Other Pathologies Flashcards

1
Q

Virchow’s triad

A

vessel wall damage
turbulent/stasis of blood flow
increased blood viscosity or hypercoagulability

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2
Q

____ cascade works against ____ cascade to breakdown clots

A

fibrinolytic ; coagulation

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3
Q

Hypoxaemia w/o hypercapnia

A

Type 1 respiratory failure

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4
Q

Hypoxaemia with hypercapnia

A

Type 2 respiratory failure - sensitive to high FiO2 - give Venturi

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5
Q

Why not high flow O2 to type 2 respiratory failure patients?

A

Haldane effect- O2 pushes CO2 off of Hb where it was in high concn => lots of CO2 in blood free = acidotic
Hypoxic drive - O2 drives breathing - so if high then stop

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6
Q

Death occurs at ___kPa O2

A

2.7

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7
Q

hyperventilation occurs at ____kPa O2

A

5.3 and below

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8
Q

loss of consciousness occurs at ___ kPa O2

A

4.3 and below

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9
Q

not enough Hb = ____ hypoxia

A

anaemia

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10
Q

cardiac reduction or local reduction in O2 = ___ hypoxia

A

circulatory

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11
Q

Caused by CO, alcohol, cyanide = _____ hypoxia

A

toxic - O2 cant bind with Hb

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12
Q

Alveolar hypoventilation, altitude, ILD, shunting, dead space and V:Q mismatch are examples of ____ hypoxia

A

hypoxaemic - lungs don’t work

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13
Q

CXR of pleural effusion shows

A

opacification of lung bases

curved meniscus - may track into oblique and horizontal fissures

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14
Q

Non-tension pneumothorax CXR shows

A

draw crescent w/o lung markings at peripheries

subtle

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15
Q

Tension pneumothorax CXR shows

A

Large and black on one side
Mediastinum pushed away from pneuumothorax
pneumothorax depresses its hemidiaphragm

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16
Q

____ DVT most likely to embolise

A

ileo-femoral

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17
Q

ECG changes seen in PE:

A

S1Q3T3

T inversion in V1-3

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18
Q

Prevention of PE/DVT

A

compression stockings, exercises, S/C LMWH

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19
Q

Treatment of PE =

A

heparin and warfarin - stop heparin afte short time and keep on warfarin for 3-6 months
thrombolysis if life threatening

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20
Q

Multiple PEs suspect ____

A

CTEPH - chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension)

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21
Q

PE is a ____ infarct

due to ____

A

red

dual blood supply to lungs - bronchial arteries blood is drawn into alveoli

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22
Q

Treatment for CTEPH

A

rioiguat - pulmonary arterial vasodilator
OR
pulmonary endartectomy

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23
Q

haemothorax may be ___

A

trauma, malignancy, infection, infarction

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24
Q

Milky/turbid pleural effusion may be ___

A

empyema, chylothorax

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25
Purulent pleural effusion may be ___
anaerobic effusion
26
straw coloured pleural effusion may be ____
HF, hypoalbuminaemia
27
viscous pleural effusion may be ___
mesothelioma
28
food in pleural effusion may be ___
oesophageal rupture
29
Parietal pleura nerve supply
intercostal and phrenic - sense pain
30
Visceral pleura nerve supply
CNX - sensory and vasomotor fibres - stretch sensed
31
Parietal and visceral pleurae combine at ____ to form ____. Attaches ___ to ____
root of lung ; pulmonary ligament; root to diaphragm
32
transudate = ____ protein | causes =
33
exudate = ___ protein | causes =
>30g/l | malignancy, parapneumonic, PE, rheumatoid, mesothelioma, drugs, connective tissue disease
34
pH of pleural effusion | 7.6=
7.6 normal
35
neutrophils in pleural effusion =
parapneumonic or PE
36
monocytes in pleural effusion =
chronic infection
37
lymphocytes in pleural effusion =
TB, lymphoma, rheumatoid
38
decreased mesothelial cells in pleural effusions -
inflammatory process eg. tb
39
decreased glucose in pleural effusion -
infection, tb, malignancy, rheumatoid, oesophageal rupture, lupus
40
Drain pleural effusion if -
tension/sytmptomatic pneumothorax, empyema, complicated parapneumonic effusion, malignancy, traumatic haemothorax
41
Pulmonary oedema cause a ___ PFT pattern
restrictive
42
ARDS development
injury to lung> inflamcells infiltrate>cytokines>WBCs release O2 radicals>cell membrane injury>hyaline membranes form, cell regeneration, inflammation
43
Saddle emboli is:
at bifurcation of pulmonary artery into L and R
44
CO2 retention headache characteristic
"thick head" in morning on waking, no change with posture | more likely in obese
45
Large tumour at apex of lung can compress ___ leading to facial swelling
SVC
46
Normal PCO2 in asthma attack denotes
severe as they are fatiguing, should be low due to hyperventilation
47
fungus clump mistaken for tumour ___
aspergilloma
48
Markers of severe asthma
can't finish sentences in 1 breath | silent chest, increased RR, tachypnoea, bradycardia, loss of consciousness, reduced FEV1
49
Frothy haemoptysis
pulmonary oedema
50
Rusty haemoptysis
Pneumococcal pneumonia
51
Massive haemoptysis is ___
>600ml in 24hrs
52
Pleural cavity usually holds ___ serous fluid
4ml
53
Stridor =
inspiratory wheeze due to large airway obstruction
54
Causes of stridor in kids
epiglottitis, croup, retropharyngeal abscess, diptheria, foreign body, anaphylaxis
55
Extrathoracic causes of stridor:
laryngeal tumours and vocal cord paralysis
56
adult causes of stridor:
neoplasm, goitre, Wegener's, trauma, bilateral vocal cord palsy, cricoarytenoid arthritis, tracheomalacia
57
tracheomalacia =
degradation of tracheal cartilages - softened and collapses on inspiration causing stridor
58
Risk factors for obstructive sleep apnoea
enlarged tonsils, obesity, retrognathia, hypothyroidism, acromegaly, oropharyngeal deformity, post-op after anaesthesia
59
______ score, _____ and ____ used to diagnose obstructive sleep apnoea
Epworth Sleepiness Scale, snoring and overnight sleep study
60
Symptoms of obstructive sleep apnoea
somnolence, daytime sleepiness, cognitive impairment, personality change
61
Most effective treatment for obstructive sleep apnoea
CPAP
62
Pathophysiology of obstructive sleep apnoea
Relaxation of pharyngeal dilator muscles during sleep esp. REM => UA collapse