Other Pathologies Flashcards

1
Q

Virchow’s triad

A

vessel wall damage
turbulent/stasis of blood flow
increased blood viscosity or hypercoagulability

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2
Q

____ cascade works against ____ cascade to breakdown clots

A

fibrinolytic ; coagulation

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3
Q

Hypoxaemia w/o hypercapnia

A

Type 1 respiratory failure

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4
Q

Hypoxaemia with hypercapnia

A

Type 2 respiratory failure - sensitive to high FiO2 - give Venturi

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5
Q

Why not high flow O2 to type 2 respiratory failure patients?

A

Haldane effect- O2 pushes CO2 off of Hb where it was in high concn => lots of CO2 in blood free = acidotic
Hypoxic drive - O2 drives breathing - so if high then stop

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6
Q

Death occurs at ___kPa O2

A

2.7

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7
Q

hyperventilation occurs at ____kPa O2

A

5.3 and below

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8
Q

loss of consciousness occurs at ___ kPa O2

A

4.3 and below

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9
Q

not enough Hb = ____ hypoxia

A

anaemia

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10
Q

cardiac reduction or local reduction in O2 = ___ hypoxia

A

circulatory

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11
Q

Caused by CO, alcohol, cyanide = _____ hypoxia

A

toxic - O2 cant bind with Hb

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12
Q

Alveolar hypoventilation, altitude, ILD, shunting, dead space and V:Q mismatch are examples of ____ hypoxia

A

hypoxaemic - lungs don’t work

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13
Q

CXR of pleural effusion shows

A

opacification of lung bases

curved meniscus - may track into oblique and horizontal fissures

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14
Q

Non-tension pneumothorax CXR shows

A

draw crescent w/o lung markings at peripheries

subtle

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15
Q

Tension pneumothorax CXR shows

A

Large and black on one side
Mediastinum pushed away from pneuumothorax
pneumothorax depresses its hemidiaphragm

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16
Q

____ DVT most likely to embolise

A

ileo-femoral

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17
Q

ECG changes seen in PE:

A

S1Q3T3

T inversion in V1-3

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18
Q

Prevention of PE/DVT

A

compression stockings, exercises, S/C LMWH

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19
Q

Treatment of PE =

A

heparin and warfarin - stop heparin afte short time and keep on warfarin for 3-6 months
thrombolysis if life threatening

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20
Q

Multiple PEs suspect ____

A

CTEPH - chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension)

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21
Q

PE is a ____ infarct

due to ____

A

red

dual blood supply to lungs - bronchial arteries blood is drawn into alveoli

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22
Q

Treatment for CTEPH

A

rioiguat - pulmonary arterial vasodilator
OR
pulmonary endartectomy

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23
Q

haemothorax may be ___

A

trauma, malignancy, infection, infarction

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24
Q

Milky/turbid pleural effusion may be ___

A

empyema, chylothorax

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25
Q

Purulent pleural effusion may be ___

A

anaerobic effusion

26
Q

straw coloured pleural effusion may be ____

A

HF, hypoalbuminaemia

27
Q

viscous pleural effusion may be ___

A

mesothelioma

28
Q

food in pleural effusion may be ___

A

oesophageal rupture

29
Q

Parietal pleura nerve supply

A

intercostal and phrenic - sense pain

30
Q

Visceral pleura nerve supply

A

CNX - sensory and vasomotor fibres - stretch sensed

31
Q

Parietal and visceral pleurae combine at ____ to form ____. Attaches ___ to ____

A

root of lung ; pulmonary ligament; root to diaphragm

32
Q

transudate = ____ protein

causes =

A
33
Q

exudate = ___ protein

causes =

A

> 30g/l

malignancy, parapneumonic, PE, rheumatoid, mesothelioma, drugs, connective tissue disease

34
Q

pH of pleural effusion

7.6=

A

7.6 normal

35
Q

neutrophils in pleural effusion =

A

parapneumonic or PE

36
Q

monocytes in pleural effusion =

A

chronic infection

37
Q

lymphocytes in pleural effusion =

A

TB, lymphoma, rheumatoid

38
Q

decreased mesothelial cells in pleural effusions -

A

inflammatory process eg. tb

39
Q

decreased glucose in pleural effusion -

A

infection, tb, malignancy, rheumatoid, oesophageal rupture, lupus

40
Q

Drain pleural effusion if -

A

tension/sytmptomatic pneumothorax, empyema, complicated parapneumonic effusion, malignancy, traumatic haemothorax

41
Q

Pulmonary oedema cause a ___ PFT pattern

A

restrictive

42
Q

ARDS development

A

injury to lung> inflamcells infiltrate>cytokines>WBCs release O2 radicals>cell membrane injury>hyaline membranes form, cell regeneration, inflammation

43
Q

Saddle emboli is:

A

at bifurcation of pulmonary artery into L and R

44
Q

CO2 retention headache characteristic

A

“thick head” in morning on waking, no change with posture

more likely in obese

45
Q

Large tumour at apex of lung can compress ___ leading to facial swelling

A

SVC

46
Q

Normal PCO2 in asthma attack denotes

A

severe as they are fatiguing, should be low due to hyperventilation

47
Q

fungus clump mistaken for tumour ___

A

aspergilloma

48
Q

Markers of severe asthma

A

can’t finish sentences in 1 breath

silent chest, increased RR, tachypnoea, bradycardia, loss of consciousness, reduced FEV1

49
Q

Frothy haemoptysis

A

pulmonary oedema

50
Q

Rusty haemoptysis

A

Pneumococcal pneumonia

51
Q

Massive haemoptysis is ___

A

> 600ml in 24hrs

52
Q

Pleural cavity usually holds ___ serous fluid

A

4ml

53
Q

Stridor =

A

inspiratory wheeze due to large airway obstruction

54
Q

Causes of stridor in kids

A

epiglottitis, croup, retropharyngeal abscess, diptheria, foreign body, anaphylaxis

55
Q

Extrathoracic causes of stridor:

A

laryngeal tumours and vocal cord paralysis

56
Q

adult causes of stridor:

A

neoplasm, goitre, Wegener’s, trauma, bilateral vocal cord palsy, cricoarytenoid arthritis, tracheomalacia

57
Q

tracheomalacia =

A

degradation of tracheal cartilages - softened and collapses on inspiration causing stridor

58
Q

Risk factors for obstructive sleep apnoea

A

enlarged tonsils, obesity, retrognathia, hypothyroidism, acromegaly, oropharyngeal deformity, post-op after anaesthesia

59
Q

______ score, _____ and ____ used to diagnose obstructive sleep apnoea

A

Epworth Sleepiness Scale, snoring and overnight sleep study

60
Q

Symptoms of obstructive sleep apnoea

A

somnolence, daytime sleepiness, cognitive impairment, personality change

61
Q

Most effective treatment for obstructive sleep apnoea

A

CPAP

62
Q

Pathophysiology of obstructive sleep apnoea

A

Relaxation of pharyngeal dilator muscles during sleep esp. REM => UA collapse