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Need To Recall > Diseases > Flashcards

Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Other name for marie-strumpell disease

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

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2
Q

Other name for pagets disease

A

Osteitis de formans

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3
Q

Bence-jones protein in urine

A

Multiple myeloma

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4
Q

Most common primary bone tumor

A

Multiple myeloma

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5
Q

Plasma cell malignancy / nonfunctional immunoglobulins

A

Multiple myeloma
*bence jones proteins
*punched out
*inc serum alkaline phosphatase

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6
Q

Osteoblast neoplasm

A

Osteosarcoma

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7
Q

Most common true primary bone tumor

A

Osteosarcoma

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8
Q

Rx: codman’s triangle or sunburst

A

Osteosarcoma

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9
Q

Inc in serum alkaline phosphatase

A

Osteitis de formans
Multiple myeloma
Osteosarcoma
Hyperparathyroidism
Liver cirrhosis
Prostate cancer

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10
Q

Bone infection due to staph aureus

A

Osteomyelitis

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11
Q

Rx: moth eaten (3)

A

Osteomyelitis (specifically chronic!)
Ewing’s sarcoma
Root resorption
chondrosarcoma

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12
Q

rx: sawtoothing/saw tooth rete pegs

A

lichen planus

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13
Q

hx; absence of rete pegs

A

lichen planus

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14
Q

most common skin cancer

A

basal cell carcinoma

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15
Q

most common skin cancer in the oral cavity

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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16
Q

deadliest skin cancer

A

melanoma

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17
Q

rx: orange peel/ ground glass

A
  1. Hyperparathyroidism
  2. Albers-schonberg /marble bone disease/ osteopetrosis -osteoblast ang active
  3. Fibrous dysplasia
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18
Q

rx: punch out in the skull

A

multiple myeloma

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19
Q

Clotting factor deficient in Hemophilia A, B, C?

A

A - VIII (anti hemophilic)
B - IX (christmas factor)
c - XI (plasma thromboplastin antecedent)

*Hemophilia c = rosenthal syndrome

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20
Q

Excess dopamine or serotonin or glutamate

A

Schizophrenia

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21
Q

Deficient dopamine

A

Parkinson’s disease

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22
Q

Neuroblastoma is seen where

A

Adrenal gland with immature nerve cells

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23
Q

Destruction of myelin sheath in CNS by autoimmune cells

A

Multiple sclerosis resulting to plaques

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24
Q

Destruction of myelin sheath in PNS by autoimmune cells

A

Guillan-Bare syndrome resulting to paralysis

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25
Q

Degeneration of motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord

A

Amyotropic Lateral Sclerosis resulting to muscle weakness and atrophy

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26
Q

Otitis externa /swimmer ear
bacteria

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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27
Q

Otitis Media or Glue ear bacteria

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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28
Q

Hx: jigsaw/ mosaic pattern

A

pagets disease

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29
Q

Patient has excessive elastic fibers

A

Marfan syndrome

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30
Q

Patient has defective collagen fibers

A

Ehler-danlos syndrome

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31
Q

Patient has deficient collagen fibers

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

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32
Q

Presentation of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Blue sclera
Bone deformities
DENTINOGENESIS IMPERFECTA (Type I)

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33
Q

Excessive cortisol will result

A

Cushing’s disease

Pituitary adenoma -> inc ACTH -> cortisol

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34
Q

Deficient cortisol will result to?

A

Addison’s disease

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35
Q

Excessive thyroid hormones will result to?

A

Hyperthyroidism

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36
Q

primary adrenal insufficiency

A

Addison’s disease

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37
Q

Other name for ALS

A

Lou Gehring’s disease

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38
Q

Presentation of sturge-weber syndrome

A

Ocular pathologies
Neurological disorder
Port-wine stain

aka encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis
Neurocutaneous disease

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39
Q

Reddish purplish discoloration following the branches of CN V (primarily V1 and V2)

A

Port-wine stain or nevus flammeus

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40
Q

Aschoff bodies

A

Rheumatic fever

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41
Q

Deficiency of antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin

A

Diabetes insipidus
Clinical feature: polyuria and polydipdisia

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42
Q

Most common cause of hyperthyroidism

A

Grave’s disease

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43
Q

Creates abnormal antibodies that mimics TSH

A

Grave’s disease

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44
Q

Most common cause of hypothyroidism

A
  1. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
  2. Iodine deficiency
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45
Q

Hypothyroidism in children may result to

A

Cretinism -physical and mental retardation

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46
Q

Severe type of hypothyroidism

A

Myxedema

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47
Q

General presentation of hyper vs hypothyroidism

A

Hyper- thin, warmer temp, heat intolerant, moist
Hypo- fat colder body, cold intolerant, dry

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48
Q

Radiographic appearance hyperparathyroidism

A

Ground glass/orange peel
*Absence of lamina dura

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49
Q

Severe form of hyperparathyroidism

A

Von recklinghausen’s disease OF BONE / osteitis fibrosa cystica

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50
Q

Presentation of von recklinghausen’s disease of the SKIN

A

Neurofibromatosis I
1. Neurofibromas (benign tumor)
2. Cafe-au-lait spots
3. Lisch spots/nodules -eyes
4. Crowe’s sign -axillary freckles

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51
Q

2 types of fibrous dysplasia

A

Monostotic
Polystotic (Mccune Albright syndrome and jaffe lichtenstein syndrome)

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52
Q

Differentiate mccune albright and jaffe-lichtenstein

A

Both have cafe-au-lait skin, polystotic fibrous dysplasia BUT J.L has no endocrine dysfunction. Only M.A. have early maturation of endocrine system

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53
Q

Hyper vs hypoparathyroidism

A

Hyper- osteoporotic bone, hypercalcemia (arrhythmia)
Hypo- hypocalcemia (arrhythmia) and tetany (Chvostek sign and Trousseous sign)

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54
Q

State of hyperexcitability of nervous system due to hypocalcemia

A

Tetany
*Chvostek sign - hypersensitive facial nerve
*Trousseous sign - brachial artery compression (hand of obstetrician)

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55
Q

Excessive back curvature

A

Opisthotonos due to tetanus toxin (clostridium tetani)

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56
Q

Starvation may lead to rise in ketone bodies

A

Ketoacidosis
1. Acetoacetic acid
2. B-hydroxybutyric acid
3. Acetone
*Ketone breath and urine
*Diabetic ketoacidosis

ketone is produced by liver

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57
Q

Cafe au lait skin

A
  1. Mccune albright
  2. Jaffe-lichtenstein
  3. Von recklinghausen’s disease of the skin (neurofibromatosis I)
  4. Chediak - higashi
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58
Q

X-linked muscle dystrophies

A

Duchenne (loss of dystrophin)
Becker’s (mishapen dystrophin)

-shows waddling gait, Gower’s sign
-high creatine kinase
-with presentation MALE
-carriers FEMALE

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59
Q

Ureter spasms caused by kidney stones

A

Renal colic

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60
Q

Test for acromegaly

A

Oral glucose tolerance test

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61
Q

Sloughing of tissue is? It is a pathognomonic sign of?

A

Nikolsky sign
*Toxic epidermal necrolysis
*Staphyloccocal scalding syndrome
*Pemphigous vulgaris

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62
Q

Hx: acantholysis

A

*separation of squamous epithelial cells

Pemphigous vulgaris

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63
Q

Blistering disorder due to auto-antibodies damaging desmosomes

A

Pemphigous vulgaris
*With nikolsky sign

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64
Q

Blistering disorder due to auto-antibodies damaging hemidesmosomes
Hx???

A

Bullous pemphigoid
No nikolsky sign
Bullae: 2-8cm
Hx: subepidermal non-acantholytic blisters

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65
Q

marked by iron-deficiency anemia and esophageal webs leading to dysphagia (Triad)

A

Plummer-vinson syndrome

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66
Q

test for thrombocytopenia

A

tourniquet test / rumpel-leede test / capillary fragility test

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67
Q

tx of iron def anemia

A

ferrous sulfate

dental implication iron def anemia: perleche (angular cheilitis), glossitis, bald tongue, (black stain teeth)

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68
Q

Vitamin deficient in Beriberi?

A

B1 (Thiamine) - for nerve function

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69
Q

Hx: keratin pearls

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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70
Q

accumulation of methemoglobulin

A

*hemoglobin that cannot carry oxygen

methmoglobinemia

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71
Q

disease with cyanosis

A

erythtoblastosis fetalis
congenital heart disease (tetralogy of fallot)
methemoglobinemia

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72
Q

chromosome 22 deletion pathophysiology

A

diGeorge’s syndrome
-failure 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches (endoderm) -> gives rise to thymus and parathyroid -> tetany and infections
-can cause congenital heart diseases (tetralogy of fallot)
CATCH 22

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73
Q

y-linked general hair growth

A

hypertrichosis

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74
Q

bow legs

A

rickets
congenital syphilis

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75
Q

gigantism vs acromegaly

A

gigantism - high Gh before epiphyseal closure (child)
acromegaly- high GH after epiphyseal closure (adult)

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76
Q

Breathing disorder in preterm infants caused by the deficiency of surfactant

A

Respiratory distress syndrome

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77
Q

Congenital disease caused by absence of the myenteric plexus

A

Hirschsprung’s disease - decreased parasympathetic activity -> decreased motility and obstruction of intestines

Myenteric plexus (motility): auerbach and meissner plexi

Submucosal plexus (secretions)

**PSNS stimulates enteric nervous system. SNS inhibits ENS*

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78
Q

Beefy tongue

A

Pernicous anemia (B12)

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79
Q

Elevated PSA and acid phosphatase is associated with?

