Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A-LEVEL PSYCHOLOGY (AQA) ADVANCED INFO > PAPER 2 - Research Methods > Flashcards

PAPER 2 - Research Methods Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Psychology 101 flashcards GRE® Psychology flashcards AP® Psychology flashcards
1
Q

What is an INDEPEDENT VARIABLE ?

A

variable that is manipulated by the researcher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give an example of an independent variable

A

pps consume either 0.5 units or 2 units of alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a DEPENDENT VARIABLE ?

A

the variable that is measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Give an example of a dependent variable

A

reaction time in a driving stimulator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are EXTRANEOUS VARIABLES ?

A

a variable the might affect your DV - they are identified before the study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Give an example of an extraneous variable

A

room temp, time of day, task given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are CONFOUNDING VARIABLES ?

A

type of extraneous variable that isn’t controlled and affect the DV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Give an example of a confounding variable

A

number of years driving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the OPERATIONALISATION of variables ?

A

how the variables are made measurable - drawing out the most important elements of the variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Give an example of the operationalisation of variables

A

intelligence is a very broad term - to make it measurable we could use a specific intelligence test that measures certain elements of personality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are DEMAND CHARACTERISTICS ?

A

when the pp works out how the researcher wants them to behave - can be conscious or unconscious - reduces internal validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name 2 ways of reducing demand characteristics

A
  • use different pp in each condition (INDEPENDENT GROUPS)

- use SINGLE BLIND TECHNIQUE where the pp does not know which condition of the experiment they are assigned to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are INVESTIGATOR EFFECTS ?

A

when the researcher influences the results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are EXPECTATION EFFECTS ?

A

when a researcher is DEEPLY COMMITTED to achieving a particular outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name one method of reducing investigator effects

A

DOUBLE BLING TECHNIQUE - where neither the pp or research know the aim and/or condition of the study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 3 experimental methods ?

A

lab / field / natural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 3 key features of a lab method ?

A
  • direct manipulation of IV
  • control
  • randomisation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of a lab method ?

A

EASY REPLICATED - high control - able to check reliability

INTERNAL VALIDITY - easier to control confounding variables - able to establish cause and effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the LIMITATIONS of a lab method ?

A

ECOLOGICAL VALIDITY - high levels of control - generalisability

DEMAND CHARACTERISTICS - pp know they are being researched - reduces internal validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the key features of a field method ?

A
  • natural environment
  • still an IV and DV
  • attempt to control extraneous variables
  • cause and effect can be established because pp is unaware they are observed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of a field method ?

A

ECOLOGICAL VALIDITY - behaviour is representative of everyday life - generalisable

DEMAND CHARACTERISTICS - do not know they are taking part - increases internal validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the LIMITATIONS of a field method

A

TIME CONSUMING - small amount of people at certain times - reduced population validity

CONTROL - may be uncontrolled extraneous variables - reduces internal validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the key features of a natural method ?

A
  • no control over IV

- pp already assigned to a condition of the IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of a natural method ?

A

ECOLOGICAL VALIDITY - generalise

DEMAND CHARACTERISTICS - increases the internal validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the LIMITATIONS of a natural method ?

A

REPLICABLE - internal validity

CONTROL - not possible to predict everything - internal validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a QUASI EXPERIMENT

A

use a pre-existing IV - one that exists e.g. character trait such as gender / age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the 3 types of experimental design ?

A

repeated measure
independent groups
matched pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a REPEATED MEASURE design ?

A

all the pp take part in each condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of a repeated measure design ?

A

LESS PPS NEEDED

PPS VARIABLES AREN’T AN ISSUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the LIMITATIONS of a repeated measure design ?

A

ORDER EFFECTS

DEMAND CHARACTERISTICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is an INDEPENDENT GROUPS design ?

A

different pps take part in each condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of an independent groups design ?

A

ORDER EFFECTS

DEMAND CHARACTERISTICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the LIMITATIONS of an independent groups design ?

A

PPS VARIABLES

LOST OF PPS NEEDED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a MATCHED PAIRS design ?

