Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MSK > orthopeadics > Flashcards

orthopeadics Flashcards

1
Q

what type of joints are intervertebral discs

A

secondary cartilaginous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what surrounds the nucleus pulposus

A

anulus fibrosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

why do people get shorter with old age

A

loss of water content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what suggests facet joint pain

A

pain worse on extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what levels is degeneration and acute disc prolapse most common in

A

L4/5 L5/S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

where does the cauda equina lend

A

l1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does nerve root compression cause

A

radiculopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is radiculopathy

A

pain down the dermatome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

pathology of spinal stenosis

A

compressed by osteophytes and hypertrophied ligaments in oa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

pathology of spinal stenosis

A

compressed by osteophytes and hypertrophied ligaments in oa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

easier to walk up hill is a sign of what and why

A

spinal stenosis as theyre opening up the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

signs of cauda equina syndrome

A

usually prolapsed disc, bladder and bowel dysfunction, saddle anaesthesia, loss of anal tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

where to perform a lumbar puncture

A

posterior iliac crest - L4, PSIS S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is genu varum also known as

A

bow legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is typical of genu varum

A

the legs curve outward at the knees while feet and ankles touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when is genu varum normal

A

3-4 year olds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

examples of pathologies causing genu verum

A

skeletal dysplasia, rickets, tumour, blounts disease and trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is genu valgum also known as

A

knock knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

presentation of ganu valgum

A

when the child stands straight and the knees touch but the ankles are apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is intoeing

A

when the child walks with toes pointing inwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when is intoeing accentuated

A

in running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is femoral neck anteversion

A

femoral neck usually points anteriorly, can be at 30-40 degrees at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what can femroal neck anteversion predispose

A

patellofemoral problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is internal tibial torsion

A

on knees foot is rotated too far medially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is metatarussu adductus

A

metatarsals go too medially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what can fixed flat feet indicated

A

calf tightness, tarsal coalition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

who is curly toes common in

A

younger children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

when is curly toes resolved by

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

who gets anterior knee pain

A

females more than men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how to resolve anterior knee pain

A

physio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

red flags for prolapsed intervertebral disc

A

non mechanical pain, systemic upset, major and new and neurological deficet, saddle anaethesia, bladder and bowel upset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is a myotome

A

a group of muscles innervated by a single nerve root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

myotome L1/2

A

hip flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

myotome L3/4

A

knee extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

myotome L5

A

foot dorsiflexion and EHL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

myotome S1/2

A

ankle plantarflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

prolapsed intervertebral disc investigations

A

MRI 1st main line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is sciatica

A

buttock and/or leg pain in a specific dermatomal distribution accomanied by neurological disturbance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how can a disc prolaose present

A

may be asymptoamitc, leg pain, neurological disturbance, episodic back pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

management of disc prolapse

A

70% will settle in 3 months - not an emergency unless cauda equina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the management of backache

A

short bed rest, anti inflammatory, mobilise thereafter, physicaly therapy, return to normal activity, physio and reassurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

red flags of back pain

A

history of cancer, < 20 and > 60 1st back pain, non mechanical and saddle paraesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are back pain emergencies

A

cauda equina, fracture with deteriorating neurology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

assessment of back pain

A

immobilise, X rau and neuro motor and sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is a common theme of congenital scoliosis

A

imbalance in the number of growth plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

causes of secondary scoliosis

A

nueromuscular, tumours, spina bifida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

management of scoliosis

A

corrective casts, bracing, exercises and electrical stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is kyphsis

A

an exagerated forward rounding of the back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is spondyloysis

A

defect in the pars interarticularis of the vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is spondyloisthesis

A

forward slippage on one vertebra on anaother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

investigations of lower back pain

A

typically none, ESR/visosity/calciumalkphos, rarely X ray, MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

causes of lower back pain

A

90% mechanical/non specific, 0.7% tumour/mets, 0.3% ankylosing spondylitis, 0.01% infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

presentation of facet arthropathy

A

stiff in morning, loosen up routine, resless, difficulty sittig, driving and standing, worse with extension, better with activity, often radiates to buttocks and legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

how does acute osteomyelitis mainly occur

A

post traumatic / open - inoculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

how does osteomyelitis occur in children or immunosuppressed

A

haematogenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

investigations of chronic osteomyelitis

A

X rays and MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what do bone abscesses do

