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MTAP 1 > Mycoviro > Flashcards

Mycoviro Flashcards

1
Q

Fungi also known as

A

Thallophytes

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2
Q

true or false
Ergosterols are present in Mycoplasma and
Ureaplasma

A

true, they are the only bacteria that has Ergosterols

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3
Q

composition of complex carbohydrates in fungi

A

chitin,
glucans, and mannans

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4
Q

fungi pH
Requirement

A

ph 5 acidic

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5
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
metabolism of fungi can be Heterotrophic
Photoautotrophic , and Chemoautotrophic

A

false, they only metabolize thru Heterotrophic/Chemoheterotrophic

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6
Q

phase of fungi having multiple forms and structures

A

Polymorphic Fungi

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7
Q

phase of fungi Having two (2) phases which are dependent on the temperature

A

Dimorphic Fungi

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8
Q

daughter cells (blastoconidia) that fail to detach from mother cell

A

Pseudohyphae

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9
Q

Moist, creamy, or buttery colonies with an alcohol-like odor

A

yeast

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10
Q

– Basic functional unit of mold

A

thallus

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11
Q

mold can be categorize by which category

A

According to presence/absence of cross walls
According to pigmentation (melanin)

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12
Q

Pigmented hypha

A

Phaeoid/Dematiaceous

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13
Q

Non-pigmented hypha

A

Hyaline/Moniliaceous

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14
Q

→ mass/aggregate of hypha

A

mycelium

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15
Q

compisition of mycelium

A

thallus, aerial, fertile hypha

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16
Q

Dry, cottony with a velvety surface
* Can be identified/classified by appearance or type of spores

A

mold

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17
Q

RACQUET HYPHAE
resemble tennis
racquet

A

Epidermophyton
floccosum

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18
Q

SPIRAL
corkscrew like vegetative Hypha

A

Trichophyton
mentagrophytes

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19
Q

NODULAR
enlarged knots of
closely twisted hyphae

A

Microsporum
canis

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20
Q

FAVIC CHANDELIER
antler like appearance

A

Tricophyton
scheonleinii

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21
Q

RHIZOIDS
root like processes

A

Rhizopus

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22
Q

PECTINATE BODIES
looks like a tooth of a
comb

A

Microsporum
auduoinii

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23
Q

true or false
All conidia are SEXUAL spores

A

false; they are asexual

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24
Q

All conidia are ASEXUAL spores
Arises from the side of hypha

A

Conidia

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25
Q

Small unicellular
May appear as:
▪ Teardrop
▪ Pyriform

A

microconidia

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26
Q

Large multicellular; spindle shaped
→ May appear as:
▪ Echinulate
− Spiny
▪ Smooth, rough
▪ Thick or thin

A

macroconidia

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27
Q

mold that tends to have thick macroconidia

A

Microsporum

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28
Q

mold that tends to have thin macroconidia

A

Trichophyton

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29
Q

true or false
Tuberculate has protrusion

A

true

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30
Q

club shaped, hand grenade (Alternaria)
is usually seen in cultures of Alternaria

A

Muriform

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31
Q

Sickle shape
− can exhibit sickle shape or boat shaped Macroconidia

A

Fusarium

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32
Q

Arise from simple budding

A

Blastoconidia

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33
Q

Thick-walled spores; resistant; formed during unfavorable conditions

A

Chlamydoconidia

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34
Q

Barrel shaped or rectangular spores
* Produced from fragmentation
* Seen in Coccidioides

A

Arthroconidia

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35
Q

mold that has “Hockey stick” appearance

A

Geotrichum

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36
Q

true or false
Zygomytoces are Sporangiospores

A

true

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37
Q

Sexual reproductive spores
Mnemonic: BAZO

A

Basidiospores
Ascospores
Zygospores
Oospores

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38
Q

Derived from fusion from 2 non-identical separate hypha

A

Oospores

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39
Q

Derived from fusion from 2 identical cells from the same hypha

A

Zygospores

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40
Q

Enclosed in a clubshaped structure (basidium)

A

Basidiospores

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41
Q

Enclosed in a sac (ascus

A

Ascospores

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42
Q

which are true about SUPERFICIAL MYCOSES
1. Commonly acquired through close contact or direct contact with the infected
2. can be symptomatic
3. invasive; involve the horny nonliving layer of the skin and extrafollicular
parts (hair) of the skin.

a. all are true
b. 1 and 2 are true
c. 1 and 3 are true
d. only 1 is true
e. none is true

A

only 1 is true

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43
Q

Also known as Pityriasis versicolor

A

TINEA VERSICOLOR

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44
Q

TINEA VERSICOLOR causative agent

A

Malassezia furfur

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45
Q

Hypopigmentation in dark skin individual.
Hyperpigmentation in fair skin individuals

a. both statement is true
b. only 1st stament is true
c. only 2nd stament is true
d. none or the statements are true

A

both statement is true

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46
Q

apperance of Malassezia furfur under direct KOH mount

A

spaghetti and meat balls appearance.

