Operations of Systems Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are the four main control surfaces and what are their functions

A

elevators - pitch

Ailerons - Roll

Rudder - Yaw

Trim tabs - Labor saving devices that enable the pilot to release manual pressure on the primary control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How are the various flight controls operated

A

The flight control surfaces are manually actuated through use of either a rod or cable system. A control wheel actuates the ailerons and elevator, and rudder/break pedals actuate the rudder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are flaps and what is their function

A

The wing flaps are movable panels on the inboard trailing edges of the wing. They are hinged so that they may be extended downward into the flow of air beneath the wins to increase both lift and drag. Their purpose is to permit a slower airspeed and a steeper angle of descent during a landing approach. In some cases, they may also be used to shorten the takeoff distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the landing gear system on the airplane

A

PA-28-181
3 gears using 6x6 wheels. Main gear have brake drums and Cleveland single disk hydraulic brake assemblies. All 3 wheel are four ply rating, type 3 tires with tubes

A spring device is incorporated in the rudder pedal torque tube assembly to provide rudder trim. A bungee in the nose gear steering mechanism reduces steering effort and dampens bumps and shocks during taxi. The nose gear is steerable through 30 degrees. A shimmy dampener is also included in the nose gear

The struts are of the air-oil type with a normal extension of 3.25 inches for the nose gear and 4.5 for the mains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the braking system on the aircraft

A

Hydraulically actuated disc-type brakes are utilized on each main gear wheel. A hydraulic line connects each brake to a master cylinder located on each pilots rudder pedals. By applying pressure to the top of either the pilot’s or copilot’s set or rudder pedals, the brakes may be applied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of hydraulic fluid does your aircraft use and what color is it

A

MIL-H-5606 petroleum base hydraulic brake fluid

red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is steering accomplished on the ground

A

Light airplanes are generally provided with nose wheel steering capabilities through a simple system of mechanical linkage connected to the rudder pedals. When a rudder pedal is depressed, a spring loaded bungee push-pull rod connected to the pivotal portion of a nose wheel strut will turn the nose wheel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of engine does your aircraft have

A

Horizontally opposed 4 cylinder overhead valve air cooled carbureted engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What four strokes must occur in each cylinder of a typical four stroke engine in order for it to produce full power

A

Intake - downward travel of piston causing the intake valve to open

Compression - intake valve closes and piston moves back up

Power - Fuel-air mixture is ignited forces the piston back down

Exhaust - purge the cylinder of burned gases and begins when the exhaust value opens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does a carburetor do

A

Carburetion may be defined as the process of mixing fuel and air in the correct proportions so as to forma. combustible mixture. The carburetor vaporizes liquid fuel into small particles and then mixes it with air. It measures the airflow and meters fuel accordingly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does the carburetor heat system work

A

A carburetor heat valve, controlled by the pilot, allows unfiltered, heated air from a shroud located around an exhaust riser or muffler to be directed to the induction air manifold prior to the carburetor. Carburetor heat should be used anytime suspected or known carburetor icing conditions exist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What change occurs to the fuel/air mixture when applying carburetor heat

A

Normally, the introduction of heated air into the carburetor will result in a richer mixture. Warm air is less dense, resulting in less air for the same amount of fuel. Use of carburetor heat can cause a decrease in engine power of up to 15 perce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the throttle do

A

The throttle allows the pilot to manually control the amount of fuel/air charge entering the cylinders. This in turn regulate the engine speed and power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the mixture control do

A

It regulates the fuel-to-air ratio. All airplane engines incorporate a device called a mixture control, by which the fuel/air ratio can be controlled by the pilot during flight. The purpose of a mixture control is to prevent the mixture from becoming too rich at high altitudes, due to decreasing air density. it is also used to lean the mixture during cross-country flights to conserve fuel and provided optimum power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the fuel injection system installed in some aircraft

A

Engine-driven fuel pump - provides fuel under pressure from the fuel tanks to the fuel/air control unit

Fuel/air control unit - meters fuel based on the mixture control setting and sends it to the fuel manifold valve at a rate controlled by the throttle

Fuel manifold valve - distributes fuel to the individual fuel discharge nozzles

Discharge nozzles - located in each cylinder head, these inject the fuel/air mixture at the precise time for each cylinder directly into each cylinder intake port

Auxiliary fuel pump - provides fuel under pressure to the fuel/air control unit for engine starting and/or emergency use

Fuel pressure/flow indicator - measures metered fuel pressure/flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of ignition system does your airplane have

A

Engine ignition is provided by two engine-driven magnetos, and two spark plugs per cylinder.