A

chronically cause inflammation of the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what does septic arthritis effect

A

child development of a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

how can septic arthritis occur

A

from inoculation, metaphyseal spread and direct haemotogenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

principles of treatment of cellulitis

A

know the bug, operate if dead tissue or forguen body, target antibiotics, right team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what shoudl infected arthroplasty affect

A

ni more than 1% of primary joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

tests for infected arthroplasty

A

CRP, joint aspiration, bone scan, Xrau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

management of infected arthroplasty

A

let pus outm prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

marfans syndrome caused by

A

mutaton of the fibrillin gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is ehlers danlos

A

abnormal elastin and collagen formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what does ehlers danlos present with

A

hypermobility, vascular fragility, easy bruising, joint instability and scoliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is duchene muscular dystrophy caused by

A

a defect in dystrophin gene involved in calcium transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

DMD presenation

A

progressive mmuscle weakness till can no longer walk by age 20 - carfiac and resp failure common in early 20s, gowers dign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is gowers sign

A

usung hands to ush on legs to stand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is the diagnosis of DCD

A

raised CK, abnormalities on muscle biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

management of muscular dystrphy

A

physiotherapy and splintage to prolong mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is spinal bifida

A

congenital disorder where the two halves of the posterior vertebral arch fail to fuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

presentation of bifida occulta

A

spina tethering of spinal cord -> high arched foot and toe clawing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what is bifida cystica assocaited with

A

hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what is hydrocephalus

A

excess CSF at brain increasing intracranial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

mingocele has neuro deficit true or false

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what occurs below the lesion in myelomengocele

A

motor/sensory deficit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

management of spina bifida

A

usually closed at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what is syndactyly

A

two digits fused together

80
Q

what is polydactyl

A

extra digit formed

81
Q

what is fibular hemimelia

A

partial or complete absence of the fibula

82
Q

what does fibular hemimelia lead to

A

shortened lib, bowing of the tibia and ankle deformity

83
Q

management of mild fibular hemimelia

A

limb lengthening with circular frame

84
Q

management of severe fibular hemimelia

A

ankle amputation

85
Q

risk factors of brachial plexus palsy

A

large babies, twin deliveries, shoulder dystocia

86
Q

risk factors of brachial plexus palsy

A

large babies, twin deliveries, shoulder dystocia

87
Q

what is erbs palsy

A

injury t upper C5 and C6 nerve roots

88
Q

what does erbs palsy lead to

A

loss of motor innervation of the deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus biceps and brachalis

89
Q

management of erbs palsy

A

physiotherapy to prevent contractures, retirn of biceps function by 6 months

90
Q

what is klumpkes palsy

A

lower brachial plexus injury (C8 & T1)

91
Q

what does klumpkes palsy cause

A

paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles due to forceful adduction

92
Q

recovery of klumpke

A

less than 50%

93
Q

knees at birth

A

varus knees

94
Q

knees at 14 months

A

neutrally aligned

95
Q

knees at 3 years

A

knock knees

96
Q

knees at 7-9 years

A

6 degree valgus

97
Q

normal range of knees

A

6 degree

98
Q

varum

A

bow legged

99
Q

valgum

A

lateral

100
Q

what is genu varum due to

A

medial proximal tibial physis (blounts), growth plate restriction at medial side in adolescence, skeletal dysplasia, tumour, rickets, trauma

101
Q

what is genu valgum due to

A

rickets, tumours, trauma and neurofibromatosis

102
Q

management of genu vasum and valgus

A

osteotoy or growth plate manipulation surgery, olate at side of knee cap growing abnormally