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47
Q

SDA component that is used because the organism is a lipophilic organism that
prefers growing in lipid rich substances.

A

olive oil

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48
Q

true or false
Piedra infection does not affect the whole hair but only on where the nodule is present.

A

true

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49
Q

Caused by fungus called Piedraia hortae

A

Black piedra

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50
Q

Caused by Trichosporon beigeli

A

White piedra

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51
Q

nodules are
Pigmented
▪ Hard
▪ Firmly attached

A

→ Black piedra

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52
Q

nodules are
Less/ none pigmented
▪ The nodule is slightly soft or mucilaginous
▪ Not firmly attached

A

White piedra

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53
Q

Also known as Keratomycosis nigricans palmaristhe palms.

A

TINEA NIGRA

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54
Q

TINEA NIGRA Etiologic Agent

A

Hortaea werneckii

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55
Q

Fungal infections affecting the
scalp

A

T. capitis

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56
Q

Severe type of T. capitis
* Permanent alopecia

A

T. favosa

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57
Q

Fungal infection affecting the
facial hair

A

T. barbae

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58
Q
  • Fungal infection affecting
    the body
  • Circular lesions on the bod
A

T. corporis

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59
Q
  • Lesion on the “singit” or
    inguinal area
  • Also called as “jock itch”
A

T. cruris

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60
Q
  • Also called as “athlete’s foot”
  • Most common fungal
    infection in the world
A

T. pedis

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61
Q

Ringworm of the nails

A

T. unguium

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62
Q

Lesions on the hand

A

T. manuum

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63
Q
  • Presence of concentric
    lesions in the body
A

T. imbricata

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64
Q

T. imbricata Causative agent

A

Trichophyton concentricum

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65
Q

infection that has : mosaic pattern

A

Ectothrix infection

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66
Q

Zoophilic
* Large, spindle shaped rough/echinulate macroconidia, terminal ends are
curved (beaked apex)
associated with tinea capitis

A

M. canis

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67
Q
  • 3-9 called broadly spindle shaped rough- walled macroconidia with rounded
    terminal ends
A

M. gypseum

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68
Q

has Pectinate hypha

A

M. audouinii

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69
Q

Infects skin and nails
* Macroconidia: smooth walled
* NO MICROCONDIA
* Wood’s Lamp: Positive
* Culture
→ Smooth walled club shaped macroconidia

A

EPIDERMOPHYTON

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70
Q
  • Infects skin, hair, and nails
    → Very common agent of Cutaneous mycoses, since it can affect the skin,
    the hair, and the nails
  • Infects skin, hair, and nails
    Wood’s Lamp: (-)
A

TRICHOPHYTON

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71
Q

Are composed of eosinophilic (pinkish) structures that are remnants of
an immune complex reaction

A

Asteroid Bodies

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72
Q

Also known as “Keloidal Blastomycosis”

A

LOBOMYCOSIS

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73
Q

→ Lesions that look like mycetoma
→ Caused by bacterial infection
→ Usually caused by S. aureus

A

Botyromycotic

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74
Q

Most common cause of white grain mycetoma in US

A

Pseudoallescheria boydii

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75
Q

Most common agent associated with mycetomas

A

Madurella mycetomatis

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76
Q

True or false
In mycetoma, there is a presence of granulomas or granulomatous
lesions in the foot, wherein the lesions would have sinus tracts.

A

true

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77
Q

has lab diagnosis
* Dematiaceous fungi
* Wartlike, cauliflower like lesions
* There is no bone involvement
* Dx: Sclerotic Bodies

A

Chromoblastomycosis

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78
Q

Blastomyces dermatitidis MOT

A

Inhalation of spores (airborne)

79
Q

Multiple buds or “Mariner’s wheel appearance”

A

Causative agent: Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

80
Q

found primarily in San Joaquin Valley area in
California

A

Coccidioides immitis

81
Q

Also known as:
→ Darling’s Disease
→ Reticuloendothelial Cytomycosis
→ Cave disease
→ Spelunker disease

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

82
Q

colonies on BAP have “foot-like” or pedicle appearance on
the side that arise from the colony

A

Candida albicans

83
Q

“logs on a stream” (appearance on culture)

A

Candida kefyr

84
Q

fungemia in NICU; sagebrush colonies

A

Candida parapsilosis

85
Q

candida spp that has no pseudohypha

A

Candida glabrata

86
Q

Emerging species of Candida which is associated with multi-drug
resistance (MDR)

A

Candida auris

87
Q

Associated with:
→ Torulosis
→ European blastomycosis
→ Busse-Buschke disease

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

88
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans Animal Reservoir:

A

Pigeons

89
Q

Cryptococcus spp that Can affect healthy individuals and immunocompromise

A

C. gatti

90
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans Colony Morphology

A

Brown Black colonies

91
Q

Affects HIV positive patients in Southeast Asia
▪ Take note of Travel history from Southeast Asia
→ Chronic cough

A

Talaromyces marneffei

92
Q

Yellow pink colonies with diffusible red pigment

A

Talaromyces marneffei

93
Q

Highly associated with pneumonia especially among AIDS patients
Honeycomb exudates (pinkish structures) can be found on lung tissue
biopsy

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

94
Q

inhibit or kills Zygomycetes

A

Cycloheximide

95
Q

*Also known as Aman Medium
*Excellent mounting medium for most fungi
* Most widely used stain

A

Lactophenol
Cotton Blue

96
Q

→ Exhibits bluish
-white or apple
-green
fluorescence depending on filter used
* Stains chitin

A

Calcofluor
White Stain

97
Q

Demonstration of encapsulated yeast

A

. India Ink

98
Q

differentiation of fungi in tissue scrapings → Stains fungi magenta

A

Periodic Acid Schiff

99
Q

Hucker’s Modification * Use of crystal violet and ammonium oxalate * Fungi is always gram-positive

A

Gram Stain

100
Q

Best fungal stain for tissues ▪ Fungi is stained black

A

Grocott Methenamine Silver

101
Q

Allows growth of
dermatophytes and to
separate saprophytes
and bacteria

A

Dermatophyte
Test Medium

102
Q

For Trichophyton rubrum
and T. mentagrophytes;
chlamydospore
production

A

Cornmeal Agar
with 1%
glucose

103
Q

Based on the ff diseases, what is the virus?

Gingivostomatitis
Herpes Labialis (cold sores).
Herpetic Gladiatorum – athletes.
Herpetic Whitlow – medical professionals

A

Herpes Simplex Virus 1

104
Q

Based on the ff diseases, what is the virus?
Genital Herpes; Neonatal Herpes

A

Herpes Simplex Virus 2

105
Q

Chickenpox
Zoster/ Shingles

A

HHV3 – Varicella Zoster Virus

106
Q

Infectious Mononucleosis
Kissing Disease, Pfeiffer’s disease

A

HHV4 – Epstein Barr Virus

107
Q

Congenital Disease: Cytomegalic inclusion Disease
CMV Retinitis (HIV) – 40 day virus

A

HHV5 – Cytomegalovirus

108
Q

6th disease / Roseola Infantum / Exanthem Subitum

A

HHV6 and HHV7

109
Q

Affects the connective tissues of AIDS patients

A

HHV8 – Kaposi Sarcoma

110
Q

Serum Hepatitis

A

Hepatitis B Virus

111
Q

Hepatitis disease wherein dane particle can be seen

A

Hepatitis D Virus

112
Q

Acute respiratory distress, Conjunctivitis (sore eyes), Gastroenteritis, Pneumonia
Outbreaks and military recruits

A

Adenovirus

113
Q

Smallpox / Variola – Guarnieri Bodies
Molluscum Contagiosum – Water warts/Cup – shaped Crater
Monkeypox – Centrifugal

A

Poxvirus

114
Q

Genital warts – also known as condyloma acuminata (serotype 6, 11)
Cervical Cancer – Koilocytosis (Serotype 16, 18)

A

PAPILLOMAVIRIDAE

115
Q

POLYOMAVIRIDAE
Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy

A

JC Virus

116
Q

POLYOMAVIRIDAE
Hemorrhagic Cystitis

A

BK virus

117
Q

5th disease / Erythema Infectiosum
Gloves and Socks syndrome
Hydrops Fetalis

A

Parvovirus B19

118
Q

Rhinovirus causes

A

common cold (ACID LABILE)

119
Q

Enteroviruses causes

A

aseptic meningitis (ACID STABLE)

120
Q

Aseptic Meningitis
Flaccid Asymmetric Paralysis

A

Poliovirus

121
Q

Aseptic meningitis
Myocytis
Hand foot and mouth disease (children)
Herpangina (vesicular pharyngitis)

A

Coxsackie A

122
Q

viral heart diseases
Pleurodynia (Devil’s Grip)
Pericarditis
Diabetes
Myocarditis - Spastic paralysis

A

Coxsackie B

123
Q

Hepatitis A (Enterovirus ??)

A

Enterovirus 72

124
Q

Infectious Hepatitis
Epidemic Hepatitis

A

Hepatitis A (Enterovirus 72

125
Q

Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis Virus
Lassa fever

A

ARENAVIRIDAE

126
Q

Acute flaccid myelitis

A

Enterovirus D68

127
Q

CALICIVIRIDAE
Winter vomiting disease (adult

A

Norwalk virus

128
Q

CALICIVIRIDAE
Diarrhea among infants

A

sapovirus

129
Q

fulminant hepatitis
high mortality on pregnant women

A

Hepatitis E virus

130
Q

Star-shaped
Gastroenteritis/ diarrhea

A

ASTROVIRIDAE

131
Q

Alpha coronavirus strains

A

229E and NL63

132
Q

Beta coronavirus strains

A

OC43 and HKUl

133
Q

FILOVIRIDAE
Most deadly type of ebola

A

Ebola Zaire

134
Q

Hemorrhagic fever
- thread like; filamentous” “Sheperd’s crook

A

FILOVIRIDAE

135
Q

Parainfluenza virus – laryngotracheobronchitis
Mumps
Measles (also known as Rubeola)

A

PARAMYXOVIRIDAE

136
Q

German measles

A

Rubella

137
Q
  • Koplik Spots in mucosa: “grains of salt on a red background”
  • CPE: Giant cells
    are seen in what disease?
A

measles

138
Q

PARAMYXOVIRIDAE
May develop encephalitis and interstitial pneumonia
→ Zoonotic
→ Animals involved horse and pig

A

Nipah and Hendra Virus

139
Q

ORTHOMYXOVIRIDAE
Hemagglutinin (80%) shaped?

A

Rod-shaped

140
Q
  • ORTHOMYXOVIRIDAE
    Neuraminidase (20%)
A

Mushroom shaped

141
Q

Influenza virues are from what genus of virus

A

ORTHOMYXOVIRIDAE

142
Q

Causes the outbreaks and pandemics
▪ Spanish Flu A (H1N1)
▪ Bird Flu A (HSN1)
▪ Swine Flu A (H1N1)

A

Influenza A

143
Q

Influenza that causes the epidemics

A

Influenza B

144
Q

Influenza that Causes mild respiratory disease

A

Influenza C

145
Q

Influenza that Infects animals only

A

Influenza D

146
Q

Involves significant or sudden changes in the genetic material leading
to new strain of Influenza
▪ Associated to Influenza A

A

Antigenic Shift

147
Q

Minor changes in genetic material
▪ Slow
▪ All Influenza viruses may undergo this process

A

Antigenic Drift

148
Q

SOC for influenza serological testing

A

Nasopharyngeal swabs

149
Q

Bullet shaped RNA viruses

A

RHABDOVIRIDAE

150
Q

Virus that targets the CNS (CNS inflammation)
→ Acquired through getting bitten or scratched by infected dogs, cats, and
other mammals (Zoonotic)

A

Rabies virus

151
Q

gold standard serologic test for rabies virus

A

Fluorescent Antibody Test

152
Q

negri bodies appears in what virus

A

rabies virus

153
Q

Arthropod borne viruses

A

ARBOVIRUSES

154
Q

Usually associated to hemorrhagic fever and encephalitis
* Genome with 3 segments (S,M,L)

A

BUNYAVIRIDAE

155
Q

BUNYAVIRIDAE
Transmitted by mosquitoes (Aedes)

A

California Encephalitis Virus

156
Q

Transmitted by mosquitoes (culex)

A

Rift Valley Fever

157
Q

Crimean Congo Hemorrhagic Fever
MOT?