A

different pps take part in each condition but they are matched on characteristics e.g. gender / age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of a matched pairs design ?

A

PPS VARIABLES

DEMAND CHARACTERISTICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the LIMITATIONS of a matched pairs design ?

A

TIME CONSUMING

LOTS OF PPS NEEDED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How could you deal with the limitations of a repeated measures design ?

A

COUNTERBALANCING - complete conditions in different order to BALANCE OUT any differences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How could you deal with the limitations of an independent groups design ?

A

RANDOMLY ALLOCATE to condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How could you deal with the limitations of a matched pairs design ?

A

PILOT STUDY - consider variables that could be used to match pps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the FATIGUE EFFECT ?

A

deterioration of performance across condition as the pp becomes tired or bored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the PRACTICE EFFECT ?

A

improvement across condition through familiarity of the task or environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is RANDOM ALLOCATION ?

A

(independent groups) - control pp variables - same chance of being allocated to either condition - names in a hat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is COUNTERBALANCING ?

A

(repeated measure) - complete conditions in different order - balance out differences among pps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is RANDOMISATION ?

A

presenting stimuli in a random order to avoid bias - methods may include tossing a coin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is STANDARDISATION ?

A

pps have EXACTLY THE SAME EXPERIENCE - methods may include written instructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a NATURALISTIC OBSERVATION ?

A

observing naturally occurring behaviours - natural setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of a naturalistic observation ?

A

EXTERNAL VALIDITY - ecological validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the LIMITATIONS of a naturalistic observation ?

A

EXTRANEOUS VARIABLES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a CONTROLLED OBSERVATION ?

A

researcher attempts to control certain variables - pps know they are being observed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of a controlled observation ?

A

CONTROL - able to replicate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the LIMITATIONS of a controlled observation ?

A

EXTERNAL VALIDITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is an OVERT OBSERVATION ?

A

in the open - pps aware they are being observed, nature + purpose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of an overt observation ?

A

ETHICS - easier to replicate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the LIMITATION of an overt observation ?

A

DEMAND CHARACTERISTICS - reduces validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is a COVERT OBSERVATION ?

A

pps do not know they are being observed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of a covert observation ?

A

DEMAND CHARACTERISTICS - increases validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the LIMITATIONS of a covert observation ?

A

ETHICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is a PARTICIPANT OBSERVATION ?

A

observer joins in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of a participant observation ?

A

UNDERSTAND BEHAVIOUR - increases validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the LIMITATIONS of a participant observation ?

A

DEVELOP RAPPORT - reduces objectivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is a NON-PARTICIPANT OBSERVATION ?

A

researcher remains external

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of a non-participant observation ?

A

OBJECTIVE - no investigator effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the LIMITATIONS of a non-participant observation ?

A

VALUABLE DATA IS MISSED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are BEHAVIOURAL CATEGORIES ?

A

how researcher operationalises - researcher knows what constitutes the behaviour being observed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Give an example of a behavioural category

A

if you were observing AGGRESSIVE behaviour, the researcher would need to know what constitutes as aggressive such as kicking, punching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the two SAMPLING PROCEDURES ?

A

event sampling

time sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is EVENT SAMPLING ?

A

watching the event and recording every time a specific behaviour occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is TIME SAMPLING ?

A

recording behaviour at set time intervals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the two self-report techniques ?

A

questionnaire

interview

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is a SELF-REPORT technique ?

A

allows pps to PROVIDE INFORMATION about specific thing relating to themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is a QUESTIONNAIRE ?

A

printed series of questions used to gather opinions around a certain topic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Name methods that can be used to distribute questionnaires

A

post / telephone / internet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Is it important to get a large representative sample of questionnaires ? Why ?

A

yes - to make a generalisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is a CLOSED QUESTION ?

A

produce QUANTITATIVE data - ticking boxes / circling answers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is an OPEN QUESTION ?

A

produces QUALITATIVE data - difficult to analyse - not restricted in available answers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is a LEADING QUESTION ?

A

should be avoided - choice of wording suggests a certain answer should be given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of a questionnaire ?

