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A330 > ANNUAL QUIZZ, PREP FOR PCA > Flashcards

ANNUAL QUIZZ, PREP FOR PCA Flashcards

1
Q

FMS

Correct format of the flight ID during FMS initialisation

A
  • is essential to ensure correct correlation with ATC system (CPDLC)
  • must use exactly the same information as the ATS Flight Plan (ICAO airline identifier, flight number)
  • must not use any space, dash or extra leading zeroes
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2
Q

FMS

During FMS initial initialisation

A

Ensure that the flight number in the FMS init A matches that of item 7 of the ICAO ATS flight plan

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3
Q

ADS-B

It stands for

A

Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast

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4
Q

ADS-B

ADS-B data is broadcast

A

Automatically provided the transponder is selected to on/auto

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5
Q

ADS-B

When instructed to stop ADS-B altitude transmission

A

Advise ATC “Unable Dragonxxx” as selecting altitude reporting to off would put the TCAS on standby mode

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6
Q

ADS-B

If asked to “transmit ADS-B ident”

A

Press the ATC transponder IDENT pushbutton

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7
Q

ADS-B

ADS-B procedures will be conducted in

A

Airspace listed in Part A and additional airspace notified by notam

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8
Q

ADS-B

If ADS-B equipment is degraded ATC will use the phrase

A

“ADS-B out of service” you must resume normal position reporting by voice or CPDLC if fitted

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9
Q

ADS-B

When operating in ADS-B airspace squawking 7700 will

A

Generate an EMG tag on the controller’s situation display

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10
Q

ADS-B

If asked to “advise ADS-B capability”, transmit

A

“ADS-B transmitter ten ninety datalink, dragon xxx”

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11
Q

ADS-B

ADS-B data includes

A

Barometric altitude, Vertical rate, GPS position, Track, Groundspeed

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12
Q

ADS-B

Before flight in ADS-B airspace

A

Ensure that the ATS flight plan includes the ADS-B and transponder capability (E, L or B1)

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13
Q

RVSM

Which of the following is true with regards to operating within RVSM airspace ?

A

Autopilot should be used, level changes should not overshoot the cleared level by more than 150 ft and a double autopilot failure should be reported to ATC

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14
Q

RVSM

The minimum equipment required to operate in RVSM airspace is

A 
1 transponder
1 autopilot
2 ADR
2 DMC
2 PFD
1 FCU
1 FWC
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15
Q

MSA
Following an ENG failure on departure without radar from a port with no specific ENG inop port page procedure approaching 25 NM from the MSA reference but still below relevant MSA the crew should

A

Continue following the SID until at a safe altitude to return as the SID considers distant obstacles beyond 25 NM MSA within +/- 5 NM of centerline.

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16
Q

RVSM

If a flight in China is unable to continue RVSM due to equipment failure the crew shall

A

Contact ATC and state “unable RVSM due equipment failure “ and request clearance out of RVSM airspace

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17
Q

MSA

On Navtech charts the green shaded contours provide

A

A vertical clearance of 1000ft for obstacles at or below 5000 ft

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18
Q

MSA

With reference to MSA, lower separation standards are authorized when

A

IFR under positive radar control

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19
Q

Cold Weather

Approach speed increments should be applied

A

If there is evidence of ice accretion on de-iced parts ( wing anti-ice inop)

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20
Q

Cold Weather

Hot bleed air is used for anti ice on the following surfaces:

A

Four outboard leading-edge slats of each wing and engine intakes

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21
Q

MSA

25 NM MSA shown on Navtech SID/STAR/Approach chart provides

A

1000 ft of obstacle clearance within a 25 NM radius from the reference point upon which the MSA is predicated.
It does not provide any radio coverage

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22
Q

Cold Weather

Rain repellent may be used

A

In moderate to heavy rain to improve visibility on the front windshield

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23
Q

Cold Weather

Electrical power is used for anti ice protection on

A
  • Flight compartment windows
    ‐ Sensors, pitot probes, static ports, TAT probes and angle-of-attack probes
    ‐ Waste water drain mast.
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24
Q

Cold Weather

You are about to take off the runway has standing water, is the FO/SO allowed to perform the take off?

