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MTAP 1 > Microbio Quizzes > Flashcards

Microbio Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the ff sets of tests provide the best differentiation of L. monocytogenes & E.
rhusopathiae?

a. Reverse CAMP, gram-stained smear, b-hemolysis
b. Gram-stained smear, catalase, and motility
c. Gram-stained smear, oxidase, optochin
d. CAMP test, H2S production, esculin hydrolysis

A

d. CAMP test, H2S production, esculin hydrolysis

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2
Q

LOA reaction of Klebsiella pneumoniae:

a. - + -
b. + - -
c. + + -
d. + - +

A

+ - -
Lysine positive only Kleb. pneumoniae

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3
Q

Positive result for DNase test:

a. Pink
b. clearing of medium
c. Green
d. hemolysis

A

clearing of medium

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4
Q

Chocolate agar-based medium containing vancomycin, colistin, anisomycin &
trimetrophrim is known as

a. New York City
b. Martin-Lewis
c. Modified Thayer Martin
d. Thayer-Martin

A

Martin-Lewis

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5
Q

Which serological test is done for Chalamydia trachomatis on genital smears?

a. ELISA
b. RIA
c. Direct FA using monoclonal antibodies
d. Indirect FA using Chlamydia Antigens

A

Direct FA using monoclonal antibodies

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6
Q

All are examples of egg-based media for culture of Mycobacteria, except:
a. American Thoracic Society
b. Lowenstein Jensen
c. Middlebrook 7H10 and 7H11
d. Petragnani

A

Middlebrook 7H10 and 7H11

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7
Q

Which of the following is a dsRNA virus?

a. Rotavirus
b. HIV
c. Influenza
d. Measles

A

Rotavirus

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8
Q

Which of the following arboviruses is not transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes?
a. Dengue
b. West Nile
c. Zika
d. Chikungunya

A

West Nile

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9
Q

The protein coat of a viral particle is termed as
a. Capsomere
b. Capsid
c. Matrix
d. envelope

A

Capsid

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10
Q

Atypical lymphocytes such as Downey cells are seen in which viral infection?
a. IM
b. Herpangina
c. HTLV-1
d. Varicella

A

IM

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11
Q

Substrate used in Kovacs indole test:
a.indole
b. para-dimethyaminocinnamaldehyde
c. para-dimethylaminobenzalehyde
d. tryptophan

A

para-dimethylaminobenzalehyde

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12
Q

ONPG test allows organism to be classified as lactose fermenter by testing which of the ff:
a. β-galactosidase
b. tryptophanase
c. lactose permease
d. β-lactamase

A

β-galactosidase

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13
Q

Which of the following is a correct pair?
a. E. coli – yellow colonies on XLD
b. S. aureus – pink colonies on MSA
c. S. pneumonaie – non-hemolytic on SBA
d. K. pneumoniae – colorless colonies on MAC

A

E. coli – yellow colonies on XLD

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14
Q

Inhibitors for gram (+) bacteria on MAC:
a. crystal violet and vancomycin
b. trimetotphrim and vancomycin
c.
colistin and anisomycin
d. bile salts and crystal violet

A

bile salts and crystal violet

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15
Q

Which of the following cell cultures are considered as immortal?
a. All of the above
b. MRC-5
c. RMK
d. HeLa

A

HeLa

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16
Q

Match the following viruses and their associated disease:

Norovirus

A

Winter vomiting disease

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17
Q

Match the following viruses and their associated disease:
Parvovirus B19

A

5th disease
Erythema Infectiosum

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18
Q

Match the following viruses and their associated disease:
Varicella Zoster Virus

A

Chickenpox
Zoster/ Shingles

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19
Q

Cytomegalovirus

A

Congenital Disease: Cytomegalic inclusion Disease
CMV Retinitis (HIV) – 40 day virus

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20
Q

Epstein Barr Virus

A

Infectious Mononucleosis
Kissing Disease, Pfeiffer’s disease

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21
Q

In the test for urease production, the presence of the enzyme hydrolyzes urea to which of
the following?
a. Amines and water
b.
Putrescine
c. . Amines and CO2
d. Ammonia and CO2

A

Ammonia and CO2

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22
Q

Micrococcus and Staphylococcus species are differentiated by which test(s)?
1. O-F tube 2. Gram stain 3. Catalase test 4. Lysostaphin susceptibility
a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 1 and 2

A

1 and 4

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23
Q

Viral particles with a Star of David Appearance:

A

Calicivirus

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24
Q

Which of the following viruses is neurotropic?
a. Rhinovirus
b. Influenza A
c. Hepatitis
d. Rabies

A

Rabies

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25
Q

Which serologic marker is first to appear in HBV infections?
a. HBcAg
b. HBsAg
c. HBeAg
d. Anti-HBs

A

HBsAg

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26
Q

Match the following viruses to its characteristic CPE
BK virus

A

decoy cells

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27
Q

Match the following viruses to its characteristic CPE
Rabies

A

negri bodies

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28
Q

Match the following viruses to its characteristic CPE
Adenovirus

A

Grapelike clusters
smudge cells

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29
Q

Match the following viruses to its characteristic CPE:
HPV

A

koilocytes

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30
Q

Match the following viruses to its characteristic CPE
CMV

A

owls eye nuclear

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31
Q

Indole test differentiates which set of organisms?
a. E. coli and Klebsiella oxytoca
b. Morganella and Providencia
c.
Salmonella and Shigella
d. P. vulgaris and P. mirabilis

A

P. vulgaris and P. mirabilis

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32
Q

What is the positive result of CAMP test?
a. satelliting colonies around streaked colonies of S. aureus
b. inhibition of growth of suspected organism when S. aureus is present
c. arrowhead-shaped growth at the juncture of suspected organism and S. agalactiae colonies
d. arrowhead-shaped zone of enhance hemolysis at the juncture of suspected organism &
beta-lysin producing S. aureus

A

arrowhead-shaped zone of enhance hemolysis at the juncture of suspected organism &
beta-lysin producing S. aureus

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33
Q

Arbovirus infections usually manifest as:
a. Encephalitis
b. Any of these
c. Fever with or without myalgia and rashes
d. Hemorrhagic Fever

A

Any of these

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34
Q

Which of the following dermatophytes infect skin, hair and nails?
a. Trichophyton
b. Trichosporon
c. Microsporum
d. Epidermophyton

A

Trichophyton

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35
Q

Which of the following viruses targets B cells that may lead to Burkitt’s Lymphoma and IM?
a. HHV 8
b. HTLV-1
c. EBV
d. CMV

A

EBV

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36
Q

All of the following are correct regarding methylene blue except:
a. can be used as simple bacterial stain
b. indicator of anaerobiosis
c.
inhibits gram-positive bacteria in enteric media
d. pH indicator in TCBS

A

pH indicator in TCBS

TCBS pH indicator are Bromthymol Blue and Thymol Blue

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37
Q

Correct about satellite phenomenon:
1. S aureus grows around the hemolytic colonies of H. inuenzae
2. H. inuenzae grows around the hemolytic colonies of S. aureus
3. Also known as Nagler reaction
4. Uses SBA instead of Chocolate agar
a. 2 and 4
b. 1 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 2 and 3

A

2 and 4

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38
Q

Swabs are required to be placed in viral transport medium. Transport media such as UTM
maintain the viability of specimens
a. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false
b. Both are true
c. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true
d. Both are false

A

Both are true

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39
Q

Yellow butt and red slant in TSI tube indicates fermentation of:
a. glucose
b. lactose and/ or sucrose
c.
lactose
d. lactose and glucose

A

glucose

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40
Q

A hepatitis virus that is orally transmitted and causes higher mortality among pregnant
women?
a. HBV
b. HDV
c. HAV
d. HEV

A

HEV

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41
Q

Which of the following sets of results represent the most common reactions for Moraxella
catarrhalis
when tested in CTA sugar tubes?
a. Glucose: Positive; Maltose: Negative; Lactose: Positive; Sucrose: Negative
b. Glucose: Positive; Maltose: Negative; Lactose: Negative; Sucrose: Negative
c. Glucose: Positive; Maltose: Positive; Lactose: Negative; Sucrose: Negative
d. Glucose: Negative; Maltose: Negative; Lactose: Negative; Sucrose: Negative

A

Glucose: Negative; Maltose: Negative; Lactose: Negative; Sucrose: Negative

42
Q

Lecithinase production, double zone hemolysis on sheep blood agar, and gram-stained
morphology are all useful criteria in identification of
a. Escherichia coli
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Clostridium perfringens
d.
Streptococcus agalactiae

A

Clostridium perfringens

43
Q

Heat stable antigen of enterics located on their cell wall:
a. O
b.
K
c. H
d. Vi

44
Q

Positive for PYRase hydrolysis: 1. S. pyogenes 2. S. agalactiae 3. S.pneumoniae 4. E.
faecalis
a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 4

45
Q

V. cholerae colonies on TCBS:
a. blue
b. yellow
c. green
d.
red

46
Q

Edwardsiella tarda biochemically may be confused with Salmonella in that it is:
a. Urea positive
b. Non-motile
c. Lactose positive
d. Hydrogen sulfide positive

A

Hydrogen sulfide positive

47
Q

A test for the hydrolysis of esculin in the presence of bile is especially useful in identifying
a. Brucella
b. Haemophilus
c. Enterococcus
d. Staphylococcus

A

Enterococcus

48
Q

On Tinsdale agar, colonies of Corynbacterium diphtheriae are differentiated by the
observance of:
a. Liquefaction of the agar surrounding colonies present on the medium
b. Black colonies on the medium, surrounded by brown halos
c. Opalescent colonies with a white precipitate in the surrounding agar
d. Pitting of the agar surrounding the colonies that are present

A

Black colonies on the medium, surrounded by brown halos

49
Q

Negative reaction in Decarboxylase Tests (Moeller’s Method) is indicated by which color?
a. Yellow
b. Magenta
c. Purple
d. Blue

50
Q

Which is the best rapid, noncultural test to perform when Gardnerella. vaginalis is
suspected?
a. 3% H2O2
b. 10% H2O2
c. 10% KOH
d. 30% KOH

51
Q

Positive result in Bacitracin Susceptibility test (0.04 units) is a zone of inhibition greater
than ___ mm
a. 5
b. 15
c. 10
d. 20

52
Q

Which spore type and location is found on Clostridium tetani?
a. Oval, subterminal spores
b. Oval, terminal spores
c. Round, terminal spores
d. Round, subterminal spores

A

Round, terminal spores

53
Q

Indicator used in MSA used for selective isolation of staphylococcus spp.
a. Bromcresol green
b. Neutral red
c. Bromthymol blue
d. Phenol red

A

Phenol red

54
Q

Selective media for P. aeruginosa:
a. CCFA
b. CIN agar
c. MAC with sorbitol
d. Cetrimide agar

A

Cetrimide aga

55
Q

Abiotrophia formerly known as nutritionally variant streptococci (NVS) will not grow on
routine blood or chocolate agars because they are deficient in:
a. Pyridoxal
b. Vitamin B12
c. Thiophene-2-carboxyclic hydrazide
d. Hemin

A

Vitamin B12

56
Q

Which of the following amino acids are required for growth of Francisella tularensis?
a. Arginine and lysine
b. Cysteine and cystine
c. Leucine and ornithine
d. Histidine and tryptophan

A

Cysteine and cystine

57
Q

Which of the following is classified as anaerobic culture media?
a. CCFA
b. BCYE
c. CIN
d. MTM

