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other compiled cc flashcard

1
Q

Two types of error may be encountered during chemical analysis of a substance. The type of error that occurs as a result of contaminated calibrating solutions would be _____ error.
A. systematic
B. random
C. analytical
D. calibration

A

systematic

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2
Q

You arrive at the clinical chemistry laboratory one morning and discover that personnel from the third shift left you the QC sheet from the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) run. The technician has circled the level I TSH control values, and you realize that all six of the level I control values are +3 s from the mean. No results have been released. Now it’s your decision regarding what to do next. First, which Westgard rule(s) has (have) been violated?
A. 22s
B. 41s
C. 13s
D. All of the above rules have been broken.

A

All of the above rules have been broken.

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3
Q

You arrive at the clinical chemistry laboratory one morning and discover that personnel from the third shift left you the QC sheet from the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) run. The technician has circled the level I TSH control values, and you realize that all six of the level I control values are +3 s from the mean. No results have been released. Now it’s your decision regarding what to do next. What is your decision regarding the release of results in the problem stated in the preceding question?
a. Hold all results, reject the run, and troubleshoot.
b. Release results and do nothing else.
c. Release all results and troubleshoot.
d. Call the manufacturer’s representative and ask him what to do.

A

Hold all results, reject the run, and troubleshoot.

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4
Q

To make 20 mL of a 0.1 g/L solution from a 10 mg/mL stock solution, you should add _____ mL of the stock solution to _____ mL of solvent.
a. 2; 18
b. 10; 10
c. 1; 19
d. 0.2; 19.8

A

If you had 10mL you’d put .1 into 9.9mL
0.1g/L=10mg/L
If you’re making 20mL you need to double it so .2 into 19.8

d. 0.2; 19.8

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5
Q

Which one of the following statements concerning type I water is not correct?
A. Type I water is acceptable for analytical purposes.
B. Testing that requires minimal interferences (such as iron or enzyme analysis) requires the use of type I water.
C. Type I water is obtained from distillation only and contains a few impurities.
D. Type I water results in part from ion exchange purification and reverse osmosis.

A

Type I water is obtained from distillation only and contains a few impurities.

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6
Q

What is the molarity (mol/L) of a solution containing 25 g of H2SO4 (MW= 98 g) in 150 mL of deionized water?
A. 1.7 mol/L
B. 0.59 mol/L
C. 0.002 mol/L
D. 16.3 mol/L

A

1.7 mol/L

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7
Q

How many grams of NaCl (MW = 58.5 g) are required to prepare 250 mL of a 6 mol/L solution of NaCl?
A. 87.75 g
B. 58.5 g
C. 585 g
D. 877.5 g

A

87.75 g

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8
Q

What is the normality of a solution containing 20 g of H2SO4 (MW = 98) in 500 mL of buffer?
A. 8.2 N
B. 2.8 N
C. 0.82 N
D. 176.8 N

A

0.82 N

EW=92/2=49
20/(49 x .5)
20/24.5
0.82 N

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9
Q

Fifty milligrams (mg) per 1000 mL is equal to:
a. 0.005 g/mL.
b. 0.050 g/mL.
c. 0.050 g/L.
d. 0.50 mg/mL.

A

0.050 g/L.

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10
Q

The type of pipette that is a piece of glass tubing drawn out to a tip and graduated uniformly along its length and is used for reagent measurement is referred to as a:
A. transfer pipette.
B. volumetric pipette.
C. micropipette.
D. measuring pipette.

A

measuring pipette

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11
Q

Which one of the following statements best describes Beer law?
A. The concentration of a substance is inversely proportional to the logarithm of transmitted light.
B. Absorbance is inversely proportional to the logarithm of the concentration.
C. Transmitted light is directly proportional to the concentration of a substance in solution.
D. Intensity of incident light divided by intensity of transmitted light equals concentration.

A

The concentration of a substance is inversely proportional to the logarithm of transmitted light.

