respiration, to regulate the pH of the blood?

A

Rate and depth. The respiratory system can adjust the rate and depth of breathing (ventilation) to either increase or decrease the levels of carbon dioxide in the blood.

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15
Q

Identify the 3 stages of aerobic metabolism (cellular respiration).

A

Glycolysis

Citric Acid Cycle

Oxidative Phosphorylation (electron transport chain and chemiosmosis)

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16
Q

Strenuous exercise in horses results in an increase in acid production, and therefore a decrease in skeletal muscle intracellular pH. This has an effect on the generation of energy by the electron transport chain.

Which complex does it primarily have an effect on?

What is this effect?

What is the impact on the production of ATP?

A

The effect of acidosis is primarily on Complex I.

Without Complex I functioning properly, you get less proton force being generated.

This decreases the synthesis of ATP.

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17
Q

There are 2 main ways smooth muscle is activated: calcium-induced calcium release and ligand-mediated smooth muscle contraction. In smooth muscle, where in the myocyte are calcium-induced release channels located?

A

In the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

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18
Q

Blood constitutes approximately (5-6%, 9-10%, 7-8%, or 3-4%) of the body weight in mammals. Plasma is (alkaline, acidic, or neutral) in pH and contains dissolved gases, electrolytes and proteins.

A

7-8%
alkaline

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19
Q

_____ are immature erythrocytes identified by ___________ remnants when stained with methylene blue. High numbers in blood are clinically important because they may indicate ________ or haemolysis.

A

Reticulocytes

ribosomal RNA

haemorrhage

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20
Q

what are the most numerous granulocyte and are the main cell type in pus.

A

neutrophils

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21
Q

what are implicated in hypersensitivity reactions such as flea allergy dermatitis.

A

eosinophils

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22
Q

what have large granules that contain histamine and they play a role in hypersensitivity reactions such as asthma and hay fever.

A

basophils

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23
Q

Interstitial growth is ‘growth from within’ where _________ divide, forming isogenous groups. The inner layer of the perichondrium contains __________ that are involved in appositional growth.

A

chondrocytes

chondroblasts

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24
Q

In the fetus, _________________ forms the template from which the skeleton develops via the process of ____.

A

hyaline cartilage

(endochondral) ossification

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25
Q

________ are found in areas of resorbed bone called Howship’s lacunae .
__________ form an epithelial layer in areas of active bone growth and are responsible for the production of the bone matrix

A

Osteoclasts

Osteoblasts

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26
Q

______ adipose tissue consists of large, unilocular cells with a peripheral nucleus.

A

White

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27
Q

_______ adipose tissue is well vascularised and is involved in heat production.

A

Brown

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28
Q

________ are benign tumours that are very common in dogs; superficially they may be indistinguishable from ______ tumours, and so a ___ is required to distinguish between them.

A

Lipomas

mast cell

fine needle aspiration

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29
Q

______ is concentrated beneath the plasma membrane where it provides mechanical strength by resisting tensive forces.

A

Actin

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30
Q

_____ are responsible for the maintenance of cell shape, anchoring of the nucleus, and are a component of desmosomes.

A

intermediate filaments

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31
Q

______ forms the contractile ring associated with the cleavage furrow of dividing cells, and the pseudopodia of amoebae, macrophages and neutrophils.

A

Actin

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32
Q

______ microtubules form centrioles, cilia and flagella.

A

Tubulin

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33
Q

______ is stratified, has a high degree of stretch and is found only within the urinary tract.

A

Transitional epithelium

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34
Q

______ epithelia may be involved in secretion or absorption, and are found in the ducts of glands and the follicles of the thyroid.

A

Simple cuboidal

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35
Q

_______ lines the nasal cavities, trachea and bronchi where the _______ on its apical surface trap particles and propel mucous that is produced by _________

A

Psuedostratified columnar epithilium

cilia

goblet cells

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36
Q

The _______ is involved in the synthesis of the glycoproteins and glycolipids that form the cell membrane. The __________ synthesises phospholipids and steroid hormones, and in muscle cells is an important store of calcium ions.

A

Golgi Apparatus

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

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37
Q

Characteristics of the ________ on the surface of red blood cells determines blood type (i.e. A, B, O and AB).

A

glycocalyx

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38
Q

______ are vesicles that contain ________ that digest phagocytosed material and degrade defunct organelles.

A

Lysosomes

enzymes

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39
Q

______ secretion involves the accumulation of secretory products until the cell finally ruptures.

A

Holocrine

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40
Q

_______ secretion involves the accumulation of secretory vesicles at the apical portion of the cell before a mass of cytoplasm containing the vesicles is pinched off.