A

SIMPLICITY - minimum of training - easy to analyse - researcher doesn’t need to be present

INTERPERSONAL VARIABLES - more likely to answer honestly - internal validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the LIMITATIONS of a questionnaire ?

A

WORDING OF QUESTIONS - pps may interpret question wrong - leading questions may influence response - internal validity

RESPONSE RATE - 30% or less - appeal to those who like the research topic - population validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are STRUCTURED INTERVIEWS ?

A
  • same questions
  • same order
  • useful of teams of interviewers
  • comparisons can be made
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are SEMI-STRUCTURED INTERVIEWS ?

A
  • flexible in order
  • flow more naturally
  • personal response
  • follow-up questions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are UNSTRUCTURED INTERVIEWS ?

A
  • informal
  • conversation about the topic
  • interviewee largely in control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of interviews ?

A

ACCURATE DATA - rapport - more honest answers - ask for clarification - training reduces leading questions - internal validity

DETAILED DATA - open ended questions - clarify meaning - develop understanding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the LIMITATIONS of the interviews ?

A

HARD TO ANALYSE - qual. data - subjective - different researchers interpret data differently - reduces validity

INTERPERSONAL VARIABLES - reducing internal validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is a CORRELATION ?

A

relationship between two things

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the correlation coefficient numbers ?

A

+1 perfect positive correlation

-1 perfect negative correlation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is a POSITIVE CORRELATION ?

A
  • as one variable increases so does the other
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is a weak positive correlation ?

A

r = +0.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is a strong positive correlation ?

A

r = +0.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is a NEGATIVE CORRELATION ?

A
  • as one variable increases the other decreases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is a weak negative correlation ?

A

r = -0.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is a strong negative correlation ?

A

r = -0.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is ZERO CORRELATION ?

A

no relationship between two variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What figure would show zero correlation ?

A 
r = -0.02
r = +0.06
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the FIRST difference between an experiment and a correlation ?

A 
E = manipulation of IV
C = no deliberate change to any variable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the SECOND difference between an experiment and a correlation ?

A 
E = DV is measured 
C = impact on one variable is not measured - comparison is made between 2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the THIRD difference between an experiment and a correlation ?

A 
E = establish cause and effect
C = cannot establish cause and effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of correlations ?

A

DIRECTION - precise quantitative measure of the strength of the relationship - researcher knows whether to carry out experiment

STATISTICALLY ANALYSE - not all situations can be ethically experimented e.g. aggression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are the LIMITATIONS of correlations ?

A

CAUSE AND EFFECT - may be third variable e.g. divorce is the reason a child is both aggressive and in day car - need to be careful when drawing conclusions

NONLINEAR RELATIONSHIPS - correlation might initially be positive but then become negative, the two relationships cancel each other out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is CONTENT ANALYSIS ?

A

changing qualitative data into quantitative data using a coding unit (s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is a CODING UNIT ?

A

specific behaviours / words / phrases that you are going to count in the material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is a TOP DOWN coding unit ?

A

decided BEFORE content analysis using pre-existing coding units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is a BOTTOM UP coding unit ?

A

decided AFTER you have viewed the material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of content analysis ?

A

LARGE AMOUNTS OF QUALITATIVE DATA QUICKLY - more representative results

EASY TO TEST FOR RELIABILITY - inter-rater tests - more objective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are the LIMITATIONS of content analysis ?

A

BIAS - researcher chooses coding units - reduces internal validity

MAY NOT BE ACCURATELY ANALYSED - behaviour that does not fit coding unit will be ignored - reduces internal validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is a CASE STUDY ?

A

in-depth study over time of a ‘case’ which is usually an individual or small group

106
Q

What is an example of a case study ?

A

CLIVE WEARING

  • contracted Herpes Simplex virus
  • attacked the brain
  • unable to process new memories
  • unable to control emotions
107
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of case studies ?

A

RICH DATA - provide valuable new data

ETHICS - privation

108
Q

What are the LIMITATIONS of case studies ?

