Orthopedic Flashcards

1
Q

Name the Salter-Harris fracture:

1) Halfway through the growth plate
2) Straight through the growth plate
3) Breaks the epiphyseal plate in half
4) Crush injury - crushing the growth plate
5) Breaks halfway through the growth plate into the epiphysis and metaphysis

A

1) Type II (M)
2) Type I
3) Type III (E)
4) Type V
5) Type IV (ME)

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2
Q

Name the cervical spine fracture:

1) Result of flexion injury in the lower cervical spine in which the spinous process is broken or fractured.
2) Occurs frequently in a motor vehicle accident or in hangings. It is a bilateral pedicle fracture with anterior displacement of C2.
3) Caused by heavy object falling directly on head or hitting head while diving. Consists of at least two fractures of C1.

A

1) Clay Shoveler’s
2) Hangman’s
3) Jefferson’s

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3
Q

Name the thoracolumbar spine fracture:

1) Horizontal fracture of a vertebra, usually result of a motor vehicle accident where the seat belt immobilizes the pelvis but the upper body is thrust forward.
2) Horizontal fracture of a vertebra, usually result of a motor vehicle accident where the seat belt immobilizes the pelvis but the upper body is thrust forward.
3) Defect in the pars interarticularis, appears as a collar on the “Scottie dog”. Best seen on oblique view.
4) Bilateral pars interarticularis defect.

A

1) Chance
2) Burst/Compression
3) Spondylolysis
4) Spondylotisthesis

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4
Q

Name the wrist fracture:
1)Distal radial fracture posteriorly displaced.

2)Distal radial fracture anteriorly displaced.

3)Most common fractured carpal bone, may give rise to avascular necrosis.
Pain in the anatomical snuffbox!

A

1) Colles’
2) Smith’s
3) Scaphoid

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5
Q

Name the hand fracture:
1) Fracture of the base of the proximal phalanx of the thumb.

2) Fracture through the base of the first (thumb) metacarpal
3) Fracture of the 5th metacarpal.
4) Fracture of the 3rd metacarpal.

A

1) Gamekeeper’s Thumb or Skier’s Thumb
2) Bennett’s Fracture
3) Boxer’s Fracture
4) Bar room/Brawler’s Fracture

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6
Q

Name the Pelvis fracture:

1) Fracture through ischiopubic rami on one side and fracture of SI joint on the other side.
2) Fracture through the ischiopubic rami and SI joint on the same side.
3) A small piece of bone is separated from the origin or insertion site of a tendon.

A

1) Bucket Handle Fracture
2) Malgaine Fracture:
3) Avulsion Fracture

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7
Q

Name the Elbow fracture:

1) difficult to see, but look for anterior and posterior fat pad signs.
2) Caused by receiving a blow when protecting onself, dislocation of radial head and fracture of the ulna.
3) Caused by falling on outstretched hand and dislocating the distal radio-ulnar joint and fracturing the distal radius.

A

1) Radial Head fracture
2) Monteggia Fracture-dislocation (night-stick)
3) Galeazzi Fracture-dislocationElbow

Mnemnonic:
Policeman Radii Galeazzi tried to hit thief Ulna Monteggia for stealing his bike. Ulna Monteggia blocked the blow to his forarm and tripped Policeman Radii Galezzi who fell on his outstretched hand.

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8
Q

Name the Upper Limb injuries:

1) Diagnosed with X-ray taken with patient holding weights, 3 grades.
2) occurs most frequently in the middle third of the bone.

A

1) AC Joint Separation

2) Clavicular fracture

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9
Q

Indications for a bone scan - radiographic tracer Tcn99m phosphate or gallium 67 citrate

A

Osteomyelitis
Bony neoplasm/METS
Occult vertebral fracture

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10
Q

What are the disadvantages of bone scan?

A

False pos in older people w/ OA

False neg with diffuse bony METS and mult myeloma

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11
Q

What are the disadvantages of bone scan?

A

False pos in older people w/ OA

False neg with diffuse bony METS and mult myeloma

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12
Q

What is the MC muscular dystrophy in children? MC in adults?

A

Duchenne’s

Myotonic

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13
Q

What are SSX of Duchenne’s MD?

A

Muscle replaced by fat/pseudo-hypertorphy of calves.

Gower’s sign +

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14
Q

What test is used to diagnose Myasthenia gravis?

A

Tensilon test

Antibodies to ACH receptors

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15
Q

What test is used to diagnose Myasthenia gravis?

A

Tensilon test

Antibodies to ACH receptors

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16
Q

MC benign bone tumor

A

Osteochondroma - risk of chondrosarcoma w/ multiple lesions

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17
Q

Osteitis deformans or Paget’s dz presents with what SSX?

A

Lytic mixed with sclerotic areas - esp skull, bowing femur/tibia, OA, pathological fracture

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18
Q

Term: Demineralization of bone

A

Osteomalacia

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19
Q

What is the MC primary malignant bone tumor (age)? What is the second MC primary malignant bone tumor (age)? What is the more common bone tumor in the young?

A

Chondrosarcoma (middle age)
Osteosarcoma (elderly)
Ewing’s sarcoma

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20
Q

With unilateral joint inflammation, what two conditions are high on your DDX?

A

Gouty and infectious arthritis

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21
Q

Which arthritis conditions are HLA B27+?

A

Psoriatic, Enteropathogenic, and Reactive arthritis

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22
Q

What are some ominous signs of bone/musculoskeletal pain?

A
Pt > 50 yo
Hx of CA
Trauma 
Systemic symptoms of inflammation
Not better lying down/rest
Osteoporosis 
Neurological ssx (bowel/bladder incontinence) 
Referred pain
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23
Q

What is mandatory in a febrile pt with joint effusion?

A

Arthrocentesis

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24
Q

What is the work-up for suspected RA?

A

RF and ANA antibody

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25
What does Adam's sign detect?
Scoliosis | Have patient bend forward
26
What does Adson's test detect?
TOS | Taking radial pulse and lifting arm to see if pulse is still detected
27
What does Braggard's test detect?
Sciatica | During SLR - flex foot
28
What does Betcherew's test detect?
Sciatica | Extending knees while seated
29
What does East or Roos' test detect?
TOS | Hands up, open/close hands for 3 min
30
What are two test for Malingering?
Hoover's and Burn's Bench tests
31
What does Kemp's test detect?
Disc Herniation | Rotate, extend flex, push on lumbar SP
32
What does Kernig's test detect?
Meningitis | Flex knee then extend
33
What does SLR test detect?
Disc herniation or sciatica
34
What does Linder's test detect?
Sciatica | Supine, flex neck
35
What does Milgram's test detect?
Disc herniation | Supine, raise extended legs for 30 sec
36
What does Minor's sign detect?
Sciatica | Sit then stand and put one hand on back
37
What does Shoulder depression test detect?
Brachial plexus lesion | Apply pressure down on shoulder, flex the head
38
What does Soto-Hall's test detect?
Disc herniation | SLR + flex head
39
What does valsalva detect?
space occ lesion | bear down
40
What does Wright's test detect?
TOS | Palpate both radial pulses, raise arm
41
What does Apley's scratch test detect?
Rot cuff tear, tendonitis | Touch fingertips to middle of back
42
What does drop arm test detect?
Rot cuff tear | abduct both arms to 180, adduct
43
What does Glenohumoral apprehension test detect?
Disloc shoulder | Cross painful arm, push elbow toward painful shoulder
44
What does Impingement test detect?
Shoulder lesion | Abduct arm, rotate medially + passively elevate it
45
What does Lippman's scratch test detect?
Bicip tendonitis | Palpate bicipital groove
46
What does speed's test detect?
Bicip tendonitis | Resisted shoulder flexion
47
What does Yergason's test detect?
Bicip tendonitis | Flex elbow, resist supination/lat rot
48
What does Cozen's test detect?
Lat epicondylitis/ext tendonitis (tennis elbow) | Resist wrist extension in prontated/flexed arm
49
What does Finkelstein's test detect?
De quervain's | Hold thumb in hand and ulnar deviate
50
What does Mill's test detect?
Lat epicondylitis/ext tendonitis (tennis elbow)) | Palpate lateral epicondyle
51
What does Phalen's test detect?
Carpal tunnel | Backwards prayer
52
What does Retinacular's test detect?
Tight retinacular lig or capsule Hold PIP, flex DIP - Fled Pip, fled DIP Likely to be a distractor
53
What does Tinel's sign detect?
Carpal tunnel | Tap on median n
54
What does valgus/varus stress test detect?
Med/lat collateral lig instability Valgus = Medial (6 letters each) Varus = Lateral
55
What does Ely's test detect?
Tight rec fem, lumbar lesion, contracture of TFL, osseus hip lesion Prone, flex knee to butt
56
What does Gaenslen's test detect?
SI lesion, hip path, likely L4 lesion | Supine, one leg off table, bring other knee to chest
57
What does Hibb's test detect?
Spondylolisthesis, facet syndrome, SI lig sprains | Prone, flex knee, move leg laterally
58
What does Nachla's test detect?
Tight rect fem, upper lumbar lesion | Prone knee bending
59
What does Ober's test detect?
Contracture of TFL | Lateral decubitus, affected leg up, flex knee, raise leg, let if fall
60
What does Ortolani click test detect?
Congenital hip dislocation
61
What does Patrick Faber's test detect?
Hip arthritis, bursitis, leg sprain | Cross legs
62
What does Pelvic rock test detect?
SI lesion | Rock the pelvis
63