A

Apocrine

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41
Q

____secretion involves the release of vesicles via exocytosis.

A

Merocrine

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42
Q

In the central nervous system axons are myelinated by _________ , while in the peripheral nervous system myelination is performed by _____________

A

Oligodendrocytes

schwann cells

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43
Q

_____________ are clusters of neuron cell bodies outside of the central nervous system. Pyramidal motor neurons belong to the _______ pathway and are located in the ___________ matter of the _________ horn of the spinal cord.

A

Ganglia

efferent

grey

ventral

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44
Q

Antlers are branched structures composed of _____________ and covered by skin that contains a soft form of ___________ called ‘velvet’.

A

bone

Keratin

45
Q

The nerve supply to horns is by the ______ of the _______ nerve, and blood supply is via the ____ arteries

A

cornual branch

zygomaticotemporal

cornual

46
Q

List each role and type of stem cell as totipotent, pluripotent or multipotent.

a) Embryonic stem cells

b) Cells of this type can form all cells of the embryo AND the extraembryonic (placental) tissues

c) Cells of this type contribute to the maintenance and repair of tissues throughout life

d) Mesenchymal stem/stromal cells

e) Cells of this type can form all cells of the embryo BUT NOT the extraembryonic (placental) tissues

f) Induced pluripotent stem cells

A

a) Pluripotent
b) Totipotent
c) multipotent
d) Multipotent
e) Pluripotent
f) Pluripotent

47
Q

graph of rate of diffusion on Y axis and concentration of substance on X axis

red line is curved then plateaus

blue line is linear

A

red= facilitated
blue= simple passive

as blue crosses red= vmax

48
Q

Name the 3 stages of cell signalling.

A

Reception
Transduction
Response

49
Q

(Options are Juxtacrine signalling, Endocrine signalling, Autocrine signalling or Paracrine signalling)

a)Ligands are hormones

b) Ligands are proteins attached to the plasma membrane of another cell

c) Long-distance signalling via the blood

d) Contact-dependent signalling via receptors on an adjacent cell

e) Signalling molecules bind to receptors on the same cell

f) Acts locally over short distances

A

a) endocrine
b) Juxtacrine
c) endocrine
d) Juxtacrine
e) Autocrine
f) Paracrine

50
Q

Which of the following statements about covalent bonds is incorrect?

a. Atoms share a pair of valence electrons
b. Polar covalent bonds occur
c. Bonds between hydrogen and oxygen in water molecules are examples of covalent
bonds
d. Compounds which form covalent bonds are salts

A

d. Compounds which form covalent bonds are salts

51
Q

Which of the following statements regarding surface tension is incorrect?

a. Molecules of water want to interact with other water molecules, in preference to air
b. Molecules of water in the center of a droplet are equally attracted to surrounding
molecules
c. Molecules at the surface of a drop of water are equally attracted to all surrounding
Molecules
d. Molecules at the surface of a drop of water are drawn into the centre of the droplet,
away from the air-water interface

A

c. Molecules at the surface of a drop of water are equally attracted to all surrounding
Molecules

not all surrounding molecules, just water

52
Q

Which of the following statements about adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is incorrect?
a. ATP is used as an energy currency in cells
b. ATP is generated from CO2 and lactate in animal cells
c. ATP releases a large amount of energy when a phosphate bond is broken
d. ATP is produced during glycolysis

A

b. ATP is generated from CO2 and lactate in animal cells

53
Q

Which of the following statements about metabolism is correct?
a. Metabolism creates heat during processes such as chemical reactions
b. Metabolism is only catabolic
c. Endergonic reactions release energy by breaking down molecules
d. Exergonic reactions absorb and store free energy

A

a. Metabolism creates heat during processes such as chemical reactions

54
Q

Which of the following statements regarding glycolysis is incorrect?
a. Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvic acid
b. Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm
c. Glycolysis requires oxygen to occur
d. Glycolysis can be divided into an energy investment and an energy payoff phase

A

c. Glycolysis requires oxygen to occur

55
Q

The protein complex in the inner mitochondrial membrane responsible for converting ADP
and phosphate into ATP is:
a. ATP synthase
b. Complex I
c. Complex III
d. Complex IVC

A

a. ATP synthase

56
Q

Strenuous exercise in horses results in an increase in skeletal muscle temperature, as well as acidaemia. This has an effect on the electron transport chain, impacting the production of ATP. Which complex does it primarily have an effect on, and what is this effect?