A

No

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25
Q

Cold Weather

Flight Deck Window heating comes on

A

Automatically when at least one engine is running or the aircraft is in flight

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26
Q

Cold Weather

Below what temperature should the Pilots take action on low fuel temp if the a/c tanks contain Jet A fuel ?

A
  • 37°C for the inner tank; - 40°C for the outer or trim tank
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27
Q

Cold Weather
If taxiing in icing conditions with precipitation or runways and taxiways contaminated with slush or snow, when the flap/slat are confirmed free of contamination they can be retracted by using the relevant procedure before the aircraft is de-energized

A

Monitor the retraction on the ECAM page

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28
Q

Cold Weather

Clean aircraft concept means

A

Dragonair aircraft shall not takeoff when ice snow slush or frost is present on or adhering to wings control surfaces engine inlets or other critical surfaces

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29
Q

TCAS

Maximum TCAS vertical detection capability is limited to intruders flying within what vertical range ?

A

Within a maximum altitude range of 9900 ft above and below the aircraft

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30
Q

Cold Weather

Icing conditions are severe when

A

There is 5mm of ice accretion on the airframe

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31
Q

TCAS

ND indications

A

Only the 8 most threatening intruders are displayed

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32
Q

TCAS

After calculating the Closest Point of Approach (CPA), the TA and RA will be issued at the following TAU times

A

For a TA about 40s, for a RA about 25s

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33
Q

TCAS

NAV TCAS FAULT during pre-flight transit checks in HKG departing for PVG overnight pattern

A

TCAS may be inoperative provided the defect is rectified at or prior to the next HKG transit

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34
Q

TCAS

Following an ENG 1 relight the TCAS mode selector is inadvertently left on TA mode

A

All RA’s are converted to TA no vertical orders will be generated, however aural messages are generated

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35
Q

TCAS

phraseology during a RA is

A

“TCAS RA”, “clear of conflict returning to (assigned clearance altitude) and an MOR must be filled

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36
Q

Procedures

You are pushing back at HKG and halfway through the push the red lightning light starts flashing, what will happen ?

A

Ground crew will disconnect headsets the pushback will continue until completed

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37
Q

Procedures

A missed approach is mandatory if the following have not been achieved

A

The landing configuration and stabilized on the final approach path at VAPP by 1000 ft AAL (taking into account prevailing conditions), landing checklist complete.

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38
Q

TCAS

When are all RA are inhibited (RA converted to TA)

A

Below 1100 ft AGL in the climb and 900 ft in the descent

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39
Q

Procedures

The minimum midpoint RVR (if reported) for a manual landing is

A

200 m

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40
Q

Procedures

For a Cat 3 approach the Autothrust

A

Must be used in managed mode

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41
Q

Procedures

The normal touchdown zone is

A

1500 ft +/- 500 ft from landing threshold

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42
Q

Procedures

Dragonair is authorized to conduct the following approaches

A

ILS, PAR, LOC, VOR, NDB, SRA, RNAV(GPS), RNAV(GNSS)

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43
Q

Procedures

The minimum altitude and visibility for circling is

A

The higher of:
1000 ft AAL and an in flight visibility of 4600 m
The Jeppesen chart published minima

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44
Q

Procedures
Prior to commencing an ILS DME approach (DME required on Navtech plate) ATC advises the DME is U/S (GPS NAV accuracy high)

A

The approach may be flown provided the RWY threshold is inserted into the PROG page.Use of RNAV equipment is suitable as a substitute means of navigation guidance when a VOR, NDB, Locator Beacon, DME, etc are out of service or the aircraft is not equipped with conventional equipment such as ADF, or the aircraft‟s ADF is not operational. CAUTION: In the case of an ILS installation, entering the ILS identifier on the PROG page will normally give the distance to the localiser antenna. As this is located at the stop end of the runway, the distance shown on the PROG page may be different to the normal DME distance, which usually reads zero at touchdown.

