ANNUAL QUIZZ, PREP FOR PCA Flashcards

1
Q

FMS

Correct format of the flight ID during FMS initialisation

A
  • is essential to ensure correct correlation with ATC system (CPDLC)
  • must use exactly the same information as the ATS Flight Plan (ICAO airline identifier, flight number)
  • must not use any space, dash or extra leading zeroes
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2
Q

FMS

During FMS initial initialisation

A

Ensure that the flight number in the FMS init A matches that of item 7 of the ICAO ATS flight plan

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3
Q

ADS-B

It stands for

A

Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast

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4
Q

ADS-B

ADS-B data is broadcast

A

Automatically provided the transponder is selected to on/auto

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5
Q

ADS-B

When instructed to stop ADS-B altitude transmission

A

Advise ATC “Unable Dragonxxx” as selecting altitude reporting to off would put the TCAS on standby mode

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6
Q

ADS-B

If asked to “transmit ADS-B ident”

A

Press the ATC transponder IDENT pushbutton

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7
Q

ADS-B

ADS-B procedures will be conducted in

A

Airspace listed in Part A and additional airspace notified by notam

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8
Q

ADS-B

If ADS-B equipment is degraded ATC will use the phrase

A

“ADS-B out of service” you must resume normal position reporting by voice or CPDLC if fitted

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9
Q

ADS-B

When operating in ADS-B airspace squawking 7700 will

A

Generate an EMG tag on the controller’s situation display

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10
Q

ADS-B

If asked to “advise ADS-B capability”, transmit

A

“ADS-B transmitter ten ninety datalink, dragon xxx”

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11
Q

ADS-B

ADS-B data includes

A

Barometric altitude, Vertical rate, GPS position, Track, Groundspeed

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12
Q

ADS-B

Before flight in ADS-B airspace

A

Ensure that the ATS flight plan includes the ADS-B and transponder capability (E, L or B1)

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13
Q

RVSM

Which of the following is true with regards to operating within RVSM airspace ?

A

Autopilot should be used, level changes should not overshoot the cleared level by more than 150 ft and a double autopilot failure should be reported to ATC

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14
Q

RVSM

The minimum equipment required to operate in RVSM airspace is

A
1 transponder
1 autopilot
2 ADR
2 DMC
2 PFD
1 FCU
1 FWC
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15
Q

MSA
Following an ENG failure on departure without radar from a port with no specific ENG inop port page procedure approaching 25 NM from the MSA reference but still below relevant MSA the crew should

A

Continue following the SID until at a safe altitude to return as the SID considers distant obstacles beyond 25 NM MSA within +/- 5 NM of centerline.

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16
Q

RVSM

If a flight in China is unable to continue RVSM due to equipment failure the crew shall

A

Contact ATC and state “unable RVSM due equipment failure “ and request clearance out of RVSM airspace

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17
Q

MSA

On Navtech charts the green shaded contours provide

A

A vertical clearance of 1000ft for obstacles at or below 5000 ft

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18
Q

MSA

With reference to MSA, lower separation standards are authorized when

A

IFR under positive radar control

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19
Q

Cold Weather

Approach speed increments should be applied

A

If there is evidence of ice accretion on de-iced parts ( wing anti-ice inop)

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20
Q

Cold Weather

Hot bleed air is used for anti ice on the following surfaces:

A

Four outboard leading-edge slats of each wing and engine intakes

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21
Q

MSA

25 NM MSA shown on Navtech SID/STAR/Approach chart provides

A

1000 ft of obstacle clearance within a 25 NM radius from the reference point upon which the MSA is predicated.
It does not provide any radio coverage

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22
Q

Cold Weather

Rain repellent may be used

A

In moderate to heavy rain to improve visibility on the front windshield

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23
Q

Cold Weather

Electrical power is used for anti ice protection on

A
  • Flight compartment windows
    ‐ Sensors, pitot probes, static ports, TAT probes and angle-of-attack probes
    ‐ Waste water drain mast.
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24
Q

Cold Weather

You are about to take off the runway has standing water, is the FO/SO allowed to perform the take off?

A

No

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25
Cold Weather | Flight Deck Window heating comes on
Automatically when at least one engine is running or the aircraft is in flight
26
Cold Weather | Below what temperature should the Pilots take action on low fuel temp if the a/c tanks contain Jet A fuel ?
- 37°C for the inner tank; - 40°C for the outer or trim tank
27
Cold Weather If taxiing in icing conditions with precipitation or runways and taxiways contaminated with slush or snow, when the flap/slat are confirmed free of contamination they can be retracted by using the relevant procedure before the aircraft is de-energized
Monitor the retraction on the ECAM page
28
Cold Weather | Clean aircraft concept means
Dragonair aircraft shall not takeoff when ice snow slush or frost is present on or adhering to wings control surfaces engine inlets or other critical surfaces
29
TCAS | Maximum TCAS vertical detection capability is limited to intruders flying within what vertical range ?
Within a maximum altitude range of 9900 ft above and below the aircraft
30
Cold Weather | Icing conditions are severe when
There is 5mm of ice accretion on the airframe
31
TCAS | ND indications
Only the 8 most threatening intruders are displayed
32
TCAS | After calculating the Closest Point of Approach (CPA), the TA and RA will be issued at the following TAU times
For a TA about 40s, for a RA about 25s
33
TCAS | NAV TCAS FAULT during pre-flight transit checks in HKG departing for PVG overnight pattern
TCAS may be inoperative provided the defect is rectified at or prior to the next HKG transit
34
TCAS | Following an ENG 1 relight the TCAS mode selector is inadvertently left on TA mode
All RA's are converted to TA no vertical orders will be generated, however aural messages are generated
35
TCAS | phraseology during a RA is
"TCAS RA", "clear of conflict returning to (assigned clearance altitude) and an MOR must be filled
36
Procedures | You are pushing back at HKG and halfway through the push the red lightning light starts flashing, what will happen ?
Ground crew will disconnect headsets the pushback will continue until completed
37
Procedures | A missed approach is mandatory if the following have not been achieved
The landing configuration and stabilized on the final approach path at VAPP by 1000 ft AAL (taking into account prevailing conditions), landing checklist complete.
38
TCAS | When are all RA are inhibited (RA converted to TA)
Below 1100 ft AGL in the climb and 900 ft in the descent
39
Procedures | The minimum midpoint RVR (if reported) for a manual landing is
200 m
40
Procedures | For a Cat 3 approach the Autothrust
Must be used in managed mode
41
Procedures | The normal touchdown zone is
1500 ft +/- 500 ft from landing threshold
42
Procedures | Dragonair is authorized to conduct the following approaches
ILS, PAR, LOC, VOR, NDB, SRA, RNAV(GPS), RNAV(GNSS)
43
Procedures | The minimum altitude and visibility for circling is
The higher of: 1000 ft AAL and an in flight visibility of 4600 m The Jeppesen chart published minima
44
Procedures Prior to commencing an ILS DME approach (DME required on Navtech plate) ATC advises the DME is U/S (GPS NAV accuracy high)
The approach may be flown provided the RWY threshold is inserted into the PROG page.Use of RNAV equipment is suitable as a substitute means of navigation guidance when a VOR, NDB, Locator Beacon, DME, etc are out of service or the aircraft is not equipped with conventional equipment such as ADF, or the aircraft‟s ADF is not operational. CAUTION: In the case of an ILS installation, entering the ILS identifier on the PROG page will normally give the distance to the localiser antenna. As this is located at the stop end of the runway, the distance shown on the PROG page may be different to the normal DME distance, which usually reads zero at touchdown.
45
Procedures | The port page shows standard in the noise abatement section, the ATIS is giving windshear on departure
Noise abatement procedures should not be conducted in conditions of significant turbulence or windshear
46
Procedures | KA approach stabilization criteria for an ILS are
Stabilized on GS in landing configuration by 1500ft and VAPP by 1000 ft
47
Procedures | Maximum crosswind limits in the FCOM
are considered as limitations and are applicable on dry runways only
48
Procedures | Arrival in forecast periods of Freezing Rain / Drizzle
Arrival may be planned during periods of forecast Light Freezing Rain (-FZRA) or Light Freezing Drizzle (-FZDZ). However, if the destination forecast (including PROB, TEMPO or INTER) for the relevant period indicates the presence of Moderate or Heavy Freezing Rain (FZRA, +FZRA), or Moderate or Heavy Freezing Drizzle (FZDZ, +FZDZ), then the nominated alternate shall not have a forecast (including PROB, TEMPO or INTER) of -FZRA, FZRA, +FZRA, -FZDZ, FZDZ, +FZDZ for the period from one hour before until one hour after the time of intended use.
49
Procedures | The Port Page does not specify an EOSID for departure, what is the minimum altitude for a turn after take off ?
400 ft AAL
50
Procedures | Procedures for un-serviceable CDLS state that
An additional crew member or authorized person must be carried to assist withdeadbolt operation.
51
Procedures | Contingency procedures for aircraft requiring rapid descent in China