Completely independent of the aircrafts electrical system

The battery provides the initial power to the magnetos to actuate them. Once the engine starts the starter system is disengaged and the batter is no longer connected to the engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the two main advantages of a dual ignition system

A

increased safety in case one spark plug fails

More complete and even combustion of the mixture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of fuel system does your aircraft have

A

The fuel flows from the wing tanks with the help of an electrical or engine driven fuel pump. From the wings the fuel flows to the fuel cutoff valve then the strainer then to the carburetor. The fuel is mixed with air and goes to the cylinder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What purpose do fuel tank vents have

A

To prevent a vacuum from forming in the fuel tanks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Does your aircraft use a fuel pump

A

Yes, engine drive and an electrical one for backup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the ammeter indicate

A

The ammeter indicates the flow of current, in amperes, from the alternator to the battery or from the battery to the electrical system. With the engine running and master switch on, the ammeter will indicate the charging rate to the battery. If the alternator has gone off-line and is no longer functioning, or the electrical load exceeds the output of the alternator, the ammeter indicates the discharge rate of the battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What function does the voltage regulator have

A

The voltage regulator is a device which monitors system voltage, detect changes, and makes the required adjustments in the output of the alternator to maintain a constant regulated system voltage. It must do this at low RPM, such as during taxi, as well as at high RPM in flight. In a 28-volt system it will maintain 28V +/-.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why is the generator/alternator voltage output slightly higher than the battery voltage

A

The difference in voltage keeps the battery charged. For example, a 12V battery would be supplied with 14V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does the aircraft cabin heat work

A

Fresh air, headed by an exhaust shroud, is directed to the cabin through a series of ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How does the pilot control temp. in the cabin

A

Temp. is controlled by mixing outside air with heated air in a manifold near the cabin firewall. This air is then ducked to vents located on the cabin floor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the 5 basic functions of aircraft engine oil

A

Lubricate - the engines moving parts
Cool - the engine by reducing friction
Removes - heat from the cylinders
Seals - provides a seal between the cylinder wall and pistons
Cleans - by carrying off metal and carbon particles and other oil contaminates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What type of fuel does your aircraft require

A

100LL Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Con other types of fuel be used if the specified grade is not availabe

A

If allowed by the POH it may be possible, but not desired, to use the next higher grade of fuel if the required grade is not available. It is never okay to use a lower grade or auto gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What color dye is added to 80, 100, 100LL, Turbine

A

80 - red
100 - green
100LL - blue
Jet-A - straw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If a non-turbine piston engine powered airplane is accidentally fueled with JET-A fuel will it start

A

Yes, but detonation and overheating will soon cause power failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the function of the manual primer and how does it operate

A

The manual primer main function is to provide assistance in starting the engine. The primer draws fuel from the fuel strainer and injects it directly into the cylinder intake ports. This usually results in a quicker, more efficient engine start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe the electrical system on your aircraft

A

28V system includes a 24V battery for starting and backup. 70 AMP alternator. The digital amp meter does not indicate battery discharge. With only the master switch on the ammeter will show the total battery charge demand. As items are turned on the ammeter will show the total including the battery. Average reading at night with radios on is 32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How are the circuits for the various electrical accessories within the aircraft protected

A

Most of the electrical circuits are protected from an overload condition by either circuit breakers or fuses or both.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The electrical system provides power for what equipment in an airplane

A
Radio
Turn coordinator
Fuel gauges
pitot heat
interior/exterior lights
electrical flaps
stall warning system
oil temp
electrical fuel pump
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What causes carburetor icing, and what are the first indications of its presence

A

The vaporization of fuel, combined with the expansion of air as it passes through the carburetor, causes a sudden cooling of the mixture. The temp. of the air passing through the carburetor may drop as much as 60 degrees F within a fraction of a second. Water vapor is squeezed out by this cooling, and if the temp. in the carburetor reached 32 degrees F or below, the moisture will be deposited as frost or ice inside the carburetor. For airplanes with a fixed-pitch propeller, the first indication of carburetor icing is loss of RPM. For airplanes with controllable-pitch the first indication is usually a drop in manifold pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What method is used to determine that carburetor ice has been eliminated