A

RELIABILITY - unlikely to be replicated - relies on pps memory being accurate

SUBJECTIVE - relationships may be established - biased - not be a true reflection

109
Q

What is a PILOT STUDY ?

A

small scale study - make sure materials / procedures are suitable

110
Q

What issues need to be identified in a pilot study of an experiment ?

A
  • materials
  • timings
  • instructions
111
Q

What issues need to be identified in a pilot study of an observation ?

A
  • behavioural checklist
  • covert position
  • cctv
  • inter-observer ratings
112
Q

What issues need to be identified in a pilot study of an interview ?

A
  • questions

- recording method

113
Q

What are the benefits of carrying out pilot studies ?

A
  • makes sure observations are reliable

- saves time and money

114
Q

What is a TARGET POPULATION ?

A
  • group of people who share a set of characteristics

- large

115
Q

What is a SAMPLE ?

A
  • subset of the target population
116
Q

What is the aim of finding a sample ?

A
  • representative of target population

- larger the sample the more accurate (not always)

117
Q

What is an OPPORTUNITY SAMPLE ?

A

selecting those who are readily available

118
Q

OPPORTUNITY SAMPLE : EXAMPLE

A

going to the common room to look for students

119
Q

OPPORTUNITY SAMPLE : BIAS

A

researcher bias - researcher chooses sample

120
Q

OPPORTUNITY SAMPLE : GENERALISABILITY

A

unlikely - everyone who doesn’t have science will be in the common room

121
Q

What is a RANDOM SAMPLE ?

A

all the members of the target population have an equal chance of being selected

122
Q

RANDOM SAMPLE : EXAMPLE

A

pulling names from a hat

123
Q

RANDOM SAMPLE : BIAS

A

free from researcher bias

124
Q

RANDOM SAMPLE : GENERALISABILITY

A

should be generaliseable but there is a chance you get a majority of males / females

125
Q

What is a SYSTEMIC SAMPLE ?

A

putting pps in an order and selecting every nth from the list

126
Q

SYSTEMIC SAMPLE : EXAMPLE

A

selecting every 5th name from the register

127
Q

SYSTEMIC SAMPLE : BIAS

A

free from researcher bias

128
Q

SYSTEMIC SAMPLE : GENERALISABILITY

A

should be representative but some small groups e.g. language students may be missed

129
Q

What is a STRATIFIED SAMPLE ?

A

same proportion of people in the target population will be represented in the sample

130
Q

STRATIFIED SAMPLE : EXAMPLE

A

Target population = 50% male / 50% female

Sample = 50% male / 50% female

131
Q

STRATIFIED SAMPLE : BIAS

A

free from researcher bias

132
Q

STRATIFIED SAMPLE : GENERALISABILITY

A

most generalisable because all groups will be represented

133
Q

What is a VOLUNTEER SAMPLE ?

A

place an advert asking for volunteers

134
Q

VOLUNTEER SAMPLE : EXAMPLE

A

puting an advert in a food magazine to attract chefs

135
Q

VOLUNTEER SAMPLE : BIAS

A

volunteer bias - they are choosing to take part so it is likely they are all interested in the topic being researched

136
Q

VOLUNTEER SAMPLE : GENERALISABILITY

A

unlikely - not be representative of all types of people

137
Q

What is an AIM ?

A
  • general statement
  • what is being investigated
  • developed from previous theories
138
Q

Give an investigation of aim

A

an investigation into whether the level of processing involved affects whether the information is remembered

139
Q

What is a HYPOTHESIS ?

A
  • formulated after the aim

- prediction about the outcome

140
Q

What is a NULL HYPOTHESIS ?

A

states there will no difference / correlation

141
Q

When is an EXPERIMENTAL HYPOTHESIS used ?

A

when an experimental method has been carried out and there is an IV and a DV

142
Q

When is a NON_EXPERIMENTAL HYPOTHESIS used ?

A

when there is no IV or DV e.g. correlation / observation

143
Q

What is a DIRECTIONAL HYPOTHESIS ?

A
  • predicts the direction
  • more / less / greater
  • lots of previous research
144
Q

What is a NON-DIRECTIONAL HYPOTHESIS ?