a. The effect of acidosis is primarily on complex I. Without complex I functioning
properly, you get less proton force being generated, which decreases the synthesis
of ATP
b. The effect of acidosis is primarily on complex IV. Without complex IV functioning properly, you get less proton force being generated, which decreases the synthesis
of ATP
c. The effect of acidosis is primarily on complex I. Without complex I functioning
properly, you get more proton force being generated, which increases the synthesis of ATP
d. The effect of acidosis is primarily on complex IV. Without complex IV functioning properly, you get more proton force being generated, which increases the synthesis of ATP

A

a. The effect of acidosis is primarily on complex I. Without complex I functioning
properly, you get less proton force being generated, which decreases the synthesis
of ATP

57
Q

At physiological pH levels, lactic acid is nearly complete dissociated into a lactate anion and
hydrogen ion which are both removed from the muscles. Which of the following statements
referring to lactate is incorrect?
a. Lactate is produced in glycolytic fibres, and passes out into the bloodstream through
a monocarboxylate transporter
b. Oxidative fibres take lactate up, convert it into pyruvate, which then passes into the
mitochondria to make ATP
c. The liver takes up lactate and makes glucose through a process known as
gluconeogenesis
d. The concentration of lactate that you measure in the blood is the amount of lactate
that the body is producing

A

d. The concentration of lactate that you measure in the blood is the amount of lactate
that the body is producing

58
Q

The main neurotransmitter found at the postsynaptic junction of parasympathetic nerves is:
a. Adrenaline
b. Noradrenaline
c. Glutamate
d. Acetylcholine

A

d. Acetylcholine

59
Q

Which of the following statements describing the neuromuscular junction is incorrect?

a. An action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction, causing voltage-gated sodium channels to open on the pre-synaptic membrane
b. Calcium influx signals the release of acetylcholine from vesicles
c. Acetylcholine binds on the post-synaptic membrane
d. Sodium channels open in response to acetylcholine binding - sodium channels open in response to the intracellular environment reaching threshold potential

A

a. An action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction, causing voltage-gated sodium channels to open on the pre-synaptic membrane

(isn’t sodium channels on presynaptic membrane only chloride channels)

60
Q

Which of the following statements about skeletal muscle contraction is incorrect?
a. The post-ganglionic signal involves the influx of sodium ions
b. Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. The hydrolysis of ATP to ADP causes the myosin heads to release from actin
d. Calcium ions bind to Troponin-C, moving tropomyosin off the active binding sites on the actin filament, enabling myosin to bind

A

c. The hydrolysis of ATP to ADP causes the myosin heads to release from actin

61
Q

Smooth muscle can function as a “single unit” or a “multi unit”. Muscle cells that act as a
single unit, such as in the gut, are “single-unit” smooth muscle, or visceral muscle. They act in unison (like cardiac muscle). Which of the following structures allows “single-unit” smooth
muscle to contract in a coordinated manner?
a. Tight junctions
b. Gap junctions
c. Neuronal varicosities
d. Nicotinic receptors

A

b. Gap junctions

62
Q

In smooth muscle, where are the calcium-induced calcium release channels located?
a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. Caveolus
c. Mitochondria
d. Plasma membrane

A

a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum

63
Q

In smooth muscle, which protein has a similar function to that of troponin in skeletal muscle?
a. Myosin light chain kinase
b. Actin
c. Myosin phosphatase
d. Calmodulin

A

d. Calmodulin

64
Q

How many oxygen molecules can bind to one haemoglobin protein?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 2
d. 4

A

d. 4

65
Q

Why does the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve (below) have a sigmoidal shape?

a. As each molecule of oxygen unloads from haemoglobin, the affinity of the
haemoglobin molecule for the next oxygen is increased
b. As each molecule of oxygen binds to haemoglobin, the affinity of the haemoglobin
protein for the next molecule of oxygen is increased
c. As each molecule of oxygen binds to haemoglobin, the dissolved content of oxygen
in the blood decreases
d. As each molecule of oxygen binds to haemoglobin, the affinity of the haemoglobin
protein for the next molecule of oxygen is decreased

A

b. As each molecule of oxygen binds to haemoglobin, the affinity of the haemoglobin
protein for the next molecule of oxygen is increased

66
Q

Which of the following factors shift the oxygen-haemoglobin curve to the left?
a. Increase in pH
b. High temperature
c. High concentration of CO2
d. Increase in acid (H+)