A

When heat is first applied there will be a drop in RPM or manifold pressure. If ice is present the RPM or manifold pressure will rise once it has melted. When heat is turned off the RPM or manifold pressure will go back to a setting hire than it was before heat was applied.
Engine roughness is expected during the melting phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What conditions are favorable for carburetor icing

A

When temp. are below 70 degrees F and humidity is above 80%. It can happen even with higher temp. and lower humidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Define the term anti-icing equipment and deicing equipmenet

A

Anti-icing - prevents ice from forming on certain protected surfaces eg heated pitot tube

Deicing - Removes ice that has already formed on protected surfaces. Ice boots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe how an aircraft deicing system works

A

Upon pilot actuation, boots attached to the wing leading edges inflate with air from a pneumatic pump to break off accumulated ice. After a few seconds of inflation, they are deflated back to their normal position with vacuum assistance. Pilot monitors the ice and cycle the boots as directed in the POH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

If an airplane has anti-icing and/or deicing equipment installed, can it be flown into icing conditions

A

Even though it may appear elaborate and completed, the presence of anti-icing and deicing equipment does not necessarily mean that an airplane is approved for flight in icing conditions. The AFM/POH placards, and even the manufacturer should be consulates for specific determination of approvals and limitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is detonation

A

Detonation is an uncontrolled, explosive ignition of the fuel/air mixture within the cylinders combustion chamber. It causes excessive temp. and pressure which, if not corrected, can quickly lead to failure of the piston, cylinder, or valves. In less severe cases, detonation causes engine overheating, roughness, or loss of power. Detonation is characterized by high cylinder head temp. and is most likely to occur when operating at high power settings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are some of the most common operational causes of detonation

A

using a lower fuel grade than that specified by the A/C
operating with extremely high manifold pressure in conjunction with low RPM
Operating the engine at high power settings with an excessively lean mixture
extended ground operations or steep climbs where cylinder cooling is reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What action should be taken if detonation is suspected

A

Ensure that the proper grade of fuel is used
keep cowl flaps in the full-open position while on the ground to provide the maximum airflow through the cowling
use an enriched fuel mixture, as well as a shallow climb angle to increase cylinder cooling during takeoff and initial climb
avoid extended, high power, steep climbs
develop the habit of monitoring the engine instruments to verify proper operation according to procedures established by the manufacturer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is preignition

A

pre-ignition occurs when the fuel/air mixture ignites prior to the engine’s normal ignition event resulting in reduced engine power and high operating temp. Premature burning is usually caused by a residual hot spot in the combustion chamber, often created by a small carbon deposit on a spark plug, a cracked spark plug insulator, or other damage in the cylinder that causes a part to head sufficiently to ignite the fuel/air charge. As with detonation, pre-ignition may also cause sever engine damage, because the expanding gases exert excessive pressure on the piston while still on its compression stroke

45
Q

What cation should be taken if preignition is suspected

A

reduce power
reduce the climb rate for better cooling
enrich the fuel/air mixture
open cowl flaps

46
Q

During the before-takeoff runup, you switch the magnetos from the both position to the right position and notice there is no rpm drop. What condition does this indicate

A

The left p-lead is not grounding, or the engine has been running only on the right magneto because the left magneto has totally failed

47
Q

Ammeter indicates a right deflection (positive)

A

after starting - power from the battery used for starting is being replenish by the alternator; or, if a full-scale charge is indicated for more than 1 minute, the started is still engaged and a shutdown is indicated

during flight - a faulty voltage regulator is causing the alternator to overcharge the battery. Reset the system and if the condition continues, terminate the flight as soon as possible

48
Q

Ammeter indicates a left deflection (negative)

A

After starting - It is normal during start. At other times this indicated the alternator is not functioning or an overload condition exists in the system. The battery is not receiving a charge

During flight - The alternator is not functioning or an overload exists in the system. The battery is not receiving a charge. Possible causes: the master switch was accidentally shut off, or the alternator circuit breaker tripped

49
Q

What action should be taken if the ammeter indicates a continuous discharge while in flight