A
  • does not predict the direction

- little existing research

145
Q

What is INFORMED CONSENT ?

A
  • the investigator should inform all pps of the objectives
  • inform pps of all aspects of the research
  • safeguarding for those with special needs
146
Q

What is DECEPTION ?

A
  • unacceptable to withhold information

- intentional deception should be avoided where possible

147
Q

What is PROTECTION FROM PARTICIPANTS ?

A
  • pps must not be harmed (physiological or psychological)
148
Q

What is RIGHT TO WITHDRAW ?

A
  • pps can withdraw at any time
  • results can be withdrawn
  • should not be told they cannot withdraw
149
Q

What is DEBRIEFING ?

A
  • pps should leave as entered
  • researcher should discuss their experience
  • re-explain aims / objectives
150
Q

What is CONFIDENTIALITY ?

A
  • any information gained must remain confidential

- pps have the right to know their data will remain confidential

151
Q

What should you write in a CONSENT FORM ?

A
  • topic
  • expected to do
  • anything that might affect willingness to participate
  • confidential
  • withdraw
  • place to sign
  • place for questions
152
Q

What should you write in a DEBRIEFING FORM ?

A
  • thank you
  • specific hypothesis
  • what you expect to find
  • withdraw
  • how to contact you
  • source of support
  • questions
153
Q

What are the methods of dealing with deception ?

A
  • give full debriefing
  • pps told what their results will be used for
  • pps have right to withdraw data
154
Q

What are the methods of dealing with informed consent ?

A
  • pps should be given a consent letter
155
Q

What is PRESUMPTIVE CONSENT ?

A

similar group of people are asked if the experiment is acceptable

156
Q

What is PRIOR GENERAL CONSENT ?

A

pps give consent to a number of studies

157
Q

What is RETROSPECTIVE CONSENT ?

A

pps are asked for consent (during debriefing) having already taken part

158
Q

What are the methods of dealing with protection from harm ?

A
  • pps should be reassured their behaviour is normal

- may require counselling

159
Q

What are the methods of dealing with confidentiality ?

A
  • personal data must be protected

- pps real names must not be used e.g. numbers

160
Q

What is COST BENEFIT ANALYSIS ?

A
  • researcher ways pros against cons

- may be looked at from pp point of view

161
Q

What is the ETHICS COMMITTEE ?

A
  • approve any study before it begins

- consider possible ethical issues and how the researcher could deal with them

162
Q

What is a PEER REVIEW ?

A
  • psychology papers under INDEPENDENT SCRUTINY

- consider validity, significance and originality

163
Q

What is an OPEN peer review ?

A

both the researcher and the reviewer are known to each other

164
Q

What is a SINGLE BLIND peer review ?

A

the reviewer known the researcher

165
Q

What is a DOUBLE BLIND peer review ?

A

neither the researcher nor the reviewer knows who the other is

166
Q

What is the PURPOSE of a peer review ?

A

HIGH QUALITY - highest quality of research

CONTRIBUTION - important contribution to the scientific field

GENUINE - refers to relevant research by other psychologists

167
Q

What are the LIMITATIONS of a peer review ?

A

INTEGRITY - allow the reviewer to research the issue OR the work has already been plagiarised

BIAS TOWARDS POSITIVE FINDINGS - ‘file-drawer problem’

TIME CONSUMING - months to review and send back with suggestions, can take years if adjustments need to be made

168
Q

What does RELIABILITY measure ?

A

consistency

169
Q

What are 2 ways of measuring reliability ?

A

test - retest method / inter - observer reliability

170
Q

What is the TEST-RETEST METHOD ?

A
  • person is given same test / interview etc but a few weeks later (long enough so pp doesn’t remember answer)
  • outcome should be similar every time
  • correlation can be carried out between the scores
171
Q

What is the INTER-OBSERVER METHOD ?

A
  • checks to see each observer is interpreting the behavioural categories in the same way
  • measure the extent to which DIFFERENT OBSERVERS get SIMILAR RESULTS for the SAME PPS
  • sets of results are correlated
172
Q

What is EXTERNAL RELIABILITY ?