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45
Q

Procedures

The port page shows standard in the noise abatement section, the ATIS is giving windshear on departure

A

Noise abatement procedures should not be conducted in conditions of significant turbulence or windshear

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46
Q

Procedures

KA approach stabilization criteria for an ILS are

A

Stabilized on GS in landing configuration by 1500ft and VAPP by 1000 ft

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47
Q

Procedures

Maximum crosswind limits in the FCOM

A

are considered as limitations and are applicable on dry runways only

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48
Q

Procedures

Arrival in forecast periods of Freezing Rain / Drizzle

A

Arrival may be planned during periods of forecast Light Freezing Rain (-FZRA) or Light Freezing Drizzle (-FZDZ).
However, if the destination forecast (including PROB, TEMPO or INTER) for the relevant period indicates the presence of Moderate or Heavy Freezing Rain (FZRA, +FZRA), or Moderate or Heavy Freezing Drizzle (FZDZ, +FZDZ), then the
nominated alternate shall not have a forecast (including PROB, TEMPO or INTER) of -FZRA, FZRA, +FZRA, -FZDZ, FZDZ, +FZDZ for the period from one hour before until one hour after the time of intended use.

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49
Q

Procedures

The Port Page does not specify an EOSID for departure, what is the minimum altitude for a turn after take off ?

A

400 ft AAL

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50
Q

Procedures

Procedures for un-serviceable CDLS state that

A

An additional crew member or authorized person must be carried to assist withdeadbolt operation.

51
Q

Procedures

Contingency procedures for aircraft requiring rapid descent in China

A

Notify ATC and request FL change, if unable contact turn 30 degrees right, establish parallel track 5NM then descend as required.

52
Q

Procedures

A navaid NOTAMed as “awaiting flight check”

A

may be used normally except where specifically stated in the NOTAMmay not

53
Q

Procedures

Stall warning at lift off the standard call is

A

Stall TOGA 15

54
Q

Systems

With an ECAM ENG 1(2) start fault

A

There is a master caution and a single chime

55
Q

Systems

The outlet hydraulic pressure of the RAT is

A

2500 PSI

56
Q

Procedures

On approach ATC advise that there is 10kts tailwind for landing, what should you do ?

A

At touchdown select maximum reverse, do not wait for the reverse green call

57
Q

Systems

During an automatic start the engine will motor with ignition and fuel off

A

Until a N3 of between 25-30 % and an EGT of below 100 degrees

58
Q

Systems

The engine can be manually dry cranked by

A

Selecting the ENG Start selector to Crank and pushing the corresponding MAN START pushbutton

59
Q

Systems

How is the thrust controlled ?

A

In forward thrust, normally EPR controls the thrustIn reverse operation, thrust is controlled as a function of N1

60
Q

Systems

The cargo doors are operated by

A

The yellow electric pump or a hand pump that pressurizes the yellow hydraulics

61
Q

Systems

The FADEC control has a function called approach idle, this comes into effect

A

During approach when the flaps are extended to 2 or greater

62
Q

Systems

If the FADEC detects a flameout on ground or in flight

A

Both igniters A + B will be automatically energized for 10 s.

63
Q

Systems

If N1exceeds 99% during a flight a red ark shows the highest N1 attained

A

The red mark will disappear fate a new start on the ground

64
Q

Systems

When thrust reversers are selected, thrust is limited to reverse idle until

A

the reversers are deployed by more than 70 %.

65
Q

Systems

To conduct a FLX takeoff the crew must

A

Enter a Flex temperature that is higher than the TAT into the MCDU and set the thrust levers to the FLX/MCT detent

66
Q

Systems
The Yellow hydraulic system has an electric pump as well as an engine driven pump, this pump will come on automatically when

A

‐ in flight, in the event of Engine 2 failure, if the FLAPS lever is not at 0 (to ensure flap retraction in a proper time at takeoff).
‐ on the ground during cargo door operation.