Notify ATC and request FL change, if unable contact turn 30 degrees right, establish parallel track 5NM then descend as required.
52
Procedures | A navaid NOTAMed as "awaiting flight check"
may be used normally except where specifically stated in the NOTAMmay not
53
Procedures | Stall warning at lift off the standard call is
Stall TOGA 15
54
Systems | With an ECAM ENG 1(2) start fault
There is a master caution and a single chime
55
Systems | The outlet hydraulic pressure of the RAT is
2500 PSI
56
Procedures | On approach ATC advise that there is 10kts tailwind for landing, what should you do ?
At touchdown select maximum reverse, do not wait for the reverse green call
57
Systems | During an automatic start the engine will motor with ignition and fuel off
Until a N3 of between 25-30 % and an EGT of below 100 degrees
58
Systems | The engine can be manually dry cranked by
Selecting the ENG Start selector to Crank and pushing the corresponding MAN START pushbutton
59
Systems | How is the thrust controlled ?
In forward thrust, normally EPR controls the thrustIn reverse operation, thrust is controlled as a function of N1
60
Systems | The cargo doors are operated by
The yellow electric pump or a hand pump that pressurizes the yellow hydraulics
61
Systems | The FADEC control has a function called approach idle, this comes into effect
During approach when the flaps are extended to 2 or greater
62
Systems | If the FADEC detects a flameout on ground or in flight
Both igniters A + B will be automatically energized for 10 s.
63
Systems | If N1exceeds 99% during a flight a red ark shows the highest N1 attained
The red mark will disappear fate a new start on the ground
64
Systems | When thrust reversers are selected, thrust is limited to reverse idle until
the reversers are deployed by more than 70 %.
65
Systems | To conduct a FLX takeoff the crew must
Enter a Flex temperature that is higher than the TAT into the MCDU and set the thrust levers to the FLX/MCT detent
66
Systems The Yellow hydraulic system has an electric pump as well as an engine driven pump, this pump will come on automatically when
‐ in flight, in the event of Engine 2 failure, if the FLAPS lever is not at 0 (to ensure flap retraction in a proper time at takeoff). ‐ on the ground during cargo door operation.
67
Systems | The thrust reverse system is
Controlled electrically by the FADEC and hydraulically actuated
68
``` Systems ENG 1(2) EPR MODE FAULT in flight N1DEGRADED MODE ```
Selecting the THR levers to TOGA can overboost the engine as the thrust isunrated
69
Systems | The hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized, this is to avoid
The hydraulic pump from cavitating
70
Systems | A Priority Valve is fitted to the green hydraulicsystem to:
Cut off supply to heavy load users in the event of low hydraulic pressure
71
Systems | Switching OFF then ON the APU Master SW
Resets the ECB
72
``` Systems ENG 1(2) REV FAULT during start ```
The warning can be considered spurious if the fault disappears after REV IDLEthen FWD IDLE selected (Ground crew and equipment clear before selection)
73
Systems | Flight Deck window heating comes on
automatically when at least one engine is running, or in flight
74
Systems | The Probe/Window Heat pushbutton when selected in flight
Does nothing. It is only to supply power to the probes and windows on the ground
75
Systems | The APU may be started and operated with the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory displayed
Maintenance action is due within the next 15h of APU operation
76
Systems | The hydraulics reservoirs are normally pressurized from
Engine 1 HP bleed air
77
Systems | If there is excessive pressure loss across the main oil scavenger filter
CLOG appears on the ENG page
78
Systems During cargo door operation the yellow hydraulic system supplies pressure to open and close the cargo door, during this time
The leak measurement valve is automatically closed, the only other yellow system device that can operate is Engine 2 reverse. An SFCC inhibition prevents any flap movement.
79
Systems | The APU
can be used to start the engines in flight
80
Systems | High engine vibration in icing conditions
If the ENG ANTI ICE is off switch on at idle fan speed one ENG after the other with approximately 30s interval
81
Systems | Following an EPR malfunction the FADEC would revert to N1 Rated or N1 Unrated ModeI. In either case:
Autothrust control is lost. Alpha-floor protection is lost.
82
Weather Radar | In order for any target to be displayed it must be radar reflective, the 3 most reflective agents are
Ground clutter/Wet hail/Rain
83
Weather Radar | A solid red return on the radar with auto gain indicates an area of rainfall rate
Greater than 12 mm/h
84
Weather Radar | What is the maximum practical detection range of the weather radar?
160 NM
85
Weather Radar | What is the avoidance rule for weather displayed on the radar?
Do not plan to overfly cells A cell displayed inside 40 NM range with normal tilt should be avoided by at least 20 NM Avoid tracking downwind of the cell
86
Weather Radar | With Honeywell RDR 4000 during level flight the ON PATH Enveloppe extends from
4000 ft above to 4000 ft below the aircraft altitude Lower envelope 25 000 ft above FL 290Upper envelope 10 000 below 6 000 ft
87