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12
Q

Which one of the following statements concerning nephelometry is correct?
A. Nephelometry is the measure of the concentration of particles by measuring the amount of incident light blocked by the particles.
B. In a nephelometric measurement, light blocked by solutes in the solution at 180° from the incident light is measured by a photodetector.
C. The decrease in the intensity of scattered light is directly proportional to the number of particles in the solution, and the measurement of this decrease is called nephelometry.
D. In a nephelometric procedure, the measurement of scattered light that is not in the direct path of the transmitted light is made at right angles to the incident light.

A

In a nephelometric procedure, the measurement of scattered light that is not in the direct path of the transmitted light is made at right angles to the incident light.

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13
Q

A blood specimen is obtained from an individual who is known to have elevated lipids and the serum appears milky. This individual’s physician has ordered an estrogen immunoassay that your laboratory performs using a nephelometric technique. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the possible outcome of this assay?
A. Certain components of this individual’s sample will likely produce excess fluorescence by the phenomenon called “solvent effect” in the nephelometric assay.
B. The lipemic specimen will produce interfering background light intensity and excess light scatter in this type of assay.
C. The sample flow rate will be affected through the analyzer’s nebulizer because of the altered density of the sample.
D. Elevated serum lipids will not interfere with this assay because nephelometry is not affected by any type of sample variability.

A

The lipemic specimen will produce interfering background light intensity and excess light scatter in this type of assay.

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14
Q

A manual stat protein analysis is performed on a patient sample. The patient’s unknown sample had an absorbance reading of 0.6. The protein calibrator with an absorbance reading closest to the unknown’s absorbance had a concentration of 6 g/dL and an absorbance reading of 0.5. Applying Beer law, calculate the unknown protein concentration in the patient sample.
A. 6 g/dL
B. 7.2 g/dL
C. 8 g/dL
D. 5.5 g/dL

A

7.2 g/dL
Using the derived formula, , the unknown concentration would be (0.6/0.5) × 6 g/dL = 7.2 g/dL.

(Unk abs/known abs) x known conc = unknown conc

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15
Q

A standard calibrator solution of glucose has a concentration of 125 mg/dL and gives an absorbance of 0.20. Assuming a linear reaction, what is the concentration of glucose in a patient’s serum that has an absorbance of 0.24?
A. 104 mg/dL
B. 138 mg/dL
C. 150 mg/dL
D. 180 mg/dL

A

150 mg/dL

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16
Q

Which one of the following components is found only in a fluorometer used to make measurements of emitted fluorescent light as opposed to in a spectrophotometer used to make measurements of absorbed/transmitted light?
A. Monochromator
B. Cuvets as sample holders
C. An excitation source
D. Detector

A

An excitation source

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17
Q

Atomic absorption spectrophotometry is an emission technique that is used frequently in clinical laboratories to measure:
A. complex antigen-antibody reactions.
B. rotational relaxation of bound fluorophores.
C. elements.
D. high-molecular-weight compounds.

A

elements

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18
Q

The light source in an atomic absorption spectrophotometer is typically a:
A. prism.
B. tungsten light.
C. laser light.
D. hollow cathode tube.

A

hollow cathode tube

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19
Q

Which one of the following wavelengths is within the “near” ultraviolet region of the electromagnetic spectrum?
A. 320 nm
B. 450 nm
C. 540 nm
D. 690 nm

A

320 nm

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20
Q

In spectrophotometric determinations, which of the following is the formula for calculating the absorbance of a solution?
a. (Molar absorptivity × length of light path)/concentration in mol/L
b. (Molar absorptivity × concentration in g/dL)/length of light path
c. Molar absorptivity × length of light path × concentration in mol/L
d. (Length of light path × concentration in g/dL)/molar absorptivity

A

Molar absorptivity × length of light path × concentration in mol/L

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21
Q

In the liver, bilirubin is conjugated to:
a. vinyl groups.
b. methyl groups.
c. hydroxyl groups.
d. glucuronide

A

glucuronide

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22
Q

Functions of the liver include the synthesis of all of the following except:
a. albumin.
b. immunoglobulins.
c. glycogen.
d. coagulation factors.

A

immunoglobulins

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23
Q

In the liver, the small grooves between adjacent hepatocytes that carry bile to the gall bladder are the:
a. cords.
b. canaliculi.
c. lobules.
d. sinusoids

A

canaliculi

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24
Q

Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) can be directly related to:
a. an acute viral hepatitis infection.
b. cholestasis.
c. a chronic hepatitis B infection.
d. the synthetic function of the liver.