58
Q

Specimens that may be cultured anaerobically (1) Sputum (2) Needle Aspirate (3) Swabs of
infected wounds (4) Suprapubic-aspirated urine
a. 2 and 4
b. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3

59
Q

Most common pathogen isolated on throat cultures causing pharyngitis:
a. Listeria monocytogenes
b. Bordetella pertusis
c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
d. Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

60
Q

Which group of tests best differentiates Helicobacter pylori from C. jejuni?
a. Catalase, oxidase, and cephalothin sensitivity
b. Catalase, oxidase, and nalidixic acid sensitivity
c. Catalase, oxidase, and Gram stain
d. Urease, nitrate, and hippurate hydrolysis

A

Urease, nitrate, and hippurate hydrolysis

61
Q

TSI agar is composed of 3 carbohydrate in a ratio such as:
a. 1% glucose,1 % lactose, 1 % maltose
b. 1% glucose,1 % lactose, 1 % sucrose 
c. 0.1% glucose,1 % lactose, 1 % sucrose
d. 1% glucose, 0.1% lactose, 1 % maltose

A

0.1% glucose,1 % lactose, 1 % sucrose

62
Q

What are the resulting changes in Simmons citrate agar if the organism can utilize sodium
acetate as its only carbon source? (positive reaction)
a. growth on medium, change of color from green to blue
b. growth on medium, change of color from blue to green
c. no growth on medium, retaining the original color blue of medium
d. no growth on medium, retaining the original color green of medium

A

growth on medium, change of color from green to blue

63
Q

Which of the following enrichment medium for Streptococcus?
a. Brain Heart infusion broth
b. Trypticase soy broth
c. Todd Hewitt broth
d. Selenite broth

A

Todd Hewitt broth

64
Q

An enzyme produced by Streptococcus pyogenes that solubilizes the ground substance of
mammalian connective tissues and helping to spread the infection.
a. Eryhthrogenic Toxin
b. Hyaluronidase
c. DNase
d. Streptokinase

A

Hyaluronidase

65
Q

Positive result in Acetamide Utilization test:
a. Magenta
b. Yellow
c. Blue
d. Purple

66
Q

Which of the following Streptococcal species has the enzyme hippuricase?
a. S. bovis
b. S. agalactiae
c. S. pneumoniae
d. S. pyogenes

A

S. agalactiae

67
Q

When clinical specimens are being processed for the recovery of Mycobacterium
tuberculosis, the generally recommended method for digestion and decontamination of the
sample is:
a. 1% HCl
b. NALC-NaOH
c. TSP
d. 6% NaOH

68
Q

The Moeller test for the detection of decarboxylase activity is dependent upon:
a. a deamination of tryptophan
b. an alkaline pH shift in the medium
c. the oxidation of gluconate
d. an acid pH basal medium

A

an alkaline pH shift in the medium

69
Q

Catalase test should not be performed on:
a. blood agar, because blood has catalase
b. nutrient agar, because it is not enriched
c. tryptic soy agar, because the protein interferes
d. glass slides, because agar is required

A

blood agar, because blood has catalase

70
Q

Urea hydrolysis test is performed on what medium?
a. Krigler’s iron agar
b. Simmons medium
c. Christensen medium
d. Moellers medium

A

Christensen medium

71
Q

Which of the following is not included in the Mycosel medium?
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Cycloheximide
c. Vancomycin
d. SDA

A

Vancomycin

72
Q

What stain is incorporated in the Aman medium?
a. mucicarmine
b. Methylene blue
c. Cotton blue
d. Prussian blue

A

Cotton blue

73
Q

HIV
a. RNA
b. Neither
c. DNA
d. Both

74
Q

BK Virus
a. RNA
b. Both
c. Neither
d. DNA

75
Q

Which of the following is a DNA virus?
a. Rotavirus
b. Rubella
c. HIV
d. Chickenpox

A

Chickenpox

76
Q

Which among the choice below would be the most useful morphological feature that can
aid in the identification of the tissue phase of Histoplasma capsulatum?
a. presence of capsule
b. tuberculate macroconidia, 8-14 micrometer
c. small budding round yeast cells located intracellularly to monocytes visible with Giemsa stain
d. arthrospores every other cell

A

small budding round yeast cells located intracellularly to monocytes visible with Giemsa stain

77
Q

For lab scientists handling cultures of Coccidioides, it should be handled in a BSL ___.
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
e. Any of these

78
Q

Rubella
a. Both
b. Neither
c. DNA
d. RNA

79
Q

Congenital Defects; Mono-like illness
a. VZV
b. CMV
c. EBV
d. Parvovirus B19

80
Q

Which of the following possess aseptate hypha?
a. Absidia
b. Cryptococcus
c. Phailophora
d. Aspergillus
e. Candida

81
Q

Which of the following is incorrect about fungi?
a. Cell membrane contains sterols
b. Fungi are eukaryotic organisms
c. Cell wall is composed of murein
d. Able to produce reproductive spores

A

Cell wall is composed of murein

82
Q

Hyphal elements appear magenta using this stain
a. GMS
b. PAS
c. Gram Stain
d. Calcofluor white

83
Q

Chlamydospores that grow at the tip of the hypha are referred as
a. Terminal
b. Sessile
c. Apical
d. Intercalary

84
Q

Which virus from the following options has an affinity for the nervous system?
a. Rhinovirus
b. Rabies
c. Influenza A
d. Hepatitis

85
Q

Match the following fungi and their associated characteristic feature

Coccidioides immitis

a. Spherules
b. Capsulated Yeast
c. Oocyst

86
Q

Pneumocystis

a. Spherules
b. Capsulated Yeast
c. Oocyst

87
Q

Candida albicans

a. Spherules
b. Capsulated Yeast
c. Oocyst
d. germ tube

88
Q

Trichophyton rubrum
a. En thryse arrangement
b. Capsulated Yeast
c. Oocyst
d. germ tube

A

En thryse arrangement

89
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

a. En thryse arrangement
b. Capsulated Yeast
c. Oocyst
d. germ tube

A

Capsulated Yeast

90
Q

Mycotic infections involving traumatic skin puncture:
a. Subcutaneous
b. Opportunistic
c. Cutaneous
d. Systemic
e. Superficial

A

Subcutaneous

91
Q

A complete viral particle is termed
a. Capsomere
b. Nucleocapsid
c. Capsid
d. Virion

92
Q

Which of the following is an ether stable icosahedral RNA virus implicated in infantile
diarrhea
a. HIV
b. Rotavirus
c. Adenovirus
d. Picornavirus

93
Q

The basic functional unit of molds:
a. Rhizoids
b. Spores
c. Hypha
d. Mycelium

94
Q

Which virus from the following options is a dsRNA virus?
a. HIV
b. Rotavirus
c. Influenza
d. Measles

95
Q

Match the following hyphal elements to its associated fungi

Rhizoids

M. auduoinii
No match
T. schoenlinii
Rhizopus

96
Q

Match the following hyphal elements to its associated fungi
Pectinate hypha

M. auduoinii
No match
T. schoenlinii

A

M. auduoinii

97
Q

Match the following hyphal elements to its associated fungi
Spirals

No match
T. schoenlinii
T. mentagrophytes

A

T. mentagrophytes

98
Q

Match the following hyphal elements to its associated fungi
Antler hypha

M. auduoinii
No match
T. schoenlinii

A

T. schoenlinii

99
Q

Match the following hyphal elements to its associated fungi

Microspores

M. auduoinii
No match
T. schoenlinii

100
Q

Pfeiffer’s Disease
a. Norovirus
b. EBV
c. VZV
d. Parvovirus B19

MTAP 1 (15 decks)

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