A

extent to which a measure varies from one use to another

173
Q

What is INTERNAL RELIABILITY ?

A

extent to which a measure is consistent with itself

174
Q

How would you test the reliability of an EXPERIMENT ?

A

test-retest method

175
Q

How could a researcher improve the reliability of an EXPERIMENT ?

A
  • variables are operasionalised
  • tight control of extraneous variables
  • clearly described materials
  • in-depth method section
  • standardised instructions
176
Q

How would you test the reliability of an OBSERVATION ?

A

inter-observer reliability

177
Q

How would you improve the reliability of an OBSERVATION ?

A
  • multiple observers (good training)
  • coding system
  • clear behavioural checklist
  • filming behaviour
178
Q

How would you assess the reliability of a SELF-REPORT ?

A

split-half method

179
Q

How would you improve the reliability of a SELF-REPORT ?

A
  • pilot study
  • check questions are non-ambiguous
  • trained interviewers
180
Q

What is the SPLIT-HALF METHOD ?

A

measure the extent to which all part of the test contribute equally to what is being measured

181
Q

What does VALIDITY measure ?

A

accuracy

182
Q

What is INTERNAL VALIDITY ?

A
  • what goes on inside the study

- sees if the researcher tested what they intended to test

183
Q

What are the two methods of testing internal validity ?

A
  • face validity

- concurrent validity

184
Q

What is FACE VALIDITY ?

A
  • tests internal validity

- whether at face value the study appears to measure what it should have done

185
Q

What is CONCURRENT VALIDITY ?

A
  • tests internal validity

- compares new measures against previously validated measures

186
Q

What is EXTERNAL VALIDITY ?

A
  • concerned with factors outside the study

- the extent to which the findings can be generalised

187
Q

What are the two ways of testing external validity ?

A

ecological validity

temporal validity

188
Q

What is TEMPORAL VALIDITY ?

A
  • extent to which we can generalise to other time periods

e. g. is a 1950s study applicable to behaviour today ?

189
Q

How can you improve internal validity in an EXPERIMENT ?

A
  • operationalise variables
  • control extraneous variables
  • adapt IV or DV
190
Q

How can you improve the external validity of an EXPERIMENT ?

A
  • change sampling technique
  • replication with different sample will improve population validity
  • making IV and DV true to real life
191
Q

How can you improve the internal validity of an OBSERVATION ?

A
  • multiple observers
  • well trained observers
  • validated coding system
  • check behavioural checklist
192
Q

How can you improve the external validity of an OBSERVATION ?

A
  • observe as many people as possible
  • covert observation
  • adjust behavioural checklist
193
Q

How can you improve the internal validity of an QUESTIONNAIRE ?

A
  • questions should be a valid representation of the behaviour being studied
194
Q

How can you improve the external validity of a QUESTIONNAIRE ?

A
  • accessible e.g. complete online

- updated to suit contemporary society

195
Q

What are the 5 features of science ?

A
  • objectivity
  • theory construction
  • hypothesis testing
  • replication
  • falsifiability
196
Q

What is OBJECTIVITY ?

A
  • expectation should not affect what they record
  • stop any personal prejudice
  • standardised instructions / operationalised variables / double blind technique
197
Q

What is the EMPIRICAL METHOD ?

A

using research evidence to help develop and find support for theories

198
Q

What is THEORY CONSTRUCTION ?

A
  • using facts to construct theories
  • collection of general principles
  • must be testable and falsifiable
199
Q

What is HYPOTHESIS TESTING ?

A
  • testing to see if a researcher hypothesis is true or not
  • formed from previous research
  • researcher gathers evidence which helps to develop and inform the theory
200
Q

What is the RESEARCH CYCLE ?

A

theory - devise hypothesis - test theory using appropriate method - analyse results and compare to hypothesis and theory

201
Q

What is REPLICATION ?

A
  • results could have been a fluke
  • all details of a study need to be published
  • compare results
202
Q

What is FALSIFIABILITY ?