A

a. Increase in pH

67
Q

Which of the following statements about fluids is incorrect?
a. Electrolytes can move between compartments
b. Sugars such as glucose can move readily between compartments
c. Large proteins get ‘trapped’ within cells
d. Most ions are in chemical disequilibrium due to active transport processes

A

b. Sugars such as glucose can move readily between compartments

68
Q

Which of the following statements about blood is incorrect:
a. It constitutes approximately 7-8% of the body weight in mammals
b. Plasma is alkaline in pH and contains dissolved gases, electrolytes and proteins
c. The formed element component includes erythrocytes, leukocytes and thrombocytes
d. Reticulocytes are immature erythrocytes identified by nuclear remnants and low numbers in whole blood are of clinical concern (i.e. may indicate haemorrhage)

A

d. Reticulocytes are immature erythrocytes identified by nuclear remnants and low

69
Q

Which of the following statements about blood is incorrect:
a. Neutrophils are the most numerous granulocyte and are the main cell type in pus
b. Eosinophils and kill helminth parasites and are implicated in hypersensitivity
reactions such as flea allergy dermatitis
c. Basophils contain large, basophilic granules that contain histamine and they play a
role in hypersensitivity reactions such as asthma and hay fever
d. T cells and B cells, also called small lymphocytes, are responsible for the body’s
humoral immune response that kills tumour cells and cells that are infected with
Viruses

A

d. T cells and B cells, also called small lymphocytes, are responsible for the body’s
humoral immune response that kills tumour cells and cells that are infected with
Viruses

70
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect:
a. Monocytes are phagocytic, responding to necrotic tissue, microorganisms and
inflammation
b. Thrombocytes are small cells that respond to damaged endothelium by catalysing
the formation of a fibrin clot
c. Haematopoiesis is the production of new blood cells and in adults it occurs in the
bone marrow
d. Lymph contains lymphocytes, microbes, and lipids from digestion ghat are too large
to enter the circulatory syste

A

b. Thrombocytes are small cells that respond to damaged endothelium by catalysing
the formation of a fibrin clot

71
Q

Which of the following statements about cartilage is incorrect:
a. Interstitial growth is ‘growth from within’ where chondroblasts divide, forming
isogenous groups
b. The poor healing properties of cartilage are due to a lack of nerves and blood supply
c. The inner layer of the perichondrium contains chondroblasts that are involved in appositional growth
d. Surrounding cartilage, except at joint surfaces, is the perichondrium which consists ofan outer layer of irregular dense connective tissue and an inner cellular layer

A

a. Interstitial growth is ‘growth from within’ where chondroblasts divide, forming
isogenous groups

*chondrocytes divide, not chondroblasts ahhh thank you I spent ages staring at this one

72
Q

Which of the following statements about cartilage is incorrect:
a. Hyaline cartilage is the most common type of cartilage in the body where it forms the
articular surfaces of joints, the sternal ends of the ribs, the intervertebral discs and
the menisci of the stifle (knee) joint
b. Fibrocartilage has characteristics intermediate between dense connective tissue and cartilage and is able to resist compression and absorb shock
c. The matrix of elastic cartilage contains collagen in addition to a large proportion of elastic fibres making it extremely flexible
d. In the fetus, hyaline cartilage forms the template from which the skeleton develops via the process of endochondral ossification

A

a. Hyaline cartilage is the most common type of cartilage in the body where it forms the
articular surfaces of joints, the sternal ends of the ribs, the intervertebral discs and
the menisci of the stifle (knee) joint

  • Intervertebral discs and menisci of the stifle are made of fibrocartilage, not hyaline
73
Q

Which of the following statements about bone is incorrect:
a. Osteocytes are mature bone cells that contribute to bone growth via interstitial and appositional growth
b. Osteoclasts are found in areas of resorbed bone called Howship’s lacunae reflecting
their role in bone remodelling and the regulation of calcium and phosphate ions
c. Osteoprogenitor cells are a stem cell population that reside in the cellular layer of the periosteum and the endosteum
d. Osteoblasts form an epithelial layer in areas of active growth during both
endochondral and intramembranous ossification

A

a. Osteocytes are mature bone cells that contribute to bone growth via interstitial and appositional growth