A

a chronic hepatitis B infection

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25
Q

Which type of viral hepatitis is usually spread parenterally by transfusion, shared needles, or dialysis and is considered the most common chronic viral infection in North America?
a. Hepatitis B
b. Hepatitis C
c. Hepatitis A
d. Cirrhosis

A

Hepatitis B

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26
Q

Laboratory tests that are initially run to determine the presence of any liver disease include:
a. liver enzymes only.
b. viral antigens and antibodies, serum cholesterol.
c. hepatitis antigens and antibodies, coagulation times, and serum proteins.
d. bilirubin, liver enzymes, prothrombin time (PT), and albumin.

A

bilirubin, liver enzymes, prothrombin time (PT), and albumin.

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27
Q

Blockage of the bile ducts or blockage of bile flow from within the liver due to inflammation will stop normal bile flow. This is referred to as:
a. hepatitis.
b. hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC).
c. cholestasis.
d. cirrhosis.

A

cholestasis

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28
Q

A genetic disorder that is associated with elevated amounts of copper in the liver and other tissues and leads to decreased ceruloplasmin concentration in blood is:
a. Wilson disease.
b. Reye syndrome.
c. cholestasis.
d. autoimmune hepatitis.

A

Wilson disease

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29
Q

The type of portal hypertension seen in the majority of cases is sinusoidal hypertension, which is most commonly caused by:
a. blockage of the portal veins.
b. hepatic vein occlusion.
c. congestive heart failure.
d. cirrhosis.

A

cirrhosis

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30
Q

Glycated hemoglobin indicates compliance of a patient with diabetes with his or her insulin-taking regimen by monitoring glucose control. GHb concentration represents the integrated glucose value in the blood over what period?
a. 8 to 12 days
b. 8 to 12 weeks
c. 8 to 12 months
d. One day

A

8 to 12 weeks

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31
Q

Which of the following values obtained during an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is above the appropriate cutpoint for diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?
a. 2-Hour specimen = 125 mg/dL (6.9 mmol/L)
b. Fasting glucose = 138 mg/dL (7.7 mmol/L)
c. Fasting glucose = 110 mg/dL (6.1 mmol/L)
d. 2-Hour specimen = 80 mg/dL (4.4 mmol/L)

A

Fasting glucose = 138 mg/dL (7.7 mmol/L)

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32
Q

Type 2 diabetes:
a. is associated with resistance to the action of insulin.
b. is caused by destruction of pancreatic β-cells.
c. is also known as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus.
d. occurs less frequently than type 1 diabetes.

A

occurs less frequently than type 1 diabetes.

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33
Q

Release of glucose from its storage form is referred to as:
a. glycogenesis.
b. glycogenolysis.
c. glycolysis.
d. glyconeogenesis.

A

glycogenolysis.

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34
Q

Which of the following hormones produces hyperglycemia?
a. Epinephrine
b. Glucagon
c. Thyroid hormone
d. All of the above hormones produce hyperglycemia.

A

All of the above hormones produce hyperglycemia

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35
Q

Whole blood glucose values are approximately what percent different from plasma glucose values?
a. 20% higher
b. 15% lower
c. 50% higher
d. There is no difference between whole blood glucose and plasma glucose values

A

15% lower

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36
Q

The development of ketosis in uncontrolled diabetes is a result of:
a. increased lipolysis of fatty acids from adipose stores and decreased re-esterification of these fatty acids to triglycerides.
b. increased nonenzymatic addition of glucose to proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids that form ketoamines.
c. increased formation of advanced glycation end products that do not return to normal levels when diabetes is controlled.
d. formation of circulating antibodies that are formed against the excess adipose tissue present in a person with diabetes.

A

increased nonenzymatic addition of glucose to proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids that form ketoamines.

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37
Q

Which of the following hormones promotes decreased blood glucose?
a. Epinephrine
b. Glucagon
c. Cortisol
d. Insulin

A

Insulin

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38
Q

The purpose of examining urinary albumin excretion in an individual with type 1 or type 2 diabetes is to:
a. assess the ability of the pancreas to synthesize sufficient insulin.
b. determine the rate of formation of advanced glycation end products.
c. assess the possibility of overt diabetic nephropathy.
d. examine the health of the liver in its ability to synthesize albumin.