67
Q

Systems

The thrust reverse system is

A

Controlled electrically by the FADEC and hydraulically actuated

68
Q 
Systems
ENG 1(2) EPR MODE FAULT in flight N1DEGRADED MODE
A

Selecting the THR levers to TOGA can overboost the engine as the thrust isunrated

69
Q

Systems

The hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized, this is to avoid

A

The hydraulic pump from cavitating

70
Q

Systems

A Priority Valve is fitted to the green hydraulicsystem to:

A

Cut off supply to heavy load users in the event of low hydraulic pressure

71
Q

Systems

Switching OFF then ON the APU Master SW

A

Resets the ECB

72
Q 
Systems
ENG 1(2) REV FAULT during start
A

The warning can be considered spurious if the fault disappears after REV IDLEthen FWD IDLE selected (Ground crew and equipment clear before selection)

73
Q

Systems

Flight Deck window heating comes on

A

automatically when at least one engine is running, or in flight

74
Q

Systems

The Probe/Window Heat pushbutton when selected in flight

A

Does nothing. It is only to supply power to the probes and windows on the ground

75
Q

Systems

The APU may be started and operated with the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory displayed

A

Maintenance action is due within the next 15h of APU operation

76
Q

Systems

The hydraulics reservoirs are normally pressurized from

A

Engine 1 HP bleed air

77
Q

Systems

If there is excessive pressure loss across the main oil scavenger filter

A

CLOG appears on the ENG page

78
Q

Systems
During cargo door operation the yellow hydraulic system supplies pressure to open and close the cargo door, during this time

A

The leak measurement valve is automatically closed, the only other yellow system device that can operate is Engine 2 reverse. An SFCC inhibition prevents any flap movement.

79
Q

Systems

The APU

A

can be used to start the engines in flight

80
Q

Systems

High engine vibration in icing conditions

A

If the ENG ANTI ICE is off switch on at idle fan speed one ENG after the other with approximately 30s interval

81
Q

Systems

Following an EPR malfunction the FADEC would revert to N1 Rated or N1 Unrated ModeI. In either case:

A

Autothrust control is lost. Alpha-floor protection is lost.

82
Q

Weather Radar

In order for any target to be displayed it must be radar reflective, the 3 most reflective agents are

A

Ground clutter/Wet hail/Rain

83
Q

Weather Radar

A solid red return on the radar with auto gain indicates an area of rainfall rate

A

Greater than 12 mm/h

84
Q

Weather Radar

What is the maximum practical detection range of the weather radar?

A

160 NM

85
Q

Weather Radar

What is the avoidance rule for weather displayed on the radar?

A

Do not plan to overfly cells
A cell displayed inside 40 NM range with normal tilt should be avoided by at least 20 NM
Avoid tracking downwind of the cell

86
Q

Weather Radar

With Honeywell RDR 4000 during level flight the ON PATH Enveloppe extends from

A

4000 ft above to 4000 ft below the aircraft altitude Lower envelope 25 000 ft above FL 290Upper envelope 10 000 below 6 000 ft

87
Q

Weather Radar

Honeywell RDR 4000 CAP display mode selector and FO display mode selector ELEVN mode, the weather radar shows

A

ND displays the weather data at a selected altitude only PWS is enabledTurbulence display is not available

88
Q

Weather Radar

To find the best indication of storm intensity the radar beam should be

A

Towards the bottom 2 sections of a storm where the temperature is warmer than -15 degrees

89
Q

Weather Radar

With Honeywell RDR 4000 the radar is scanning when

A

The flight crew sets 1 radar to ON and selects the display mode selector to ALL, ON PATH, ELEVN or MAP or when the PWS activation condition are satisfied

90
Q

Weather Radar

What is an appropriate tilt setting during cruise for a standard (not multiscan) radar ?

A

A negative tilt setting that maintains ground return on top of the ND

91
Q

Weather Radar

Honeywell RDR 4000 CAP display mode selector and FO display mode selector ON PATH

A

the ND displays ON PATH weather only, PWS and Turbulence display are available.

92
Q

Weather Radar

Honeywell RDR 4000 CAP display mode selector and FO display mode selector ALL

A

the ND displays ON PATH and OFF path weather, PWS and Turbulence display are available.

93
Q

Limitations

What is Mmo

A

M 0.86

94
Q

Limitations

The maximum crosswind component for landing on a wet runway is

A

40kts (gust included)

95
Q

ETOPS

The minimum fire category required for a nominated enroute airport for ETOPS is

A

RFF 4

96
Q

ETOPS

The CAD approved maximum diversion time is

A

120 minutes

97
Q

Limitations

What is the maximum allowable wing fuel imbalance on inner tanks, heavy tank full (outer tanks balanced)?