What does telescoping test detect?
Congenital hip dislocation | Move legs like you're adjusting a telescope
64
What does Thomas' test detect?
Tight hip flexor | Bring knee to chest while supine
65
What does Trendelenburg test detect?
Gluteus medius weakness | Stand, flex one knee
66
What does Yeoman's test detect?
SI joint dysfunction | Prone, extend hip with knee extended/flexed
67
What does Yeoman's test detect?
SI joint dysfunction | Prone, extend hip with knee extended/flexed
68
What does Anterior/Posterior drawer test detect?
ACL/PCL Tear | Sit on foot, pull push flexed eg
69
What does Apley's compression/distraction test detect?
Med/Lat Meniscus tear Compression = meniscus Distraction = ligament Push ankle while knee is flexed in prone
70
What does Apprehension test detect?
Patellar dislocation | Press patella laterally
71
What does Bounce home's test detect?
Torn meniscus | Passively extend knee "bounce home"
72
What does Lachman's test detect?
ACL injury | Move tibia toward femur
73
What does McMurray test detect?
Meniscus fragment in joint | Flex patient hip/knee, internally/externally rotate the knee
74
What does Patellar femoral grinding test detect?
Chondromalacia patella Press on patella while patient contracts quad Younger/growing pts
75
What does reduction click detect?
Menisci fragment in joint (same as McMurray)
76
What does valgus/varus stress test detect?
MCL/LCL sprians Valgus = Medial Varus = Lateral
77
What does ballot and bulge tests detect?
Bulge - minor effusion milk medial side of patella, then stroke lateral side Ballot - major effusion
78
What does anterior/posterior drawer test detect?
Med/Lat Talofibular lig lesion | Excess motion on side the ankle turns away from
79
What does Forefoot adduction test detect?
Structural foot detect (INFANTS only) | Excessive forefoot adduction, try to bring foor to neutral position
80
What does Dorsiflexion test detect?
Gastrocnemius/soleus hypertonicity | Dorsiflex ankle
81
What does Forefoot squeeze test detect?
Stress fracture or neuroma | Squeeze metatarsal bones together
82
What does Homan's sign detect?
DVT | Dorsiflex pt foot
83
What does talor tilt test detect?
Torn calcaneofibular ligament | Talus is tilted from side to sdie
84
What does test for rigid or supple flat feet detect?
Obs in 3 pos: stand, sit, standing on toes Rigid: no arch present Supple: arch present while standing
85
What does Thompson's test detect?
Ruptured achilles tendon | Squeeze gastroc toward midline
86
What does Tibial torsion test detect?
Measures angles between malleoli | Toe-in or toe-out torsion
87
Alpha stim indications and contraindications?
Chronic pain, cranial for depression/insomnia/addiction | CI: pacemaker, CA lesion, uterus
88
Electroacupuncture indications and contraindications?
Pain | CI: pacemaker, arrhythmia, seizures, anxiety attacks
89
TENS indications and contraindications?
Pain, ST use | CI: eyes, fractures, metallic implants, uterus
90
Sine wave indications and contraindications?
LMN lesions, spasm, other nerve problems | Constitutional hydrotherapy tx
91
Interferential indications and contraindications?
Deep/large joint problems, muscles spasms
92
Infrared phototherapy indications and contraindications?
Arthritis, infection, spasm, inc circulation | CI: CA
93
Iontophoresis indications and contraindications?
Calcium - adhesive capsulitis CuSo4 - fungal infx MgSo4 - bursitis, edema, OA, RA, spasms
94
Low voltage galvanism indications and contraindications?
Denervated muscle, LMN lesion, decreased motion, pain
95
High voltage galvanism indications and contraindications?
Pain (neuralgia, sciatica strain/sprain)
96
Phonophoresis indications and contraindications?
Inflammation (anti-inflammatory substances)
97
Therapeutic ultrasound indications and contraindications?
Micromassage, adhesions, chronic inflammation | Penetrates deeply, does not affect adipose
98
Diathermy indications and contraindications?
Inflammation/infections (Bursitis, tendinitis, bronchitis, prostatitis) CI: Long-term use, areas of low vascularity
99
Ultraviolet phototherapy indications and contraindications?
Psoriasis or other skin issues | CI: Eye, genitals, sunburns, CA
100
Colon irrigation indications and contraindications?
Constipation, detox | CI: Active UC, diverticulitis, children
101
Hyperthermia baths indications and contraindications?
Immune booster, inc circulation
102
Contrast hydrotherapy indications and contraindications?
Immune, inflam, infection, arthritis | Very safe, good for many conditions
103
Constitutional hydrotherapy indications and contraindications?
Immune boost, nourishing, healing
104
External cold application indications and contraindications?
Acute inflammation
105
External heat application indications and contraindications?
Chronic inflammation
106
Osseous manipulations indications and contraindications?
Specific body part has pain or fixation | CI: CA, fracture, osteoporosis