A

assess the possibility of overt diabetic nephropathy.

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39
Q

The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources occurs mostly in the liver and is referred to as:
a. gluconeogenesis.
b. glycogenesis.
c. glycolysis.
d. glycogenolysis.

A

gluconeogenesis.

40
Q

Which anticoagulant is considered the best for serum glucose analysis because it inhibits glycolysis?
a. Sodium oxalate
b. EDTA
c. Sodium fluoride
d. Heparin

A

Sodium fluoride

41
Q

An example of a disaccharide is:
a. glucose.
b. starch.
c. lactose.
d. fructose.

A

lactose

42
Q

Which of the following statements concerning carbohydrates is incorrect?
a. Individuals diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus can display hypoglycemic symptoms because of the impairment of glucagon secretion.
b. Ethanol produces hypoglycemia by inhibiting gluconeogenesis.
c. Monosaccharides are formed from the breakdown of starches and disaccharides within the small intestine.
d. The brain functions normally with a low concentration of plasma glucose (<20 to 30 mg/dL).

A

The brain functions normally with a low concentration of plasma glucose (<20 to 30 mg/dL).

43
Q

The formation of 6-phosphogluconate with concomitant production of NADH is the final step in which of the following coupled-enzyme assays for glucose?
a. Hexokinase method
b. Glucose oxidase method
c. Glucose dehydrogenase method
d. Polarographic method

A

Hexokinase method

44
Q

The typical cause of an inborn error of carbohydrate metabolism is:
a. lack of insulin production.
b. glucagonoma.
c. absence of an enzyme involved in carbohydrate metabolism.
d. chronic alcoholism with hepatic failure.

A

absence of an enzyme involved in carbohydrate metabolism.

45
Q

The most widely used cutoff blood glucose concentration that indicates hypoglycemia is:
a. 100 mg/dL.
b. 75 mg/dL.
c. 50 mg/dL.
d. 25 mg/dL

A

50 mg/dL.

46
Q

Deficiency of a specific enzyme involved in glycogen metabolism will produce some type of:
a. glycogen storage disease.
b. lactic acidosis.
c. insulin deficiency.
d. glycolysis

A

glycogen storage disease

47
Q

Gastrin
a. is secreted by the liver and stomach.
b. is secreted when stomach pH is low.
c. stimulates gastric acid secretion.
d. inhibits secretion of intrinsic factor.

A

stimulates gastric acid secretion.

48
Q

The hydrogen breath test using glucose or lactulose as substrates is assessing
a. intestinal bacterial overgrowth.
b. celiac disease.
c. the presence of H. pylori.
d. bile acid malabsorption

A

intestinal bacterial overgrowth

49
Q

A nonspecific response to inflammation that includes elevation of certain plasma proteins and decrease of others due to cytokine production is referred to as a(n):
a. cytokine response.
b. acute-phase response.
c. reduction reaction.
d. allergic reaction.

A

acute-phase response

50
Q

The pH at which a molecule such as a protein has a net charge of zero is referred to as the:
a. isoelectric point.
b. dissociation constant.
c. isoelectric focus point.
d. solubility point.

A

isoelectric point.

51
Q

In the biuret reaction for protein quantification:
a. an increase in buffer pH causes protein to bind to a blue dye.
b. copper ions complex with peptide bonds in proteins.
c. a change in the refractive index of light is measured.
d. protein is precipitated by the addition of an acid solution.

A

copper ions complex with peptide bonds in proteins.

52
Q

The plasma protein that serves to transport a large number of compounds including bilirubin, calcium, drugs and free fatty acids is:
a. prealbumin.
b. immunoglobulin G.
c. haptoglobin.
d. albumin.

A

albumin

53
Q

Analyzing protein in cerebrospinal fluid is done to:
a. asssess the permeability of the blood-brain barrier.
b. determine the permeability of the glomerular membrane.
c. determine the presence of fetal defects.
d. diagnose gastrointestinal protein loss.