A

The alternator has quit producing a charge
Check and reset alternator breaker
if not corrected
turn off alternator by pulling the breaker
turn off all electrical equipment not needed for flight
land as soon as possible

50
Q

What action should be taken if the ammeter indicates a continuous charge while in flight (more than 2 needle width)

A

If allowed the battery will overheat. A possible explosion of the battery could result. Electrical components are at risk with higher voltage

Protection is provided by an overvoltage sensor which will shut the alternator down when excessive voltage is detected. When that happens

turn off alternator by pulling the breaker
turn off all electrical equipment not needed for flight
land as soon as possible

51
Q

During a cross-country flight you noticed that the oil pressure is low, but the oil temp. is normal. What is the problem and what action should be taken

A

A low oil pressure in flight could be the result of any one of several problems, the most common being that of insufficient oil. If the oil temp. continues to remain normal, a clogged oil pressure relief valve or an oil pressure gauge malfunction could be the culprit. In any case, a landing at the nearest airport is advisable to check for the cause of trouble

52
Q

What procedures should be followed concerning a partial loss of power in flight

A

Establish best glide speed
Selected ER landing spot and stay within gliding distance
if time troubleshoot and correct

check carburetor heat
check amount of fuel 
switch fuel tanks
check the fuel selector valve's correct position
check mixture control
check primer is in and locked
check mags in all positions
53
Q

What procedures should be followed if an engine fire develops in flight

A
set the mixture control to idle cutoff
fuel selector OFF
master switches OFF
Cabin heat and air vents OFF
Airspeed 100 KTS and increase descent 
Forced landing procedure checklist
54
Q

What procedures should be followed if an engine fire develops on the ground during starting

A

continue to attempt an engine as a start will cause flames and excess fuel to be sucked back through the carburetor

if starts
increase power to higher RPM for a few moment
shutdown the engine

if no start
throttle to full
mixture to idel cutoff
try to start engine to put out fire by vacuum

If fire continues
ignition switches off
master switches off
fuel selector off
evacuate
55
Q

What instruments operate off of the pitot/static sysetm

A

altimeter, vertical speed, and airspeed

56
Q

How does an altimeter work

A

Aneroid wafer expand and contract as atmospheric pressure changes

57
Q

What are the limitations of a pressure altimeter

A

Temp changes

on a warm day - pressure level is higher than on a standard day - indicates lower than actual alt.

on a cold day - the pressure is lower than on a standard day - indicates a higher than actual alt.

Surface pressure changes

higher than standard pressure - indicates lower than actual alt.

lower than standard pressure - indicates higher than actual alt.

58
Q

Absolute altitude

A

the vertical distance of an aircraft above the terrain

59
Q

Indicated altitude

A

The altitude read directly from the altimeter after it is set to the current altimeter setting

60
Q

Pressure altitude

A

The altitude when the altimeter setting window is adjusted to 29.92. Pressure altitude is used for computer solutions to determine density altitude, true altitude, and true airspeed

61
Q

True altitude

A

The true vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level. Airport, terrain, and obstacle elevation found on aeronautical charts are true altitudes

62
Q

Density altitude

A

Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature variations. Directly related to an aircraft’s takeoff, climb, and landing performance

63
Q

How does the airspeed indicator operate

A

Differential pressure gauge
measures the difference between impact pressure form the pitot head and atmospheric pressure from the static port. The difference is the airspeed

64
Q

What is the limitation of the airspeed indicator

A

Subjected to the proper flow of air in the pitot static system

65
Q

What are the errors of the airspeed indicator

A

position error - caused by the static port sensing erroneous static pressure; slip stream flow causes disturbances at the static port preventing actual atmospheric pressure measurement. It varies with airspeed, altitude and configuration, and may be a plus or minus value

Density error - changes in altitude and temp. are not compensated for by the instrument

Compressibility error - Caused by the packing of air into the pitot tube at high speed, resulting in higher than normal indications. It is usually not a factor at slower speeds

66
Q

What are the different types of aircraft speeds

A

Indicated Airspeed - The speed of the airplane as observe on the airspeed indicator. Not corrected for position or compressibility errors

Calibrate Airspeed - Corrected for position and instrument error. CAS is equal to TAS at sea level in standard atmosphere. The color-coding for various design speeds marked on airspeed indicators may be IAS or CAS