A

PSA = Prostate-specific antigen

Prostate tumor

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80
Q

non necrotizing inflammation of the skin (esp subcutaneous tissues) usually associated with acute bacterial infection

A

cellulitis

-usually does NOT involve fascia or muscles

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81
Q

most common stage of chronic apical periodontitis

A

granuloma stage

other stages: abscess, cyst

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82
Q

onset of delayed hypersensitivity

A

48 to 72 hrs

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83
Q

extracellular hyaline accumulation

A

amyloidosis (amyloid - abnormal protein fragments) - congo red staining

*diabetic glomerulosclerosis/kimmel stiel-wilson syndrome = INTRAcellular hyaline accumulation

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84
Q

pigmentation of carbon monoxide poisoning? silver nitrate?

A

cherry red tissue for carbon mon
black pigmentation for silver nitrate

tetracycline is greenish-black
iron def anemia is black stains in teeth

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85
Q

copper accumulation disease and pigmentation

A

wilson’s disease - brown green bordered eyes (keyser-fleisher ring)

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86
Q

strawberry/raspberry tongue

A
  1. Kawsaki’s disease (vasculitis, immune system attacks vessels)
  2. scarlet fever (Group A strep -strep pyogenes)
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87
Q

skin disease with pus

A

impetigo or pyoderma (can be caused by staph or strep)

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88
Q

localized pus-containing skin boil

A

Furuncle

carbuncle for extensive furuncle

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89
Q

abnormal involuntary movements (rheumatic fever)

A

syndenham chorea (st. vitu’s dance)

other presentation of RF
-polyarthritis, pancarditis, valvular damage, erythema marginatum (aka pink torso rings)

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90
Q

pericarditis associated with Rheumatic heart fever

A

bread and butter pericarditis or fibrinoid pericarditis

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91
Q

presentation of diphtheria

A

caused by corynebacterium

barking cough
diphtheric membrane (necrotic epithelium, do not remove!!!)
Bull’s neck (enlarged lymph nodes)

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92
Q

features of anthrax

A

central black eschar
hemorrhagic necrosis and edema of mediastinum
hemorrhagic pleural effusion
sepsis
meningitis

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93
Q

chronic suppurative and granulomatous infection that produces pyogenic lesions with interconnecting sinus tracts that contain granules composed of microcolonies of bacteria

A

actinomycosis (cervicofacial, thoracic, abdominal) - pus looks like yellowish sulfur granules
“lumpy jaw”

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94
Q

INTRAcellular hyaline accumulation (2 names)

A

*diabetic glomerulosclerosis/kimmel stiel-wilson syndrome

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95
Q

XXY

A

Klinefelter’s
Xxxy
Xxxxy

Gynecomastia
Micropenis
Taurodontism

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96
Q

XO

A

Turner’s (female)

Walang YO/OY!!!

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97
Q

Trisomy 21

A

Down syndrome

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98
Q

Trisomy 18

A

Edward’s

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99
Q

Trisomy 8, 9, 13

A

Patau

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100
Q

Other name for syphilis

A

Lus disease
Great pox

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101
Q

Presents painful punched out/crater of grayish pseudomembrane in the gingiva, fetid odor. TX??

A

NUG/vincent’s disease/trench mouth

Tx. Debridement
Irrigation with NSS and 0.12% CHX
Antibiotics (penicillin)

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102
Q

Pulmonary TB features

A

Ghon’s focus (coin lesion)
Ghon’s complex

Hx:
epitheloid cells
Langhans giant cells (fused epitheloid cells)

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103
Q

Most common form of TB in children that affects mid-lower zones of lungs

A

Primary complex

*Remember most common site of primary pulmonary TB is the apex of the lungs (high O2!!)

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104
Q

TB of the bone is called

A

Pott’s disease (spiral TB)

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105
Q

TB of the neck (lymph nodes)

A

Scrofula

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106
Q

Disseminated form of TB

A

Miliary TB

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107
Q

Necrosis seen in TB if untreated

A

Caseous necrosis

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108
Q

Hx: owl’s eye inclusion bodies
Hx: owl’s eye nucleus

A

Cytomegalovirus - inclusion bodies
Hodgkin lymphoma (associated with EBV) - nucleus (reed sternberg cells)

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109
Q

Hx: Reed-sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma (associated with EBV)

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110
Q

Hx: starry sky/moth eaten

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma -non-hodgkin (EBV) - POSTERIOR MAXILLA
Forms:
1. Endemic -jaw
2. Sporadic -adbomen
3. Immunodeficiency-associated

Tx: chemotherapy

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111
Q

Kissing’s disease

A

Infectious mononucleosis

**cytomegalovirus - mono-like

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112
Q

Differentials for white patches on the tongue

A

White hairy leukoplakia
Oral candidiasis
Secondary syphilis (condyloma lata)

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113
Q

Frog face

A

Crouzon’s syndrome (craniofacial dysostosis)
Mid-face deficiency

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114
Q

Bird face

A

Treacher-collin’s syndrome
Mandibulofacial dysostosis
Deficient zygoma and mandible

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115
Q

Fish face or bird face

A

Pierre-robin syndrome

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116
Q

Lion’s face, bone resorption, shortening of digits

A

Leprosy / Hansen’s disease
*Causes disfigurement of bones
Mycobacterium leprae

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117
Q

Associated with Reye’s syndrome

A

Chicken pox and aspirin
Reye’s syndrome causes Hepatotixicity, Encephalitis. Can be due to viral infection of child and aspirin

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118
Q

“Serum hepatitis” , “Dane particle”

A

Hepatitis B (causes liver inflammation and associated with hepatocellular carcinoma)

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119
Q

Ulcers in posterior of oral cavity

A

Herpangina caused by Coxsackie A (picornavirus)

**Coxsackie AHH, acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis, hand foot mouth disease, herpangina

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120
Q

gastric contents moving up to the lower esophagus due to incompetent lower esophageal constrictor

A

gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
complication: Barrett’s esophagus (squamous to simple columnar /metaplastic changes)

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121
Q

King of Multiples.
most commonly involved in the rectum

A

gardner’s syndrome or familial colorectal polyposis
*associated with colorectal cancer

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122
Q

clinical features of gardner’s syndrome and the differential dx?

A

king of multiples aka familial colorectal polyposis

multiple polyps
multiple supernumerary teeth
multiple soft tissue tumors (fibroma)
multiple hard tissue tumors (multiple osteoma, odontoma)
epidermal cyst

vs Peutz-Jeghers syndrome na hereditary intestinal polyposis (with normal number of teeth and assoc with skin pigmentation)

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123
Q

autoimmune disease that damages the salivary and lacrimal glands and it’s TRIAD

A

Sjogren’s syndrome / Sicca syndrome
1. xerostomia
2. keratoconjunctivitis sicca
3. rheumatoid arthritis

1&2 - primary
1,2,3 - secondary

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124
Q

(Vs sjogren’s syndrome) disease that leads to enlargement of salivary and lacrimal gland (2 names)

A

Mikulikz disease (Benign lymphoepithelial lymphomatosum)

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125
Q

autodigestion of pancreas due to early activation of pancreatic juices because of stones obstructing the opening to the duodenum. What are the labs and signs?

A

acute pancreatitis
lab findings: increase serum amylase and lipase, decrease calcium levels
signs of internal bleeding
1. grey turner sign (flank ecchymosis)
2. cullen’s sign (discoloration around navel)

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126
Q

liver tissues are being replaced by scar fibrous tissue resulting to decrease blood flow to liver and its types

A

cirrhosis
1. alcohol cirrhosis (Laennec’s cirrhosis) - presence of Mallory bodies
2. biliary cirrhosis (due to obstruction of bile ducts)
3. cardiac cirrhosis (due to chronic Right CHF)

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127
Q

inflammation of the gall bladder
gall bladder or bile duct stones

A

cholecystitis
cholelithiasis

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128
Q

type hypersensitivity of glomerulonephritis? rheumatic fever?

A

type 3. it is a post strep hypersensitivity (strep pyogenes)

type 2 ang RF! assoc din with strep pyogenes

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129
Q

differentiate nephritic syndrome from nephrotic syndrome

A

both have impaired nephrons soo madaming na eexcrete.

for nephritic, inflammatory rupture of the glomerular capillaries so blood enters nephron (hematuria) tas may increase excretion of substances with nephritis

for nephrotic, increase excretion of substance without nephritis but with proteinuria

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130
Q

basic types of edema
Peritoneal cavity? Pleural cavity? Pericardial sac? Generalized edema? Lung spaces?