*Interstitial and appositional growth are for cartilage not bone

74
Q

Which of the following statements about connective tissue proper is incorrect:
a. Loose (areolar) connective tissue forms the packing around organs and plays a role in wound healing
b. Irregular dense connective tissue has high strength and connects muscle to bone in the form of ligaments, and bone to bone in the form of tendons
c. Reticular fibres form a branching, interwoven network supporting cells, blood vessels and nerves in tissues such as the spleen and liver
d. Fibroblasts secrete the components of the matrix and are involved in wound healing

A

b. Irregular dense connective tissue has high strength and connects muscle to bone in the form of ligaments, and bone to bone in the form of tendons

75
Q

Which of the following statements about adipose tissue is incorrect:
a. Adipose tissue consists mostly of adipocytes and serves as a reserve of energy and water, in addition to providing padding over bony protuberances, packaging around delicate structures and insulation to maintain body temperature
b. Lipomas are benign tumours that are very common in dogs; although superficially they may be indistinguishable from mast cell tumours, palpation of the mass is sufficient to distinguish between them
c. White adipose tissue consists of large, unilocular cells with a peripheral nucleus
d. Brown adipose tissue has proportionally more capillaries and nerves than white adipose tissue and is involved in heat production

A

b. Lipomas are benign tumours that are very common in dogs; although superficially they may be indistinguishable from mast cell tumours, palpation of the mass is sufficient to distinguish between them

76
Q

Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is incorrect:
a. Actin is concentrated beneath the plasma membrane where it provides mechanical strength by resisting tensive forces; it also supports the structure of microvilli
b. Intermediate filaments are responsible for the maintenance of cell shape, anchoring of the nucleus, and are a component of desmosomes
c. Actin forms the contractile ring associated with the cleavage furrow of dividing cells, and the pseudopodia of amoebae, macrophages and neutrophils
d. Tubulin microtubules form centrioles, cilia and flagella which consist of nine sets of
microtubule doublets plus a central pair (i.e. 9 + 2 arrangement)

A

d. Tubulin microtubules form centrioles, cilia and flagella which consist of nine sets of
microtubule doublets plus a central pair (i.e. 9 + 2 arrangement)

77
Q

Which of the following statements about epithelia is incorrect:
a. Epithelia display avascularity in that they lack a blood supply and so obtain nutrients by diffusion or absorption
b. Epithelia display cellularity in that they are a continuous layer of cells bound by cell
junctions and where the basal surface of all cells is attached to a basement membrane
c. Epithelia display polarity in that they have a basal surface and an apical surface that
may possess specialisations such as cilia, microvilli and stereocilia
d. Epithelia display regeneration in that they have a high rate of cell division that
replaces cells that are lost or damaged at the exposed surface

A

b. Epithelia display cellularity in that they are a continuous layer of cells bound by cell
junctions and where the basal surface of all cells is attached to a basement membrane

78
Q

Which of the following statements about epithelia is incorrect:
a. Transitional epithelium is stratified, has a high degree of stretch and is found only
within the urinary tract
b. Simple cuboidal epithelia may be involved in secretion or absorption and are found in the ducts of glands and the follicles of the thyroid
c. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium lines the nasal cavities, trachea and bronchi
where the cilia on its apical surface trap particles and propel mucous
d. Keratinised stratified squamous epithelium is characterised by four strata of cells, with the stratum granulosum forming the upper-most layer of dead, heavily keratinised cells.

A

d. Keratinised stratified squamous epithelium is characterised by four strata of cells, with the stratum granulosum forming the upper-most layer of dead, heavily keratinised cells.

79
Q

Which of the following statements about eukaryotic cells is incorrect:
a. The nucleus contains heterochromatin and euchromatin, both of which are involved in RNA synthesis
b. Nuclear morphology is distinct for different cell types and can be used to identify cells
that are abnormal, including those that are neoplastic
c. The Golgi apparatus is involved in the synthesis of the glycoproteins and glycolipids
that form the cell membrane
d. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum synthesises phospholipids and steroid hormones
and in muscle cells is an important store of calcium ions

A

a. The nucleus contains heterochromatin and euchromatin, both of which are involved in RNA synthesis

only euchromatin is involved in rna synthesis

80
Q

Which of the following statements about eukaryotic cells is incorrect:
a. Mitochondria produce ATP within their matrix and the number within a cell reflects the cell’s metabolic activity; they are also key regulators of apoptosis
b. Characteristics of the glycocalyx on the surface of red blood cells determines blood
type (i.e. A, B, O and AB)
c. Gap junctions consist of connexin proteins that form channels between cells for the
movement of ions, nutrients and large molecules (i.e. glucose)
d. Lysosomes are vesicles that contain acid hydrolases that digest phagocytosed
material and degrade defunct organelles

A

c. Gap junctions consist of connexin proteins that form channels between cells for the
movement of ions, nutrients and large molecules (i.e. glucose)

81
Q

Which of the following statements about secretion in exocrine glands is incorrect:
a. Holocrine secretion involves the accumulation of secretory products until the cell finally
ruptures
b. Eccrine secretion involves a mass of cytoplasm containing secretory vesicles being pinched off.
c. Apocrine secretion involves the accumulation of secretory vesicles at the apical portion
of the cell
d. Merocrine secretion involves the release of vesicles via exocytosis

A

b. Eccrine secretion involves a mass of cytoplasm containing secretory vesicles being pinched off.

82
Q

Which of the following statements about muscle is incorrect:
a. The contraction of cardiac muscle is dependent on neural control and so it is
extensively supplied with neuromuscular junctions and sensory nerve endings
b. In skeletal muscle cells, depolarisation of the sarcolemma is transmitted throughout
the fibre via the organisation of T tubules
c. In skeletal muscle, neuromuscular spindles convey information to the central nervous
system about the rate and extent of muscle stretch
d. The contraction of smooth muscle is inherent and is co-ordinated by gap junctions
between adjacent cells

A

a. The contraction of cardiac muscle is dependent on neural control and so it is
extensively supplied with neuromuscular junctions and sensory nerve endings

83
Q

Which of the following statements about the nervous system is incorrect:
a. In the central and peripheral nervous systems axons are myelinated by Schwann cells; unmyelinated axons are surrounded only by Schwann cell cytoplasm
b. Ependymal cells are cuboidal or columnar epithelial cells, that may have cilia or microvilli, that line the fluid-filled cavities of the brain and spinal cord
c. In the spinal cord, the grey matter contains neuron cell bodies and axons, the
majority of which are unmyelinated
d. Ganglia are clusters of neuron cell bodies outside of the central nervous system, and may contain afferent or efferent neurons

A

a. In the central and peripheral nervous systems axons are myelinated by Schwann cells; unmyelinated axons are surrounded only by Schwann cell cytoplasm

84
Q

Which of the following statements about synapses is incorrect:
a. Synapses usually involve chemical transmitters but special synapses use direct
electrical transmission
b. Synapses are exclusively excitatory
c. A single neuron may have hundreds of synapses
d. Synapses may be axodendritic, axosomatic or axoaxonic

A

b. Synapses are exclusively excitatory

85
Q

Which of the following statements about the central nervous system is incorrect:
a. Spinal nerves contain both afferent and efferent fibres
b. The dorsal root contains sensory nerves of the General Somatic Afferent and General
Visceral Afferent pathways, with the cell bodies located in the dorsal root ganglion
c. Purkinje neurons are located within the grey matter of the cerebellum between the granular and molecular layers
d. Pyramidal motor neurons belong to the General Somatic Efferent pathway and are
located in the white matter of the ventral horn of the spinal cord

A

d. Pyramidal motor neurons belong to the General Somatic Efferent pathway and are
located in the white matter of the ventral horn of the spinal cord

86
Q

Which of the following statements about antlers and horns is incorrect:
a. Antlers are branched structures composed of bone and covered by skin that contains a soft form of keratin called ‘velvet’
b. While antlers are found predominantly in males, horns are often present in both sexes
and are not shed seasonally
c. Horns are composed of bone and covered by skin that contains a very hard form of
keratin called tubular horn
d. Nerve supply to horns is by the cornual branch of the zygomaticotemporal nerve, and blood supply is via the cornual arteries

A

c. Horns are composed of bone and covered by skin that contains a very hard form of
keratin called tubular horn

87
Q

What are the key steps involved in cloning?

A
  • Extract cell (with nucleus) from a doner
  • Extract egg (with nucleus removed) from a female adult
  • Fuse the 2 cells by electric shock
  • Fused cell divide and become embryo
  • Plant the embryo into surrogate mother’s uterus
  • Birth child: clone child!!!
88
Q

What are two (2) limitations to using cloning to rescue endangered species

A
  • Inefficient: Usually lots of trials (using lots of cells) but low success rate
  • Few reproductively capable individuals left: difficult to find donors, limited no. in wild
  • Cannot resolve lack of genetic variations (limit gene pool)
  • The offspring can have shorter lifespan due to shorter telomeres
89
Q

similarities and differences between active transport and facilitated diffusion

A

similarities
- both via carrier protein
- specificity; both have specific transport molecules
- both transport rate proportional to number of carrier protein available

differences
- active against gardient, facilitated with gradient
- active requires energy, facilitated doesn’t
- active transports ions and glucose, facilitated transports glucose and amino acids

