Orthopedo Flashcards

1
Q

what is MDA used for?

A

to predict the size of the unerupted 3, 4, 5

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2
Q

uses ratio/proportion of Md and Mx tooth size to estimate overbite and overjet

A

Bolton’s analysis

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3
Q

determines if crowding is due to inadequate apical bases based on measurement of apical base width at premolar

A

Howe’s analysis

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4
Q

suggests ideal maxillary 4, 5, 6 arch form based on Mesiodistal diameter of 22/12

A

Pont’s index

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5
Q

if FL > MD = broader contact areas which will result in more stable and resistant crowding

A

Peck and Peck

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6
Q

Classified teeth into small, medium, and large

A

Sanim-Savarra

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7
Q

father of modern orthodontics

A

Edward Angle

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8
Q

Angle’s Class I Malocclusion

A

Class I/Neutrocclusion
MB cusp of Mx 1st molar lines up with buccal groove of Md 1st molar
Mx canine lies between the Md canine and 1st PM

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9
Q

Dewey’s modification of class I malocclusion

A

Class I type 1 = anterior crowding
type 2 = labioversion
type 3 = anterior crossbite
type 4 = posterior crossbite
type 5 = mesial drifting

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10
Q

Angle’s Class II malocclusion

A

Distoclussion/Retrognathism
Mb cusp of the Mx 1st molars falls between the Md 1st molar and 2nd PM
Mx canine is mesial to Md canine

Class II division 1: Mx CI in extreme labioversion (Sunday bite)
Class II division 2: MX CI tipped palatally and in retruded position; Mx LI are typically tipped labially or mesially

*SUBDIVISION = unilateral

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11
Q

Angle’s Class III Malocclusion

A

Mesiocclusion/Prognathism
MB cusp of the MX 1st molars falls between the Md 1st molar and 2nd molar
Mx canine is distal to Md canine

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12
Q

Dewey’s modification of class III

A

Class III Type 1: Edge to edge
type 2: anterior crowding
type 3: anterior crossbite

*SUBDIVISION = unilateral

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13
Q

most common malocclusion

A

Class I malocclusion

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14
Q

signs of incipient malocclusion

A
  1. lack of interdental spacing in the primary dentition
  2. crowding of permanent incisors in mixed dentition
  3. premature loss of primary Md canine
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15
Q

premature loss of primary Md canine, what is the space maintainer to be used?

A

Lingual holding arch with spurs

(prevent distalization of incisors)

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16
Q

Normal eruption sequence of Mx teeth? of Md teeth?

A

Mx: 61245378
Md: 61234578

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17
Q

Which surface of the deciduous anterior teeth resorbs first when permanent teeth erupts

A

linguo-apical

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18
Q

what is the “poor-man’s cephalometrics”

A

facial profile analysis

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19
Q

facial profile analysis reference points

A

glabella
subnasale
tip of chin (pogonion)

straight - class I
convex - class II
concave - class III

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20
Q

facial type

A

mesofacial, dolichofacial (long face), brachyfacial (broad face)

(soft tissue nasion to tip of chin) / bizygomatic width = facial type

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21
Q

the highest point in the concavity behind the occipital condyle

A

Bolton (Bo)

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22
Q

most forward and highest point of the anterior margin of foramen magnum

A

Basion (Ba)

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23
Q

point of intersection of the contour of the posterior cranial base and the posterior contour of the condylar process

A

Articulare (Ar)

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24
Q

junction of frontal bone and nasal bone

A

Nasion

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25
Q

most superior margin of the external auditory canal

A

Porion (Po)

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26
Q

midpoint of sella turcica

A

Sella (S) - most stable landmark in cephalometric radiograph

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27
Q

most inferior portion of the orbit

A

Orbitale

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28
Q

innermost point on contour of premaxilla between incisor and ANS

A

Point A (subspinale)

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29
Q

innermost point on contour of premaxilla between incisor and bony chin

A

Point B (supramentale)

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30
Q

most anterior point of the contour of the chin

A

Pogonion (Pog)

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31
Q

Most inferior part of the mandibular symphysis

A

Menton (Me)

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32
Q

lowest most posterior point on the mandible with teeth in occlusion

A

Gonion (Go)

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33
Q

point between Pogonion and menton

A

Gnathion

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34
Q

Porion to orbitale forms what plane?

A

Frankfurt-Horizontal Plane

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35
Q

Nasion to sella forms what plane?

A

Sella-nasion plane -represents anterior cranial base together with frankfurt horizontal plane

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36
Q

nasion to pogonion forms what plane?

A

facial plane

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37
Q

menton to gonion forms what plane?

A

mandibular plane

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38
Q

Frankfurt mandibular plane angle

A

mandibular plane and frankfurt-horizontal plane
normal: 22.3 - 34.5
steep mandibular plane angle: long vertical dimension, open bite, class II
flat FMA: short anterior facial vertical dimension, deep bite, class III

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39
Q

ANB

A

A to nasion and nasion to B
normal: 0-5
higher: skeletal class II
lower/negative: skeletal class III

*Remember mas anterior ang A kesa B

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40
Q

SNB

A

mandible to cranial base
SNB > normal = prognathic
SNB < normal = retrognathic
normal 77-79

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41
Q

SNA

A

determine relationship of maxilla to cranial base
SNA > normal = prognathic
SNA < normal = retrognathic
normal: 78-82

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42
Q

Tweed’s triangle is formed by what cephalometric angles

A

FMA - frankfurt-Md plane angle
FMIA frankfurt-Md incisor angle
IMPA - incisor Md plane angle

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43
Q

Indication of removable appliance

A

Tipping movements
Retention after comprehensive movements (retainers)
Growth modification during the mixed dentition (headgears)

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44
Q

Major components of Removable appliance

A

retentive component (adam’s clasp, ball clasp, c clasp, arrow clasp)
framework or baseplate
active component
anchorage component

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45
Q

headgears are usually used in?

A

developing skeletal class II
1. high pull (distal and intrusive)
2. cervical pull (distal and extrusive)
3. straight-pull (DISTAL ONLY)

developing skeletal class III
1. reverse-pull
2. chin cup

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46
Q

extra-oral headgear used to treat scoliosis

A

Milwaukee Brace

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47
Q

designed to modify growth during mixed dentition both dental and skeletal effects

A

functional appliance -primarily skeletal class II

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48
Q

MOA of functional appliance and types

A

advances the Md forward and allows condyle to move superiorly and posteriorly towards the fossa

A. TOOTH-BORNE APPLIANCE
1. activator -advances the Md to edge-to-edge
2. bionator - trimmed down activator
3. herbst - Mx and Md framework splinted together via PIN AND TUBE to hold Md forward
4. twin block - two-piece acrylic appliance

B. TISSUE-BORNE
1. Frankel functional appliance - alters both Md posture and contour of facial soft tissue

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49
Q

Order of wirebending

A

first order: in and out bends (facial/lingual/rotational)
second order: tip bends (mesially/distally)
third order: torque

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50
Q

Method by which a rectangular archwire is inserted into the bracket

A

edgewise method (invented by Edward Angle)

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51
Q

Device that projects horizontally to support auxillaries and is open on one side usually in the vertical or horizontal axis (HISTORY)

A

Bracket
Pin and tube - 1910
Ribbon arch / Begg appliance - 1915
Edgewise Appliance (1925)

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52
Q

Slot size of edgewise bracket

A

0.022 - 0.025
Conventional edgewise - order bends are needed
Pre-adjusted edgewise appliance (PEA) - order bends are incorporated

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53
Q

Most commonly used orthodontic appliance

A

edgewise appliance (BAND-FREE APPLIANCE)

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54
Q

Four basic components of fixed appliances

A

band, brackets, archwires, and auxillaries

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55
Q

BOND-free appliance

A

Crozat

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56
Q

bonding for brackets

A

resin cement; etch with 35 - 50% unbuffered phosphoric acid

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57
Q

Archwire properties

A

high strength, low stiffness, high range, and high formability

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58
Q

Archwire alloys

A

Stainless steel wires (18% Cr - 8% Ni)
Cobalt-chromium (40% Co - 20% Cr)
Ni-Ti (55 Ni - 45 Ti)
Beta-Ti wires (79 Ti - 11 Molybdenum)

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59
Q

Gives corrosion resistant properties

A

Chromium

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60
Q

Gives properties for ductility

A

Nickel

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61
Q

Gives properties for rigidity

A

Cobalt

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62
Q

Elastics (classes and used for??)

A

Class I (Horizontal) - IntRA-arch - for space closure, can open the bite (canine to molars)
Class II - Inter-arch - tx of class II (Mx 3 to Md 6)
Class III - inter-arch - tx of class III (Mx 6 to Md 3)

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63
Q

discrepancies in the faciolingual relationship of Mx and Md arch

A

Crossbite
-buccal crossbite
-lingual crossbite
-posterior crossbite
-anterior crossbite

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64
Q

Tx for posterior crossbites

A

A. Pre-adolescent
Slow
Expansion Lingual Arch (W-arch, Quad-helix)
Split removable plates with jackscrews/springs (Schwarz expander, Coffin spring)
slow/rapid
Fixed palatal expanders with jackscrews

B. Adolescent
Rapid palatal expanders (Hyrax, Haas)
Slow palatal expanders
Implant-supported expansion
Surgery

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65
Q

Tx for dental anterior crossbite (reverse overjet)

A

Tongue blade
inclined plane or composite inclines or catlan’s appliance
Hawley appliance with springs
jackscrew devices

Common cause: lack of space or over retained primary teeth

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66
Q

Tx for skeletal anterior crossbite

A

headgear, bilateral sagittal split osteotomy (BSSO)

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67
Q

Tx for functional anterior crossbite

A

Occlusal equilibration

common cause: malocclusion –> comfy bite

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68
Q

best way to prevent relapse after treating anterior crossbite

A

establish overbite

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69
Q

slow vs rapid expansion

A

0.5mm - 1mm /week
0.5mm - 1mm /day

*both can expand 5mm

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70
Q

one turn of expander

A

0.20 - 0.25mm of movement

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71
Q

Triads of thumbsucking

A

Duration (4-6hrs)
Frequency (am and pm)
Intensity (measured by sound)

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72
Q

Tx for thumbsucking

A

Less than 3 1/2 - observe
3 1/2 to 6 y/o - habit must cease for malocclusion to be self limiting

Palatal crib

**Correct habit prior to eruption of 6s!!

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73
Q

Consequences of thumbsucking habit

A

Functional posterior crossbite
Anterior open bite -> tongue thrusting

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74
Q

Most common malocclusion during early MDP

A

Anterior openbite

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75
Q

Most common cause of anterior openbite

A

Thumbsucking

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76
Q

Tx of anterior open bite in early MDP

A

No habit - no tx
With habit - break habit

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77
Q

Tx for tongue thrusting habit

A

*normal with developmental period (infantile swallowing)

Developmental period - no tx
Associated with thumbsucking - remove habit

Appliance: tongue crib

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78
Q

Appliance of choice to correct swallowing

A

Blue grass

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79
Q

Infantile vs adult swallowing

A

Infantile: 0-18mos (CN VII); tongue between gum pads
Adult: 4-5 y/o (CN V); tognue palatal to the maxillary central incisors

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80
Q

Mandibular space maintainers

A

Band and loop - unilateral single tooth loss
Lingual holding arch -bilateral single/multiple tooth loss, unilateral multiple tooth loss
Distal shoe
Partial denture

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81
Q

Maxillary space maintainers

A

Band and loop - unilateral single tooth loss
Transpalatal arch - unilateral multiple tooth loss
Nance - bilateral single/multiple
Distal shoe
Partial denture

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82
Q

Most common space maintainer

A

Band and loop

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83
Q

Appliance for hyperactive mentalis (4 names)

A

Lip bumper/ plumber / Mayne / Denholtz

84
Q

Appliance for mouth breathing

A

Oral vestibular screen / shield

85
Q

Primary determinant of diastema

A

Canine

86
Q

Detemines future antero-posterior position of permanent 1st molar (types?)

A

Primary molar relationship

Flush terminal plane - cusp to cusp to class I*
Distal step - class II
Mesial step class I to class III*

*Due to mesial shift by occupying primate spaces (EARLY, interdental spaces) OR nance leeway space (LATE, eruped 3 4 5)

87
Q

Difference between MD width of CDE and 345 (values??)

A

Nance leeway space always positive

Asian mx: 1.8mm (0.9mm each side)
Asian md: 3.4mm

88
Q

Location of primate spaces

A

Maxillary: mesial of primary canine / distal of primary lateral incisors or bet B and C

Mandibular: distal of primary canine / mesial of primary first molars or bet C and D

89
Q

Causes of diastema

A

Normal part of development
Tooth size discrepancy
Mesiodents
Crestal frenal attachment

*<2mm - Usually closes after canine erupts
*>2mm -unlikely to close and usually caused by supernumerary

90
Q

Tx of diastema

A

Due to supernumerary: Remove mesiodens but do not close yet until canine erupts
During MDP and less than 2: observe
Always wait for canine before tx of diastema

Ortho, resto

91
Q

Conditions associated with supernumerary teeth

A

Gardner’s syndrome (familial colorectal polyposis)
Down’s syndrome
Cleidocranial dysostosis/ dysplasia
Sturge-weber syndrome (encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis)

92
Q

What stage of development does supernumerary occur

A

Initiation - determine # of teeth

93
Q

How many teeth are present in a panoramic radiograph of a newly born child?

A

24

20 primary
4 6s

94
Q

Growth and development (growth curve)

A

Cephalocaudal growth curve (farther from the brain grows more but grows later)
Lymphoid growth curve (increase in size until puberty then decrease in size)

95
Q

Timing of growth spurt

A

3 times
the earlier the growth spurt, the earlier it will stop
1 F (3y/o) M (3y/o)
2 F (6-7) M (7-9)
3 F (11-12) M (14-15)

96
Q

Explain enlow’s principle

A

most of the facial bones are V-shaped and follows:
deposition: inner
resorption : outer

97
Q

Explain cortical drift

A

combined deposition and resorption results to a gradual growth movement towards the deposition surface. (Deposition faces the direction of growth)

98
Q

Explain piezoelectric theory

A

aka bioelectric theory

deposition: negative ions (anions)
resorption: positive ions (cations)

99
Q

Reason for increase in length of the body of mandible?

A

resorption process of the anterior border of ramus

at the age of 6, the greatest increase in size of the mandible occurs distal to the first molar

100
Q

growth center of maxilla, cortical drift direction and growth displacement

A

nasal septum
cortical drift direction: superior-posterior
growth displacement: downward-forward

101
Q

growth center of mandible, cortical drift direction and growth displacement

A

condylar cartilage
cortical drift direction: superior-posterior
growth displacement: downward-forward

102
Q

craniofacial growth theory: growth is controlled by genetic influence

A

genetic theory

103
Q

craniofacial growth theory: sutural growth is the proliferation of the connective tissue between two bones

A

Sicher’s theory

104
Q

craniofacial growth theory: growth depends on cartilage and periosteum

A

Scott’s theory cartilagenous theory
growth center

105
Q

craniofacial growth theory: functional matrices; mostly accepted

A

Moss’ theory
form follows function

Bone yields to soft tissue

106
Q

craniofacial growth theory: supports all theories

A

Van Limborg’s theory

107
Q

craniofacial growth theory: servosystem theory

A

Petrovic’s theory

108
Q

when does crowns of primary teeth begin to calcify?

A

14 weeks - 24 weeks IU or
2nd trimester
3.5 - 6 months IU

109
Q

enamel of primary central incisor is completed at what age?

A

1.5 to 2.5 months after birth

110
Q

enamel of primary molars is completed at what age

A

1st molar 6 months mx, 5.5months md
2nd molar 11 months mx, 10months md

111
Q

enamel of primary canines are completed at?

A

9 months

112
Q

natal teeth vs neonatal teeth

A

natal teeth - present at birth
neonatal teeth - present within 30days after birth

*both hypocalcified
*both possess high risk of aspiration

113
Q

tetracycline staining can affect a child’s teeth until what age?

A

8 y/o

if 5 y/o, teeth affected would be canine, premolar, 2nd molar

114
Q

Nolla’s stages of development

A

Stage 0 - absence of crypt
stage 1 - presence of crypt
stage 2 - initial calcification
stage 3 - 1/3 of crown completed
stage 4 - 2/3 of crown completed
stage 5 - crown almost completed
stage 6 - crown completed; root formation begins, ERUPTION STARTS
stage 7 - 1/3 root completed
stage 8 - 2/3 root completed, TOOTH CLINICALLY EVIDENT
stage 9 - root almost complete, open apex
stage 10 - root completed, closed apex

115
Q

tooth that does not resemble any permanent tooth?

A

primary mandibular first molars
POT BELLY appearance
No central fossa
big MB cervical ridge
rounded and short DISTAL surface
flat and long MESIAL surface

116
Q

molar teeth that resembles permanent teeth

A

primary md 1st molar -> WALA
Primary md 2nd molar -> md 1st molar
primary mx 1st molar -> mx 1st premolar
primary mx 2nd molar -> mx 1st molar

117
Q

only anterior teeth that have greater width than height

A

primary maxillary central incisors

118
Q

Teeth developmental lobes

A

all anterior teeth - 4 lobes
all pms - 4 lobes except md 2nd PM - 5 lobes
mandi first molars - 5 lobes
maxi 1st molars 4 lobes or 5
2nd molars - 4 lobes
3rd molars - at least 4 lobes

peg shaped - 2 lobes

119
Q

first dental visit should be

A

as soon as first tooth erupts or within 6 months

120
Q

classification of behavior

A

COOPERATIVE
LACKING COOPERATIVE ABILITY
POTENTIALLY COOPERATIVE
1. uncontrolled - temper tantrums
2. defiant - i dont want to attitude
3. timid
4. tense cooperative - white knuckler
5. whining
6. incorrigible
7. fearful

121
Q

orientation of enamel rods in gingival 3rd

A

primary - slopes occlusally
permanent - slopes gingivally

122
Q

permanent vs primary canine

A

longer mesial slope for primary
longer distal slope for permanent

123
Q

phases of seizure disorder

A

aura - alteration in senses
ictus - seizure
postictal - recovery

124
Q

status epilepticus

A

repeated grand mal
or seizure lasting more than 5mins

125
Q

sedation drugs for pediatric

A

oral
1. chloral hydrate - most common, no reversal agent, long acting
2. midazolam
inhalation
1. nitrous oxide oxygen inhalation - most common

126
Q

administering concentration and maintaining concentration of nitrous oxide oxygen inhalation? combined volume of gas delivered?

A

admin: 70% N2O2, 30% O2
maintaining: 30% n2o2, 70% o2

combined volume of gas delivered: 3-5L or 4-6L

127
Q

what to do during termination of n2o2?

A

100% O2 inhaled not less than 3-5 mins to prevent diffusion hypoxia

128
Q

minerals removed during demineralization? remineralization?

A

carbonate, calcium, phosphate

re- fluoride, calcium, phosphate

carbonate is first tooth mineral affected first when there is active caries

129
Q

pH of saliva? critical enamel pH?

A

6.2 - 7.6

critical- 5.5 - 5.7

130
Q

fluoridation vs fluoridization

A

fluoridation - incorporate F to forming tooth structure - systemic
fluoridization - F to tooth present on mouth -topical

caution: dental fluorosis, skeletal fluorosis

131
Q

fluoride can inhibit what enzymes?

A

phosphatase and enulase

132
Q

dose and onset for chloral hydrate

A

dose: 50-75mg/kg max 1g
onset: 30-60mins

133
Q

fluoride MOA

A

converts hydroxyapatite crystals into fluoroapatite

134
Q

optimal fluoride concentration for public water?

A

0.7 - 1.2 ppm F

*toothpaste contains 1,100ppm of fluoride

135
Q

lethal dose of Fluoride

A

adult: 4-5g
child: 15mg/kg

136
Q

supplemental fluoride recommendation

A

No F for
F level more than 0.6ppm
px less than 6months
px more than 16 yrs old

*check table

137
Q

types of fluoride, concentration, pH?

A

2-5% NaF pH 9.2
1.23% APF pH 3-3.5
8% SnF pH 2.1-2.3 (with brown discoloration)

138
Q

long acting anes contraindicated to pediatric patients

A

Bupivacaine

139
Q

tx for fluoride toxicity

A

syrup of ipecac
milk of magnesia

140
Q

Management of crowding

A

observation (> 6mm of excess space = no crowding)
disking of primary teeth –> apply fluoride kasi mangingilo
exo and serial extraction (CD4)
corrective orthodontics

141
Q

Intraoccipital synchondroses closes at?

A

3-5 years old

142
Q

spheno-occipital synchondroses closes at?

A

until 20 years old (15-25 years old)

143
Q

spheno-ethmoidal synchondroses closes at?

A

6-7 years old

144
Q

intersphenoidal synchondroses closes at?

A

during birth

145
Q

key to success of serial extraction

A

extract 1st premolar before eruption of permanent canine

reason why mandibular arch commonly fails (61234578)

146
Q

indication of serial extraction

A

Class I
space deficiency (5-10mm - borderline, >10mm)

147
Q

most difficult orthodontic tooth movement to achieve

A

intrusion, translation/bodily movement

148
Q

orthodontic tooth movements

A

tipping (simplest)
extrusion
intrusion
rotation - ex. coupling force
translation or bodily movement

149
Q

best example of rotation orthodontic movement

A

coupling force

150
Q

when a tooth is moved, the first thing that happens is?

A

bone bending

151
Q

what is the best force in orthodontics?

A

light continuous force

*heavy forces – delays tooth movement –> instead of bone deposition and resorption, hyalinization happens or necrosis

152
Q

what and when to extract during serial exo?

A

C - primary canine - 8 yrs old
D - primary 1st molar - 9 yrs old
4 - 1st PM (as soon as it erupts!)

153
Q

Scammon growth curve

A

Lymphoid is a SCAM
Lymphoid - double at age of 12 then decreases
Neural - completed 6-7 years old
General - direct line to age 20
Genital - sexual maturation is accompanied by a spurt in growth begins at puberty

154
Q

Intercanine dimension of mandible and maxilla is completed at what age

A

Maxi - 12 yrs girls, 18yrs boys
Mandi - 9yrs girls, 10yrs boys

155
Q

Location of dental arches based on cranial landmarks

A

Simon system

Contraction - nearer to sagittal plane
Distraction - farther SP
Attraction - nearer FH plane
Abstraction - farther FH plane
Protraction - anterior to orbital plane
Retraction - posterior to OP

156
Q

Represents five major characteristics of malocclusion through a venn diagram

A

Ackermann proffitt system

157
Q

Scissor bite

A

Buccal crossbite
Palatal cusp of maxi posteriors occlude with the buccal cusp of mandi

158
Q

What do you look for in hand-wrist radiograph

A

Adductor sesamoid -indicates growth spurt

159
Q

Modification of space saddle used to regain space by pushing the 6 posteriorly

A

Split saddle appliance

160
Q

18-8 Austenitic wire

A

Stainless steel
18% chromium
8% nickel

161
Q

signs, symptoms, and types of amelogenesis imperfecta

A

yellow teeth, hypersensitivity
types:
enamel hypoplasia - #(deficiency in A, C, D, calcium, phosphorus)
enamel hypocalcification -quality

162
Q

signs and types of dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

Gray-brown teeth, opalescent hue, weak enamel, obliterated pulp chamber
type 1 - assoc osteogenesis
type 2 - most common, hereditary opalescent dentin
type 3 - multiple pulpal exposures and PA lesions (shell like apperance - Brandywine type)

163
Q

pattern of ECC?

A

cervical of mx incisor > maxi posteriors > mandi posteriors > mandibular incisors

164
Q

painful hyperemic gingival punched out erosions covered by gray pseudomembrane/ fetid odor

A

Necrotizing Ulcerative gingivitis

Fusobacterium, prevotella intermedia, spirochetes (TREPONEMA)

165
Q

tx of NUG

A

hydrogen peroxide rinses, debridement, Abx

166
Q

oral manifestations of achondroplasia, gigantism, acromegaly?

A

achondroplasia - class III maxi deficiency
gigantism - enlarged tongue, longer root, skeletal class III
acromegaly - skeletal class III

167
Q

cluster of ulcers are also known as

A

recurrent herpetiform

*frequent recurrence of ulcers should be screened for DM and Behcet’s syndrome

168
Q

when does cleft palate, cleft lip occur?

A

lip - 5th - 6th week IU
palate - 6th-8th week IU/8th -10th

169
Q

syndromes associated with cleft lip and palate

A

stickler syndrome
van der woude syndrome
Di george syndrome

170
Q

other term for:
cleft lip?
cleft on hard palate?
cleft on soft palate?

A

cleft lip - cheiloschisis
hard palate - uranoschisis
soft palate - staphyloschisis

171
Q

rule for cheiloplasty

A

rule of 10
10 weeks
10 lbs
10 gm/dl of hemoglobin

172
Q

cleft palate repair rule

A

delayed up to 9 to 18 months after birth
BEFORE 2yrs old patient!

treat soft palate followed by hard palate

173
Q

oral manifestation of trisomy 21

A

absent nasal bone, associated with supernumerary
periodontal disease&raquo_space; dental caries
delayed eruption

174
Q

4 classes of cleft lip

A

Class I - vermillion border, microform cleft, unilateral notching
Class II - extending to lip not extending to nose
Class III - unilateral
Class IV - bilateral

175
Q

4 class of cleft palate (Veau classification)

A

Class I (incomplete)- soft palate
Class II (incomplete)- soft and hard palate
class III (complete)- unilateral involvement of alveolus
Class IV (complete)- bilateral involvement of alveolus

176
Q

hypopituitarism: delayed or hastened eruption?
hypothyroidism: delayed or hastened eruption?

A

delayed eruption

177
Q

Dental: clinical sign and radiographic sign of cleidocranial dysplasia

A

clinical sign: few teeth
radiographic sign: numerous supernumerary teeth

178
Q

gingival fibromatosis: delayed or hasted eruption?

A

delayed eruption

179
Q

hypodontia, anodontia, oligodontia vs pseudodontia

A

hypodontia - missing 1-5 teeth
anodontia - total absence
oligodontia - missing > 6 teeth
pseudoanodontia - missing due to extraction/impaction

180
Q

hypohidrosis, hypodontia, hypotrichosis

A

anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia

181
Q

formocresol/Buckley’s solution

A

19% formaldehyde
35% cresol
15% glycerin
31% water
dilution 1/5 20%

182
Q

contraindication of formocresol? alternative?

A

young permanent with open apex -can cause cessation of root formation

use MTA (mineral trioxide aggregate) instead

183
Q

why is CaOH contraindicated in primary teeth?

A

it can cause internal resorption

184
Q

indication for pulpotomy

A

1.8mm of dentin thickness between pulp and carious lesion
vital tooth with provoked pain
root resorbed less than or equal to 2/3

185
Q

medicament for pulpotomy

A

formocresol (not for young permanent)
calcium hydroxide (NOT for deciduous)

186
Q

indication for pulpectomy

A

infected pulp with spontaneous pain/nocturnal pain
nonvital with periradicular lesion
root resorbed less than or equal to 2/3

187
Q

medicament for pulpectomy

A

ZOE
Vitapex (CaOH with iodoform) - ideal
iodoform paste (KRI paste)

188
Q

contraindication of pulpectomy

A

large bifurcation lesion, bone loss, mobility, nonrestorable, root resorption > 2/3 (at least 4mm root length)

189
Q

pulpectomy and pulpotomy procedure

A

pulpo: remove caries, access, remove coronal pulp, pulp stumps, medicament (formo: 5mins), ZOE, SSC
pulpec: remove caries, access, remove entire pulp, cleaning of canal without enlarging (WL: 2mm short), irrigation (NaOCl/Chx) , obturation (using cotton pellet and pliers, push down ZOE)

190
Q

why prep canal 2mm short of working length during pulpectomy

A

due to resorption, radiographic apex of primary tooth may may not correspond to the anatomical apex. apical foramen may be 3mm short of the radiographic apex and may be at the lateral surface of root

191
Q

problems of primary tooth that had undergone pulpectomy

A

delayed/ectopic eruption - large ZOE in chamber –> prolonged retention of crown –> needs exo

192
Q

apexogenesis vs apexification

A

apexogenesis (vital young permanent tooth -open apex)
apexification (NON vital young permanent tooth -open apex)

193
Q

apexogenesis: direct pulp capping, indirect pulp capping, partial pulpotomy procedures

A

direct pulp capping: CaOH –> GI –> resto (controllable bleeding, exposure should not be due to inflammation/bacterial infection)
indirect: liner -> GI –> resto
partial pulpotomy/ cvek pulpotomy: remove only inflamed pulp (traumatic exposure, big exposure) –> MTA -> GI –> resto

194
Q

apexification procedure

A

Canal filled with CaOH or MTA (CaOH 2 to 4 weeks, MTA apical barrier)
after apical closure, proceed to RCT

195
Q

anterior strip off crown prep

A

featheredge finish line
1-1.5mm incisal
1mm labial and proximal
0.5mm lingual
*make vents on SOC for the escape of excess material before curing
*cement with GI/composite
*passive fit

196
Q

SSC prep

A

snap fit
1mm subgingival featheredge finish line
1.5mm overall reduction size??? (UP: 1mm lang tas interproximal lang)
GI cement

197
Q

most common error for ssc prep

A

interproximal ledges

198
Q

tooth trauma primary teeth tx:
pain, mobility, intrusion, lateral luxation, extrusion, avulsion

A

spontaneous pain: pulpectomy
provoked pain: pulpo/no pulpal tx
slight mobility - observe
moderate mobility - passive repositioning or active repositioning then stabilize
intrusion, lateral luxation - passive repositioning or active repositioning the stabilize
extrusion - active repositioning then stabilize
avulsion - do not replant

199
Q

tooth trauma permanent teeth tx: pain, mobility, intrusion, lateral luxation, extrusion, avulsion

A

spontaneous pain: RCT
provoked: no pulpal tx
mobility: active repositioning then stabilize
intrusion, lateral luxation, extrusion: active repositioning then stabilize
avulsion: store tooth in Hank’s solution, milk, saliva, reimplant –> stabilize for 2 weeks

200
Q

Elli’s classification of tooth trauma

A

I - enamel
II - dentin
III - exposed pulp
IV - non vital with or without loss of crown
V - tooth loss as a result of trauma
VI - root fracture
VII - displacement
VIII - loss of crown
IX - deciduous teeth

201
Q

which is more common in primary anterior teeth: fracture or displacement?
which is more common in permanent anterior teeth?

A

primary teeth: displacement mainly intrusion
permanent: fracture *specially for class II div I

202
Q

most common ankylosed primary tooth?

A

primary mandibular 1st molar (incomplete eruption) / submerged tooth

203
Q

Ugly duckling stage is also known as

A

Broadbent’s phenomenon

204
Q

First molar first evidence of calcification

A

At birth

Enamel completed 3-4yrs

205
Q

Syndromes associated with natal or neonatal teeth

A

hallermann-streiff
Ellis-van creveld
Pierre robin

206
Q

most atypical primary molar

A

maxi 1st molar

207
Q

largest primary tooth

A

primary mandi 2nd molar

largest permanent tooth: MAXI 1st molar