A

ascites - peritoneal cavity
hydrothorax/pleural effusion - pleural cavity
cardiac tamponade - pericardial sac
anasarca - generalized edema or head to toe
pulmonary edema - lung spaces

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131
Q

types of hemorrhage

A

petechiae - small size hemorrhage ( <3mm)
purpura - moderate size (3mm - 10mm)
ecchymoses - large (>10mm)
hematoma - tumor like regardless of size

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132
Q

types of anemia

A
  1. iron def anemia (assoc with plummer vinsons and tooth discoloration due to ferrous sulfate)
  2. aplastic anemia - inability of marrow cells to produce rbc
  3. megaloblastic anemia
    - vit b9 (foliate def) or
    -b12 anemia (pernicious -beefy tongue)
  4. hemolytic anemia
    -thalassemia (abnormal hemoglobin formation)
    -sickle cell anemia (glutamic acid to valine)
    -erythroblastosis fetalis
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133
Q

hx. heinz bodies

A

thalassemia
rx. crewcut or hair-on-end

hemoglobin H

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134
Q

glutamic acid is replaced by valine forming hemoglobin S causing short life span of rbc. xR?

A

sickle cell anemia
xr: crewcut or hair-on-end
dental xr: step ladder

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135
Q

most common leukemia

A

chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

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136
Q

least common leukemia

A

acute monocytic leukemia (AML)

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137
Q

most common leukemia in children with null proliferation

A

acute lymphocytic leukemia
null cells are large lymphocytes with decreased organelles

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138
Q

translocation of 22 to 9 chromosome (Philadelphia chromosome)

A

chronic myelogenous leukemia

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139
Q

Presence of Mallory bodies

A

Alcoholic cirrhosis or laennec’s cirrhosis

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140
Q

Presents as patchy, confluent, whitish pseudomembrane (3 names). Tx?

A

Thrush / oropharyngeal candidiasis/ oral moniliasis
-common with immunocompromised, smokers, long term Abx

Tx. Topical nystatin or oral ketoconazole/fluconazole

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141
Q

Disease of the coronary artery leading to heart complications and stages?

A

Coronary heart disease

Stages
1. Atherosclerosis
2. Ischemic heart disease
3. Angina pectoris
4. Myocardial infarction

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142
Q

Types of angina pectoris

A
  1. Unstable - chest pain without physical exertion
  2. Stable - chest pain during physical exertion
  3. Variant or prinzmetal’s angina - intermittent chest pain at rest
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143
Q

Cause of myocardial infarction

A

Thromboembolism

Features of heart attack:
1. Severe chest pain radiation to the left side of body
2. Numbness in the left side of body

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144
Q

Factors that contribute to thrombosis formation

A

Virchow’s Triad (virCHEows)

Changes in vascular flow (turbulence or stasis)
Hypercoagulability (gene mutation or drugs ex. Tranexamic acid, cox 2 inhibitor)
Endothelial injury

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145
Q

The heart cant pump enough blood? Cause and complications?

A

Congestive heart failure

Common cause: ischemic heart disease and valvular damage
Complication: congestion or fluid buildup in lungs

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146
Q

Left CHF cause and complications

A

most common cause: coronary artery disease (ischemic heart disease)

complications: low cardiac output, backflow of blood to lungs (two-pillow orthopnea, tachypnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, pleural effusion, pulmonary edema)

may lead to R-CHF

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147
Q

right CHF cause and complications

A

common cause: L-CHF, or chronic lung disease (cor pulmonale)

complications: congestion of systemic circulation (jugular venous distention, pitting edema of lower limbs, hepatospenomegaly due to cardiac cirrhosis or ascites)

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148
Q

accumulation of fluid in pericardial space and triad

A

cardiac tamponade
*beck’s triad: Distended neck veins, distant muffled heart sounds, decreased arterial BP

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149
Q

Beck’s triad

A

seen in cardiac tamponade
*Distended neck veins, distant muffled heart sounds, decreased arterial BP

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150
Q

bacterial colonization of heart valves

A

bacterial/infective endocarditis

subacute (strep viridans)
acute (staph aureus)

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151
Q

high-risk to develop endocarditis

A

previous infective endocarditis
prosthetic valve replacement
valve repair with prosthetic material
unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease (CHD)
CHD repaired with prosthetic material
CHD with palliative shunt or conduit

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152
Q

moderate risk to develop endocarditis

A

rheumatic fever
non-rheumatic valve disease
congenital valve anomalies

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153
Q

most common congenital heart disease among the cyanotic type

A

tetralogy of fallot (PROV) (congenital heart disease)
Pulmonary stenosis
Right ventricular hypertrophy
overriding aorta over the ventricular septal defect
Ventricular septal defect

*pentalogy - atrial septal defect

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154
Q

most common congenital heart disease among the acyanotic type. (2 names)

A

ventricular septal defect or roger’s disease (congenital heart disease)

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155
Q

narrowing of descending aorta and effect to BP?

A

coarctation of the aorta (congenital heart disease)
*upper body hypertension
*lower body hypotension

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156
Q

failure of ductus arteriosus to close at birth

A

patent ductus arteriousus (Congenital heart disease)

*ductus arteriosus connects pulmonary artery and aorta to bypass pulmonary circulation

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157
Q

collapsed alveoli of lungs

A

atelectasis

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158
Q

collapsed bronchi (dilation of respiratory tract)

A

bronchiectasis usually due to cystic fibrosis (excessive mucus production)

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159
Q

most common chronic disease of the lungs (COPD)

A

emphysema - “pink puffers”
loss of elasticity of alveoli = increase in size of the air spaces
Clinical feature: barrel-chest appearance

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160
Q

inflammation of the bronchi (COPD)

A

chronic bronchitis “blue bloaters”
cause: inhalation of pollutants
1. smoking
2. pneumoconiosis

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161
Q

general term for lung diseases that is due to inhalation of dust leading to interstitial fibrosis of lung tissue. Types??

A

pneumoconiosis
1. silicosis “stone mason’s Disease” - most common and serious (silica); assoc with TB
2. asbestosis - inhalation of asbestos (assoc with bronchogenic carcinoma)
3. anthracosis “black lung or coal worker’s disease” - inhalation of carbon or coal dust
4. berylliosis - inhalation of beryllium

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162
Q

consequences of chronic bronchitis

A
  1. cor pulmonale (R-CHF due to COPD)
  2. bronchogenic carcinoma - bronchial epithelium to squamous
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163
Q

most common death-causing cancer in males? how about in females?

A

males - lung
females - breast

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164
Q

most common cancer in males? how about in females?

A

males - prostate
females - breast

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165
Q

types of seizure

A

partial seizure - one hemisphere
generalize seizure - both hemispheres

subtypes:
1. absence seizures = petit mal = short period of blanking out
2. myoclonic - brief, shock-like jerks of a single or group of muscles (hiccups hypnic jerk)
3. atonic = drop seizure - muscles suddently become limp for typically 15 seconds
4. tonic-clonic seizures = grand mal = absence of consciousness, stiffed muscles then starts to jerk; difficulty breathing; 1-3mins (more than = danger)

*status epilepticus

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166
Q

repeated grand mal? tx?

A

status epilepticus
tx: diazepam (valium) same as grand mal

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167
Q

condition with deficiency in nicotinic receptor

A

myasthenia gravis

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168
Q

Autoimmune disease that affects glomerular basement membrane and alveolar membrane

A

Good pasture syndrome / anti-glomerular basement membrane

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169
Q

Sudden attack of severe shortness of breath during the night associated with left CHF

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

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170
Q

Oral manifestations of Addison’s disease

A

Oral lesions on the buccal mucosa, sometimes labial mucosa, rarely gingiva

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171
Q

most common facial malformation

A

cleft lip

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172
Q

Iris lesion that is drug induced

A

Erythema multiforme

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173
Q

Most common inherited disorder of the reticuloendothelial system caused by a deficiency of beta-glucocerebrosidase

A

Gaucher’s disease (classified as Lipid storage diseases)

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174
Q

Caused by a deficiency of spuingomyelinase

A

Niemann-pick disease (classified as Lipid storage diseases/ inherited disorder of reticuloendothelial system)

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175
Q

Caused by a deficiency of hexosaminidase A

A

Tay-Sachs disease (classified as Lipid storage diseases/ inherited disorder of reticuloendothelial system)

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176
Q

Caused by a deficiency in alpha-galactosidase

A

Fabry’s disease (classified as Lipid storage diseases/ inherited disorder of reticuloendothelial system)

177
Q

other name for cleidocranial dysplasia

A

Marie-sainton disease

178
Q

Most common inherited nephropathy

A

Adult polycystic kidney disease -large multicystic kidneys, liver cyst, berry aneurysm, autosomal dominant

179
Q

Classic presentation of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

Nephritic syndrome (with hematuria)

180
Q

Causes of portal hypertension

A

Prehepatic cause - obstructive thrombosis

Posthepatic - severe right sided heart failure

Intrahepatic - cirrhosis

📌Splenomegaly indicates portal hypertension

181
Q

Four major consequences of portal hypertension

A

Ascites, formation of portosystemic venous shunts, congestive splenomegaly, hepatic encephalopathy

182
Q

Other name for spider angiomas

A

Spider telangiectasis - small lesion on skin containing centrally dilated, enlarged blood vessels from which several smaller vessels radiate

183
Q

Characteristic pathologic change in chronic bronchitis

A

Hyperplasia of bronchia submucosal glands and bronchial smooth muscle hypertrophy

184
Q

what is the fenton reaction and where does it happen?

A

reaction in which hydrogen peroxide is converted into a hydroxyl free radical via a catalytic process. mitochondria

superoxide –> hydrogen peroxide + Fe2+ –> hydroxyl radical

185
Q

differentiate the three nuclear changes

A

karyolysis (basophilia of chromatin)
pyknosis (nuclear shrinkage in increased basophilia)
karyorrhexis (fragmentation of the pyknotic nucleus)

186
Q

complement responsible for chemotaxis

A

c5a

for activating white blood cells: c3a c4a c5a

187
Q

the repair process: inflammation, proliferation, maturation

A

inflammation: clot formation, chemotaxis
proliferation: reepithelialization, neovascularization (angiogenesis - from pre-existing vessels regulated by vascular edothelial growth factor aka VEGF), presence of fibroblast
maturation: collage deposition by the fibroblast, wound contraction

188
Q

acute edema of cutaneous or mucosal structure, most commonly involving the lips and eyelids

A

angioedema

189
Q

what type of edema is seen in right sided heart failure px? left sided?

A

Right sided - peripheral
left sided - pulmonary

190
Q

differentiate kwashiorkor and marasmus

A

Kwashiorkor - protein def, edema, fatty liver, enlarged abdomen

marasmus - macronutrients def (carbs, protein, fat), no edema, usually seen in 1y/o, thin limbs, abdomen/overall.

191
Q

differentiate the 3 herniation in the brain

A
  1. subfalcine - brain tissue slips under the FALX CEREBRI
  2. transtentorial - tentorium cerebelli (roof of posterior cranial fossa)
  3. tonsillar - foramen magnum (worst prognosis)
192
Q

what is a nutmeg liver?

A

hepatic congestion - hepatic vein is DILATED

193
Q

transudate vs exudate

A

transudate - noninflammatory, low protein content, low lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

exudate - inflammatory - high protein, high LDH

194
Q

deep vein thrombosis can lead to what type of embolism?

A

pulmonary embolism

195
Q

thrombus that adheres to one wall of a heart chamber or major artery

A

mural thrombus

*arterial emboli usually arises from mural thrombus

196
Q

site of arrest for wedge-shaped pale infarcts

A

renal artery

197
Q

observed in deep sea divers who return to the surrface too rapidly (2 names)

A

caisson disease / decompression sickness

  • nitrogen
198
Q

Consists of ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis due to infiltrate of Pancoast tumor into the paravertebral sympathetic chain and stellate ganglion

A

Horner syndrome

*pancoast tumor is a superior sulcus tumor type of lung cancer

199
Q

Originate from totipotential cells which contains recognizable mature or immature cells representative of more than one germ cell layer

A

Teratoma

*Carcinoma - malignant tumor of epithelial origin
*Adenocarcinoma - glandular epithelium
*Sarcoma - mesenchymal of origin

200
Q

Benign tumor from the smooth muscles? Striated muscles?

A

Leiomyoma (malignant: leiomyosarcoma)

Striated: rhabdomyoma (rhabdomyosarcoma)

201
Q

Tumors of mesenchymal origin

A

Fibroma
Lipoma
Chondroma
Osteoma

202
Q

Small benign mass of normal tissue misplaced within another organ

A

Choristoma (ex. Liver cells within the walls of intestines)

203
Q

Benign tumor-like overgrowth of cell types that are regularly found within the affected organ

A

Hamartoma

(Ex. Hemangioma - irregular accumulation of blood vessels)

204
Q

Sickle cell anemia: globin portion - amino acid valine is substituted by??

A

Glutamic acid

205
Q

Thickening of the costochondral junction or beadlike prominence? A clinical manifestation of?

A

Rachitic rosary due to deficiency in Calcium- seen in rickets

206
Q

Signs that may be associated with appendicitis

A

Rovsing sign - (+) palpation of LLQ referred pain to RLQ
Psoas sign -retrocecal appendicitis, pain with extension of right thigh while px lying on left side
Obturatior sign - pelvic appendicitis, pelvic pain upon internal rotation of the right thigh
Dunphy sign - pain on any abdominal wall movement ex. Cough

207
Q

Presents with Liontiasis ossea

A

Pagets disease

-lion face / hats and denture become too tight

208
Q

Hx: Tzanck cells, intraepithelial vesicle

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

209
Q

bullous pemphigoid vs mucous membrane pemphigoid

A

MMP and BP - IgG against basement membrane

MMP - oral and ocular mucous membrane
BP - skin and mucous membrane

210
Q

Behcet’s syndrome affects?

A

multisystem: GI, CV, ocular, CNS, articular, pulmonary, dermal
Ocular: uveitis, conjunctivitis, retinitis
Oral and genital: ulcers

*blood vessel inflammation throughout the body

211
Q

Triad of reiter’s syndrome (other name)

A

aka Reactive Arthritis
urethritis, conjunctivitis, arthritis

oral: aphthous-like ulcers
-reaction to bacterial infection
resembles geographic tongue

212
Q

what is Wegener’s granulomatosis?

A

idiopathic condition in which destructive inflammatory lesions featuring necrotizing vasculitis are seen in lung, kidney and URT

oral: strawberry gingivitis

213
Q

erythema multiforme vs Steven Johnson syndrome

A

both are hypersentivity reaction to HSV, TB, or histoplasmosis; barbiturates, sulfonamides, antiseizures

Minor form: EM
major form: SJS

*target / iris / bull’s eye lesion

214
Q

Oral lesions described to have a cobblestone appearance (2)

A

follicular keratosis / Darier-White disease (white lesion) - hereditary, gingiva and hard palate

papillary hyperplasia (non-epithelial white lesion) - candidiasis due to ill fitting dentures, palate

215
Q

hereditary: opalescence of the buccal mucosa disappears when the it is stretched

A

Leukoedema

White sponge nevus / Cannon’s disease - tongue and vestibular mucosa, do not disappear

Hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis (HBID) - dorsum of tongue is spared, witkop’s disease, assoc conjunctivitis

216
Q

common site of hairy leukoplakia

A

lateral margins of tongue

*assoc with EBV, px w/ HIV AIDS

217
Q

geographic tongue is aka as? it is the loss of?

A

benign migratory glossitis
erythema migrans

loss of filiform papilla = atrophic areas / erythematous

218
Q

white reactive lesion in the oral cavity that is caused by smokeless tobacco? usually seen in what area of the oral cavity?

A

snuff dipper lesion - buccal mucosa

219
Q

reactive lesion due to tobacco which presents as red dots surrounded by white keratotic rings

A

nicotine stomatitis

If caused by reverse smoking, more associated with premalignancy

220
Q

reactive white lesion due to chronic irritation from eating or chewing without teeth

A

focal (frictional) hyperkeratosis

221
Q

reactive white/black lesion on the dorsum of the tongue, asymptomatic, and overgrowth of filiform papilla

A

hairy/coated tongue - often due to cigarette smoking; lesion can be stained to gray-black etc.

  • not to be confused with hairy leukoplakia (affects lateral of tongue, assoc with EBV, HIV)
    -nor geographic tongue - LOSS of filiform papilla

tx: brushing tongue, none

222
Q

most common site of occurrence of idiopathic leukoplakia? highest risk for malignant transformation

A

buccal vestible - most common
floor of the mouth - highest risk

223
Q

white patch or plaque of oral mucosa that cannot be rubbed off and cannot be characterized clinically as any other disease

A

idiopathic leukoplakia

Diagnose by biopsy
Hx: hyperkeratosis – dysplasia – CA in situ – SCCA

224
Q

preneoplastic speckled white and red lesion

A

erythroleukoplakia

different from erythroplakia - which is a neoplastic lesion (severe dysplasia), SSCA

225
Q

preneoplastic lesion that represents accelerated tissue degeneration of the vermillion secondary to chronic exposure to sunlight

A

Actinic cheilitis / solar cheilitis

  • loss of vermillion border with leukoplakic and atrophic areas
226
Q

white, interlacing lines on the buccal mucosa are a characteristic clinical feature of?

A

wickham striae yun so –> Lichen planus

227
Q

chronic mucocutaneous disease of unknown cause but resembles a hypersensitivity reaction (T lymphocytes)? enumerate types.

A

Lichen planus
1. reticular - wickham’s, buccal, most common
2. plaque - resembles leukoplakia, tongue, buccal
3. erythematous / atrophic - attached gingiva == burning sensation, pain
4. erosive - ulcer + pseudomembrane
5. buttons / bullous - ulcer, buccal

H: saw tooth appearance of rete pegs

228
Q

types of candidiasis

A

1. acute pseudomembranous - curdlike patches that can be wiped away –> painful, erythematous surface
2. acute erythematous - atrophic, antibiotic stomatitis / glossitis (beefy tongue)
3. chronic erythematous
3.1. denture sore mouth or
3.2. angular cheilitis (s. aureus, vit B def., loss of VD)
4. chronic hyperplastic
4.1. candidal leukoplakia
4.2. median rhomboid glossitis (kissing lesion) - occurs on dorsum of the tongue anterior to circumvallate papillae and on adjacent hard palate
4.3. papillary hyperplasia - due to poor denture hygiene, cobble stone
5. chronic mucocutaneous - resistant to treatment, with only temporary remission, can involve the nails

229
Q

hemangioma vs vascular malformation

A

both are congenital
CVM:
with mix of arteries, veins and capillaries
produce thrill, bruit
does not involute,
recurrence is common and difficult to resect,
poorly circumbscribed
usually affects bone
Tx: surgery, arterial embolizaiton, sclerosant therapy, laser therapy (Hemangioma: none)
associated with Sturge weber syndrome while hemangioma is associated with Rendu-osler-weber syndrome

230
Q

abnormal dilation of capillaries resulting in red macules or papules and frequent epistaxis

A

Rendu-Osler-Weber syndrome
Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia

*telangiectasia = spidery in appearance

231
Q

reactive red lesion composed predominantly of hyperplastic granulation tissue which capillaries are very prominent

A

Pyogenic granuloma - common in gingiva, frequent trauma, hormonal changes, calcular deposits

232
Q

differentiate pyogenic granuloma from peripheral giant cell granuloma

A

both are reactive red-blue hyperplasias but histologic apperance are different.

Pyogenic - granulation and capillaries only
PGCG - presence of multinucleated giant cells

233
Q

red blue neoplastic lesion

A

erythroplakia, kaposi sarcoma

234
Q

Oral wart aka? etiology?

A

squamous papilloma
E: HPV 2, 6, 11, 57 (2 and 4)

*dysplastic oral warts = HPV 16 and 18 (cervical cancer and hot wart related, HIV positive)

235
Q

anogenital wart

A

Condyloma cuminatum
HPV 6 and 11

236
Q

focal epithelial hyperplasia

A

Heck’s disease
HPV 13 and 32
*similar color with surrounding tissue

237
Q

traumatic fibroma of gingival variation and its subtypes

A

peripheral fibroma

subtypes:
1. peripheral ossifying fibroma - with islands of bones
2. peripheral odontogenic fibroma - with odontogenic epithelium (sometimes resembles enamel, dentin)
3. giant cell fibroma - mesenchymal cells are larger (different from peripheral/central giant cell granuloma)

238
Q

etiologic factor for focal fibrous hyperplasia

A

aka irritation fibroma / denture hyperplasia / epulis fissuratum

chronic trauma - overextended dentures etc

**General gingival hyperplasia etiologic factors: local factors (plaque, calculus, bacteria), hormonal imbalance, drugs (nifedipine, phenytoin, cyclosporine), leukemia, genetic factors

239
Q

which of the ff is atroublesome fibroblastic neoplasm that is locally aggressive and infiltrative?
a. peripheral fibroma
b. traumatic neuroma
c. nodular fasciitis
d. fibromatosis

A

D. fibromatosis

240
Q

connective tissue neoplasm: submucosal mass, rapid growth (2 names)

A

nodular fasciitis / pseudosarcomatous fasciitis -often misdiagnosed as sarcoma,

DDx: fibromatosis (much larger and more infiltrative, beta-catenin), benign fibrous histiocytoma (usually in dermis), fibrosarcoma (Hx: herringbone or interlacing/intersecting fascicular pattern)

241
Q

lymphangioma found on the neck

A

cystic hygroma / hygroma coli / cavernous lymphangioma - fluid filled mass on the neck

lymphangiomas - congenital, macroglossia, cystic hygroma

242
Q

nerve tumor of the nerve sheath

A

schwannoma / neurilemmoma
- from schwann cells (myeline sheath for PNS)

**share many clinical and histo features with solitary neurofibroma

243
Q

Etiology and presentation of traumatic neuroma

A

E: injury to peripheral nerve (mental foramen, anterior maxilla, posterior mandible)
Hx: bundles of nerves + collagen
pain

244
Q

uncommon benign soft tissue lesion that usually arises from the alveolar mucosa of neonates usually found in the maxillary gingiva

A

congenital epulis / congenital gingival granular cell tumor

–Lesion is composed of cells that are identical to granular cell tumor / granular cell myoblastoma

245
Q

differentiate mucocele, ranula and necrotizing sialometaplasia

A

mucous retention and extravasation (pseudocyst)

mucocele - minor salivary glands
ranula - sublingual glands, can be simple or plunging (extends to submandibular space)
necrotizing sialometaplasia - minor salivary gland of palate

246
Q

most common benign salivary gland tumor that shows 2 cell type in histologic sections and affects, histologic appearance?

A

pleomorphic adenoma (benign neoplasm)
- parotid, palate
H: 2 cell types: ductal epithelial cell, myoepithelial cell

247
Q

benign salivary gland tumor that almost exclusively affects the parotid gland especially the tail, and histologic appearance?

A

Warthin’s tumor aka papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum
-parotid gland
H: epithelial and lymphoid

248
Q

types of monomorphic adenoma

A

canalicular adenoma: upper lip minor salivary gland
basal cell adenoma: parotid gland

249
Q

most common malignant salivary gland tumor that shows 3 cell type in histologic sections

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
-parotid, palate
3 cell types: mucous, epidermoid, clear

*more epidermoid cells, more aggressive

250
Q

low-grade malignancy of minor salivary glands found at the junction of hard and soft palate

A

polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma

251
Q

malignant salivary gland tumor that has a poor prognosis and shows swiss cheese pattern in histologic sections

A

adenoid cystic carcinoma
-parotid and palate
H: swiss cheese or cribriform pattern

252
Q

differentiate the odontogenic cysts (from odontogenic epithelium)

A

primordial cyst - not associated with impacted tooth
dentigerous cyst / follicular cyst (REE) - encloses the crown of unerupted tooth / impacted tooth
periapical cyst / radicular cyst (malassez) - pre-existing PA granuloma, non-vital, Russell bodies, rushton bodies
Residual cyst - incomplete removal of PA cyst
lateral periodontal cyst - no displacement of teeth, Md premolar and cuspid region same with gingival cyst (but no xr findings) *botyroid odontogenic cyst

253
Q

multilocular lateral periodontal cyst

A

botyroid odontogenic cyst (grape bunch)

254
Q

types of gingival cyst of the newborn

A

Dental lamina cysts of the newborn, Bohn’s nodules - alveolar ridge
palatine cysts of the new born (epstein pearls) - seen in palate

255
Q

appear as swelling prior to eruption; fluid accumulation within the follicular space

A

eruption cyst

no tx

256
Q

ghost cell keratinization, dystrophic mineralization (radiopacities), lucent to mixed xr

A

calcifying odontogenic cyst (fluid filled) / calcifying cystic odontogenic tumor (solid)
-dual nature

257
Q

aggressive odontogenic cyst with recurrence and resembles low-grade mucoepidermoid carcinoma

A

glandular odontogenic cyst

258
Q

parakeratinized epithelium showing palisading of basal cells

A

odontogenic keratocysts (OKC)
-aggressive, significant reucrrence rate, tooth can be displaced

259
Q

multiple odontogenic keratocysts are associated with?

A

basal cell nevus-bifid rib syndrome / gorlin goltz / nevoid basal cell carcinoma

high recurrence of OKC may be associated to satellite cysts

260
Q

non-odontogenic cyst that reveal inverted pear-shaped radiolucency between roots of maxillary and lateral and canine, assoc with vital teeth

A

globulomaxillary cyst

261
Q

non odontogenic cyst found associated with vital maxillar central incisors

A

nasopalatine canal cyst / incisive canal cyst, cysts of the palatine papilla, median palatine cyst

Hx: 2 or more types of lining cells (resp epithelium and strat squamous)

262
Q

soft tissue cyst of the upper lip or over the canine region or the mucobuccal fold

A

nasolabial cyst (non odontogenic cyst)
no XR manifestation

263
Q

histologic appearance of aneurysmal bone cyst

A

(pseudocyst)
Hx: blood-filled spaces lined by CT and multinucleated giant cells
*no thrill or bruit

264
Q

pseudocyst that presents as empty dead space and is commonly associated with florid cemento-osseous dysplasia

A

traumatic (simple) bone cyst

(pseudocyst)

265
Q

developmental defect on the posterior lingual mandible which is seen as radiolucency below the mandibular canal (2 names)

A

static bone cyst (Stafne’s bone defect)

(pseudocyst)

266
Q

asymptomatic radiolucencies commonly associated with highly hematopoietic bones

A

Hx: hematopoietic cells

Focal osteoporotic bone marrow defect (pseudocyst)

267
Q

developmental cyst - epithelium entrapped in lymph node; lateral neck mass (usually anterior to SCM)? where is the intraoral counterpart?

A

branchial cyst / cervical lymphoepithelial cyst (soft tissue cysts of the neck)

intraoral: floor of the mouth

268
Q

soft tissue cyst which can be found in any area of the body that histologically contains hair follicles, sebaceous glands, sweat glands, or possibly teeth.

A

dermoid cyst (teratoma? Choristoms)
above mylohyoid: Floor of the mouth
below mylohyoid: neck

(soft tissue cysts of the neck)

269
Q

most common developmental cyst of neck

A

thyroglossal tract cyst

*failure to descend of thyroid: lingual thyroid

270
Q

most common type of ameloblastoma

A

solid (multicystic or polycystic)

(odontogenic tumors)

271
Q

most aggressive odontogenic tumor

A

ameloblastoma

272
Q

Epithelial odontogenic tumor and subtypes??
XR: soap bubble or multi-locular
Hx: similar to ameloblasts (palisading layer of epithelial cells)
adults with a mean age of 40

A

ameloblastoma
1. solid/multicystic
2. unicystic - can be fluid filled
3. peripheral (extraosseous) - gingiva and buccal mucosa

malignant variants are usually rare:
malignant ameloblastoma and ameloblastomic CA

Tx: simple excision, resection

273
Q

most common location for a pindborg tumor is?

A

molar-ramus area

274
Q

odontogenic tumor
Hx: Liesegang rings, calcified amyloid
XR: honeycombed, impacted teeth, uni/multilocular, calcified islands

A

Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (CEOT) or Pindborg tumor

*when there are few or none calcified island, can be a clear cell variant

275
Q

odontogenic tumor
R: lucent-opaque patterns
Hx: ductlike / glandlike structures, rosettes

A

adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
anterior maxilla
20s females

276
Q

odontogenic tumor
Hx: squamous islands
XR: semilunar lesion associated with the cervical regions of roots of teeth

A

Squamous odontogenic tumor
alveolar process, anterior maxilla, posterior mandible

similar to ameloblastoma histologically but lacks columnar palisading layer of epithelial cells

277
Q

locally aggressive odontogenic tumor with no cytoplasm

A

clear cell odontogenic tumor

278
Q

mesenchymal tumor from follicular connective tissue resembling pulp tissue
XR: honeycombed
HX: dental pulp/follicle

A

odontogenic myxoma / fibromyxoma
aggressive and infiltrative

*myxoma = filled with collagen

279
Q

mesenchymal tumor of unknown origin
XR: multilocular radiolucency with cortical expansion

A

central odontogenic fibroma

280
Q

Mesenchymal tumor
XR: opaque with radiolucent rings
Teeth are vital
Hx: cementum, cementoblasts, cementoclasts

A

cementoblastoma / true cementoma

281
Q

mesenchymal tumor associated with the apex of vital asymptomatic mandibular anterior teeth
XR: 3 stages: radiolucent, mixed, radiopaque
Hx: fibrous CT + bone + cementum

A

Periapical cemental (cemento-osseous) dysplasia

predilection for middle-aged black women

282
Q

exuberant form of Periapical cemental dysplasia

associated with hypercementosis
XR: ground glass

A

florid cemento-osseous dysplasia (FCOD)
vital teeth
bilateral, associated with traumatic bone cyst

283
Q

most common odontogenic tumor
common in children and its subtypes?

A

Odontoma (mixed tumors)
1. compound - multiple miniature teeth, anterior maxilla
2. complex - conglomerate mass, posterior jaws

Tx. removal (bec hinders eruption)

284
Q

ameloblastic fibroma vs fibro-odontoma

A

molar-ramus
younger patients

fibroma: radiolucent (resembles pulp)
FO: opaque focus with dental tissue

285
Q

benign nonodontogenic tumor
XR: mixed, well-defined margins
Hx: fibrous CT + bone (osteoblast only)
presents cortical expansion
young adult
mandible

A

Ossifying fibroma

286
Q

osteoblastoma vs osteoid osteoma

A

both common in 2nd decade, males
severe pain
Hx: osteiod + various degrees of calcification
XR: well defined, mixed

OB: bigger >1.5cm
OO: <1.5cm

287
Q

benign nonodontogenic tumor which is asymptomatic, slow growing, bony hard masses
Hx: mature compact or cancellous bone
associated with Gardner’s syndrome

A

Osteoma

288
Q

central giant cell granuloma presents radiographically as

A

XR: multi/unilocular radiolucency often presenting a scalloped border
Hx: fibroblasts + M giant cells
anterior mandible

289
Q

intraosseous vascular malformation common in the posterior mandible
-associated root resorption
XR: multilocular radiolucency, soap bubble / honeycomb

A

hemangiomas of bone

290
Q

XR: floating teeth
HX: Birbeck granules

A

Langerhans cell disease
(Histiocytosis X)
Birbeck: rod-shaped Langerhan cells

  1. eosinophilic granuloma
  2. hand-schuller-christian
  3. letterer-siwe
291
Q

Least severe type of Histiocytosis X (Langerhans cell disease)

A

Eosinophilic granuloma

other types:
2. Hand-Schuller-Christian - chronic disseminated, bone lesions, exophthalmos, diabetes insipidus
3. Letterer-Siwe - acute disseminated, bone + skin + internal organs

292
Q

different inflammatory jaw lesions

A
  1. acute osteomyelitis
  2. chronic osteomyelitis
  3. chronic osteomyelitis with proliferative periostitis / Garre’s osteomyelitis - onion skin (mottled + periosteal reaction)
  4. Diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis - chronic perio disease
  5. Focal sclerosing osteitis - chronic pulpitis

OSTEOMYELITIS = INFECTION = PAIN

293
Q

chondrosarcoma
Hx
XR?

A

XR: moth-eaten, mottled densities
Hx: chondroid, myxoid

294
Q

XR: moth-eaten, cortical expansion
Hx: round-cell cytologic morphology

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

295
Q

conditions that can lead to supernumerary teeth

A

cleidocranial dysplasia
gardner’s syndrome
Trisomy 21

296
Q

conditions that can lead to delayed eruption

A

cleidocranial dysostosis
hypothyroidism
down syndrome

297
Q

conditions that can lead to early eruption

A

osteogenesis imperfecta
hyperparathyroidism
hypophosphatemia
hyperthyroidism

298
Q

types of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Type I: most common, mildest
Type II: most severe (perinatal)
Type III: most severe beyond perinatal
Type IV: mild to moderate bone fragility

299
Q

slow progressive bone disease in which fibrovascular tissue proliferates and may completely replace the involved bone (4 names)

A

Phantom bone disease / massive osteolysis / Gorham’s disease / vanishing bone disease

XR: radiolucencies –> enlarge –> coalesce

300
Q

cortical thickening of bones (mandible)
average age of onset: 9 weeks
acerage duration: 9 months

A

Infantile cortical hyperostosis / Caffey’s disease / battered baby syndrome

301
Q

XR: soap bubble
upwardly gazing eyes
bilateral
painless
symmetric enlargement

A

Cherubism
5 years old, male

302
Q

hypotrichosis, anhidrosis, anodontia / oligodontia, cone shaped teeth

A

Ectodermal dysplasia

sparse hair
absence of sweat glands

303
Q

midface hypoplasia, high arched palate, bird-like

A

Treacher-collins / mandibulofacial dysostosis

severe hypoplasia of maxilla and mandible

304
Q

mandibular hypoplasia leading to glossoptosis (tongue falls back to the back of throat), foreshortening geniohyoid

A

Pierre-robin syndrome
micrognathia, mandibular hypoplasia

305
Q

Cranial deformity, exophthalmos, and midface hypoplasia

A

Crouzon’s syndrome
craniofacial dysostosis
froglike
Prognathism

306
Q

oral findings in Ehlers-danlos

A

pulp stones
dilacerated roots
dentin abnormalities, enamel hypoplasia
extensible tongue

307
Q

oral findings in Marfan’s syndrome

A

narrow, high arched palate, dental crowding, dolicocephalic

308
Q

oral findings in down syndrome (trisomy 21, upward slanting palpebral fissures)

A

cleft lip and palate
taurodontism
periodontal disease
decreased palatal width and length
delayed eruption
hypodontia
macroglossia
microdontia
bifid uvula
fissured tongue

309
Q

cleft occurs in ___ of embryonic life

A

cleft lip: 6th-7th week
cleft palate: 8th week

310
Q

oral findings for Fragile X syndrome

A

prominent palatine ridge
dental crossbites
increased attrition

large ears, macroorchidism, mental retardation

311
Q

russel bodies / rushton bodies

A

periapical cyst
also seen in dentigerous cyst

312
Q

Purple lesion

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

313
Q

Type of rheumatic arthritis that occurs in young people

A

Still’s disease

314
Q

Cardinal feature of osteoarthritis

A

Osteophyte (bony spur) formation

**Boucher’s nodes, heberden nodes

315
Q

Neurofibromatosis type 2

A

Bilateral eighth nerve schwannomas

Multile menongiomas

316
Q

Honey colored crust, superficial skin infection common in children; infection caused by group A strep or staph aureus

A

Impetigo

317
Q

Hyperthyroidism due to a long standing simple goiter

A

Plummer’s disease (toxic nodular goiter)

-protruding eyes does not occur. Sa grave’s disease lang yun

318
Q

Hutchinson’s triad

A

interstitial keratitis, malformed teeth ( Hutchinson incisors,andmulberry molars ), and eighth nerve deafness

319
Q

Rootless teeth with completely obliterated pulp

A

Type I (radicular) dentin dysplasia
Tx: CD

320
Q

deciduous teeth with opalescent color with completely obliterated pulp

A

type II (Coronal) dentin dysplasia

permanent: thistle tube

321
Q

teratoma vs hamartoma vs choristoma

A

teratoma - composed of cells originating from three germ layers
hamartoma - abnormal cells, normal location (ex. odontoma)
choristoma - normal cells, abnormal location (ex. fordyce spots)

322
Q

hallmarks of anaplasia

A

pleomorphism, hyperchromatism, abnormal mitosis, loss of polarity

hindi kasama ang dysplasia/metaplasia

PP mi hyper 😂

323
Q

carcinoma in situ vs invasive carcinoma

A

carcinoma means it involves the epithelium

in situ – full thickness of epith
invasive - full thickness of epith AND penetrates the basement membrane

324
Q

characteristics of malignant (-sarcoma, -carcinoma)

A

less diff, no differentiation (anaplasia)
rapid growth
poorly circumscribe
metastasis
immovable

BIGFEUD (bleeds easily, indurated, grows rapidly, fixated, erythroplasia, ulcerated, duration of >2weeks)

325
Q

TNM clinical staging stands for

A

tumor size
node involvement
metastasis

*STUDY

326
Q

most common epithelial odontogenic tumor

A

ameloblastoma
-most aggressive but benign

327
Q

biological subtypes of ameloblastoma

A

peripheral/extraosseous
cystic/unicystic
solid/multicystic (most common)
malignant ameloblastoma (rare)
ameloblastic carcinoma

328
Q

Soap bubble/honeycomb radiographic presentation

A

Cherubism
Ameloblastoma
myxoma
aneurysmal bone cyst

CAMA

329
Q

microscopic/histopath of ameloblastoma

A

palisading of columnar cells (ameloblasts-like in enamel organ)
aspirate: straw-colored or pale yellow

always radiolucent with well-defined sclerotic border

330
Q

histologic patterns of ameloblastoma? whats the most common?

A

follicular/simple - most commmon - islands that mimic the dental follicle with stelate inside and palisading of columnar cells at the periphery
plexiform - interconnected strands/cords
granular - granular cells/ cuboidal to rounded
basaloid/basal cell - resembles basal cell carcinoma / FARMER’S carcinoma
desmoplastic - thin strands/fibrous tissue scattered all over the stroma
acanthomathous - many islands, squamous metaplasia, keratin plearls

331
Q

tx for ameloblastoma

A

GOAL IS COMPLETE REMOVAL
excision
partial resection
marsupialization/ partch technique / decompression –> excision

332
Q

Absence of more than six permanent teeth is called?

A

Oligodontia

Hypodontia is absence of 1-5 teeth NOT including molars

333
Q

driven snow appearance radiographically

A

Cacifying epithelial odontogenic tumor / PIndborg tumor

334
Q

adenomatoid odontogenic tumor usual location?

A

maxilla anterior region
associated with maxillary canine
histopath: rosettes and ductlike structures

differential: Dentigerous cyst

335
Q

most common mesenchymal odotogenic tumor

A

odontogenic myxoma - mimics dental pulp microscopically
loose gelatinous consistency
Soap bubble / honeycomb

AMO
Ameloblastoma (Apethelial)
Myxoma (mesenchymal)
Odontoma (others)

336
Q

DDx and Tx of cementoblastoma

A

aka true cementoma (PCOD ang cementoma lang)

surgical excision with removal of associated tooth
DDx: condensing osteitis (but nonvital, no radiolucent ring), osteoblastoma (mixed opaque lesion and not continuous)

337
Q

has predilection to black african american women

A

Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia

338
Q

Tx for PCOD

A

none

339
Q

most common odontogenic tumor

A

odontoma

AMO
Ameloblastoma (Apethelial)
Myxoma (mesenchymal)
Odontoma (others)

340
Q

usual location of compound odontoma? of complex odontoma?

A

Maxilla
compound odontoma - anterior region (tooth like)
complex odontoma - posterior region (amorphous conglomeration)

341
Q

lesions with microscopic:
fibroblast
multinucleated giant cells
well-vascularized stroma

A

PGCG
CGCG

cherubism too pero may perivascular collagen cuffing

342
Q

most common tumor of childhood

A

congenital hemangioma

343
Q

most common cyst of the jaw

A

periapical cyst (radicular, apical periodontal)

344
Q

most common odontogenic cyst

A

periapical cyst

345
Q

most common fibro-osseous dysplasia

A

cemento-osseous dysplasia

346
Q

what lesion mimics the tooth?

A

compound odontoma

347
Q

Ossifying fibroma vs fibrous dysplasia

A

Mandible (OF) - Maxilla (FD)
abnormal bone (OF) - abnormal fibrous (FD)
cellular histopath (OF) - vascular histopath (FD)
well-defined rx (OF) - poorly defined (FD) “foorly”
surgical exision (OF) - none/surgical recontouring (FD)

348
Q

Tx for ossifying fibroma

A

surgical excision

349
Q

pathologies with multinucleated giant cell

A

HAC PC
hyperparathyroidism
aneurysmal bone cyst
cherubism
PGCG
CGCG

350
Q

cotton wool appearance

A

osteoma, pagets disease

351
Q

where can you see central giant cell granuloma

A

most of the time: jaws!
mandible: anterior to the molars or between 1st molar and incisors

352
Q

radiographic presentation of CGCG? DDx based on radio?

A

radiolucent with scalloped border (cloud-like)

scalloping between the roots: traumatic bone cyst

353
Q

needle used during aspiration biopsy

A

gauge 16 or 18

354
Q

creamy white/cheese colored aspiration is associated with?

A

OKC

355
Q

air aspiration is associated with?

A

traumatic bone cyst or you are in a sinus

356
Q

used for punch biopsy to get the full thickness

A

trephine punch

357
Q

storage of specimen

A

10% buffered formalin
used 20x volume of specimen and can be stored up to 7 days

358
Q

Tx and DDx of PGCG

A

surgical excision up to the periosteum and PDL, remove source of irritation

DDx: pyogenic granuloma

359
Q

Radio for peripheral giant cell granuloma

A

may or may not be seen
in the edentulous ridge, superficial cup-shaped radiolucency

360
Q

lesions seen in the maxilla

A

Max, FAC OP
Fibrous dysplasia
Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor (AOT)
Calcifying odontogenic cyst
Odontoma
Periapical cyst

361
Q

histopath of pyogenic granuloma

A

hyperplastic granulation tissue with many capillaries

362
Q

Tx for cherubism

A

none - self limiting

other self-limiting:
PCOD, congenital hemangioma, bohn’s nodules

363
Q

lesion found anterior to 1st molar initiated by trauma/irritation exclusively in the gingiva

A

PGCG - often sa mandible. common in females same with PCOD (black african american women)!

364
Q

Tx for congenital vascular malformation

A

surgery
arterial embolization (block blood flow), sclerosant therapy (thickens –> blocks –> shrinks), laser therapy

365
Q

histologically similar to congenital hemangioma

A

pyogenic granuloma - maraming capillaries din

366
Q

how will you determine if it is periapical granuloma or periapical cyst?

A

biopsy/microscopic exam
similar sila in radio etc.

367
Q

epithelial lining of periapical/radicular cyst?

A

nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

same with lateral periodontal cyst

368
Q

source of epithelial lining of periapical/radicular cyst

A

rest of malassez

*tx for cyst is enucleation EXCEPT for periapical cyst.. exo, rct, apicoectomy

369
Q

usual location of lateral periodontal cyst

A

between the roots of mandibular premolar and canine

radiographic: round or teardrop-shaped radiolucency

370
Q

source of epithelial lining of lateral periodontal cyst

A

rest of serres
Tx: enucleation

371
Q

when does Bohn’s nodule involute or rupture?

A

before 3 months old

372
Q

palatine cyst of the newborn (epstein pearls) is included in the fusion of?

A

palatal shelves and nasal process

epstein pearls are found in the midline of the palate

373
Q

lesions with mixed radiolucency

A

OFC CAP
ossifying fibroma
fibrous dysplasia
CEOT
COC
AOT
PCOD

374
Q

Dentigerous cyst vs Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor radiographically

A

Dentigerous cyst attached to the CEJ
AOT - may be attached until the apex, not always radiolucent

375
Q

Second most common odontogenic cyst

A

Dentigerous cyst /follicular cyst

376
Q

Most common developmental cyst

A

Dentigerous cyst/ follicular cyst

377
Q

Source of epithelial lining of dentigerous cyst

A

Reduced enamel epithelium (REE)

378
Q

Soft tissue variant of dentigerous cyst

A

Eruption cyst - common in primary teeth

379
Q

Source of lining of OKC

A

Rest of serres

OKC is aggressive with High recurrence!!

380
Q

Classification of OKC

A

Solitary - one OKC - more common
Multiple -associated with Gorlin-Goltz; seen more in children

381
Q

Tx for Odontogenic keratocyst (OKC) or keratocystic odontogenic tumor (KCOT)

A

Enucleation with curettage, marsupialization

Since aggressive and high recurrence rate

382
Q

Salt and pepper pattern in radio

A

Calcifying odontogenic cyst / calcifying cystic odontogenic tumor

Salt and pepper - equal in size, equal distribution, equal distance

383
Q

Ghost cell keratinization histopath

A

Calcifying odontogenic cyst - absence of organelle; cytoplasm and cell membrane lang siya which undergoes keratinization

384
Q

Tx of fibrous dysplasia

A

None if small
Surgical recontouring if big

385
Q

Syndrome associated with odontogenic keratocyst / keratcystic odontogenic tumor

A

Nevoid Basal Cell carcinoma syndrome / basal cell nevus / gorlin-Goltz / bifid rib

386
Q

Nevoid Basal Cell carcinoma syndrome / basal cell nevus / gorlin-Goltz / bifid rib clinical presentation

A

Multiple OKC/KCOT
basal cell carcinoma (aka Farmer’s carcinoma -at the canthus of eye, side of nose)
palmar and plantar keratotic pitting
bifid ribs
Calcified falx cerebri (normally radiolucent ang falx but in gorlin goltz, it calcified)

387
Q

Fissural cysts between the roots of maxillary lateral incisor and canine associated with vital tooth (divergence of the roots)

A

Fissural = non-odontogenic

globulomaxillary cyst
radiographic: inverted pear-shaped radiolucency

DDx: lateral periodontal cyst - but between the roots of mandibular premolar and canine

388
Q

soft tissue cyst with swelling at the canine region or its mucobuccal fold

A

nasolabial cyst / nasoalveolar cyst = no bone involvement!

extraorally: swelling/elavation at the nasolabial fold, can affect ala and floor of nose

389
Q

Tx of nasolabial cyst

A

enucleation using sublabial incision (half-moon shape)

390
Q

epithelial lining of nasolabial cyst

A

non-keratinized stratified squamous (if within intraoral/canine lang)
pseudostat ciliated columnar epithelium (if abot sa ala and floor of nose)

391
Q

most common non-odontogenic cyst

A

nasopalatine duct cyst / incisive canal / median anterior maxillary
-symmetric swelling between maxillary central incisors (vital)
radio: bilateral ovoid or heart-shaped radiolucency

392
Q

true fissural cyst

A

nasopalatine duct cyst / incisive canal / median anterior maxillary

393
Q

more posterior presentation of nasopalatine duct cyst

A

median palatine cyst

394
Q

presensation of nasopalatine duct cyst at the point of opening of the incisive canal

A

cyst of the palatine papilla

395
Q

oral patho with female predilection

A

PCOD
PGCG
focal osteoporotic bone marrow defect (hematopoietic bone marrow defect)
pyogenic granuloma

PEMALE

396
Q

“blood soaked sponge”

A

aneurysmal bone cyst (pseudocyst)
rx: radiolucent, soap bubble (CAMA)
micro: fibroblast, multinucleated giant cells (HAC PC), blood filled spaces

397
Q

Tx of aneurysmal bone cyst

A

excision NOT enucleation.. it’s a pseudocyst so no lining

398
Q

radiolucent, scalloping beneath the roots

A

traumatic bone cyst, simple bone, idiopatic bone, hemorrhagic bone

**not proper wound healing after trauma –> early lysis –> dead space –> tx: intiate bleeding

399
Q

static bone cyst usually contains what kind of tissue?

A

submandibular gland

400
Q

fordyce granules represent what kind of tissue

A

sebaceous gland (choristoma)

401
Q

areas of hematopoiesis in the oral cavity

A

angle of mandible and maxillary tuberosity
areas of hema in children: long bones
areas of hema in adults: center! skull, spine etc

associated with focal osteoporotic bone marrow defect.. osteoporotic = osteoclasts

402
Q

cause of focal osteoporotic bone marrow defect and treatment

A

abnormal healing following tooth extraction causing porous
tx: none: since poorly circumscribe

403
Q

microscopic/histopath of focal osteoporotic bone marrow defect

A

hematopoietic cells (most abundant), fat cells, lymphoid tissues

404
Q

cause of mucocele

A

accumulation of saliva in the lips
-due to mechanical trauma to the excretory duct (mucus extravasation phenomenon) = more common
-due to blockage of salivary flow (mucus retention cyst)

*painless, soft, smooth, bluish-gray mass, broad base

405
Q

cause of ranula

A

due to mechanical trauma to the excretory duct (mucus extravasation cyst)
due to blockage of salivary flow - mucus retention cyst (more common)

406
Q

non-neoplastic change of the minor salivary glands of the palate that mimics malignancy clinically and histologically (with erythroplasia, rapid growth, ulceration, >2weeks)

A

Necrotizing Sialometaplasia
-glands change from cuboidal to squamous

HEALS WITHIN 6-10 weeks
Tx: none (perform incisional biopsy -for lesions that are large and u suspect malignancy)

407
Q

benign salivary gland tumor composed of bilayer strands of epithelial cells

A

canalicular adenoma

myoepithelioma - myoepithelial cells

408
Q

most common salivary gland malignancy

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma
-mucus producing cells (goblet cells)
-epidermoid (squamous cells)

409
Q

most common tumor of salivary glands

A

pleomorphic adenoma (parotid and palate) -most common benign tumor of major and minor salivary glands.

most common salivary gland malignancy: mucoepidermoid carcinoma

410
Q

group of benign salivary gland tumors composed of single cell type

A

monomorphic adenoma (parotid and upper lip)

411
Q

inflammation of salivary glands

A

sialadenitis

412
Q

smooth denuded, red lesion of tongue devoid of filiform papillae

A

median rhomboid glossitis
-midline of the dorsum of the tongue
cause: chronic candidiasis / failure of tuberculum impar to close
tx: treat candidiasis

413
Q

cause of geographic tongue

A

unkown

tx: none - self limiting; manage symptoms - mouth wash with baking soda, topical corticosteroids

414
Q

cause of hairy tongue

A

prolonged use of Abx or corticosteroids, smoking

color is due to trapped bacteria and debris

tx: remove source of irritation

415
Q

umbilicated lesions in the palate with keratosis

A

stomatitis nicotina - inflamed salivary duct orifices

small red spots with white keratotic rings
NOT a premalignant lesion

416
Q

peristent low grade trauma

A

focal keratosis/ frictional hyperkeratosis

417
Q

tx of papillary hyperplasia / papillomatosis

A

surgery, remove denture, maintain good oral hygiene

cause: ill filling denture + poor oral hygiene

ill filling denture + chronic trauma = epulis fissuratum / denture-induced fibrous hyperplasia

418
Q

Gustatory sweating is the chief symptom in

A

Auriculotemporal syndrome / Frey Syndrome

Sweating of cheeks, temple, back of ear, common after parotidectomy

419
Q

What is meniere’s disease

A

Vertigo
Tinnitus
Hearing loss

Due to build up of endolymph in the ears –> increase pressure

420
Q

Common Teratogens

A

CHEAP TORCH
Chicken pox
Hepa B
Enterovirus
AIDS
Parvovirus

Toxoplasmosis
Other agents (group B strep)
Rubella
CMV
HSV

421
Q

Metabolic disorder characterized by massive accumulation of glycogen in the liver and kidney and its ability to be immobilized is known as

A

Von Gierke’s Disease - cannot break down glycogen

422
Q

Mutation of chromosome 7

A

Cystic fibrosis - elevated Na+ and Cl- sweat test (chloride reabsorption)

423
Q

Anitschkow’s myocyte

A

Rheumatic fever -brain, joints, pancarditis, skin

-aschoff bodies

424
Q

Monro’s abscess are findings in

A

Psoriasis

425
Q

Fatal progressive and massive destruction of nose, face, and pharynx, usually begins as a superficial ulceration of the palate or nasal septum, preceded by a feeling of stiffness of nose

A

Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

426
Q

Ulceration at nasal septum and leads to dysfigurement

A

Cancrum oris (noma) -oro-facial gangrene
Cause: borrelia vincenti

427
Q

What is summer illness

A

Herpangina

428
Q

XYY

A

Jacob’s syndrome

429
Q

Inactive X chromosome

A

Barr bodies

-in turner syndrome, this is absent

430
Q

What is rhagades

A

Radiating scars around the mouth, seen in congenital syphilis

431
Q

What is Ranke complex

A

seen in ‘healed’ primary pulmonary tuberculosis and is a later manifestation of the Ghon complex. It consists of two components: a Ghon lesion that has undergone calcification. an ipsilateral calcified mediastinal node.

432
Q

Lipschutz bodies

A

Herpetic lesion

433
Q

Civatte bodies

A

Dead keratinocytes

434
Q

Shilling test

A

Vit B12 absorption test for pernicious anemia

435
Q

Other name for hyperaldosterism

A

Conn’s disease

436
Q

Bitot’s spots

A

Vitamin A deficiency

437
Q

Brown tumors are destructive cystlike bone lesions associated with

A

Hyperparathyroidism

438
Q

Civatte bodies

A

Dead keratinocytes

439
Q

Schilling test used to detect

A

Pernicious anemia

Need To Recall (19 decks)

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