90
Q

a. When the action potential arrives at the axon terminal, this triggers the opening of
voltage-gated channels from the wave of depolarisation. Name the ion which passes
through these channels

b. When this ion diffuses into the cell, what effect does it have on the synaptic vesicles?
c. What is the name of the neurotransmitter that is released into the synaptic cleft?
d. The neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft, and binds to an ionotropic
receptor on the sarcolemma. Identify:
i. The effect that the binding of the neurotransmitter molecule has on the
receptor
ii. The name of the ion that passes through the channel
iii. Whether this ion has an excitatory or inhibitory effect (depolarises or
hyperpolarises) on the sarcolemma membrane

A

a) calcium
b) Signals for vesicles to leave presynaptic cell and move to postsynaptic membrane

Signal vesicles to move to presynaptic membrane, fuse and release its content (Ach) by exocytosis into the synaptic cleft

c) acetlcholine

d) i. Receptor opens ion channels as soon as ACh binds
ii. sodium
iii. depolarizes

91
Q

Using dot points, address the following questions to summarise the process of
communication that occurs at the neuromuscular junction, from the binding of the
neurotransmitter to the receptor on the sarcolemma, to muscle contraction. (7 marks total)

a. As the action potential travels down the T-tubules, it activates receptors which line
the T-tubule. Identify these receptors, and name the receptor that they are tethered to in the sarcoplasmic reticulum

b. When these receptors are engaged by the change of voltage, it allows an ion stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum to diffuse out into the cytosol. What is this ion?

c. Actin filaments are bound together by the rope-like tropomyosin, which also bind onto a troponin complex, which has 3 subunits. Name the subunit that the ion released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds to, and describe the effect that this ion binding has.

d. Cross-bridge cycling is the mechanism of muscle contraction. Describe the events which take place during cross-bridge cycling, and describe how ATP is used
throughout this process.

A

a) DHP receptors and calcium release channels

b) calcium

c) Calcium ions bind to tropinin C which moves the tropomyosin off the active site of the actin filaments allowing for myosin and actin to bind causing muscle contraction

Troponin C. Ca2+ ions bind to troponin C which causes conformational change and move tropomyosin off the active site of actin. This allows myosin head to bind to actin, causing interaction… power stroke action… )

d) Cross bridge cycling occurs by the myosin heads binding to actin forming the cross bridges, then the myosin cross bridges rotate toward centre of sacromere (called power stroke), then myosin heads bind to ATP causing them to detach from actin. The ATP is then hydrolysed by myosin and so become reorientated and energised and then the cycle repeats until ATP and/or calcium runs out

92
Q

Which of the following statements about muscle fibres is incorrect?
a. White fibres use glycolysis to generate ATP
b. Red fibres have a rich blood supply to deliver oxygen
c. Red fibres would predominant in athletes training for the 100m sprint in the Olympic Games
d. Different muscle fibre types have metabolic and mechanical differences

A

c. Red fibres would predominant in athletes training for the 100m sprint in the Olympic Games

red for endurance

93
Q

Which of the following statements about pH buffering is incorrect?
a. Increased CO2 in the bloodstream increases the pH of the blood
b. Carbonic anhydrase catalyses the conversion of CO2 and H2O to H+ and HCO3-
c. Haemoglobin is involved with buffering in the bloodstream
d. Kidneys can aid in longer term buffering by retaining or excreting bicarbonate ions

A

a. Increased CO2 in the bloodstream increases the pH of the blood

CO2= acidic, decreases pH

94
Q

Which of the following statements about glycolysis is correct?
a. Glycolysis is an aerobic process and therefore requires oxygen
b. Carbon is released during glycolysis
c. The final product of glycolysis is lactic acid
d. Glycolysis requires ATP to initiate

A

d. Glycolysis requires ATP to initiate

95
Q

The main neurotransmitter found at the postsynaptic junction of parasympathetic nerves is:
a. Adrenaline
b. Noradrenaline
c. Glutamate
d. Acetylcholine

A

d. Acetylcholine

96
Q

Which of the following statements describing the neuromuscular junction is correct?
a. Acetylcholine binds on the post-synaptic membrane
b. Calcium influx signals the release of noradrenaline
c. Sodium channels open on the presynaptic membrane
d. Acetylcholine channels open in response to sodium ions