Weather Radar | Honeywell RDR 4000 CAP display mode selector and FO display mode selector ELEVN mode, the weather radar shows
ND displays the weather data at a selected altitude only PWS is enabledTurbulence display is not available
88
Weather Radar | To find the best indication of storm intensity the radar beam should be
Towards the bottom 2 sections of a storm where the temperature is warmer than -15 degrees
89
Weather Radar | With Honeywell RDR 4000 the radar is scanning when
The flight crew sets 1 radar to ON and selects the display mode selector to ALL, ON PATH, ELEVN or MAP or when the PWS activation condition are satisfied
90
Weather Radar | What is an appropriate tilt setting during cruise for a standard (not multiscan) radar ?
A negative tilt setting that maintains ground return on top of the ND
91
Weather Radar | Honeywell RDR 4000 CAP display mode selector and FO display mode selector ON PATH
the ND displays ON PATH weather only, PWS and Turbulence display are available.
92
Weather Radar | Honeywell RDR 4000 CAP display mode selector and FO display mode selector ALL
the ND displays ON PATH and OFF path weather, PWS and Turbulence display are available.
93
Limitations | What is Mmo
M 0.86
94
Limitations | The maximum crosswind component for landing on a wet runway is
40kts (gust included)
95
ETOPS | The minimum fire category required for a nominated enroute airport for ETOPS is
RFF 4
96
ETOPS | The CAD approved maximum diversion time is
120 minutes
97
Limitations What is the maximum allowable wing fuel imbalance on inner tanks, heavy tank full (outer tanks balanced)?
2900 kg
98
ETOPS | APU health monitoring requirements
Cruise above FL 300 Sector time of more than 3h Record the number of start attempts in the AML
99
ETOPS | ERA (enroute alternate)
If the departure or destination is used to support an ETOPS route segment the ETOPS (ERA) planning criteria also apply
100
ETOPS | Any MEL item which affects ETOPS capabilitywill
Be recorded in the Aircraft Maintenance Log (AML) as a PADD
101
ETOPS | Critical fuel scenario includes
15 minutes holding fuel | 30 minutes for non ETOPS flights
102
ETOPS | Following dispatch of the aircraft if weather updates are not available through ATC, ATIS, HF VOLMET, ACARS
Crew are to seek assistance from IOC
103
Part A | The minimum number of Cabin Crew can be found in:
Chapter 4
104
ETOPS | At the planning stage the ceiling and visibility required for an ETOPS enroute alternate is
At or above the minima for filling as an alternate
105
Part A At Hong Kong the ground agent advise you that 4 passengers and their bags have been offloaded totaling 400kg. They are ready to close the doors which of the following is true ?
Close doors and await a new loadsheet. Upon receipt acknowledge through ACARS pre flight menu and sign the aircraft copy.
106
Part A Are PAR approved in the USA?
No
107
Part A | You are expecting an LMC of 1100kg departing HK with CLC operations, what should happen ?
A new loadsheet will be produced with a new EDNO
108
Part A | Part A defines a crewmember as
A person assigned by an operator to duty on an aircraft during flight time
109
Part A | To increase alertness crew should:
eat light snacks at a 3 or 4 hour intervals.
110
Reporting | A comprehensive list of events requiring an MOR can be found in
CAD 382
111
Reporting | A spurious GPWS warning is activated in descent
An ASR should be raised and CSQ will upgrade if necessary
112
Dangerous Goods | The commander must not sign a NOTOC until
The Certification Clause is completed
113
Reporting | After a commander becomes incapacitated, after the flight has landed the pilot who assumed command must
Notify operations and file an MOR
114
Reporting | The duty engineering manager can be contacted through
IOC
116
Flight Time Limitations | According to FTL when is a legstretch pilot required ?
2 or more sectors with a combined sector time in excess of 8.5h and 1 of these sectors encroaching on the time period 0200-0559Or1 scheduled sector time in excess of 9h
117
Dangerous Goods | Comprehensive information on NOTOC can be found in
Chapter 9
118
Flight Time Limitations | When reserve duty is undertaken at home and a flight member is called out for duty
The maximum FDP shall be based on the Local Time of start in Table A and shall start at the Actual Report Time.
119
Flight Time Limitations | F/O acting as legstretch pilot
Is allowed to act as PM in the left seat. This will allow the commander to leave the cockpit for a maximum time of 30 minutes.
120
Security | With regard to an incident inflight involving an unruly passenger what statement is correct
The commander will report the incident on the CAR attention Line OPS/CSQ/SEC
121
Procedures | Additional restrictions to flight crew members
A newly promoted captain doesn't have to add increment to the LVO minimums
122
Security The policy for handling passengers who refuse to disembark has 4 stages, which of the following is stage 2 ?
Passengers are still refusing to disembark after 5 minutes
123
Security | What are the 4 security threat levels ?
1 disruptive behavior 2 Physical abusive behavior 3 Life threatening behavior 4 Attempted breach or actual breach of the flight deck
125
Security | If police need to meet the aircraft how is this requested?
An ACARS is sent IOC: "OPS- UNRULY PAX- Nature of incident number of paxinvolved-REQUEST POLICE TO MEET AIRCRAFT ON ARRIVAL".