103
Q

what is intoeing

A

feet pointing toards the midline when walking and standing

104
Q

causes of in toeing

A

femoral neck anteversion, internal tibial torsion, forefoot adduction

105
Q

when does internal tibial torsion resolve

A

6 years

106
Q

when does forefoot adduction resolev

A

8 years

107
Q

when is flat feet normal

A

at bruth

108
Q

flexible flat feet

A

flattened medial arch forms with dorsiflexion of the great toe

109
Q

what is flexible flat foot due to

A

ligamentous laxity, familial or idiopathic, in adlts tibialis posterior tendon dysfunction

110
Q

fixed fflat foot

A

flattened medial arch regardless of load or great toe dorsifelxion

111
Q

cause of fixed flat foot

A

underlying bony abnormality

112
Q

what may fixed foot require

A

surgey

113
Q

when do curly toes resolve

A

by 6 years

114
Q

how to treat persistant cases of curly toes

A

flexor tenotomy

115
Q

what is developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

the dislocation or subluxation of the femoral head during the perinatal period which affects the subsequent development of the hip

116
Q

who gets developmental displasia of the hip

A

usually females

117
Q

what hip does developmental dysplasia tend to effect

A

left hip

118
Q

what is a risk factor of developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

breech birth

119
Q

signs of developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

asymmetric, decreased leg length, ortolanu test, barlow test

120
Q

what is the ortolani test

A

reducing a dislocated hip with abducion and anterior displacement

121
Q

what is barlow test

A

dislocatable hip with flecuon and posterior displacement

122
Q

investigations of developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

US, X rays after 4-6 months

123
Q

management of developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

panlik harness for over 18 months,, -> surgery

124
Q

if left untreated what can developmental displasia of the hip lead to

A

arthritis,mobility affected, shallow acetabulum

125
Q

what is transient synovitis of the hip

A

self limiting inflammation of the synovium of the hip

126
Q

when does transient synovitis of the hip occur

A

after URTI

127
Q

who gets transient synocitis of the hip

A

men more than females - 2-10 years

128
Q

what is the most common cause of childhood hip pain

A

transient synovitis of the hip

129
Q

presentation of transient synovitis of the hip

A

reluctance to weight bear on affected side, restriction motion, maybe low grade fever, less pain than septic arthritis

130
Q

investigations of transient synovitis of the hip

A

US, normal CRP,

131
Q

management of transient synovitis of the hip

A

NSAIDs and rest

132
Q

what is perthes disease

A

idiopathic osteochondritis of the femoral head leading to loss of blood supply and avascular necrosis of femoral head

133
Q

who gets perthes disease

A

males more than females - 4-9 years olf

134
Q

stage 1 of perthes disease

A

necrosis/sclerosis

135
Q

stage 2 of perthes disease

A

fragmentation

136
Q

stage 3 of perthes disease

A

re ossification

137
Q

stage 4 of perthes disease

A

remodelling

138
Q

presentation of perthes disease

A

pain and limp, loss of internal rotation,loss of abduction, positive of trendelenburg test

139
Q

what are the investigations of perthes disease

A

hip radiographs, regular x ray observation

140
Q

management of perthes disease

A

containment, keep hip in socket and rest

141
Q

who does SUFE effect

A

overweight pre pubertal adolenscent boys

142
Q

why does SUFE oocur

A

the growth plate is not strong enough to support body weight and slips due to strain

143
Q

who gets SUFE

A

males more than females

144
Q

predisposing factors to SUFE

A

hypothyroidism and renal disease

145
Q

presentation of SUFE

A

pain in hip, pain in knee, loss of unternal roatation of the hip

146
Q

investigation of SUFE

A

hip radiographs

147
Q

management of SUFE

A

urgent surgery to pin femoral head to prevent further slipping - if severe hip replacement and osteomoty

148
Q

what is epophysitis

A

inflammation of growing tibercle where a tendon attaches due to repetitive strain