A

ticks

158
Q

→ Rodent-borne viruses (any contact with rodents, via inhalation or
ingestion of urine or feces of rodents)
→ Hemorrhagic fever with renal/kidney involvement

A

Hantavirus

159
Q

Rodent-borne viruses
Hemorrhagic fever with pulmonary involvement (difficulty in breathing)

A

Sin Nombre

160
Q

Transmitted by mosquitoes (Aedes aegypti) but may be transmitted by
others (Haemagogus

A

Yellow fever

161
Q

Yellow fever
St. Louis Encephalitis
West Nile Fever
Japanese Encephalitis
dengue fever
Zika
Hepatitis C

A

FLAVIVIRIDAE

162
Q

Hepatitis disease wherein thet is a higher chance to develop hepatocellular carcinoma (liver cancer) since
higher risk for chronic state

A

Hepatitis C

163
Q

Non-A Non-B Hepa and Transfusion
Related Hepa

A

Hepatitis C

164
Q

Used as a marker in the past when there was still no established
diagnostic test for Hepa C

A

AL;T

165
Q

vertical transmission is possible, congenital defects occur like
microcephaly, mental retardation, autoimmune disease, and Gullian
Barre Syndrome

A

Zika

166
Q

REOVIRIDAE
→ Dengue like S/S
→ Vector: Tick

A

Colorado Tick Fever

167
Q

Most important cause of infantile diarrhea (double capsid)

A

Rotavirus

168
Q

Colorado Tick Fever verctor?

A

tick

169
Q

Encephalitis Outbreaks in South America

A

Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis

170
Q

Forscheimer/Forchheimer spots (rose colored spots on palate
or inside the mouth)
− Appears after rash

A

German Measles

171
Q

Blueberry Muffin seen in

A

Congenital Rubella Disease

172
Q

Tropical spastic
paraparesis
* Adult T cell
leukemia
* Flower cells on
PBS

A

HTLV1 (Human T cell
lymphotrophic virus)

173
Q
  • Seen in Hairy Cell
    Leukemia
  • Can also cause
    Tropical Spastic
    Paraperesis
  • HTLV associated
    myelopathy
A

HTLV-2

174
Q

Most common subtype of HIV1

A

Group M

175
Q

True or flase
If CD4 count is less than 200 cells/ul and or presence of opportunistic
infections such as AIDS

A

TRUE

176
Q

Markers of HIV 1
+) 4 to 10 days after HIV RNA
detection

A

P24

177
Q

Markers of HIV 1 (+) 10 days after infection

A

HIV RNA

178
Q

Persists (+) 18 to 38 days after HIV
RNA detection

A

Anti-HIV IgG

179
Q

Co-receptors FOR HIV 1

A

CXCR4 and CCR5

180
Q

Important Proteins in HIV 1:

A

Gp41: Transmembrane protein
▪ Gp 120: Docking protein

181
Q

P17: ? protein
▪ P24: ? protein

A

P17: Matrix protein
▪ P24: Capsid protein

182
Q

1st Generation Tests for HIV

A

Purified Viral Lysates as Antigens
▪ Ex. Western Blot; IFA

183
Q

2nd Generation Tests for HIV

A

Recombinant Viral Proteins
▪ Ex. EIA; rapid tests

184
Q

Double Antigen Sandwich Assay
▪ Ex. EIA

A

3rd Generation

185
Q

Confirmatory test for HIV

A

Western Blot; IFA, RIPA (radioimmunoprecipitation assay);
Line Immunoassay

186
Q

Based on the result, does the patient have HIV?
2 out of 3 bands (p24, gp41, and gp120/gp160)

A

Indicates that there are antibodies against the HIV proteins

187
Q

HIV Screening test

A

serologic rapid test

188
Q

Causes Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies
→ Causes Neurodegenerative Diseases affecting humans and animals

A

prions

189
Q

Proteinaceous Infectious Particles

A

Not viruses, fungi, but they are also infectious material
→ Composed/Primarily made up of Proteins; NO DNA or RNA (no genome)

190
Q

Gertsmann-Straussler Scheunker Disease – variant of CJD

A

prions

191
Q

true or false
PRIONS are the most resistant of all infectious agents
→ They are difficult to destroy/eliminate compared to other infectious
diseases

A

true

192
Q

Mad Cow Disease other name

A

Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy

193
Q

Creutzfeldt Jakob Disease
causative agent

A

prions

MTAP 1 (15 decks)

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