A

2900 kg

98
Q

ETOPS

APU health monitoring requirements

A

Cruise above FL 300
Sector time of more than 3h
Record the number of start attempts in the AML

99
Q

ETOPS

ERA (enroute alternate)

A

If the departure or destination is used to support an ETOPS route segment the ETOPS (ERA) planning criteria also apply

100
Q

ETOPS

Any MEL item which affects ETOPS capabilitywill

A

Be recorded in the Aircraft Maintenance Log (AML) as a PADD

101
Q

ETOPS

Critical fuel scenario includes

A

15 minutes holding fuel

30 minutes for non ETOPS flights

102
Q

ETOPS

Following dispatch of the aircraft if weather updates are not available through ATC, ATIS, HF VOLMET, ACARS

A

Crew are to seek assistance from IOC

103
Q

Part A

The minimum number of Cabin Crew can be found in:

A

Chapter 4

104
Q

ETOPS

At the planning stage the ceiling and visibility required for an ETOPS enroute alternate is

A

At or above the minima for filling as an alternate

105
Q

Part A
At Hong Kong the ground agent advise you that 4 passengers and their bags have been offloaded totaling 400kg. They are ready to close the doors which of the following is true ?

A

Close doors and await a new loadsheet. Upon receipt acknowledge through ACARS pre flight menu and sign the aircraft copy.

106
Q

Part A

Are PAR approved in the USA?

A

No

107
Q

Part A

You are expecting an LMC of 1100kg departing HK with CLC operations, what should happen ?

A

A new loadsheet will be produced with a new EDNO

108
Q

Part A

Part A defines a crewmember as

A

A person assigned by an operator to duty on an aircraft during flight time

109
Q

Part A

To increase alertness crew should:

A

eat light snacks at a 3 or 4 hour intervals.

110
Q

Reporting

A comprehensive list of events requiring an MOR can be found in

A

CAD 382

111
Q

Reporting

A spurious GPWS warning is activated in descent

A

An ASR should be raised and CSQ will upgrade if necessary

112
Q

Dangerous Goods

The commander must not sign a NOTOC until

A

The Certification Clause is completed

113
Q

Reporting

After a commander becomes incapacitated, after the flight has landed the pilot who assumed command must

A

Notify operations and file an MOR

114
Q

Reporting

The duty engineering manager can be contacted through

A

IOC

116
Q

Flight Time Limitations

According to FTL when is a legstretch pilot required ?

A

2 or more sectors with a combined sector time in excess of 8.5h and 1 of these sectors encroaching on the time period 0200-0559Or1 scheduled sector time in excess of 9h

117
Q

Dangerous Goods

Comprehensive information on NOTOC can be found in

A

Chapter 9

118
Q

Flight Time Limitations

When reserve duty is undertaken at home and a flight member is called out for duty

A

The maximum FDP shall be based on the Local Time of start in Table A and shall start at the Actual Report Time.

119
Q

Flight Time Limitations

F/O acting as legstretch pilot

A

Is allowed to act as PM in the left seat. This will allow the commander to leave the cockpit for a maximum time of 30 minutes.

120
Q

Security

With regard to an incident inflight involving an unruly passenger what statement is correct

A

The commander will report the incident on the CAR attention Line OPS/CSQ/SEC

121
Q

Procedures

Additional restrictions to flight crew members

A

A newly promoted captain doesn’t have to add increment to the LVO minimums

122
Q

Security

The policy for handling passengers who refuse to disembark has 4 stages, which of the following is stage 2 ?

A

Passengers are still refusing to disembark after 5 minutes

123
Q

Security

What are the 4 security threat levels ?

A

1 disruptive behavior
2 Physical abusive behavior
3 Life threatening behavior
4 Attempted breach or actual breach of the flight deck

125
Q

Security

If police need to meet the aircraft how is this requested?

A

An ACARS is sent IOC: “OPS- UNRULY PAX- Nature of incident number of paxinvolved-REQUEST POLICE TO MEET AIRCRAFT ON ARRIVAL”.

A330 (16 decks)

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