Equivalent Airspeed EAS - The airspeed indicator reading corrected for position and instrument error and for adiabatic compressible flow for the particular altitude. EAS is equal to CAS at sea level in standard atmosphere

True airspeed TAS - CAS corrected for altitude and nonstandard temp. the speed of the airplane in relation to the air mass in which it is flying

67
Q

Name several important speed limitations not marked on the face of the airspeed indicator

A

Va - maneuvering speed

Vlo - landing gear operating speed

Vx - Best angle of climb speed

Vy - Best rate of climb

68
Q

What does the white arc indicate

A

flap operating range

69
Q

Lower A/S limit of white are

A

Vso - stall speed landing configuration

70
Q

Upper A/S limit white arc

A

Vfe - max flap extension speed

71
Q

Green arc

A

normal operating range

72
Q

Lower A/S limit green arc

A

Vs1 - stall speed clean or specified configuration

73
Q

Upper A/S Limit green arc

A

Vno - normal operating speed or max structural cruise speed

74
Q

Yellow arc

A

Caution range - smooth air ops only

75
Q

Red Line

A

Vne - never exceed speed

76
Q

How does the vertical speed indicator work

A

Differential pressure instrument

both inside of case and the aneroid are vented to the static system

Case is vented through a calibrate orifice that causes the pressure inside to change more slowly giving an indication of a climb or descent

climb - case pressure compressed the aneroid
descent - aneroid pushes out the air in the case

77
Q

What are the limitations of the vertical speed indicator

A

Not accurate till aircraft is stabilized because of a 6-9 second delay

78
Q

What instruments contain gyroscopes

A

Turn coordinator

heading indicator

attitude indicator

79
Q

What are the two fundamental properties of a gyroscope

A

rigidity in space - a gyroscope remains in a fixed position in the plane in which it is spinning

precession - the tilting or turning of a gyro in response to a deflective force. The reaction to this force does not occur at the point where it was applied; rather, it occurs at a point that is 90 degrees later in the direction of rotation. The rate at which the gyro precesses is inversely proportional to the speed of the rotor and proportional to the deflective force

80
Q

What are the various power sources that may be used to power the gyroscopic instruments in an airplane

A

in some all gyros are vacuum, pressure, or electrically operated. In other vacuum or pressure power the heading and attitude indicators while turn coordinator is powered by electricity. Most airplane have two power system to provide at least 1 source of bank information should one system fail

81
Q

How does the vacuum system operate

A

an engine-driven vacuum pump provides suction which pulls air from the instrument case. Normal pressure entering the case is directed against rotor vanes to turn the rotor at high speed, much like a water wheel or turbine operates. Air is drawn into the instrument through a filter from the cockpit and eventually vented outside. Vacuum values vary between 4.5 and 5.5 inches of Hg and provide rotor speed between 8K to 18K RPM

82
Q

How does the attitude indicator work

A

The gyro in the attitude indicator is mounted on a horizontal plane and depends on rigidity in space for its operation. The horizon bar represents the true horizon. This bar is fixed to the gyro and remains in a horizontal plane as the airplane is pitched or banked about its lateral or longitudinal axis, indicating the attitude of the A/C relative to the horizon

83
Q

What are the limitations of the attitud eindicator

A

The pitch and bank limits depend upon the make and model of the instrument. Limits in the banking plane are usually from 100 to 110 degrees and the pitch limits are usually from 60 to 70 degrees. If either limit is exceeded the instrument will tumble or spill and will give incorrect indications until reset. Modern ones will not tumble

84
Q

What are the errors of the attitude indicator

A

They are generally free of errors however there might be a slight nose up indication during rapid acceleration and a nose down during rapid deceleration. Also possible to have small bank and pitch error after a 180 turn but these typically correct themselves after a minute of level flight

85
Q

How does the heading indicator operate

A

Rigidity in space. The rotor turns in a vertical plane, and the compass card is fixed to the rotor. Since the rotor remains rigid in space, the points on the card hold the same position in space relative to the vertical plane. As the instrument case and the airplane revolve around the vertical axis, the card provides clear and accurate heading information

86
Q

What are the limitations of the heading indicator

A

Vary based on design. Around 55 degrees of bank or pitch. If limit is exceeded the HSI needs to be reset with the caging knob. Modern HSI will not tumble or spill

87
Q

What error is the heading indicator subject to

A

Because of precession, caused mainly by friction, the heading indicator will creep or drift from a heading to which is is set. May indicate as much as 15 degrees of ere per 1 h of operation

88
Q

How does the turn coordinator operate

A

Precession to indicate direction and approximate rate of turn. A gyro reacts by trying to move in reaction to the force applied thus moving the needle or miniature aircraft in proportion to the rate of turn. The slip/skid indicator is a liquid-filled tub with a ball that reacts to centrifugal force and gravity

89
Q

What information does the turn coordinator provide

A

Yaw and roll of the aircraft, direction and rate of turn. When aligned it shows a standard rate turn of 3 degrees per second.

The inclinometer of the turn coordinator shows the coordination fo the aileron and rudder. Shows if in a slip, skid, or coordinated

90
Q

What will the turn indicator indicate when the A/C is in a skidding or a slipping turn

A

slip - The ball in the tube will be on the inside of the turn - not enough rate of turn for the amount of bank

skid - the ball in the tube will be to the outside of the turn; too much rate of turn for the amount of bank

91
Q

How does the magnetic compass work

A

Magnetized needles fastened to a float assembly, around which is mounted a compass card align themselves parallel to the earth’s line of magnetic force. The float assembly is housed in a bowl filled with acid-free white kerosene

92
Q

What limitations does the magnetic compass have

A

The jewel and pivot type mounting allows the float freedom to rotate and tilt up to approximate 18 degrees angle of bank. At steeper bank angles, the compass indications are erratic and unpredictable

93
Q

What are the various compass errors

A

oscillation error - erratic movement of the compass card caused by turbulence or rough control technique

deviation error - due to electrical and magnetic disturbances in the aircraft

variation error - angular difference between true and magnetic north; reference isogonic lines of variation

dip errors

Acceleration error - on E and W headings while accelerating the magnetic compass shows a turn to the north and when decelerating, it shows a turn to the south

A-ccelerate
N-orth
D-ecelerate
S-outh

Northerly turning error - the compass leads in the south half of a turn and lags in the north half of a turn

U-ndershoot
N-orth
O-vershoot
S-outh

94
Q

AHRS

A

Attitude and heading reference systems. 3 axis sensors that provide heading, attitude, and yaw information. Designed to replace gyros

95
Q

ADC

A

Air Data Computer - processes pitot pressure, static pressure, and temp to calculate altitude, indicated airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed, and air temp

96
Q

PFD

A

Primary flight display - easy to scan display replacing the 6 pack

97
Q

MFD

A

multi-function display used in concert with the PFD it shows moving maps, nav information, terrain etc and can be a back up to the PFD

98
Q

FD

A

Flight director - an electronic flight computer that analyzes the navigation selection, signal, and A/C parameters. It shows steering instruction on the flight display as command bars or crossbars for the pilot to position the nose of the A/C

99
Q

FMS

A

Flight Management system - database for the navigation and autopilot and FD. Can calculate fuel consumption, time remaining, possible range and other values

100
Q

INS

A

Inertial navigation system - nav system that tracks the movement of an A/C from onboard accelerometer

101
Q

What is the function of a magnetometer

A

To measure the strength of the earth’s magnetic field to figure out the A/C heading and send it to the AHRS which then sends it to the PFD

102
Q

When powering up an A/C with an FMS/RNAV unit installed, how will you verify the effective dates of the nav database

A

Displayed on the start up screen during the boot up

103
Q

Does an A/C have to remain stationary during AHRS system initialization

A

Depends on the system, some need to be done on the ground while other can be done while taxing or in flight

104
Q

Which standby flight instruments are normally provided in an advanced avionics aircraft

A

Attitude indicator, airspeed indicator, and an altimeter

105
Q

If one display fails (PFD or MFD) what information will be presented on the remaining display

A

The primary flight and engine instruments will be displayed on the operative display

106
Q

When a display failure occurs, what other system components will be affected

A

In some system this may lead to partial loss of nav, comm, and GPS capability

107
Q

What display information will be affected when an ADC failure occur

A

Airspeed, Alt. and VSI will have a red X on the PFD

108
Q

What display information will be lost when an AHRS failure occurs

A

Attitude indicator will have a red X on the PFD

109
Q

How will loss of a magnetometer affect the AHRS operation

A

Heading information will be lost