A

asssess the permeability of the blood-brain barrier

54
Q

Most proteins are synthesized:
a. in the kidney juxtaglomerular cells.
b. by the hepatic parenchymal cells.
c. in the gastrointestinal tract.
d. in cellular mitochondria

A

by the hepatic parenchymal cells

55
Q

A malignant neoplasm of a clone of plasma cells that diffuses throughout the bone marrow and that is diagnosed in part by identification of a paraprotein in blood or urine is referred to as:
a. multiple myeloma.
b. Bence-Jones protein.
c. hypogammaglobulinemia.
d. Wilson disease.

A

multiple myeloma

56
Q

Heme is a:
a. chelate of iron with the four pyrrole groups of a porphyrin.
b. conjugated protein and an oxygen-carrying pigment of the erythrocytes.
c. protein found in red skeletal muscle that releases oxygen.
d. colorless compound formed in the intestines by the reduction of bilirubin.

A

chelate of iron with the four pyrrole groups of a porphyrin

57
Q

The role of hemoglobin is to:
a. transport iron between organs.
b. store iron and readily release it when body iron stores are low.
c. reversibly bind oxygen.
d. conjugate bilirubin in the liver.

A

reversibly bind oxygen

58
Q

What is bilirubin conjugated to in a hepatocyte to form conjugated bilirubin?
a. Cholic acid
b. Glycogen
c. Bile acid
d. Glucuronic acid

A

Glucuronic acid

59
Q

In an individual with suspected β-thalassemia, which of the following laboratory results would correctly indicate the presence of this disease?
a. Increased hemoglobin concentration, MCV and MCHC with the peripheral blood smear showing increased macrocytes and Howell-Jolly bodies
b. Decreased hemoglobin concentration, MCV and MCHC with the peripheral blood smear indicating microcytosis, target cells and polychromasia
c. Decreased hemoglobin concentration, increased MCV and MCHC and persistence of hemoglobin F with the peripheral blood smear indicating spherocytosis and nucleated red blood cells
d. Increased hemoglobin concentration and normal MCV and MCHC with a normal peripheral blood smear

A

Decreased hemoglobin concentration, MCV and MCHC with the peripheral blood smear indicating microcytosis, target cells and polychromasia

60
Q

Which of the following is associated with low serum iron and high total iron binding capacity (TIBC)?
a. Hemochromatosis
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Iron intoxication
d. Hemosiderosis

A

Iron deficiency anemia

61
Q

This readily soluble iron/protein complex is the form in which iron is stored in tissues:
a. Ferritin
b. Transferrin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Hemoglobin

A

Ferritin

62
Q

The correct formula for determining the percent of transferrin saturation % is:
a. MCV < 70 mL = increased transferrin
b. total iron binding capacity ÷ serum iron
c. total iron binding capacity × 100
d. [total iron binding capacity ÷ serum iron] × 100

A

[total iron binding capacity ÷ serum iron] × 100

63
Q

The major difference between thalassemia and hemoglobinopathy is that:
a. in thalassemia the globin chains of hemoglobin are structurally altered.
b. in thalassemia the serum level of conjugated bilirubin is dramatically increased.
c. in a hemoglobinopathy the globin chains of hemoglobin are structurally altered.
d. in a hemoglobinopathy the globin chains of hemoglobin are insufficiently produced.

A

in a hemoglobinopathy the globin chains of hemoglobin are structurally altered.

64
Q

An inherited disorder caused by an inherited abnormality of proteins that regulate iron hemostasis with excess circulating iron is called:
a. hemosiderosis.
b. primary hemochromatosis.
c. secondary hemochromatosis.
d. sideroblastic anemia.

A

primary hemochromatosis

65
Q

Hemolytic disease in a newborn results from maternal-fetal Rh incompatibility. This produces physiological jaundice that is characterized by:
a. unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
b. conjugated bilirubinemia.
c. hemosiderosis.
d. hemoglobinopathy.

A

unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

66
Q

Extrahepatic biliary atresia:
a. is characterized by lack of bile ducts within the liver.
b. is less common than intrahepatic biliary atresia.
c. is characterized by a mixed hyperbilirubinemia.
d. produces jaundice that can be observed within the first few days of life.