149
Q

management of paellar tendonitis

A

rest +/- physiotherapy

150
Q

what can anterior knee pain be due to

A

muscle imbalance, ligamentous laxity or subtle skeletal predisposition

151
Q

what is patellar instability caused by

A

trauma witha tear in the medial patellofemoral ligament

152
Q

what can dislocation of the patella cause

A

osteochondral fractures and torn MPFL

153
Q

management of dislocation of patella

A

reduction on extension

154
Q

management of patellar instability

A

stabilizes as growing older, physiotherapy

155
Q

what is osteochondritis dissecans

A

ostiochondritis where a fragment of hyaline cartilage and bone fragments break the surface of a joint

156
Q

where is osteochondritis dissecans most common

A

medial femoral condyle

157
Q

what can osteochondritis dissecans result in

A

loose bodies that predispose to osteoathritis

158
Q

presentation of osteochondritis dissecans

A

poorly localised pain, effusion, locking

159
Q

investigations of osteochondritis dissecans

A

MRI

160
Q

what is tilpes equinovarus also known as

A

club foot

161
Q

what is club foot due to

A

a congenital defomrity due to in utero alignment of the joints between talus, calcaneus and navicular

162
Q

who gets club foot

A

men more than women

163
Q

development of club foot

A

abnormal alignment -> contractures of sort tissues ->deformity

164
Q

risk factores of club foot

A

breech birth and oligohydramnios (low amniotic fluid content)

165
Q

presentation of club foot

A

ankle equinus, supination of the forefoot, varus alignment of the forefoot

166
Q

management of club foot

A

early splintage (ponseti technique and tenotomy of the achilles tendon, bracing until 3 years olf as prevention, late deformity - extensive surgery

167
Q

what is tarsal coalition

A

abnormal bridge betwen the calcaneus and navicular or the talus ond calcaneus

168
Q

what does tarsal coalition lead to

A

pain ful fixed flat foot

169
Q

management of tarsal coalition

A

splintage if resistant pain -> surgery

170
Q

young person with spine probelms

A

red flag

171
Q

differentials of young person with spine problems

A

infection (discitis), tumours (osteoid osteoma)

172
Q

what is kyphosis

A

abnormal rounding of the upper back - cenyre of gravity is amyerior to spine

173
Q

management of kyphosis

A

bracing for kids

174
Q

what is scoliosis

A

lateral curvature of the spine

175
Q

what can scoliosis be caused by

A

congenital, idiopathic, secondary to mueromuscular disease

176
Q

congenital scoliosis

A

defect of formation / segmentation

177
Q

idiopathic scoliosis occurs when

A

growth spurrt before puberty

178
Q

neuromuscular disease leading to scoliosis

A

tumour, skeletal dysplasia or infection

179
Q

investigations of scoliosis

A

painful scoliosis -> urgen MRI

180
Q

managemant of mild and non progressive scoliosis

A

no surgery

181
Q

management of severe scoliosis with breathing difficulties

A

maybe surgery

182
Q

what is spondylotehsis

A

slippage of one vertebra over another

183
Q

where does spondylolisthesis usually occur

A

L4/5, L5/S1

184
Q

what is spondylolisthesis due to

A

a developmental ldefect or posterior stress fractire which fails to heal

185
Q

presentation of spondyloisthesis

A

adolenscence with low back pain, possible radiculopathy if severe slippage, paradoxial flat back due to muscle spasm, waddling gait

186
Q

grading system for spondylolisthesis

A

meyerding

187
Q

management of mild spondylolisthesis

A

rest and physio

188
Q

management of severe spondylolisthesis

A

stabilistaion and possibly reduction

189
Q

what spondylosis

A

defect in the pars interarticularis of vertebrae

190
Q

when are distal radial fractures common

A

during metaphyseal growth spurt with FOOSH

191
Q

radial fractires tend to occur in who

A

12-14 year old men

192
Q

radial fractures tend to occur when in females

A

10-12 years

193
Q

management of stable distal radial fractures

A

cast

194
Q

managment of unstable distal radial fractures

A

fixation and cast

195
Q

proximal ulna fracture and raidal head dislocation

A

manteggia fracture

196
Q

distal 1/3 rd radius fracture and radioulnar joint injury

A

galeazzi fracture

MSK (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions