PART A CHAPTER 8 Flashcards

Question

At what maximum distance the aircraft can fly from an alternate airport on a non ETOPS flight ?

Answer 1

``` Twin engined aircraft must remain within 60 minutes flying time of an adequate airport unless operating in accordance with Dragonair ETOPS policy. For these purposes, this is defined: A320 424nm A321 404nm A330 434nm ```

Answer 2

There is no standard weight, the actual baggage weight is used

Answer 3

Taxi Fuel accounts for a APU usage, b Engine start, c Taxi for departure A standard 500 kg Taxi Fuel figure is normally used for the A330. At certain airports where taxi time is above average a higher taxi fuel may be planned.

Answer 4

Flight Crew and Cabin Crew 81kg (including 6kg Cabin bagage)

Answer 5

Recommended Extra Fuel is fuel additional to Fuel Required to cover - known or suspected weather avoidance requirements, - en-route air traffic constraints, - destination holding delays, - impact from NOTAMs - any condition that might cause increased fuel consumption On occasions where STA plus diversion time falls close to opening time of the preferred Destination Alternate, Recommended Extra Fuel may be planned to avoid the use of a more distant alternate. i. The sum of Contingency, Mandatory and Recommended Extra fuel is not less than 1500 kg on A330 ii. The sum of Alternate, Mandatory and Recommended Extra Fuel is not less than Reserve Fuel, ensuring 1h fuel at destination. iii. Where there are known ATC restrictions or delays the reason to carry extra fuel will be stated in CFP special navigation notes. Where a Commander is very familiar with a particular route or flight he may reduce the amount of Recommended Extra Fuel based on his local knowledge and experience.

Answer 6

Minimum diversion fuel is the sum of Alternate Fuel and Reserve Fuel. Where an amount of fuel is determined to be unusable, the Minimum Diversion Fuel entered in the FM shall be increased by an amount equal to the amount of unusable fuel.

Answer 7

The following criteria must be met until the revised destination has been communicated to ATC: a. Weather shall be at or above Destination, published landing minima Alternate, minima for Filing as an Alternate b. Fuel Required is the sum of Trip Fuel Contingency Fuel (5% from overhead or abeam the last ERA) Diversion Fuel.

Answer 8

On certain sectors an amount of additional fuel must be carried to support the following requirement: a. Sufficient fuel must be available, at all times during the flight, to allow the flight to be continued to the nearest suitable airport, hold for 30 minutes at 1,500ft and carry out an approach and landing. b. Loss of pressurisation and the failure of one engine must be considered. Depressurisation with all engines operating is normally the most fuel critical scenario.

Answer 9

Contingency Fuel allows for errors in forecast winds or temperatures, restrictions on altitude, minor route changes and extended taxi times. On most flights Contingency Fuel is planned as 5% of the Trip Fuel from departure to destination, with a minimum of 300 kg for the A330. The minimum Contingency fuel is 5% of the Trip Fuel from overhead or abeam the last suitable en-route airport (ERA) to destination.

Answer 10

Documents which must be carried to meet the requirements of the AN(HK)O: a. Radio Station Licence. b. Certificate of Airworthiness. c. Certificate of Maintenance Review. d. Certificate of Registration. e. Maintenance Log. f. Copy of the Load Sheet. g. Flight Crew Licences (by individual Crew members). h. Operations Manual

Answer 11

ETD - 6 hours Estimated ZFW issued to Flight Dispatch for production of CFP ETD - 60 mins Traffic staff verbally inform the Flight Crew of the latest ZFW ETD - 30 mins Final ZFW sent via ACARS to the aircraft printer by CLC ETD - 25 mins Final Fuel Figures sent to CLC via ACARS by the Flight Crew ETD - 15 mins Loadsheet sent via ACARS to aircraft printer by CLC ETD Aircraft off-blocks (with Loadsheet acknowledged / signed

Answer 12

55 degrees

Answer 13

Take-off is permissible with: - light coatings of frost (white color) up to 1/8in (3mm) in thickness on lower wing surfaces due to cold fuel. - Thin hoar frost on the upper surface of the fuselage provided all vents and ports are clear. (white deposit of fine crystalline texture) CAUTION: Lower wing surface ice ridges of any size are not acceptable, all leading edge devices, all control surfaces, and upper wing surfaces must be free of ice and snow

Answer 14

After refuelling, Flight Crew shall: - Note usable fuel quantity in each tank and send it through the ACARS Fuel Distribution page. - Send the location and quantity of unusable fuel to OPS (Attention CLC) via ACARS free text, or via the Traffic Officer. If the ACARS is unavailable, a "Non-Standard Fuel Order Confirmation Sheet" form located in the Flight Deck Documents wallet must be completed and passed to the Traffic Officer for transmission to CLC.

Answer 15

When non-standard fuel distribution occurs, the Flight Crew shall complete and send the details using the ACARS Fuel Distribution page. If the ACARS is unavailable, a "Non-Standard Fuel Order Confirmation Sheet" in the Flight Deck Documents wallet shall be completed and passed to the Traffic Officer at the departure airport for transmission to CLC.

Answer 16

On A320/A321 aircraft, Livestock other than cold-blooded animals (AVC) and live fish (AVP/PES), shall not be carried as cargo. On A330 The bulk cargo hold (Hold 5) is designed for transport of livestock as it is equipped with a ventilation system. Live animals should be placed in suitable cages or pet kennels. The animal containers and crates should be tied down in order to be secured against any movement at take-off, landing and during flight.

Answer 17

Passenger boarding should not commence until a cabin temperature of 28°C or below is achieved. HAECO is responsible for the implementation of the Hot Cabin procedure.

Answer 18

Derate 1 thrust increasing to climb thrust when predicted rate of climb reduces to 500 ft/mn.

Answer 19

When the correction to the TRIP FUEL exceeds 300 kg the Trip Fuel should be amended.

Answer 20

The lower HOT value in a cell which contains a range of times presents information for moderate precipitation conditions. The higher HOT value is representative of fluid performance for light precipitation conditions.

Answer 21

An isolated destination airport is defined as a destination airport where an alternate airport is not available within 1 hour 45 minutes flight time from the destination.

Answer 22

Aircraft doors shall only be opened by persons who are trained and competent to do so. In NORMAL circumstances aircraft doors shall be opened from the outside of the aircraft. Doors are allowed to be opened from inside the aircraft under ABNORMAL or EMERGENCY conditions.

Answer 23

Flight deviates by 300 ft or more from a cleared flight level Wake Turbulence encountered ASR report is to be completed and submitted to the Dragonair Corporate Safety & Quality Department. Line Ops should also be notified via CAR.

Answer 24

Type I,II and IV. | Type III fluids are not approved for use on Dragonair aircraft.

Answer 25

Contact CLC and fill in a "No Change to Traffic Load" form stored in the Spare Documents Wallet. The form will only be required if a new ACARS/Computer Loadsheet cannot be obtained. This can occur during a major disruption (e.g. severe weather affecting Hong Kong) when multiple aircraft are diverting and Load Control is unable to support the diverted flights. Flight Crew shall be familiar with the completion of the form. Although the No Change Loadsheet is normally completed by the Flight Crew, Dragonair approved Loadsheet Officers can complete the form if requested to do so by the Commander/PIC.

Answer 26

The following documents are to be left to the handling agent, station representative or qualified engineer: a. Load Sheet signed by the Commander. b. Trim Sheet, if not using computer Loadsheet. c. Dangerous Goods documentation including a copy of the NOTOC. d. Station Copy page of the Maintenance Log signed by the Commander.

Answer 27

Type I : Orange Type II : Colourless, or pale straw Type III : Light yellow Type IV : Emerald green

Answer 28

Aircraft doors may be closed only by suitably trained personnel. When an aircraft is departing for a flight, the doors shall be closed from inside the aircraft by the cabin crew. Airport staff may assist cabin crew to close aircraft doors by pushing on the physical structure of the door but under no circumstances should they interfere or participate in the locking process. Once closed, doors shall not be re-opened without the Captain's approval.

Answer 29

All errors and omissions in the Navigation Data Base must be reported to Operations by entering the details on the CAR for the attention of Line Operations

Answer 30

Fuel shall be bright, clear and coloured within the range “White Water to Light Amber or Straw colour”. Fuels which are coloured Blue, Red or Green are not to be uplifted.

Answer 31

Defuelled fuel may be uplifted if: 1. It was defuelled from a CX / AHK / KA aircraft. 2. It has not been held in a tanker for longer than 24 hours. 3. A normal water contamination check is made. 4. Wide-cut fuel contains an anti-static additive. Once fuel is returned to the fuel farm it is considered contaminated and must not be reloaded.

Answer 32

Yes, after the anti-icing HOT clock has been started, it must not be stopped. HOT credit cannot be given due to the fact that the precipitation has temporarily stopped falling. As precipitation falls on an aircraft that has been anti-iced, the fluid is being diluted. the more diluted the fluid becomes, the more readily it flows off the aircraft, and the higher the freezing point becomes. Even if the precipitation stops falling, the diluted fluid will continue to flow off the aircraft due to gravity. There is no practical way to determine how much residual anti-icing fluid is on the wing under these circumstances.

Answer 33

These figures are provided to allow the TRIP FUEL to be adjusted for changes in Take-off weight, whatever the reason for that change. The CORR LNDG figure should be used when the TOTAL FUEL figure is adjusted as it contains a fuel allowance required to carry that extra fuel. The CORR RAMP figure should be used if the total fuel remains the same and the crew decides to use fuel that is already on board, as REC EXTRA or CONT FUEL.

Answer 34

The freezing point of a fluid is function of the glycol concentration, it is assessed in the field; A temperature buffer is then applied to cater for absorption of precipitation, for errors in application, and for the influence of variations in the weather conditions. Lowest Operational Use Temperature for a given fluid is the higher of: i. The lowest temperature at which the fluid meets the aerodynamic acceptance test for a given aircraft type, or ii. The freezing point of the fluid plus its freezing point buffer (10°C for a Type I fluid, and 7°C for a Type II, III, or IV fluid).

Answer 35

Due to the significant fuel penalty associated with high speed cruise flight, the use of a CI greater than CI-150 should only be used to guarantee an arrival before a published Airport Curfew, or when Crew duty hours are critical.

Answer 36

If a spillage of fuel is detected, the Commander must take the following actions: 1. Inform the refueller and stop refuelling 2. Inform the Ground Engineer, airport authorities and fire services 3. If passenger boarding has commenced, decide whether if it is necessary to offload passengers already on the aircraft. 4. If passenger boarding is allowed to continue, boarding passengers must be kept as far as possible from the fuel spillage.

Answer 37

The aircraft wings must be sprayed first, therefore the wings become the most critical surface and if they are clean when a Pre Take off Inspection is required, it can be assumed that the rest of the aircraft is clean. De/anti-icing fluids are applied close to the skin of the aircraft to minimise heat loss.

Answer 38

NO, if an aircraft has to be re-protected prior to flight then external surfaces must be de-iced first with hot mixed fluid before a further application of anti-ice fluid is made.

Answer 39

When aircraft have been de/anti-iced, Engineering should complete the relevant de/anti-icing field in the Aircraft Maintenance Logbook. However, along with refueling and oil quantity columns, this is not part of the Airworthiness Certificate of Release. As such, the Aircraft Commander is approved to complete the de/anti-icing field in the absence of a qualified engineer on the flight deck, saving the need to re-open aircraft doors after the de/anti-icing procedure.

Answer 40

Board passengers if the technical delay is estimated by Maintenance Control or the licenced engineer in charge of the rectification to be less than 30 minutes. If the rectification is likely to take more than 30 minutes, then the passengers should be boarded when it is estimated to be within 30 minutes of completion. The exceptions to this will be if an engine run is required at higher than idle power, or if the Flight Deck crew have been denied access to the cockpit for pre-flight preparation.

Answer 41

If the ground engineer carries out the engine run, the Captain must be in a control seat. The Captain remains fully responsible for the safety of the passengers on board and for ordering an emergency evacuation if required. He must monitor the run until completion and all other duties such as flight deck preparation should be deferred.

Answer 42

Dragonair aircraft receiving a Microburst alert are to delay take off or “go around” as appropriate

Answer 43

- No inspection required until the lower (more limiting) time in the HOT cell has been exceeded. - Pre-take-off Contamination Inspection shall be completed if the elapsed time is within the range of time given in the HOT cell for the conditions present. - Should the higher (less limiting) time in the HOT cell be exceeded, the only option available to allow take-off is a Pre Take-off Contamination Check which must be conducted externally by Ground Crew. If it is not possible to conduct this check, or it is not possible to take-off within 5 minutes of conducting the check, the aircraft must return for de/anti-icing.

Answer 44

Whenever ATC notifies that the aircraft position is in error, the Captain shall report the notification with all relevant details by Air Safety Report (ASR).

Answer 45

It is prohibited to operate a flight of over 500nm through any part of a Schedule 8 Navigation Area unless article 18(4) of the AN(HK)O is complied with, procedure FCOM/PRO-SPO-52 : ``` Applicable route: HKG – XIY – HKG The following equipment shall be serviceable: 2 FMS. 2 GPS or 2 MMR (as installed). 2 DME. 2 VOR. 1 ADF (Two ADF for any route with NDB only segments). 1 Weather radar ``` If the navigation equipment specified above becomes unserviceable to the extent that it affects navigation accuracy, the Commander is to adopt a course of action that will ensure the aircraft is navigated to an area where normal navigation can be resumed as expeditiously as possible. In practice this may include continuing on the flight planned route provided ATC can confirm appropriate navigation by radar.

Answer 46

No, All commercial flights are to be conducted under an IFR Flight Plan. Flights into and out of uncontrolled airspace and airports are generally prohibited. However, such flights may be conducted in order to complete a charter flight. It should only be done after an appraisal showing that the flight can be safely operated and approval of the General Manager Operations

Answer 47

No, where a takeoff alternate is required at least one non-GPS approach must be available.

Answer 48

Continuous assessment of fuel on board ensures that there is sufficient fuel available to: a. Proceed from present position to destination. b. Make an approach to land. c. Divert to an alternate airport, with 5% Contingency Fuel. d. Hold for 30 minutes at 1,500ft and carry out an approach and landing.

Answer 49

Continue the approach and land if visual

Answer 50

Operating with an inoperative TCAS is permitted (including RVSM Airspace) provided it is completed in accordance with the applicable MEL. The TCAS must be serviceable ex-HKG; At Outports it may be inoperative subject to Time and Sector constraints detailed in the MEL. TCAS is required to operate in Chinese RVSM airspace

Answer 51

a. En-route and Prior To Descent For Destination Airport i. The airport has two independent runways suitable for landing i.e. not crossing or reciprocal. ii. The actual and forecast weather for the ETA at the destination airport indicate weather conditions at or above the Non-Precision Alternate Planning minima and the crosswind is within aircraft limits. iii. There are no known or probable ATC delays. iv. Fuel remaining is sufficient to continue to destination, plus 5% contingency fuel from overhead or abeam the last suitable en-route airport, plus 30 minutes holding at 1,500ft and carry out an approach and landing. b. After Commencing Descent If a delay or unforeseen situation develops which would result in the aircraft landing with less than Minimum Diversion Fuel, the flight may continue to the destination airport provided that the fuel remaining on landing will be at least equal to Reserve Fuel. The Commander must consider all relevant factors with particular reference to the reason for the delay, weather deterioration, and runway availability at the destination and alternate before electing to continue rather than diverting to the alternate.

Answer 52

Hong Kong ATC normally provide separation of 4NM for a “HEAVY” aircraft following another “HEAVY” aircraft 5NM for a “MEDIUM” aircraft following a “HEAVY” aircraft. Following an A380, separation increases to 6NM / 7NM respectively.

Answer 53

- “MINIMUM FUEL” when having committed to land at a specific aerodrome, the Commander/PIC calculates that any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less than planned final Reserve Fuel. - “MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL”, when the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less than the planned final Reserve Fuel

Answer 54

The procedure commences from engine start to Cruise Altitude (or approximately 30min after take off), and from the “30min to landing” call until the aircraft is parked. The Flight Crew shall only be disturbed for urgent operational issues and access to the Flight Deck is not permitted unless initiated by the Flight Crew.

Answer 55

The Duty Operations Manager (DOM) is available at any time for advice on operational and technical matters. All communications between the Commander and the DOM will be coordinated through IOC.

Answer 56

When RVR is not reported, the Commander may assess the RVR by noting the number of runway lights visible from the aircraft (ICAO standard spacing for runway edge lighting is 60m).

Answer 57

The Commander may not commence a take-off when the RVR, or cloud ceiling where required, is below the minima specified for take-off. If multiple RVRs are reported, all reported RVRs must be at or above the minima.

Answer 58

With lighting, at least seven consecutive lights which may be approach lights, runway lights, or a combination of both. Without lighting, Runway threshold and touchdown zone

Answer 59

If lower state or Dragonair LVO take-off minima have been approved, these figures will be shown in parentheses. If take-off is predicated on these lower minima, all RVR readings (touchdown, mid point and stop end) must be available and at or above this minima.

Answer 60

Unless stated on the Port Page, the minimum altitude for initating a turn after take-off is 400ft AAL

Answer 61

The following criteria must be met until the planning exercise is complete and the revised destination has been communicated to ATC. 1. The destination airport weather meets the criteria specified in flight planning minima to be used for a Destination Airport. 2. An alternate airport must be available where the weather at that airport meets the criteria specified in flight planning minima to be used for an Alternate Airport. 3. Fuel is sufficient to continue to destination, plus 5% contingency fuel from a point overhead or abeam the last suitable en-route airport, plus Minimum Diversion Fuel.

Answer 62

The PF may commence a visual approach provided the following conditions can be maintained throughout the approach: a. Visual contact with the landing runway environment (runway threshold, approach lighting, or other markings identifiable with the runway) b. A visibility along the intended flight path not less than 5km. NOTE: When a thin layer of ground fog or mist is present at an airport in otherwise good visibility conditions, the minimum RVR for a visual approach must be 800 metres, or the visibility required for a non precision approach to the runway of intended use, whichever is greater, regardless of the approach lighting or the time of day.

Answer 63

At or below 14,000ft AMSL - 1 minute Above 14,000ft AMSL - 1½ minutes

Answer 64

Continue to 1000 ft and go around at 1000 ft if RVR has not increased above minimas

Answer 65

In the context of CAT 1 approaches, the Midpoint RVR is generally not reported. When the Midpoint RVR is reported by ATC the minimum Midpoint RVR value is 200 metres (150 metres for autoland)

Answer 66

Lighting available, sufficient lights of the approach and/or runway lighting system and 1 row of crossbar lights (or barrettes) visible to ensure that the desired flight path can be maintained using visual reference only. No lighting, Runway threshold and touchdown zone must be visible.

Answer 67

Continuous sight of ground features to ensure that aircraft position is maintained within the visual manoeuvring (circling) area and that the aircraft can be positioned on the approach for the runway in use.

Answer 68

Dispatch is defined as the time parking brake is released prior to commencing pushback or taxi.

Answer 69

Headsets must be used by the operating crew during periods of high cockpit workload and at all times below 15,000ft or, where higher, the transition level.

Answer 70

If an aircraft or airport systems failure necessitates a reversion to a degraded approach category, the approach may not commence (i.e. descend below 1,000ft AAL), or continue if already below 1,000ft AAL, unless the RVRs reported are at or above the minima for the degraded approach category.

Answer 71

visibility less than 1,500m or cloudbase below 300ft An autoland is strongly recommended when the ports are approved for autoland operations

Answer 72

“Please note that the seatbelt signs are switched on, Cabin Crew please be seated”

Answer 73

OPS PART A Chapter 8 Flight Procedures

Answer 74

Glide Path Angle The minimum ILS Glide Path angle is 2.5°. The maximum ILS Glide Path angle is 3.25°.

Answer 75

The two states of Emergency are classified : Distress “MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY” A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance. Urgency “PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN” A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or of some person on board or within sight but which does not require immediate assistance. The emergency message should contain the following information: - Name of station addressed (when appropriate and time and circumstances permit) - Callsign - Type of Aircraft - Nature of the Emergency - Intentions - Present or last known position, Flt Level/altitude and heading - Any other useful information e.g. endurance remaining, number of people on board etc Once communication has been established, the flight‟s callsign should be prefixed with a single “MAYDAY” or “PAN” as appropriate, e.g. “MAYDAY Dragon 810”

Answer 76

A Precautionary Landing is executed when there has been an abnormal or emergency occurrence with the aircraft and in the commander's opinion an emergency evacuation is not anticipated (e.g. engine failure).

Answer 77

Low Visibility Procedures (LVP) are ICAO requirements imposed on airport authorities for the conduct of AWO. They are defined as procedures applied at an airport for the purpose of ensuring safe operation during approaches below Standard Category 1 and during LVTO. Note: ICAO requires LVP to be in force for all take-offs below 550m RVR, not only LVTO (400m).

Answer 78

Threshold Crossing Height (TCH). The minimum Threshold Crossing Height is 40ft. The maximum Threshold Crossing Height is 60ft.

Answer 79

Some countries may not recognise the term “Pan Pan” as an urgency message. In situations where a “Mayday” call is considered inappropriate and a “Pan” call is not achieving the desired response from ATC then the phrase “We are declaring an emergency” should be used.

Answer 80

a. The Seatbelt sign will be cycled once as a turbulence alert b. Use the Cabin Interphone to convey all commands to the cabin. The crew member who answers the call will then pass the information to the other Cabin Crew. This will cover all events including “Evacuate”, “Attention! Cabin Crew at Stations”, “Cabin Crew Resume Duties” etc. c. Switch the seatbelts sign Off and On six or more times for ordering the “brace” position. If possible this should be done 30 seconds before impact.

Answer 81

Crew members are not permitted to reset or cycle any circuit breaker located on a remote panel or in the Avionics Bay without specific authorisation from the Duty Operations Manager (DOM). The DOM should be contacted through IOC and will conduct a risk assessment prior to granting such authority. An authorisation to enter the Avionics Bay will only be granted to a crewmember qualified on the aircraft type and where that crewmember is additional to the minimum operational cockpit crew. An ASR must be submitted at any time there is cause for a crewmember to enter the Avionics Bay during flight.

Answer 82

Mobile phones are not authorised for use by Flight Crew and Jumpseat passengers whilst the aircraft is taxiing for departure or after landing until parked at the arrival gate. Mobile phones shall not be used during any crew briefing. The Commander/PIC shall ensure all Flight Crew and Jumpseat passengers mobile phones are turned OFF and properly stowed before leaving the parking gate to minimize distraction during critical phases of flight.

Answer 83

Flash the runway turn off lights twice. | The Ground Engineer will then return to the aircraft and re-establish communications with the Cockpit.

Answer 84

Touchdown, Mid-point and Roll-out (Stop End) RVR readings shall be passed to aircraft when they are at or below 800m (depend on regulatory authority). RVR values are reported in 50m increments at a delay of less than 30s Below 400 m, 25 m increments with a delay not exceeding 15 s.

Answer 85

At 2000ft AAL prior to an Emergency Landing During a Rejected Take-Off On ground If the Cabin Crew are not seated and an emergency or abnormal situation requires the crew to immediately return to their seats. This alert level should be cancelled, when appropriate, using the phrase “CABIN CREW RESUME DUTIES”

Answer 86

“Cathay Ops”, IOC Responsible for the overall monitoring of company operations. “Dragon Dispatch”, Flight Dispatch Responsible for Flight Dispatch related paperwork. “Cathay Engineering”, CX Engineering. Responsible for technical support. "Dragon Hong Kong", HKIA Hub Station Control. Responsible for gate allocation, crew bus

Answer 87

The weather at the nominated ERA(s) must remain above landing minima.

Answer 88

OPS For operational issues. ENG For engineering messages. HUB For gate allocation, crew bus requests, etc. MED For medical advice (MEDLINK).

Answer 89

In-flight A tripped circuit breaker must not be reset in-flight unless the procedure is clearly defined in the QRH. On the ground A tripped circuit breaker must not be reset unless the action is co-ordinated with maintenance personnel and the cause of the circuit breaker tripping has been identified.

Answer 90

Low Visibility Operations (LVO) are ICAO requirements imposed on Operators for the conduct of AWO. They are defined as: a. take-off (referred to as Low Visibility Take-off (LVTO)) with an RVR less than 400m. b. landing with an RVR less than 550m.

Answer 91

Cloud ceiling is defined as more than half the sky covered by cloud. The meteorological designations, BKN and OVC, both constitute cloud ceiling.

Answer 92

The guidance given by the Operations Manual in the case where a suspicious object(s) has been found during flight is to “Use all airport facilities to disembark without delay.” Bomb On Board QRH can be referred to if sufficient time

Answer 93

CAT 2 and 3A approaches: Touchdown RVR (TDZ) and Midpoint RVR (MID) are controlling and shall be at or above published minima. Rollout (Stop End) RVR (RO) is advisory and shall be considered by the Commander/PIC if relevant. If MID RVR is temporarily unserviceable, RO RVR is controlling. ``` CAT 3B (No DH) approaches: Touchdown RVR (TDZ), Midpoint RVR (MID) and Rollout (Stop End) RVR (RO) are controlling and shall be at or above published minima. If 1 transmissometer is temporarily inoperative, operations may continue using the 2 remaining transmissiometers. ```

Answer 94

Operations of a twin engined aircraft conducted over a route that contains a point further than 60 minutes flying time in still air, at the specified one engine inoperative cruising speed, from an adequate airport.

Answer 95

The Critical Fuel Point is the point on the aircraft route that is most critical with regard to ETOPS fuel requirements. It is normally, but not always, the last enroute Equitime Point.

Answer 96

No, for approaches to CAT 3A/3B minima, use of Automatic thrust control system in the approach mode is mandatory.

Answer 97

Rule Time is the maximum still air diversion time which may be planned for a flight from an Adequate airport. The approved times for the aircraft's most limiting ETOPS significant system and most limiting cargo fire suppression capability are considered when permitted Rule Times are determined and authorised. The Rule Time is currently 120 minutes.

Answer 98

A Rule Time of 120 Minutes, 853nm

Answer 99

The most critical fuel scenario of either engine-inoperative or all engines operating and loss of pressurization are assessed based on the following scenarios occurring at the Critical Point: a. Immediate descent: i. all engines operating with pressurisation failure, immediate descent at MMO/VMO to 10,000ft and then cruise at LRC. ii. one engine failure with pressurisation failure, immediate descent at MMO/VMO to 10,000ft and then cruise at VMO iii. one engine failure normal pressurization, descend at MMO/VMO to the engine inoperative stabilising altitude and then cruise at VMO.

Answer 100

Normal fuel policy applies, with the following exceptions: Sufficient fuel shall be carried to permit the loss of pressurisation or an engine failure, or both, at any point on the intended route and predicated on the following: a. the flight shall be continued to the nearest ERA for landing; b. hold at 1,500ft over the nearest ERA for 15 minutes; and, c. initiate an approach, followed by a missed approach, then continue to a normal approach and landing.

Answer 101

The verification process on a non ETOPS sector only requires the flight duration to be long enough to establish that the system(s) requiring verification is/are now fully operable. There is no specified minimum flight time requirement.

Answer 102

The initial segment of the flight prior to the ETOPS entry point must be a minimum of 90 minutes after departure, thereby permitting sufficient time for the crew to evaluate the serviceability of the aircraft system(s) which required the verification flight.

Answer 103

The start attempt requires a “sector time” greater than 3 hours, not 3 hours above FL 300. There is no requirement to record start parameters, just the number of start attempts.

Answer 104

For flights departing Hong Kong, a paper copy of the PADD status is provided at dispatch using the “Performance Acceptable Deferred Defect Report”. This report reflects the PADD status in Ultramain; as there can be a delay between the engineers raising or clearing a PADD and then updating Ultramain, there may be differences between the PADD Report and the actual aircraft status. This report is specific to PADDs only, SADD are not included.

Answer 105

No, unless the defect requires maintenance action. It is within the authority of the Commander to accept a defect without consulting a ground engineer after the doors are closed, provided the defect does not require a maintenance procedure (m) and is covered in the MEL.

Answer 106

If a failure occurs during the taxi phase before the start of the takeoff roll, any decision to continue the flight shall be subject to pilot judgement and good airmanship. The applicable ECAM/FCOM procedure shall be actioned and the Commander should refer to the MEL before any decision to continue the flight is taken.

Answer 107

Yes, the commander may exercise his discretion to fly to a station where the CRS can be issued. This would constitute an aircraft dispatch under Article 11(1) of the AN(HK)O.

Answer 108

1. At the departure station, the AML shall be completed as follows (Refer to Part A 8.6.1.26): - The Commander will write details of the defect. - The Engineer will complete the "action taken‟ section including references to relevant technical documentation e.g. AMM reference and complete the CRS with the CX Temporary Authorisation. 2. Upon arrival at Hong Kong, or a Manned station, the Commander will write the following log entry in the defect column: “Aircraft dispatched under Temporary Authorisation. Refer to LP xx ITEM x (description of defect and previous action taken)”, (Where xx is the AML Log Page number and x is Item number).

Answer 109

Following any maintenance on an aircraft it is necessary to have a Certificate of Release to Service (CRS) in force before the aircraft is allowed to fly. A CRS can only be issued by an appropriately licensed engineer. Aircraft defects are listed in the left hand column of the AML and the maintenance action taken is detailed in the adjacent column. The far right column is then completed with an authorised signature. This signature constitutes a Certificate of Release to Service.

Answer 110

Such a defect or unserviceability is to be entered in the AML and transferred as a (P)(S)ADD as applicable from the MEL. At unmanned stations pilots are authorised to make these AML entries. In such a case, the CRS shall remain unsigned until the aircraft reaches a place where an appropriately authorised licensed engineer can issue the CRS.

Answer 111

Article 11(1) of the AN(HK)O permits an aircraft to be dispatched following maintenance action, but without a CRS. Dispatch under the provisions of Article 11(1) can only be applied after consultation with Cathay Engineering and after informing the Duty Operations Manager (DOM). Following a dispatch under Article 11(1), the Commander must submit a written report (Article 11(1) Dispatch Form in the Spare Documents Wallet) within 5 days to CX QA (Engineering) and copied to Technical Manager (Airbus). The CAR shall be annotated to advise that the aircraft was dispatched under Article 11(1).

Answer 112

Cathay Engineering cannot authorise dispatch under Article 11(1). They may, however, be able to advise whether an Article 11(1) dispatch is possible. The decision to do so, after taking into consideration the airworthiness of the aircraft, rests solely with the Commander.

Answer 113

Class 2 messages under "Maintenance‟ on the STATUS page must be written on the AML when the flight is terminating at a manned station.

Answer 114

The aircraft must be flown to the "nearest place‟ at which a CRS can be signed. Notwithstanding airports in mainland China and elsewhere where appropriately licensed engineers are available, the "nearest place‟ in the context of an Article 11(1) dispatch may be considered to be Hong Kong. In the event of an en-route diversion or diversion from the intended destination, it is permissible to fly more than one sector to reach the place where the CRS can be signed.

Answer 115

Authority is automatically given for pilots to carry out PFC and refuelling procedures on completion of the ground training course.

Answer 116

The AML shall be completed as follow (Refer to Part A 8.6.1.28): - At the departure station, the Commander will write details of the defect and any maintenance work carried out along with the words “A/C dispatched under AN(HK)O Article 11(1).” - At the station where the CRS is to be issued, the Commander will write the following log entry in the defect column: “A/C dispatched under AN(HK)O Article 11(1). No CRS issued. Please refer LP xx.” (Where xx is the AML page number).

Answer 117

All checks except a PFC or OCT require a CRS. The "Check Completed‟ block in the AML has a bold border denoting that the signature in the block is a CRS. Pilots are not permitted to sign a CRS, nor sign the "Check Completed‟ block nor carry out "Transit Checks‟.

Answer 118

On Call Transit procedures are applicable at all manned stations (except Hong Kong) and unmanned stations when a Riding Engineer is carried. The Commander is responsible for ensuring the OCT check has been carried out and the AML completed correctly. Qualified aircraft mechanics will; - Conduct a walk around and carry out refuelling - Review the AML for defects, info entries, PADD/SADD/ADDs. - Notify an engineer to cover maintenance and/or certification action Licensed Aircraft Engineers (LAE) will; - Respond when required - Do a walk around and sign the CRS following maintenance or overnight When a riding engineer is carried, he performs the functions of mechanic and/or LAE as required.

Answer 119

Where corrections are to be made to an AML entry, the error will be crossed out with a single line so as to ensure the error remains legible

Answer 120

If an entry requires submission of an ASR/MOR, “ASR/MOR Raised” must be written in the AML entry box

Answer 121

Such ECAM warnings are to be recorded in the AML as a "For Info‟ entry. This allows the Engineering Department to track potential problems. NOTE: A "For Info‟ entry should only be entered inbound to HKG or at a manned station. Although such entries do not require a CRS, they do require a comment in the action taken column.

Answer 122

Commanders are permitted to carry out duplicate inspections following maintenance action at outstations, provided: a. A second qualified engineer is not available. b. Only a minor adjustment is involved. c. The crew member is qualified on the aircraft type. Close liaison with the Ground Engineer is necessary to ascertain the details of the specific checks required. In general, duplicate inspection requirements involve checking the affected control system for freedom of movement and correct direction of movement and the security and safety locking of the disturbed component. A duplicate inspection may be required for dispatch under Temporary Authorisation or Article 11(1) of the AN(HK)O.

Answer 123

When a pilot carries out the PFC, "Pre flight check required" must be entered in the defect block. After the inspection, in the Action Taken block, make the entry, "Pre flight check carried out SATIS" and make a signature including ERN.

Answer 124

The procedure below must be followed regardless of whether the station is Manned or Unmanned: i. An entry is to be made in the AML immediately following the event. ii. CX Engineering must be advised through IOC (Phone/SATCOM or ACARS). iii. Load 15 report must be analysed by CX ENG. iv. The Commander must submit an ASR (not required if CX ENG confirm no limits exceeded.) Note: If DMU is unserviceable the aircraft may be AOG until the DFDR is read. It is important to realise that the aircraft cannot dispatch without the approval of CX Engineering following such events. If a Suspected Hard Landing at an Unmanned station is confirmed by load 15 Report to not exceed limits then dispatch may be considered under Article 11(1).

Answer 125

Cargo packages showing any signs of leakage, fuming, stains or any other evidence of damage shall be reported to the Duty Ground Engineer and the Commander/PIC immediately. If the spillage is a flammable liquid, do not continue to use or operate any electrical system. Station management is to notify the appropriate authorities depending on the nature and gravity of the incident. Engineering personnel will carry out an inspection of the aircraft in accordance with their procedures. A SADD shall be raised whenever spillage occurs in order to facilitate the necessary clean-up work on return to Hong Kong.

Answer 126

CAR must be annotated and addressed to Technical Manager (Airbus) AML Action taken must be annoted with CFDS procedure carried out IAW FCOM PRO SUP 45 item x, Aircraft dispatched IAW MEL...

Answer 127

Yes, a 1 time extension of rectification Interval B, C or D, may be permitted for the same duration provided: - A description of duties and responsibilities for controlling extensions is established by the operator and accepted by the Authority, and - The Authority is notified of any extension authorised.

Answer 128

Any defect that does not change the procedures for flight, (not visible to the Flight Crew or Ground Engineer) and doesn't affect safety, nor airworthiness may be raised as a BDD until materials and opportunity can be made available for rectification.

Answer 129

Authorization for an engineer to accept a limited number of systems or components for use on an aircraft, which do not wholly comply with the relevant requirements of the approved technical publications but nevertheless do meet an acceptable level of airworthiness. They are issued by CX Engineering.

Answer 130

i. Control procedure for authorization of work on an aircraft or its components, urgent in nature that deviates from existing approved drawings, limits, specifications, procedures for the aircraft type. They are issued by the Technical Services Design Organisation. ii. DDOs are Engineering's normal method of short/long term authorisation of work per item (i) or short term specialist authorisation beyond the definition of a Maintenance Concession. iii. DDOs may occasionally be seen in the AML. If a DDO results in an SADD entry, a copy of the DDO should be in the miscellaneous section of the AML.

Answer 131

The EOMP describes in detail, procedures used in the Engineering Department to comply with the CATHAY PACIFIC AIRWAYS Engineering Exposition and any other regulatory documents.

Answer 132

The MADD is an electronic work request system. It will be used when CX Engineering require work to be carried out for a repetitive defect, perform a fleet inspection or investigate a MOR. The MADD gives guidance to engineers in HKG and at all line stations to reduce duplication of effort when investigating repetitive defect.

Answer 133

i. NRC are used to record and certify routine, non routine or special nature work and can include any duplicate inspections required. ii. NRCs are raised for definitive tasks; Where full itemised details of the task or sub tasks is required, a Continuation Work Sheet (CWS) may be used. iii. They are used in HKG and XMN and cover aircraft check, inspection findings and rectifications which may not appear in the AML.

Answer 134

i. Used to record and certify work with full itemised details of work carried out, which can be routine, non routine or of special nature, and could include any duplicate inspections required. ii. Used in HKG and XMN only.

Answer 135

A Lesser Check (A, WY, 36H) must be valid at the time of pushback and until reaching next destination where the check can be performed. If an Engineering check expires, Engineering can only extend a Lesser Check beyond its expiry with prior approval from HK CAD. Maintenance checks validity: 36H Check 36 hours WY Check 7 days A Check 500 hours

Answer 136

Ref MEL Dispatch is allowed when Crew Oxygen is below 1,100psi provided a check is made before each flight to ensure that the minimum Crew Oxygen pressure is sufficient for the intended flight. The threshold for Engineering to take maintenance action (including raising of a SADD) is 1,100psi. There is no requirement to log oxygen pressure indications above this limit.

Answer 137

Passenger oxygen requirements are met using cabin fixed oxygen system, and portable oxygen bottles.

Answer 138

Cabin staff oxygen requirements are met using cabin fixed oxygen system and 15 minutes supply from PBE. The remainder is met using portable oxygen bottles.

Answer 139

Sufficient oxygen must be available prior to departure and in case of an actual Depressurisation. Planned or actual level above FL250 i. Passenger oxygen - All passengers, for the duration that cabin altitude exceeds 15,000ft, minimum 10 minutes. - 30% of passengers, for the duration that cabin altitude exceeds 12,000ft but does not exceed 15,000ft. - 10% of passengers, for the duration that cabin altitude exceeds 10,000ft but does not exceed 12,000ft. - First Aid oxygen supply must be available for independent and simultaneous use of 2% of passengers, or 2 passengers, whichever is greater, for the entire period that the cabin altitude exceeds 8,000ft. following a decompression. ii. Crew oxygen - Members of Flight Deck Crew for the duration that cabin exceeds 10,000ft, Minimum 2h. - Cabin Staff for the duration that cabin altitude exceeds 10,000ft. In addition an individual portable supply of oxygen for 15 minutes.

Answer 140

At Dragonair Ports the Ramp Coordinator has overall responsibility for the local handling of delays. He will be the focal point for communications with IOC, the Commander, the FA1 and the Ground Engineer. It is vital that Commanders communicate all relevant information to the Ramp Coordinator in a timely manner.

Answer 141

At ports to which Dragonair does not normally operate but employs a handling agent, the traffic staff or handling agent will be responsible for passenger welfare. Refreshments, meals or accommodation will be provided in accordance with the published scale in the Customer Services Manual. Close liaison will be maintained between the agent or traffic staff and the Commander on departure times and the disembarking or embarking of passengers. The agent or traffic staff will be responsible for all payments incurred in these situations

Answer 142

Where Dragonair have neither a handling agent nor resident traffic staff, the Commander is responsible for passenger welfare or liaison. Refreshments, meals or accommodation will be provided in accordance with the scale published. If credit facilities do not exist, the Commander is to contact IOC to make suitable arrangements. The Commander will provide Operations with the contact TELEPHONE, SITA OR TELEX numbers.

Answer 143

Yes, provided the aircraft is LVO equipped and crew are LVO qualified also the destination alternate must permit Cat 1 operations

Answer 144

The scale for provision of refreshments, meals or accommodation in addition to the normally provided Inflight catering is: a. Delay period up to 20 mins ---- Snacks / Cookies and Drinks b. Delay period up to 60 mins ---- Sandwiches c. Delay period up to 105 mins --- Hot Meal

Answer 145

Bars will be sealed by cabin staff in accordance with their instructions, and whenever possible Duty Free Items should be deposited in a bonded store if the aircraft is to be left unattended by KA staff. Resident Inflight caterers may be able to offer assistance in this respect. If no bonded store facilities exist, security guarding of the aircraft will have to be arranged, and if feasible, consideration should be given to sealing the aircraft doors.

Answer 146

the CP must - Establish where the passenger has disposed of the cigarette and confirm that it has been extinguished. - Report to the Captain the passenger name and seat number. A passenger who admits smoking or who is caught smoking on board has committed a violation of the Aviation Security Ordinance and is to be considered “unruly”. If the passenger does not comply with a Cabin Crew instruction to stop, Cabin Crew shall apply the procedure for Handling Disruptive/Unruly Passengers (Threat Level 1 – Failure to comply with instructions given by crew members as listed in 7.1.16 p.3) and escalate their actions as appropriate. A CSR must be filed.

Answer 147

Dry Ash = Wet Runway | Wet Ash = Slush Runway

Answer 148

It is preferable when faced with a lengthy delay to disembark the passengers into the transit lounge. This may not always be easily arranged in PRC but in the interests of the cabin staff should be done whenever possible. The Commander should make a PA advising the passengers that they will be met by Dragonair staff who will assist them in any way possible.

Answer 149

Icing conditions: OAT on ground at or below 10 °C with Fog (visibility of less than 1 mile (1.6km)) Freezing fog: OAT on ground at or below 0 °C and visibility of 1km or less

Answer 150

A320 424nm / A321 404nm / A330 434nm

Answer 151

Dragonair aircraft shall not take off when ice, snow or slush or frost is present on, or adhering to, the wings, control surfaces, engine inlets or other critical surfaces

Answer 152

Yes, only for purpose of pre flight planning stage and only for destination airport.

Answer 153

Sufficient lights of the approach and/or runway lighting system and one row of crossbar lights (or barrettes) visible to ensure that the desires flight path can be maintained using visual reference only.

Answer 154

Yes, 1 approach to a suitable runway, 400ft to DA/MDA, 1500m to RVR 2 approaches to separate suitable runways, 200ft to DA/MDA 800m to RVR

Answer 155

Planned landing weight at destination

Answer 156

from the outside

Answer 157

the CFP shall be the definitive reference for navigation

Answer 158

Releasing the parking brake prior to commencing pushback or taxi

Answer 159

28 °c or below

Answer 160

APU usage, engine start, taxi for departure fuel

Answer 161

Yes, providing you have 2 destination alternates and fuel planned for most distant of the alternates

Answer 162

Over 12 years old

Answer 163

Actual baggage weights

Answer 164

Sum of Alternate fuel + Reserve Fuel

Answer 165

Missed approach from minima at destination, fly to alternate, plus 5% contingency, carry out approach and landing

Answer 166

Climb setting equivalent to derate 1 thrust, increasing to climb thrust when predicted rate of climb reduces to 500 fpm

Answer 167

Yes as per table in Part A 8.1.4.2

Answer 168

81 kgs (includes 6kg cabin baggage)

Answer 169

Never with passengers embarking, on board or disembarking

Answer 170

Yes, PROB forecast visibility maybe ignored

Answer 171

A runway where a safe landing may be made taking into account the forecast weather conditions

Answer 172

30 mins fuel at 1500 ft based on aircraft landing weight at alternate. In the absence of data 2600 kg !

Answer 173

The sum of Contingency, Mandatory and Rec Extra is not less than 1500 kgs

Answer 174

Yes, providing its approved by AGMF after operating minima, procedures and weather have been specified

Answer 175

after 1000 litres of fuel have been delivered

Answer 176

KA documentation is controlling

Answer 177

only with the presence of a flight deck crew member present

Answer 178

340nm for twin engine aircraft.

Answer 179

Dispatch normally and annotate the CAR for the attention of MLO

Answer 180

Yes at his discretion

Answer 181

Complete a normal shutdown of the APU

Answer 182

Record the Take Off Data on Page 2 of the CFP

Answer 183

The Appropriate Manager

Answer 184

An adequate airport must respect the following rule: - Sufficient runway length and taxiway availability for the aircraft type, - Necessary ancillary services such as ATC, lighting, weather reporting - 1 serviceable navigation aid or a suitable RNAV-RNP/GPS (GNSS) approach - Above required RFF.

Answer 185

Yes but they can't smoke them

Answer 186

CFP MRA is the chart Grid MORA increased by 1,000ft to satisfy CAD requirements. It is correct for wind speeds up to 30kt. For wind speeds up to 50kt, add an extra 500ft; for wind speeds up to 70kt add an extra 1,000ft ; for wind speeds in excess of 70kt, add an extra 1,500ft.

Answer 187

The fuel planning calculation for depressurised flight normally assumes descent to FL100, then long range cruise to TOD. When depressurisation is a critical factor on any sector the CFP will show Critical Point (CP) information between selected en-route airport (ERA) pairs. Mandatory Fuel is required if fuel remaining at the CP is less than the Diversion Fuel Required, as listed in the Route Brief. The Diversion Fuel Required includes 5% contingency fuel from the CP to the ERA. The emergency descent must adhere to the descent profile shown on the Enroute Diversion Guide to ensure oxygen capacity and performance considerations. NOTAM information must be checked to ensure suitability of any selected ERA; Airports may be used outside of normal operating hours if it is known that they can be activated on an emergency basis.

Answer 188

No, except diplomatic bags, musical instruments and religious articles

Answer 189

The weight of jumpseat passengers is normally included in the Traffic Load. In some cases, the weight of jumpseat passengers will be included in the DOW; a note will be added in the SI column of the loadsheet in the following format: 02 PAX OCCUPIED J/S, TOTAL PAX 174, WEIGHT AND INDEX INCLUDED IN DOW

Answer 190

Runway Centreline Lights (RCL): White from threshold to a point 900m (3000 ft) from the stop end. Alternate red and white from 900 to 300m (1000 ft) from the stop end. Red on the last 300 m before the stop end. Runway Edge lights: White from threshold to a point 600m (2000 ft) from the stop end Yellow on the last 600m before the stop end They are spaced by 30 or 60 m depending on Runways

Answer 191

i. The sector has a long over water segment. ii. The sector has a long final route segment between the last en-route airport and the destination airport. iii. There is a relatively short distance to the nominated alternate airport. When a sector requires, or unavailability of an En-Route Airport (ERA) would generate, mandatory fuel build-up, those ERAs with their associated Critical Points (CP) and fuel requirements will be shown on the CFP. On some routes, where there are numerous ERAs on the latter part, it is assessed as impossible to generate mandatory fuel. In this case, no ERAs or CP will be shown. NOTE: Mandatory Fuel will become extra fuel after passing the last en-route CP. This should be considered before loading extra fuel for destination contingencies.

Answer 192

Centralised Load Control (CLC) has offices located in Hong Kong and Taipei, they produce all ACARS loadsheets. A backup system permits Computer Loadsheets to be delivered to an Airport Gate printer at most online stations.

Answer 193

6 kg for Children and adults to be added to their standard weights,

Answer 194

8 kg including food and carry basket

Answer 195

Within 340Nm At least 1 non-GPS approach available. Enroute terrain acceptable for OEI operations. Weather at or above Cat I (or NPA MDA if no ILS AVBL). Filed on ATS plan.

Answer 196

If HIRL and CL are AVBL, 0' / 200m RVR. If HIRL or CL or RCLM are AVBL, 0' / 400m RVR. Otherwise, 0' / 800m RVR.

Answer 197

The Captain shall not commence an approach (descend below 1,000ft AAL or published DA/DH/MDA/MDH, whichever is higher), unless: - Reported RVR is at or above the published minima; If RVR is not reported, the reported visibility is at or above 800m or the published minima, whichever is higher; - Reported cloud ceiling (if required by State minima) is at or above the published minima. A missed approach shall be initiated prior to passing 1,000ft AAL or the published DA/DH/MDA/MDH, whichever is higher, if the applicable criteria above are not met.

Answer 198

``` 36H Check 36 hours Weekly Check 7 days A Check 500 hours 2A Check 1,000 hours 4A check 2,000 hours C check 15 months ```