A

a. Acetylcholine binds on the post-synaptic membrane

97
Q

Which of the following is not part of haemostasis?
a. Vasodilation
b. Platelet aggregation
c. Clotting factors released
d. Clot formation

A

a. Vasodilation

vasoconstriction not vasodilation

98
Q

Nervous tissue cell signalling does not involve…?
a. The movement of ions into the cell following the attachment of a neurotransmitter onto the receptor of an ion channel
b. The influx of ions which activate secondary messengers such as enzymes
c. The transport of neurotransmitters into the cell to cause a post-synaptic potential
d. Hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane using the influx of negative ions

A

c. The transport of neurotransmitters into the cell to cause a post-synaptic potential

99
Q

Which of the following statements about skeletal muscle contraction is incorrect?
a. The post-ganglionic signal involves the influx of sodium ions
b. Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. The hydrolysis of ADP to ATP moves myosin heads
d. Myosin binding sites on the actin filament are uncovered

A

c. The hydrolysis of ADP to ATP moves myosin heads

100
Q

Which of the following is not a component of plasma?
a. Water (91% of plasma)
b. Calcium
c. Albumin
d. Platelets

A

d. Platelets

101
Q

In regards to the cell membrane, which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. Sodium levels are higher outside the cell
b. Chloride levels are higher inside the cell
c. Potassium levels are higher inside the cell
d. The cell is more electronegative inside

A

b. Chloride levels are higher inside the cell

102
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the autonomic nervous system is incorrect?
a. Release of adrenaline from sympathetic nerves causes increased heart
b. Acetylcholine is released from the synapses between presynaptic and postsynaptic fibres in the autonomic nervous system
c. Adrenergic receptors are found on target tissues that respond to sympathetic postsynaptic fibres
d. Release of acetylcholine from postsynaptic fibres will cause increased salivation

A

d. Release of acetylcholine from postsynaptic fibres will cause increased salivation

103
Q

Which of the following is not a function of red blood cells?
a. Transport of oxygen
b. Transport of carbon dioxide
c. Transport of antibodies
d. To act as a buffer

A

c. Transport of antibodies

104
Q

Which of the following statements about the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve (below) is incorrect?
a. Increased temperature shifts the curve to the left
b. In the foetus, the curve is shifted to the left
c. In animals living in high altitudes, the curve is shifted to the left
d. Increased levels of carbon dioxide will shift the curve to the right

A

a. Increased temperature shifts the curve to the left

increased temp, decreased pH (more acidic) shift to right

105
Q

Select the most accurate statement regarding the dissociation curve.
a. An increase in temperature will shift the dissociation curve to the left
b. Foetal haemoglobin has higher oxygen affinity than maternal(adult) blood meaning the dissociation curve is left of the mother’s
c. The dissociation curve for animals living in an oxygen-limited environment will be to the right of those not living in an oxygen-limited environment
d. The “Bohr Effect” results in the curve shifting to the left

A

b. Foetal haemoglobin has higher oxygen affinity than maternal(adult) blood meaning the dissociation curve is left of the mother’s

106
Q

Which of the following statements about fluids is incorrect?
a. Electrolytes can move between compartments
b. Water and colloids can move readily between compartments
c. Large proteins get ‘trapped’ within cells
d. Most ions are in chemical disequilibrium due to active transport processes

A

b. Water and colloids can move readily between compartments

crystalloids can move, colloids no

107
Q

Which of the following is not a role of homeostasis in the body?
a. Maintaining temperature
b. Maintaining a supply of oxygen to tissues
c. Maintaining a supply of carbon dioxide to tissues
d. Defence against micro-organisms

A

c. Maintaining a supply of carbon dioxide to tissues

108
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect? Explain why
a. Chemoreceptors detect low pH
b. Chemoreceptors detect high pH
c. Carbonic anhydrase operates in red blood cells to facilitate buffering
d. Haemoglobin binds bicarbonate ions to facilitate buffering

A

d. Haemoglobin binds bicarbonate ions to facilitate buffering

binds CO2 and O2, not bicarb

109
Q

Which of the following statements about glucose is incorrect? Explain why
a. Glucagon promotes increased blood glucose levels
b. Insulin promotes uptake of glucose into muscle and fat cells
c. Glucagon promotes conversion of glucose to glycogen
d. Insulin activates 2nd messengers to promote many metabolic reactions

A

c. Glucagon promotes conversion of glucose to glycogen

other way around

AGRC1041 (20 decks)

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