A

is characterized by a mixed hyperbilirubinemia.

67
Q

Bilirubin:
a. in the conjugated form is highly toxic to the nervous system when elevated.
b. in the plasma is bound to albumin before conjugation in hepatocytes.
c. becomes conjugated to cholic acid in the hepatocyte.
d. All of the above answers are correct.

A

in the plasma is bound to albumin before conjugation in hepatocytes.

68
Q

The protein component of a lipoprotein is referred to as a(n):
a. terpene.
b. apolipoprotein.
c. prostaglandin.
d. phospholipid

A

apolipoprotein

69
Q

The lipoprotein that contains a carbohydrate-rich protein covalently bound to apo B-100 and a special protein motif called the “kringle” domain is:
a. LDL.
b. HDL.
c. chylomicron.
d. lipoprotein(a

A

lipoprotein(a

70
Q

What lipoprotein transports mostly cholesteryl esters through the blood?
a. LDL
b. VLDL
c. Chylomicrons
d. Lipoprotein(a)

A

LDL

71
Q

The enzyme that is critical for hydrolysis of triglycerides on chylomicrons for their conversion to chylomicron remnants is:
a. cholesterol oxidase.
b. glycerol kinase
c. lipoprotein lipase.
d. HMG-CoA reductase

A

lipoprotein lipase

72
Q

The rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis that is inhibited by statin drugs is:
a. cholesterol oxidase.
b. glycerol kinase
c. lipoprotein lipase.
d. HMG-CoA reductase

A

HMG-CoA reductase

73
Q

Which of the following lipid metabolic pathways has a role in transferring hepatically derived lipids, particularly triglyceride, to peripheral cells for energy metabolism?
a. Exogenous pathway
b. Endogenous pathway
c. Intracellular-cholesterol transport pathway
d. Reverse-cholesterol transport pathway

A

Endogenous pathway

74
Q

The formation of mixed micelles containing unesterified cholesterol, fatty acids, monoglycerides, phospholipids, and bile acids is referred to as:
a. emulsification.
b. denaturation.
c. esterification.
d. saturation.

A

emulsification

75
Q

With regard to lipids, a carboxyl (−COOH) with a long sidechain (R) containing an even number of carbon atoms that is important in human nutrition and metabolism is a type of lipid referred to as a(n):
a. acylglycerol.
b. ester.
c. fatty acid.
d. terpene.

A

fatty acid

76
Q

n the laboratory analysis of triglycerides, the initial step in all methods is:
a. phosphorylation of glycerol catalyzed by glycerokinase.
b. oxidation of cholesterol by cholesterol oxidase.
c. hydrolysis of triglyceride by lipase.
d. reduction of phenol and H2O2 by peroxidase.

A

hydrolysis of triglyceride by lipase

77
Q

Which of the following formulas shows the correct calculation for indirectly measuring LDL-C (Friedewald’s formula)?
a. LDL-C = HDL-C + (Triglyceride/5)
b. LDL-C = Total cholesterol − (HDL-C) − (Triglyceride/5)
c. LDL-C = Total cholesterol + HDL-C + (Triglyceride/5)
d. LDL-C = HDL-C − (Triglyceride/5)
b. LDL-C = Total cholesterol − (HDL-C) − (Triglyceride/5)

A

LDL-C = Total cholesterol − (HDL-C) − (Triglyceride/5)

78
Q

It is difficult to directly measure the GFR of a kidney; therefore, which one of the following is assessed to determine GFR?
a. Renal blood flow
b. Renal threshold
c. Serum creatinine
d. Urine albumin

A

Serum creatinine

79
Q

Which one of the following tests evaluates renal tubular (including loop of Henle) function?
a. Urine osmolality
b. Inulin clearance
c. Urine albumin
d. Urine protein

A

Urine osmolality

80
Q

The structural and functional unit of the kidney is the nephron. What structures make up a nephron?
a. Only the structures located in the kidney cortex
b. The glomeruli, tubules, and associated blood vessels
c. The ureters, bladder, and urethra
d. Only the structures located in the kidney medulla

A

The glomeruli, tubules, and associated blood vessels

81
Q

Which one of the following hormones synthesized in cells of the JGA is involved in control of blood pressure through its action on angiotensinogen?
a. Erythropoietin
b. Anti-diuretic hormone
c. Renin
d. Aldosterone

A

Renin

82
Q

Regarding laboratory findings, uremia/azotemia specifically refers to:
a. Reduced renal function
b. Elevated nitrogenous compounds in blood
c. Elevated serum proteins in blood
d. Decreased urine albumin

A

Elevated nitrogenous compounds in blood

83
Q

The most common glomerular disease caused by damage to the glomerular membrane from deposition of immune complexes is:
a. IgA nephropathy
b. Chronic glomerulonephritis
c. Uremic syndrome
d. Pyelonephritis

A

IgA nephropathy

84
Q

A disorder in which there is an abnormal increase in urine output, fluid intake, and often thirst and that is caused by the absence of anti-diuretic hormone is:
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. IgA nephropathy
c. Diabetes insipidus
d. Nephrolithiasis

A

Diabetes insipidus

85
Q

Which one of the following hormones affects water reabsorption in the proximal tubule, the loop of Henle, the distal tubule, and the collecting duct of the kidney?
a. Aldosterone
b. Renin
c. 1,25(OH2) vitamin D3
d. Anti-diuretic hormone

A

Anti-diuretic hormone

86
Q

A drug prescribed to an individual to treat hypertension and/or disorders associated with fluid overload is referred to as a(n):
a. ACE inhibitor
b. Diuretic
c. Cystatin C
d. Exogenous marker

A

Diuretic

87
Q

The enzyme that demonstrates highest serum activity in intrahepatic biliary obstruction and is also elevated in primary liver neoplasm is:
a. alkaline phosphatase (ALP).
b. creatine kinase (CK).
c. amylase (AMY).
d. γ-glutamyltransferase (GGT).

A

γ-glutamyltransferase (

88
Q

Activity of which of the following isoenzymes of CK is highest in the serum of healthy individuals?
a. CK-MM
b. CK-MB
c. CK-BB
d. CK-Mt

A

CK-MM

89
Q

The serum enzyme that demonstrates an increase in activity 4 to 8 hours after an attack of acute pancreatitis, peaks at 24 hours, and then returns to normal within a week is:
a. AMY.
b. lipase (LPS).
c. ALP.
d. serum cholinesterase (CHE).

A

lipase (LPS)

90
Q

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the reaction of glutamate and pyruvate to form 2-oxoglutarate and an amino acid?
a. ALP
b. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
c. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
d. CK

A

Alanine aminotransferase

91
Q

In the laboratory measurement of ALP, a chromogenic assay forms the basis of almost all current methods used for ALP analysis. The substrate in this assay is:
a. acid phosphatase.
b. 4-nitrophenyl phosphate.
c. p-nitroaniline.
d. succinyldithiocholine.

A

4-nitrophenyl phosphate

92
Q

Measurement of decreased activity of which of the following enzymes is used to determine possible insecticide poisoning?
a. CK
b. ALP
c. ALT
d. CHE

A

CHE

93
Q

Children have higher ALP activity than healthy adults because:
a. ALP leaks from osteoblasts during normal bone growth.
b. developing hepatocytes produce excess ALP during normal growth.
c. striated muscle contains the greatest activity of ALP, and children are more energetic than adults with concomitant release of excess ALP from muscle.
d. the presence of ALP in the pancreas is elevated during childhood.

A

ALP leaks from osteoblasts during normal bone growth.

94
Q

The isoenzyme of amylase that is synthesized by acinar cells of the pancreas and that remains elevated in most individuals for at least one week after the onset of pancreatitis is:
a. S-AMY.
b. macro-AMY.
c. P-AMY.
d. G-AMY.

A

P-AMY

95
Q

Which of the following enzymes demonstrates an increase in activity with progressive Duchenne muscular dystrophy, followed by a decrease as muscle mass decreases?
a. ALP
b. ALT
c. CHE
d. CK

A

CK

96
Q

The oxidoreductase that is increased significantly during megaloblastic anemia is:
a. lactate dehydrogenase.
b. CK.
c. ALP.
d. acid phosphatase

A

lactate dehydrogenase

MTAP 1 (15 decks)

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