A
  • needs to be able to be empirically tested to see if it false
203
Q

What is QUANTITATIVE DATA ?

A
  • numerical data

- analysed using statistical techniques

204
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of QUANTITATIVE DATA ?

A

OBJECTIVE:

  • does not require interpretation
  • less prone to bias

EASY TO ANALYSE:

  • computer programmes
  • allows larger sample size = generalisable
205
Q

What are the WEAKNESSES of QUANTITATIVE DATA ?

A

DOESN’T TELL US WHY:

  • cause and effect
  • hard to make PRACTICAL APPLICATIONS

NARROW:

  • only certain behaviour can be measured this way
  • reduces the SCOPE OF STUDY
206
Q

What is QUALITATIVE DATA ?

A
  • detailed information

- themes in pps responses

207
Q

What are the STRENGTHS of QUALITATIVE DATA ?

A

RICH DETAIL:
- more representative of real life

CAN EXPLAIN WHY:

  • cause and effect
  • develop more accurate theories
  • practical applications
208
Q

What are the WEAKNESSES of QUALITATIVE DATA ?

A

SUBJECTIVE

  • open to interpretation
  • bias
  • reduces VALIDITY

DIFFICULT TO ANALYSE

  • transcripts have to be written
  • time consuming
  • smaller sample size = not generalisable
209
Q

What is the MEAN ?

A
  • average

- adding all the scores up and dividing by number of scores

210
Q

What are the ADVANTAGES of the MEAN ?

A
  • most SENSITIVE and REPRESENTATIVE

- takes all scores into account

211
Q

What are the DISADVANTAGES of the MEAN ?

A
  • distorted by EXTREME SCORES

- UNREPRESENTATIVE

212
Q

What is the MEDIAN ?

A
  • middle score
213
Q

What are the ADVANTAGES of the MEDIAN ?

A
  • unaffected by EXTREME SCORES
214
Q

What are the DISADVANTAGES of the MEDIAN ?

A
  • only looks at one or two scores

- generally used with ORDINAL DATA

215
Q

What is the MODE ?

A
  • most frequent
216
Q

What are the ADVANTAGES of the MODE ?

A
  • unaffected by EXTREME SCORES
217
Q

What are the DISADVANTAGES of the MODE ?

A
  • affected by the change in one score
  • UNREPRESENTATIVE
  • used with NOMINAL DATA
218
Q

What are the 3 MEASURES of CENTRAL TENDENCY ?

A
  • mean
  • median
  • mode
219
Q

What is a MEASURE of CENTRAL TENDENCY ?

A
  • provides a SINGLE VALUE which is REPRESENTATIVE pf a set of numbers by implicating the most TYPICAL VALUE
220
Q

What are the 2 MEASURES of DISPERSION ?

A
  • range

- standard deviation

221
Q

What is the RANGE ?

A
  • difference between the highest and lowest scores and adding 1 (allows for any rounding that has occurred)
222
Q

What are the ADVANTAGES of the RANGE ?

A
  • quick to calculate

- takes account for EXTREME VALUES

223
Q

What are the DISADVANTAGES of the RANGE ?

A
  • doesn’t provide an idea around the distribution of values around the centre
  • does account for INDIVIDUAL VALUES
  • affected by EXTREME SCORES
224
Q

What is STANDARD DEVIATION ?

A
  • VARIABILITY of scores from its MEAN
225
Q

What are the ADVANTAGES of STANDARD DEVIATION ?

A
  • considers ALL the scores

- sensitive

226
Q

What are the DISADVANTAGES of STANDARD DEVIATION ?

A
  • difficult to calculate
  • less meaningful if data isn’t normally distributed
  • distorted by EXTREME SCORES
227
Q

What are BAR CHARTS ?

A
  • vertical bars of equal distance apart

- nominal data

228
Q

What is a HISTOGRAM ?

A
  • shows distribution of scores
  • continuous scale
  • ordinal / interval data
229
Q

What is a SCATTERGRAM ?

A
  • plotting correlations

- visual image

230
Q

What are TABLES used for ?

A
  • descriptive statistics or percentages
231
Q

What is a NORMAL DISTRIBUTION ?

A
  • data is symmetrical

- forms bell-shaped curve on graph

232
Q

What is a SKEWED DISTRIBUTION ?

A
  • data is NOT symmetrical
233
Q

What is a POSITIVE SKEW ?

A
  • mean moves to the RIGHT

- HIGHER SCORING pps have moved mean to the right

234
Q

What is an example of a POSITIVE SKEW ?

A

a hard test where most students didn’t score very well

235
Q

What is a NEGATIVE SKEW ?

A
  • mean moves to the LEFT

- LOWER SCORING pps have moved the mean to the left

236
Q

What is an example of a NEGATIVE SKEW ?

A

a test which was easy and most students scored well

237
Q

What is NOMINAL DATA ?

A
  • counting frequency data
  • separate categories
  • each piece of data can only go into one category
238
Q

What is an example of NOMINAL DATA ?

A

counting whether pps are happy or sad

239
Q

What is ORDINAL DATA ?

A
  • rating on a scale
240
Q

What is an example of ORDINAL DATA ?

A
  • John came first, Fred came second, Brian came third
241
Q

What is INTERVAL / RATIO DATA ?

A
  • similar to ordinal

- has a UNIT e.g. grams

242
Q

What is an example of INTERVAL / RATIO DATA ?

A
  • measure time in seconds
243
Q

What are INFERENTIAL STATISTICS ?

A
  • allow researchers to draw conclusions about their research
244
Q

What is PROBABILITY ?

A
  • psychologists need to mathematically express the likelihood their result occurred due to chance
245
Q

What 3 factors determine the choice of statistical test ?

A
  • difference or relationship ?
  • experimental design type ?
  • type of data ?
246
Q

What is a TYPE I ERROR ?

A
  • null hypothesis is rejected when it should have been accepted
  • FALSE POSITIVE
  • significant level isn’t harsh enough
247
Q

What is a TYPE II ERROR ?

A
  • null hypothesis is accepted when it should have been rejected
  • FALSE NEGATIVE
  • significant level is too harsh
248
Q

Why do we use a 5% significant level ?

A

strikes a balance between making type I and type II errors

249
Q

when designing a study what 3 things should be included ?

A
  • DESIGN - experimental design, variables, controls
  • MATERIALS - any special materials
  • DATA ANALYSIS - reference descriptive and inferential analysis
250
Q

in order to know what statistical test to use, what 3 things should you ask yourself ?

A
  • am i looking for a DIFFERENCE or RELATIONSHIP ?
  • what is my EXPERIMENTAL DESIGN ?
  • what type of DATA do i have (nominal / ordinal / interval)
251
Q

NOMINAL + UNRELATED DESIGN (independent groups) =

A

CHI-SQUARE

252
Q

NOMINAL + RELATED DESIGN (repeated measure / matched pairs) =

A

SIGN TEST

253
Q

NOMINAL + CORRELATION =

A

CHI-SQUARE

254
Q

ORDINAL + UNRELATED DESIGN =

A

MANN-WHITNEY

255
Q

ORDINAL + RELATED DESIGN =

A

WILCOX

256
Q

ORDINAL + CORRELATION =

A

SPEARMAN’S RHO

257
Q

INTERVAL + UNRELATED DESIGN =

A

UNRELATED t-TEST / INDEPENDENT t-TEST

258
Q

INTERVAL + RELATED DESIGN =

A

REALTED t-TEST

259
Q

INTERVAL + CORRELATION =

A

PEARSON’S R

260
Q

How could you deal with the limitations of a repeated measure design

A

COUNTERBALANCING

  • splits pps so they complete different levels of the IV in a different order
  • balance out order effects
261
Q

How could you deal with the limitations of an indepedent groups design ?

A

RANDOM ALLOCATION

- pps randomly allocated condition to distribute them evenly

262
Q

How could you deal with the limitations of a matched pairs design ?

A

PILOT STUDY

- consider key variables that may effect the DV

A-LEVEL PSYCHOLOGY (AQA) ADVANCED INFO (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions