Cross-country Flight Planning Flashcards
1
Q
What are the tree common ways to navigate
A
Pilotage by reference to visible landmarks
Dead reckoning by computing direction and distance from a known position
Radio navigation by using radio aids
2
Q
What types of aeronautical charts are available for use in VFR navigation
A
sectional charts - visual navigation for slow to medium speed A/C. 1” = 6.86 NM. Revised every 6 months
VFR terminal area charts - Depict the class B airspace. Similar to sectional charts but with more detail. 1” = 3.43 NM revised every 6 months
VFR Flyway Planning Charts - Printed on the reverse side of a TAC chart. Show flight paths and alt. recommended to bypass high traffic areas
3
Q
Are EFB approved for use as a replacement for paper reference material, POH and supplements, charts etc.
A
Yes, EFBs can be used during all phases of flight operations in lieu of paper. Recommended to have a secondary or backup source of information such as paper or another EFB device
4
Q
What is an isogonic line
A
Broken magenta lines connect points of equal magnetic variation. They show the amount and direction of magnetic variation which from time to time may vary
5
Q
What is magnetic variation
A
Variation is the angle between true north and magnetic north. Shown in E or W variation depending upon whether magnetic north is to the east or west of true north
6
Q
How do you convert a true direction to a magnetic direction
A
Note variation shows by the nearest isogonic line
East is leasts - subtract
West is best - add
7
Q
What are lines of latitude and longitued
A
Latitude - east to west parallel to equator measure distance from equator N or S
Longitude go N S and at a right angle to equator
8
Q
What are lines of latitude and longitued
A
Latitude - east to west parallel to equator measure distance from equator N or S
Longitude go N S and at a right angle to equator
9
Q
What is magnetic deviation
A
Due to magnetic influence within the A/C (radios, light etc) the compass is deflected from its normal reading.. This is called deviation. The value is found on the deviation card located in the A/C
10
Q
Name several types of navigational aids
A
VOR - Very hight frequency omnidirectional Range
VORTAC - VHF omnidirectional range / tactical air navigation
DMS - Distance measuring equipment
RNAV - area navigation includes INS, VOR/DME and GPS
11
Q
What is a VOR or VORTAc
A
Radio stations that project radial in all directions from the station. Each radio is donated by an outbound magnetic direction. Almost all VORs are VORTAC which provides the standard bearing information plus distance information to pilot with airplane that have DME
12
Q
Within what frequency range do VORs operate
A
VHF 108 - 117.95 right below aviation comm frequencies
13
Q
What is a VOR radial
A
Line of magnetic bearing extending form a VOR. Always identified by their direction from the station. Regardless of heading an A/C on the 360 radio will always be north of the station
14
Q
How are VOR NAVAIDs classified
A
Terminal, Low, and high
15
Q
What reception distances can be expected from the various class VOR
A
T - 12,000' and below 25 miles L - below 18K' 40 miles H - below 18K' 40 miles H - 14.5 - 17,999' 100 miles with in the lower 48 H - FL180 - FL450 130 miles H - Above FL450 100 miles
16
Q
What limitations if any apply to VOR reception distance
A
VORs are subject to line of sight restrictions, and the range varies proportionally to the altitude of the receiving equipment
17
Q
What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR receiver equipment
A
VOT check +/- 4 degrees Ground check point within 4 degrees Airborne checkpoint within 6 degrees Dual VOR check 4 degrees between each selected radial over a known ground point within 6 degrees
18
Q
What is DME
A
distance measuring equipment. used to measure in NM the slant range distance of an A/C from the DME NAVAID. A/C equipped with DME are provided with distance and GS. Operate on UFH 960 - 1215 MHz
19
Q
Give a brief explanation of GPS
A
satellite based radio navigation system that broadcasts a signal used by receivers to determine a precise position anywhere in the world. Tracks multiple satellites to determine position
20
Q
What are the three functional elements of GPS
A
space element - 30 satellites
control element - ground based GPS monitoring and control stations to ensure accuracy of satellites
user element - antennas and receiver processor on the A/C providing positioning, velocity, and precise timing
21
Q
What are the different types of GPS receivers available
A
Fully integrated IFR/VFR to hand held devices. Pilots must understand the limitations of the receivers prior to using in flight
22
Q
What is the purpose of RAIM
A
Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring is a self-monitoring function performed by a GPS receiver to ensure that adequate GPS signals are being received from the satellites at all times. GPS will alert pilot when signal is not good enough for navigation
23
Q
Where can a pilot obtain RAIM availability information
A
Manufacturer supplied RAIM prediction tool
Service Availability Prediction tool from the FAA
FSS during preflight
24
Q
If RAIM capability is lost in-flight can you continue to use GPS for navigation
A
Without RAIM a pilot cannot assure accuracy of the position. VFR only or hand held GPS do not have RAIM and will not alert the pilot of issues
25
Before conducting a flight using GPS equipment for nav, what basic preflight checks should be made
Verify GPS is correctly installed
Verify the DB is up to date
Get GPS NOTAM/RAIM info related to route in flight
Review operational status of radio navaids in flight an A/C equipment checks
GPS operational manual or AFM are onboard the A/C
26
How can a pilot determine what type of operation a GPS receiver is approved for
Check the POH/AFM to find the limitations and operating procedures for the GPS installed
27
During a preflight briefing, will the FSS briefer automatically provide a pilot with GPS NOTAMS
No, you must ask for GPS/WAAS NOTAMs
28
How many satellites does a GPS receiver require to compute its position
3 - 2D lat and long position
4 - 3D lat, long and alt
5 - 3D and RAIM
6 - 3D and RAIM isolates corrupt signal and removes from nav
29
What is WAAS
Wide area augmentation system is a ground and satellite integrated NAV error correction system that provides accuracy enhancement to signals received from GPS.
30
What limitations should you be aware of when using a panel mount VFR GPS or a hand-held VFR GPS system for navigation
RAIM - many VFR systems do not have RAIM
Database currency - VFR updates to database is not required only for IFR. Database may be outdate
Antenna location - not optimized for a clear view of satellites could show error in position
31
Define the term VFR waypoint
Supplementary tool to assist with position awareness while navigating visually in A/C with area navigation receivers such as GPS. They provide navigational aids for pilots not familiar with the area, waypoint definition of existing reporting points, enhanced navigation in an around Class B and C airspace, and around special use airspace. VFR waypoint names consist of a 5-letter identifier beginning with VP and are retrievable from nav databases; they should be used only when operating under VFR conditions
32
Speed formula given time and distance
Speed = Distance / Time
First convert minutes to decimal by dividing by 60
33
Time formula given speed and distance
Time = Distance / Speed
Convert time from decimal by multiplying by 60
34
Distance formula given speed and time
Distance = Speed X Time
First convert time to a decimal by dividing by 60
35
How many gallons of fuel given burn rate and time
Convert minutes to a decimal by dividing by 60
Then burn rate X time in decimal = gallons consumed
E6B = Required > Fuel
36
What is the rate of burn given time and fuel consumed
Convert minutes to a decimal by dividing by 60
Gallons Consumed / Time in decimal = Gallons per hour
E6B = Flight > FPH
37
How much time do you have given burn rate and consumed fuel
Consumed Gallons / Burn rate
Then take decimal and multiply by 60
E6B = Flight > Endur
38
Find TAS given altitude, temp, and IAS
E6B = Speed > Plan TAS
39
Nautical Miles to Statues Miles
NM X 1.151 = SM
40
Quarts of oil to pounds
(Quarts / 4) X 7.5 = pounds of oil
41
Gallons of fuel to pounds
Fuel X 6 = pounds of fuel
42
F to C
(F-32) 0.555 = C
43
Knots to MPH
Knot X 1.151 = MPH
44
Find Ground speed and true heading
E6B = HDG/GS > HDG/GS
45
After takeoff, you attempt to activate your VFR flight plan but are unable to contact the FSS. What will happen to your flight plan
It will be cancelled after 1 h of proposed departure time
46
What actions should be taken if you become disoriented or lost on a cross-country flight
Fly a heading you feel is correct or circle. Don't wonder aimlessly
if you kept a nav log and steady compass heading you shouldn't have an issue finding your position
Find VOR's and find your position or fly to the station
Knowledge of last known position, elapsed time, wind direction, and ground speed to establish how far you have traveled since your last checkpoint
Use the distance as a radius and draw a semicircle ahead of your last known position on a chart
Look for something big, highways, rivers, mountains, water towers with town names, railroads etc
47
Lost: low on fuel, bad weather, no experience, night, equipment malfunctioning
Get it on the ground. People on the ground know where they are at and you do not
48
If you cannot find your position what action is next
Climb - Higher alt. = better comm and visibility
Communicate - 121.5
Confess - Let ATC/FSS know you are lost
Comply - Follow their instructions
49
How to get to an alternate with no GPS or DME
Approximate the magnetic course using a straight edge and a compass rose from a nearby VOR
Use ruler and scale to approximate distance
If there is time start to deviate over a prominent ground feature
Once on new course note time and winds aloft to calculate heading, GS, then ETA and fuel consumption
Prioritize flying the A/C then nav and planning
To determine alt consider cloud heights, winds, terrain, and radio reception
50
What is the most common type of communication radio equipment installed in general aviation aircraft, how many channels are available
VHF
Frequencies between 118-136.975 MHz
Classified as 720 or 760 depending on the number of channels
720 = 135.975 and 760 up to 136.975
51
What is the universal VHF ER frequency
121.5
52
What frequencies are used for ground
121.6 - 121.9
53
What is a CTAF
Common Traffic Advisory Frequency
Used for comm at non-towered airports can be a unicom or multicomm or tower frequency check chart suppliment
54
What is UNICOM and what frequencies is it on
Non-gov communication facility which may provide airport information at certain airports
Normally used 122.7 122.725 122.8 122.975 123 123.05 123.075
55
What does ATIS mean
automatic terminal information service recorded non control information to relieve frequency congestion
56
If operating into an airport without an operating control tower, FSS, or UNICOM what procedure should be followed
Use MULTICOM 122.9 for self-announce procedures.
57
What frequencies are monitored by most FSS other than 121.5
In Alaska 123.6 or other that can be found in the chart supplement. You can also use 122.2
58
What is an RCO
Remote Communication Outlet is an unmanned comm facility remotely controlled by ATC established to provide ground-to-ground comm for pilots at satellite airport
59
How can a pilot determine what frequency is appropriate for activating his/her VFR flight plan once airborn
Two way
Ask FSS during the weather briefing
Consul the comm section for the airport of departure in the chart supplement
60
What is the meaning of a heavy-lined blue box surrounding a NAVAID frequency
Indicates FSS frequencies 121.5 122.2 243 255.4 are available
61
Why would a frequency be printed on top of a heavy-lined box
Usually means that frequency is available in addition to the standard ones
62
What is the meaning of a thin-lined blue box surrounding a NAVAID frequency
Means no standard frequencies are available and will have a NO VOICE symbol underlined under the ffrequency
63
Why would a frequency be printed on top of a thin-lined blue box
Best frequencies to use near the NAVAID.
| They will normally have an R which means the pilot Tx on that frequency and Rx on the NAVAID frequency
64
How can a pilot determine the availability of HIWAS when looking at a VFR sectional chart
The NAVAID will have a an H in the upper-right corner of the box
65
What meaning does the letter T in a solid blue circle appearing in the to right corner of a NAVAID frequency box have
Alaska only - Transcribed weather Broadcast is available. TWEB.
66
If an inflight emergency requires immediate action by the pilot, what authority and responsibilities does the pilot have
PIC is responsible for an final authority as to the operation of the A/C
PIC may deviate from any rule in part 91 to the extent required to meet the ER
The PIC shall write a written report to the FAA explaining the deviation if requested
67
What restrictions apply to pilots concerning the use of drugs and alcohol
No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember:
Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage
While under the influence of alcohol
while using any drugs that affect the person's faculties in any way contrary to safety
while having a BAC of .04% or more in blood or breath specimen
68
Is it permissible for a pilot to allow a person who is under the influence of alcohol or drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft
No, except in an ER, no pilot may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs, except a medical patient under proper care, to be carried in the aircraft
69
May portable electronic devices be operated onboard an aircraft
A/C operated by a holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an aircraft operating under IFR may not allow operation of electronic devices onboard their aircraft. Exceptions are portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers, or any other device that the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used
70
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft
No PIC may allow any object to be dropped from an aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property
71
Concerning a flight in the local area, is any preflight action required, and if so, what must it consist of
Yes, pilots must familiarize themselves with all available information concerning that flight, including runway lengths at airports of intended use, and takeoff and landing distance data under existing conditions
72
Preflight actions as required by regulation for all flights away from the vicinity of the departure airport shall included a review of what specific information
For a flight under IFR or not in the vicinity of an airport
```
N - NOTAMS
W - weather reports and forecasts
K - Known ATC traffic delays
R - Runway lengths at airports of intended use
A - Alternatives available
F - Fuel requirements
T - Takeoff and landing distance data
```
73
Which persons on board an aircraft are required to use seatbelts and when
any person 2yo or older must occupy an approve seat or berth with safety belt, and if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing.
Under 2yo may be held by an adult
People engaging in sport parachuting may use the floor as a seat
74
What responsibility does the PIC have concerning passengers and their use of seatbelts
No pilot may takeoff unless the PIC ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person's safety belt and shoulder harness.
PIC shall ensure that all persons onboard have been notified to fasten their seatbelt and shoulder harness before movement of the A/C on the surface, T/O, and LND
75
When are flight crew members required to keep their seatbelts and shoulder harnesses fastened
During T/O and LND, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall keep their seatbelts fastened while at their station. During T/O and LDN this includes the shoulder harness unless it interferes with other required duties
76
If operating an aircraft in close proximity to another such as formation flight, what regulations apply
No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight unless first arranged with the PIC of each aircraft in the formation
No person may operate an aircraft carrying passengers for hire in formation flight
77
What is the order of right-of-way as applied to the different categories of aircraft
```
Balloons
Gliders
Airships
Airplanes
Rotorcraft
```
A/C towing or refueling other A/C have the right-of-way over all other engine-driven A/C
78
When would an aircraft have the right-of-way over all other air traffic
When the A/C has declared an ER
79
Right of way for converging aircraft
Aircraft on right has the right of way
80
Right of way for Approaching head-on
both A/C shall alter course to right
81
Right of way overtaking an aircraft
A/C being overtaken has the right-of-way; pilot of the overtaking A/C shall alter course to the right
82
What right-of-way rules apply when two or more A/C are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing
A/C on approach to land or while landing have the right of way over any A/C in flight or on the surface except that they cannot take advantage of this rule to force an A/C off the runway surface which has already landed
When 2 or more A/C are approaching an airpot the A/C at the lower altitude has the right of way but it shall not take advantage of the rule to cut in front of another A/C on final or to overtake another A/C
83
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10K MSL
250 Knots
84
What is the minimum safe altitude that an aircraft may be operated over a congested area of a city
No person may operate an A/C over a congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open-air assembly of persons, below and altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft
85
In areas other than congested areas, what minimum safe altitudes shall be used
No lower than 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the A/C may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure
86
Define minimum safe altitude
AN altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface
87
What is the lowest altitude an aircraft may be operated over an area designated as a US wildlife refuge, park or forest service area
All A/C are requested to maintain 2,000 feet AGL
88
When flying below FL180 cruising altitude must be maintained by reference to an altimeter set using what procedure
When pressure is 31.00" Hg or less each person operating an A/C must maintain the cruising altitude of that aircraft by reference to an altimeter that is set to the current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route an within 100 NM.
If there is no station within this area, the current reported altimeter setting of an available station may be used. If the pressure exceed 31.00" Hg check the AIM for correct procedures
89
If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, what procedure should be used
Used the same procedure as in the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio: the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure should be used
90
When may a pilot intentionally deviate from an ATC clearance or instruction
An amended clearance has been obtained
In an ER
in response to TCAS advisory
91
As PIC what action if any is required of you if you deviate from an ATC instruction and priority is given
Each PIC who deviate must notify the ATC as soon as possible
If given priority in an ER the PIC must submit a detailed report of the ER within 48h to the ATC facility manager, if requested by ATC
92
If the aircraft radio fails under VFR while operating into a tower airport, what conditions must be met before a landing may be made at that airport
Wx must be at or above basic VFR minimums
Visual contact with the tower is maintained
Landing clearance is received
93
Procedure when arriving with Receiver InOp
Remain outside or above Class D surface area
Determine direction and flow of traffic
Advise tower of A/C type, position, alt. and intention to land
Ask for light signals
At 3 to 5 miles advise tower of position and join TP
Watch tower for light gun signals
94
Procedure when arriving with Transmitter InOp
Remain outside or above Class D surface area
Determine direction and flow of traffic
Monitor frequency for landing or traffic information
Join the traffic pattern and watch for flight gun signals
Daytime ACK by rocking wings, Night ACK by flashing landing or nav lights
95
Procedure when arriving NORAD
Remain outside or above Class D surface area
Determine direction and flow of traffic
Join the TP and what for light signals
Daytime ACK by rocking wings, Night ACK by flashing landing or nav lights
96
What general rules apply concerning traffic pattern operations at non-tower airport within class E or G airspace
Each person operating an A/C To/From an non-towered airport shall:
Landing
Make all turns to the left unless airport displays approved light signals or markings showing traffic is to the right
Takeoff
Comply with any TP established for that airport in Part 93
97
When operating in Class D airspace, what procedure should be used when approaching to land on a runway with a VASI
Maintain an alt. at or above the glide slope until a lower alt. is needed for a safe landing
98
What is the fuel requirement for VFR flight at night
Enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and 45min after that
99
What is the fuel requirement for VFR flight during the day
Enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and 30min after that
100
When flying VFR at 3,000' AGL what rules apply concerning specific altitudes flown
0-179 - Odd thousands plus 500
| 180 - 359 - Even thousands plus 500
101
What is an ELT
Emergency Location Transmitter
Radio beacon with its own power source operating on 121.5, 243.0 and 406 MHz
Activated on impact
Serves to help locate downed A/C
Can be tested only during the first 5min after any hour
Digital 406 MHz should be tested only as specified by manufacturer
102
Is an ELT required on all A/C
All A/C need an ELT except for
Training aircraft that fly only within 50NM of the airport
A/C engaged in design and testing
New A/C engaged in preparation and delivery
A/C engaged in agricultural operations
103
When must the batteries in an ELT be replaced or recharged, if rechargable
When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour or
50% of the batteries useful life has expired
104
What are the regulations concerning use of supplemental oxygen on board an aircraft
12,500 - 14,000 MSL for the part of the flight at those alt. that is more than 30 min - min. required flight crew must have O2
14,000 MSL - the required flight crew has 02 for the whole duration of the flight
15,000 MSL - all occupants of the A/C have O2
105
According to regulations, where is aerobatic flight of an aircraft not permitted
Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement
Over an open air assembly of persons
Within Class B, C, D, or E airspace
Within 4NM of the centerline of a federal airway
Below 1,500' above the surface
When vis. is less than 3SM
106
Define aerobatic flight
Intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an A/C attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight
107
When are parachutes required on board an A/C
When intentionally banking the A/C beyond 60 degrees or pitching up/down 30 degrees
Does not apply for flight test for pilot certs
Spins and other flight maneuvers required by the regulations
108
What is Class A airspace
Airspace from FL180 to FL600 including airspace within 12 NM of the coast
109
Can a flight under VFR be conducted within Class A airspace
No, unless otherwise authorized by ATc
110
What is the minimum pilot certification for operations conducted within Class A airspace
PPL and IFR rating
111
What minimum equipment is required for flight operations within Class A airspace
2 way radio
Mode C alt. encoding transponder
Equipped with instruments for IFR operations
112
How is class a airspace depicted on navigational charts
It is not
113
What is the definition of Class B airspace
Surface to 10,000' MSL around the nations busiests airports in terms of IFR operations or passenger enplanements.
Custom to each airport and designed of 2 or more layers that contain all published instrument procedures
114
What minimum pilot certification is required to operate an aircraft within Class B airspace
PIC is at least a PPL
PIC is a recreational pilot and meets 61.101 or student pilot seeking a rec. pilot and meets 61.94
PIC is a sports pilot and meets 61.325 or student pilots seeking sports and meets 61.94
Student pilot that meets 61.94 or 61.95
The airport allows pilots other than PPL to fly to/from the primary class B airport
115
What is the minimum equipment required for operations of an aircraft within Class B airspace
2 way radio
Mode C alt. encoding transponder
If IFR, an operable VOR or TACAN or operable RNAV
116
Before operating an aircraft into Class B airspace what basic requirements must be met
Arriving A/C must obtain an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area prior to operating an aircraft in that area
117
What are the VFM weather minimums for Class B
3 SM visibility and clear of clouds
118
How is Class B airspace depicted on navigational charts
Class B airspace is charted on sectional, IFR en route, Low altitude, and TAC. A solid shaded blue line depicts the lateral limits of Class B airspace. Numbers indicate the base and top ie 100/25, 100/SFC
119
What basic ATC services are provided to all aircraft operating within Class B airspace
VFR pilots will be provided sequencing and separation from other aircraft while operating within Class B airspace
120
It becomes apparent that wake turbulence may be encountered while ATC is providing sequencing and separation services in Class B airspace. Whose responsibility is it to avoid this turbulence
The PIC is responsible. ATC services do not relieve pilots of the responsibilities to see and avoid, adjust flight path to avoid wake turbulence, maintain terrain and obstruction clearance, remain in Wx condition equal to or better than required
121
What is the max. speed allowed in Class B airspace, under 10,000' MSL, and within Class D surface area
Unless otherwise authorized by ATC no person may operate an A/C at or below 2,500' AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C, D airspace at an indicated speed of 200 knots.
However, while within Class B airspace the speed limit is 250 Kts
122
When operating beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace, or in a VFR corridor designated through CLass B airspace, what maximum speed is authorized
200 Kts
123
What is Class C airspace
Surface to 4,000' MSL for airports with a control tower and radar and have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements
124
What are the basic dimensions of class C airspace
Tailored to each airport
Typically 5NM radius from surface to 4,000' MSL and a 10 NM shelf from 1,200' to 4,000' MSL
Outer area is 20NM
125
What minimum pilot certification is required to operate an aircraft within Class C airspace
Student pilot
126
What minimum equipment is required to operate an aircraft within Class C airspace
2 way radio
| automatic pressure alt. reporting equipment with Mode C capability
127
When operating an aircraft through Class C airspace or to an airport within Class C airspace, what basic requirements must be met
Establish 2 way radio comm with the ATC facility and maintain comm while within the airspace
128
What does it mean to establish two way radio comm within Class C airspace
ATC must use the aircraft call sign in order for comm to be established
129
When departing an airport without a control tower located within Class C airspace what requirements must be met
Establish comm with Class C ATC as soon as practicable after departing
130
What are the Class C VFR Wx minimums
3 SM vis
| 1,5,2 clouds
131
How is class C airspace depicted on nav charts
A solid magenta line is used to depict Class C airspace.
132
What type of ATC services are provided when operating within Class C airspace
sequencing to the primary airport
| Class C services within the Class C airspace and outer area
133
Describe the various types of terminal radar services available for VFR A/C
Basic radar service - Safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring on a workload permitting bases and sequencing when procedures have been established for that reason and/or when covered by a letter of agreement
TRSA Service - radar sequencing and separation service for VFR A/C in a TRSA
Class C Service - Basic radar service plus separation between IFR and VFR A/C and VFR arrival sequencing to the primary airport
Class B Services - Basic radar service plus approved separation fo A/C based on IFR, VFR, and/or weight and sequencing of VFR A/C to the primary airport
134
Where is Mode C altitude encoding transponder equipment required
At or above 10,000 MSL within the 48 excluding airpace below 2,500 AGL
Within 30 NM of Class B primary airport below 10,000 MSL
Within and above Class C airspace up to 10,000 MSL
Within 10 miles of designated airports, excluding that airspace which is both outside the Class D surface area and below 1,200 AGL
All A/C flying into, within, or across US ADIZ
135
What is the maximum speed an aircraft may be operated within Class C airspace
Unless otherwise authorized by ATC 200 Knots
136
What is Class D airspace
Surface to 2,500 MSL around airports with a control tower. Configuration is tailored to each airport and contain procedures if they are available
137
When operating an aircraft through Class D airspace or to an airport within class D airspace, what requirements must be met
Establish two-way radio comm with ATC before entering and maintain comm while within the airspace
138
When departing a satellite airport without a control tower located within Class D airspace, what requirement must be met
Must establish and maintain comm with ATC as soon as practical after departure
139
Is an ATC clearance required if flight operations are conducted through a Class E surface area arrival extension
Surface area arrival extensions become part of the surface area and are in effect during the same time as the surface area.
140
What min. Wx conditions are required for VFR flight in Class D airspace
3SM Vis
1,000' above
500' below
2,000 side to side
141
How is Class D airspace depicted on navigational charts
Blue segmented lines
142
What type of ATC services are provided when operating within Class D airspace
No separation services are provided for VFR flight
Traffic advisories, safety alerts, and traffic info for sequencing will be provided on a workload permitting bases
143
What is the max speed an aircraft may be operated within Class D airspace
Unless authorized by ATC no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 above the surface within 4 NM of the primary airport at an speed of more than 200 KT
144
When a control tower, located at an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the lower limit of the controlled airspace
Class E surface area rules, or a combination of Class E rules down to 700' AGL and Class G rules to the surface will apply. Check Chart Supplement for specifics
145
Will all airport with an operating control tower always have Class D airspace surrounding them
No, some airports do not have the required weather reporting capability necessary for surface based controlled airspace. The controlled airspace over these airports will normally begin at 700' or 1,200' AGL and can be determined from visual aeronautical charts
146
What is the definition of Class E controlled airspace
Controlled airspace is airspace of defined dimensions within which ATC service is provided to IFR flight and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification.
Controlled airspace is a generic term that covers A, B, C, D, and E airspace
147
State Several examples of Class E airsapce
Surface area designated for an airport where a CT is not in operation - Class E surface areas extend upward from the surface to a designated alt. or to the adjacent or overlying controlled airspace and are configured to contain all instrument procedures
Extension to a surface area - Class E airspace may be designated as extension to Class B, C, D, and E surface areas. Class E starts at the surface and up to the overlaying airspace. Provides controlled airspace for instrument procedures without imposing a communication requirement for VFR flight
Airspace used for transition - Class E airspace areas may be designated for transitioning aircraft to/from the terminal or enroute env. They extend upward from 700' or 1,200' AGL and are designated for airports with an approved instrument procedure. The transition area remains in effect all the time regardless of airport operating hours or surface area status
Enroute domestic areas - Class E airspace areas that extend upward form a specified altitude and provide controlled airspace in those areas where there is a requirement to provide IFR enroute ATC services but the federal airway system is inadequate
Federal airway and low-altitude RNAV routes - Federal airway and low-alt RNAV routes are Class E airspace areas and unless otherwise specified, extend upward from 1,200' AGT to FL180
Offshore airspace areas - Class E airspace areas that extend upward from a specified altitude to but not including FL180. These areas provide controlled airspace beyond 12 miles from the coast of the US in those areas where there is a requirement to provide IFR enroute ATC services and within which the US is applying domestic procedures
Unless designated at a lower altitude - Class E airspace in the US consist of the airspace extending upward from 14,500' to but not including FL180 over the 48 states, DC, and Alaska and the waters 12NM around the coast
Airspace above FL600
148
What are the operating rules and pilot equipment requirements to operate within Class E airspace
Min. Cert. Student Pilot
No special equipment required
No requirements for arrival or flight through Class E
149
When a Class C or D surface area is not in effect continuously, what will happen to the surface areas when the CT closes
Surface area will change to either Class E surface areas or class G airspace. The Chart supplement will specify
When the surface area becomes Class G the arrival extension will also become class G at the same time, otherwise will stay as class E
150
Explain the purpose of Class E transition areas
Class E transition areas extend upward from 700' (magenta vignette) or 1,200' (blue vignette) AGL and are designated for airport with an approved instrument procedure. Class E transition areas exist to help separate via cloud clearances arriving and departing IFR and VFR aircraft operating in the vicinity
151
Are you required to establish communications with a tower located within a Class E airspace
Yes; unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft from/to, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless 2-way radio comm has been established and maintained. Com. must be established prior to 4NM from the airport up to and including 2,500 AGL
152
How is class E airspace depicted on navigational charts
The lateral and vertical limits of all Class E controlled airspace up to but not including FL180 are shown by narrow bands of vignette on Sectional and TAC charts. Controlled airspace floors of 700' AGL are shown by magenta vignette; floors other than 700 feet that abut uncontrolled airspace are defined by a blue vignette; differing floors greater than 700' AGL are annotated by a symbol and a number indicating the floor. IF the ceiling is less than FL180 the value prefixed by the word ceiling is shown along the limits of the controlled airspace
153
How are class E surface extension areas depicted on navigational charts
Magenta segmented line
154
What is the definition of Class G airspace
Class G airspace is uncontrolled airspace that is any airspace that is not A, B,C, D, or E. ATC has no authority but VFR min. apply
155
Are you required to establish comm with a tower located within Class G airspace
yes; unless otherwise authorized you must establish comm. with the tower prior to 4NM up to and including 2,500' AGL
156
What are the vertical limits of Class G airspace
Surface upto Class E airspace not to exceed 14,500' MSL
157
What is the minimum cloud clearance and visibility required when doing TP work at night below 1,200 AGTL
3 SM
1000' above
500' below
2,000' side to side
158
What is the main difference between class G and Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace
The main difference which distinguishes Class G airspace from A, B,C, D, and E is the flight visibility/cloud clearance requirements necessary to operate within it
159
What are the flight visibility and cloud clearance for Class C, D or E airspace
Below 10K MSL
3 SM
1,000 Above, 500 Below, 2,000 side to side
Above 10K MSL
5SM
1,000 Above, 1,000 Below, 1SM side to side
160
What are the flight visibility and cloud clearance for Class G airspace
At or below 1,200 AGL
Day: 1 SM and clear of clouds
Night: 3 ST 1K above, 5K Above, 2K side to side
Above 1,200 AGL below 10K MSL
Day: 1 SM 1,5,2 clouds
Night: 3 SM 1,5,2 Clouds
Above 1,200 AGL and at or above 10K SML
5SM
1,1,1
161
What are the basic VFR weather minimums required for operation of an aircraft into Class B, C, D or E airspace
1,000 ft ceiling and 3SM vis except
1. Operate an aircraft beneath the ceiling under VFR within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000 FT
2. Take off or land an aircraft or enter the TP of an airport under VFR within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, C, D, or E airspace designated for an airport unless ground visibility at the airport is at least 3 SM or if ground visibility is not reported, unless flight visibility during landing or takeoff or while in the TP is at least 3 SM
162
If VFR flight minimums cannot be maintained, can a VFR flight be made into Class B, C, D or E airspace
No with one exception. A Special VFR clearance may be obtained from ATC prior to operating within a Class B, C, D or E surface area provided the flight can remain clear of clouds with at least 1 SM ground visibility if taking orr or landing or 1 SM flight visibility for operating within Class B, C, D, and E surface area
163
Are special VFR clearances always available to pilots in all classes of airspace
A VFR pilot may be given a clearance to enter, leave or operate within Class D and E surface areas and some Class C and B surface areas traffic permitting and providing such flight does not delay IFR Ops
Some B and C prohibit Special VFR and can be found in Part 91
164
It becomes apparent that a special VFR clearance will be necessary, what facility should the pilot contact in order to obtain one
In Class B, C, or D surface area clearance should be obtained from the tower
In Class E clearance may be obtained from the nearest tower, FSS, or center
165
Can a SVFR clearance be obtained into or out of Class B, C, D, or E airspace at night
Only if the pilot is instrument rated and the A/C is equipped for IFR flight. Otherwise SVFR at night is prohibited
166
What is a prohibited area
Prohibited areas contain certain airspace of defined dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited. Such areas are established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare
167
What is a restricted area
Area where flight is not prohibited but subjected to restrictions. These areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of restricted areas without authorization from the controlling facility may be extremely hazardous to the A/C and its occupants
168
Under what conditions if any may a pilot enter restricted or prohibited areas
No person may operate an A/C in a restricted area contrary to the restrictions imposed, or within a prohibited area, unless that person has the permission of the using or controlling agency.
Normally no operations are permitted in a prohibited area and permission must always be obtained before operating in a restricted area
169
What is a warning area
Airspace of defined dimensions extending form 3NM outward from the coast of the US containing activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose of such an area is to warn nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger. A warning area may be located over domestic or international waters or both
170
What is a MOA
Military Operating Area - Airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating certain military activities from IFR traffic.
VFR pilots should exercise extreme caution while flying within an MOA when military activity is being conducted.
MOA status can change frequently, pilots should contact any FSS within 100NM of an MOA to obtain real-time information. Prior to entering an MOA pilots should contact ATC for traffic advisories
171
What is an Alert Area
Areas depicted on charts to inform pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of flight training or unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should be very alert to other traffic within the alert area
172
What are Controlled Firing Areas
CFA contain activity that is very hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft if conducted in a non controlled env.
The area is not charted and activity is suspended immediately when spotter A/C radar or ground lookout positions indicate an A/C might be approaching the CFA
173
What is a National Security Area
NSA consist of airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid flying through the depicted NSA. When necessary NSA flight may be prohibited under 14 CFR 99.7
174
What is a Special Flight Rules Area
AN SFRA is an area of airspace within which Special regulations apply. Eg. D.C SFRA and Grand Canyon SFRA.
Ops requirements and procedures to operate within the SFRA can be found in 14 CFR 93. Always check NOTAM for changes
175
Where can information on Special use airspace be found
Special use airspace except CFA are charted on IFR or VFR charts including the hours of ops, altitudes, and controlling agency
176
Where can a pilot find info on VFR flyways, VFR Corridors, and Class B airspace transition routes used to transition busy terminal airspace
Reverse side of a VFR terminal chart area aka class B airspace chart
177
What are military training routes
Routes for use by the military to conduct low-alt high speed training.
Routes above 1,500 AGL developed to be flow to max ext. possible under IFR. At 1,500 AGL or below are developed for VFR flight
Below 1,500 AGL used 4 digit ID e.g. IR1004, VR1008)
Routes above 1,500 AGL use 3 digit ID (IR003, VR 004). IR is for IFR VR is for VFR
178
What is a TRSA
A terminal radar service area consist of airspace surrounding designated airport wherein ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation on a full time basis for all IFR and participating VFR A/C. Pilot participation is urged but not mandatroy
179
What class of airspace is a TRSA
TRSA do not fit into any of the US airspace. The primary airport within a TRSA become class D airspace. The remaining airspace is normally class E starting at 700' or 1,200' and established to transition to/from the enroute/terminal env.
Participating pilots can receive additional radar services which have been redefined as TRSA services
180
How are TRSA depicted on NAV charts
Solid black line and alt. for each segment. Class D portion is still with a blue segmented line
181
What are ADIZ and where are they located
Air Defense Id Zone is an area of airspace over land or water, extending upward from the surface within which the ready id, location, and the control of A/C are requried in the interest of national security
ADIZ locations:
Domestic - located within US along international boundary
Coast - Located over coast waters of the US
Distant Early Warning ID Zone (DEWIZ) located over coast waters of Alaska
Land-based ADIZ - located over US metropolitan areas
182
What requirements must be satisfied prior to operations into, within or across a ADIZ
Flight plan - An IFR, or DVFR flight plan must be filed with the appropriate aeronautical facility
2-way radio - An operating 2-way radio is required
Transponed - A/C must be equipped with an operable radar beacon transponder having altitude reporting Mode C capabilities. Must be turned on and set to the ATC code
Position reports - For IFR flight normal position reports for DVFR flights, an estimated time of ADIZ penetration must be filed at least 15min prior to entry
A/C position tolerances - Over land a tolerance of +/- 5 minutes from the estimated time over a reporting point and within 10NM from the centerline of an intended track over an estimated reporting point. Over water +/- 5min and 20NM from the centerline of the reporting point
Land-based ADIZ are activated and deactivated as needed with info shared via NOTAMs. In addition to other ADIZ req. pilots must report landing or leaving the land-base ADIZ if flying too low for radar coverage
183
Discuss Class A airspace
FL180 to FL600
Only IFR
ATC Clearance
Must be Instrument rated
2-way radio
All A/C have seperation
Has Safety advisories
184
Discuss Class B airspace
```
Surface to 10K' MSL
IFR and VFR traffic
ATC clearance
Private or Student pilot
2 way radio
VFR Vis 3SM
VFR Cloud: Clear
A/C Separation for all
Conflict resolution
Traffic advisories
Safety advisories
```
185
Discuss Class C airsapce
```
Surface to 4,000' AGL charted in MSL
IFR and VFR
ATC clearance for IFR radio contact for all
Student pilot
2 way radio
VFR Vis: 3 SM
VFR Clouds: 1,5,2
Separation for IFR and SVFR and runway ops
Traffic advisory
Safety advisory
```
186
Discuss Class D airspace
```
Surface to 2,500 AGL charted in MSL
IFR and VFR traffic
ATC clearance for IFR; radio contact for all
Student pilot
2 way radio
VFR Vis: 3SM
VFR Clouds: 1,5,2
IFR and SVFR separation and runway ops
Traffic on workload permitting basis
Safety advisories
```
187
Discuss Class E airspace
From surface or a designated altitude to the overlaying adjacent controlled airspace not to exceed 17,999' MSL
```
IFR and VFR
ATC clearance for IFR
Student pilot
2 way radio for IFR only
VFR Vis: 3SM below 10K MSL 5SM above
VFR CLoud: 1,5,2 below 10K MSL, 1,1,1 above
IFR and SVFR separation
No conflict resolution
Traffic advisories on a workload permitting bases
Safety advisories
```
188
Discuss Class G airspace
Surface upto Class E airspace not to exceed 14,500 MSL
IFR and VFR
No entry requirement
Student pilot
No radio needed
VFR vis 1SM day 3SM at night below 10,000 MSL then 5SM
VFR Cloud: below 1,200 day clear of; night 1,5,2 above 1,200 AGL day/night 1,5,2
No separation or conflict resolution
Traffic on a workload permitting bases
Safety advisories
189
When is immediate notification to the NTSB required
When an accident or serious incident occurs
a. flight control system malfunction
b. Crewmember unable to perform normal duties
c. Inflight fire
d. Aircraft collision inflight
e. Property damage, other than A/C, exceeding $25,000
f. Overdue A/C believed to be in accident
g. Release of all or portion of a propeller blade from an A/C
h. Complete loss of info excluding flickering from more than 50% of an A/C EFIC cockpit display
190
Define A/C incident
An A/C incident means an occurrence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations
191
Define A/C accident
An accident means an occurrence associated with the operation of an A/C which takes place between the time any person boards the A/C with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the A/C receives substantial damage
192
Define serious injury
Any injury that
a. requires hospital stay of more than 48h within 7 days from the date of the injury
b. results in a fracture of any bone except simple fractures of fingers, toes, or nose
c. Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage
d. involves any internal organ
e. involves second or third degree burns affecting more than 5% of the body surface
193
Define the term substantial damage
damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the A/C and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component. Engine failure or damage limited to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged; bent fairing or cowling; dented skin, small punctures holes in the skin or fabric; ground damage to rotor or propeller blades; and damage to landing gear wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, breaks, or wing tips are not considered substantial damage for the purpose of this part
194
Will notification to the NTSB always be necessary in any aircraft accident even if there were no injuries
Reporting to the NTSB is required if there is substantial damage OR injuries and reporting in those cases is always required
195
Where are accident or incident reports filed
The NTSB office nearest to the accident
196
How soon after an incident or accidents must a report be filed
For accidents within 10 days after the accident or after 7 days if an overdue A/C is still missing
Incidents shall be filed only as requested by an authorized NTSB rep.
197
Can the FAA use NASA reports for enforcement purposes
No, excepte information concerning accidents or criminal offenses which are wholly excluded from the program. By submitting a report within 10 days following an incident the pilot is not protected from the FAA finding a violation or regulation, but may be providing himself some immunity from a civil penalty or possible suspension of cert.
198
What type of aeronautical lighting is VASI
Visual Approach Slope Indicator - provide visual descent information during landing
199
What is a PAPI
Precision Approach Path Indicator
```
4 white 3.5+ high
3 white 3.2 degrees slight high
two white on glide path
1 white 2,8 low
4 red 2.5 low
```
200
What does the operation of an airport rotating beacon during the hours of daylight indicate
Ground vis is less than 3 miles and/or ceiling is less than 1,000'. Cannot be relied on as there is no regulation for operating the beacon during the day to indicate IFR conditions
201
What are the six types of signal installed at airports
Mandatory instruction sign - red back / white letters (runway, critical area, prohibited area)
Location sign - black back / yellow test (taxiway, unway location, boundary of the runway, or ILS critical area)
Direction sign - yellow back / black text (intersecting taxiways)
Destination sign - yellow back / black text - info on location of runway has arrows
Information sign - yellow back / black text - info on areas that cannot be seen from the tower
Runway distance remaining sign - Black back / white text distance of runway remaining in 1,000' feet
202
What color are runway marking? taxiway markings
runway markings are white
taxiway markings are yellow
203
how is a runway threshold marked
Either 8 stripes or related to the width of the runway shows the start of the runway available for landing
204
How is a displaced threshold marked
10-foot wide white threshold line across the width with white arrows across the center line
205
Runway hold position markings
show where an A/C needs to stop if it doesn't have a clearance onto the runway. Can also be on a runway if a runway is used for LAHSO. 4 yellow lines, two solid and two dashed six inches apart across the taxiway/runway
206
Temporarily closed runways and taxiways
Yellow crosses placed at each end of the runways. Taxiways are barricaded or have yellow crosses at the entrance to the taxiway
207
Permanently closed runways and taxiways
lighting circuits will be disconnected. Threshold, runway designation, and touchdown markings are removed and yellow crosses are at each end of the runway and every 1K feet
208
What are the different methods a pilot may used to determine the proper runway and traffic pattern in use at an airport without a CT
1. UNICOM station usually will include wind direction, velocity, favored or designated runway, right or left traffic, altimeter setting, known traffic, NOTAMS
2. Completely automated UNICOM system. Info of availability can be found in the chart supplement
3. A segmented circle visual indicator system consisting of the segmented circle, wind direction indicator, landing direction indicator, landing strip indicator, traffic pattern indicator
209
What is the standard direction of turns when approaching an uncontrolled airport for landing
Turns should be made to the left unless a traffic pattern indicator indicates that turns should be made to the right
210
What is considered standard traffic pattern altitude
Unless otherwise established 1,000' AGL is recommended. Most airports TP for propeller-driven A/C is from 600 to 1,500 AGL
211
What recommended entry and departure procedure should be used at airport without an operating control tower
Enter TP in level flight abeam the midpoint of the runway at pattern altitude.
When departing continue straight out, or exit with a 45-degree turn to the left in a left-hand TP or right in a right hand TP beyond the departure end of the runway after reaching pattern altitude
212
If in doubt about the traffic pattern altitude for a particular airport, what publication can provide this information
Chart Supplement
213
What is an ARTCC and what useful services can it provide to VFR flights
Air Route Traffic Control Center is a facility established to provide air traffic control service primarily to A/C operating on IFR flight plans within controlled airspace. and principally during the en route phase of flight. Air Route Surveillance Radar allows them the capability to detect and display an A/C position while en route between terminal areas. When equipment capabilities and controller workload permit, certain advisory/assistance service may be provided to VFR A/C. Frequency may be obtained from FSS or the chart supplement. IFR enroute charts have ARTCC sector frequencies depicted
214
What does code 1200 mean
VFR ops
215
What does code 7500 mean
hijack
216
What does code 7600 mean
Comm failure
217
What does 7700 mean
General ER
218
When conducting flight operations into an airport with a CT when should initial contact be established
Initial call-up should be made about 15 miles from the airport
219
What communication procedures are recommended when departing a Class D airsapce area
Monitor tower for traffic advisories. Do not need to request permission to leave tower once outside of Class B, C, and D surface area
220
How do you convert from standard time to UTC
take the local military time and add the time differential
221
List the radio facilities for arrivals
ATIS, Approach, Tower, Ground
222
LIst the radio facilities for departures
ATIS, Clearance Delivery, Ground, Tower, Departure
223
What are NOTAMs
Notices To Airman - time-critical aeronautical information of either a temporary nature, or not known sufficiently in advance to permit publication on aeronautical charts or in other publications, receives immediate dissemination via the NOTAM systems. This is aeronautical info that could affect a pilot's decision to make a flight. Includes info as airport or primary runway closure, changes in the status of nav aids, ILS, radar service availability, and other info essential to planned en route, terminal, or landing ops
224
What are the 5 categories of NOTAMs
D - Info that requires wide dissemination via telecom and pertains to en route nav aids, civil public-use airports listed in the AFD, facilities, services, and procedures
FDC - Flight info that is regulatory in nature including but not limited to changes to IFR charts, procedures, and airspace usage
Pointer - issued by FSS to point out another NOTAM such as an FDC. Assist users in cross-referencing important information that may not be found under an airport or NAVAID ID
SAA - Special Active airspace will be activated outside the published schedule times and when required by the published schedule
Military - pertain to USAF, Army, Marines, and Navy nav aids/airpots that are part of the NAS
225
All D notams will have keywords contained within the first part of the text. What are several examples of these keywords
RWY, TWY, RAMP, APRON, AD, OBST, NAV COM, SVC, AIRSPACE, U, O
226
What is a TFR
Temporary Flight Restriction. Used to restrict certain aircraft from operating within a define area on a temporary basis.
227
Where can NOTAM information be obtained
```
FSS
NTAP
DUATs vendors
Internet FAA.gov
FIS-B displayed in cockpit
```
228
When are VFR flight plans required to be filed
Except for operation in or penetrating a Costal or domestic ADIZ or DEWIZ a VFR flight plan is not required but it is strongly recommended to file one with the FAA to ensure you get VFS search and rescue protection
229
What is a DVFR flight plan
Defense VFR must be filed before departure when flying in or through a ADIZ or DEWIZ
230
When you land at an airport with a CT, will the CT automatically close your flight plan
No, CT will not close your VFR or DVFR flight plan as it does not know if an A/C is on a flight plan. You should close your flight plant with the closest FSS if available. If no FSS is available you can request ATC to relay the information for you
231
If your flight is behind schedule, and you do not report the delay, or you forget to close your flight plan, how much time from ETA does the FSS allow before search and rescue effort are begun
30 minutes
232
What is wake turbulence
A phenomenon resulting from the passage of an aircraft through the atmosphere. The term includes vortices, thrust stream turbulence, jet blas, jet wash, propeller wash, and rotor wash, both on the ground and in the air
233
Where are wake turbulence and wingtip vortices likely to occur
Behind and below the aircraft especially at low altitudes. The greatest vortex happen the the A/C is heavy, clean and slow
234
Wake Avoidance: Landing behind an larger A/C same runway
Stay at or above the A/C final approach path, land beyond it's touchdown point
235
Wake Avoidance: Landing behind a large A/C parallel runway loser than 2,500'
Stay at or above the A/C approach path land beyond it's touchdown point, consider possible drift
236
Wake Avoidance: Landing behind a large A/C crossing runways
Cross above the A/C flight path
237
Wake Avoidance: Landing behind a departing large A/C same runway
Land before the A/C rotation point
238
Wake Avoidance: Landing behind a departing larger A/C crossing runways
Not the rotation point: If past the intersection land before the intersection. If rotation is before the intersection avoid flight below the A/C flight path, go-around unless you can ensure landing before the intersection
239
Wake Avoidance: Departing behind a larger AC
Rotate before the A/C point of rotation fly above the A/C flight path and turn clear of the A/C wake. Avoid headings that will cross below and behind the A/C
240
Wake Avoidance: Intersection takeoffs, same runway
Alert of adjacent large A/C. Avoid headings that will cross below a larger A/C path
241
Wake Avoidance: T/O or landing after a large A/C executed a low approach, missed, or touch and go
Vortices settle and move laterally near the ground. Because of this, the vortex hazard may exist along the runway and in your flight path after a large A/C has executed a low or missed approach or TnG. Make sure you wait 2min before you T/O or Land
242
Wake Avoidance: EN route VFR 1,000' + 500
Avoid flight below and behind a large A/C paths. Adjust position laterally preferably upwind
243
Explain Runway width illusion
A narrower-than-usual runway can create the illusion that you are higher than you actually are. Pilots will fly a lower approach risking landing short or hitting objects
A wider than normal has to opposite effect making pilots fly a high approach risking rounding out too early and landing hard or overshooting
244
Explain Runway and terrain slopes illusion
Upsloping runway, terrain, or both make the pilot think they are higher than it actually is causing the pilot to fly a lower approach.
Downslope has the opposite effect
245
Explain featurless terrian illusion
Absence of ground features as when landing over water, darkened areas, can cause the pilot to think they are higher than they really are and cause them to fly a lower approach
246
Explain atmospheric illusion
Rain on the windscreen can create the illusion of greater height and haze can cause you to think you are further away from the runway than you really are causing the pilot to fly a lower approach
247
What is LAHSO
Land and Hold Short. A clearance that requires the pilot to land and hold short of a specified point on the runways.
Student pilots and pilots not familiar with LAHSO should reject the clearance. It should only be accepted if the pilot can determine they can land and stop within the available landing distance. Reject if below basic VFR Wx min. or if PIC feels it will compromise safety
248
Where can available landing distance ALD data be found
ALD data are published in the special notices section of the chart supplement. ATC can also provide the data on request
249
Collision Avoidance: Before take off
Check both approach ends of runway for possible landing traffic
250
Collision Avoidance: Climbs and descents
During climbs and descents in flight conditions that permit visual detection of other traffic, pilots should execute gentle banks left and right at frequencies that allow continuous visual scanning of the airspace
251
Collision Avoidance: Straight and level
Execute appropriate clearing procedures at periodic intervals
252
Collision Avoidance: Traffic Patterns
Entries into traffic pattern while descending should be avoided
253
Collision Avoidance: VOR site
Sustained vigilance should be maintained in the vicinity of VOR and intersections
254
Collision Avoidance: Training Ops
Vigilance and clearing turns prior to a practice maneuver. High-win A/C should raise the wing, low-wing should lower. Pilot should call out clear left/right above/below
255
Where should you look for drones in your area
Below 400' AGL in daylight and clear of clouds
256
What are the 3 major areas that contribute to runway incursions
Communications - misunderstanding the given clearance
Airport knowledge - failure to navigate the airport correctly inability to read airport signs
Cockpit procedures for maintaining orientation - failure to maintain situational awareness
257
Preflight planning for taxi ops should be an integral part of the pilots flight planning process. What information should be included
Review airport signs and markings
Review diagram and planned taxi routes, ID hot spots
Review NOTAMs and ATIS for RWY TWY closures
Conduct a pre-taxi/pre-landing briefing that includes the expected taxi route and hold short lines and restrictions
Plan for critical times and locations on the taxi route complex intersections, crossing runways etc
Plan to complete as many A/C checklist items as possible before taxi
258
What is an airpot hot spot
Runway safety related problem area or intersection on an airpot. Typically complex or confusing taxiway-taxiway or taxiway-runway intersections
259
Why is use of sterile cockpit procedures important when conducting taxi ops
So pilots can focus on their duties without being distracted. Pax should be briefed on the importance of min conversation and questions during taxi, departure, and arrival
260
When should a pilot request progressive taxi instructions
When unfamiliar with the airport or confusion exists as to the correct taxi routing
261
After completing your pre-tax briefing of the taix route ATC gives a different route. What potential pitfall is common in this situation
Short term memory is of limited duration. Pilots need to follow the instructions given not the ones they planned for
262
Why is it a good idea to write down taxi instructions
So you don't forget parts of the instruction and for read-back to ATC
263
When issued taxi instruction to an assigned takeoff runway, are you automatically authorized to cross any runway that intersects your taxi route
No. You must have a clearance for each runway you will cross during taxi
264
When receiving taxi instructions from ATC pilots should always read back what information
Runway assignment
Clearance to enter a specific runway
Hold short instructions
265
What are some recommended practices that can assist a pilot in maintaining situational awareness during taxi ops
Current diagram
Monitor ATC instructions for others for the big pic
Focus outside the cockpit
use all available resources: diagrams, signs, marking, light, ATC
Cross-ref HSI to ensure turns are in the correct direction
Prior to crossing any hold short visually check for traffic
Be alert for other A/C with similar call signs on the freq.
Understand and follow ATC instructions
266
How can a pilot use A/C exterior lighting to enhance situational awareness and safety during airport surface ops
Engines running - Turn on rotating beacon whenever an engine is running
Taxiing - turn on nav position and anti-collision lights
Crossing a runway - all lights should be on
Entering/departing runway for T/O - All light except landing should be on
Cleared for takeoff - ALl light including landing light should be on
267
During calm or nearly calm wind conditions, at an airport without an CT, a pilot should be aware of what potentially hazardous situations
A/C may be landing or taking off on more than one runway. May be using instrument approach procedures
268
You have just landed at a controlled airport and missed your assigned taxiway for exiting the runway. Can you turn around on the runway and return to the exit taxi
No; unless authorized by ATC
269
When taxiing at a non-towered airport, what are several precautionary measures you should take prior to entering or crossing a runway
Listen on CTAF for inbound A/C information. Scan full length of the runway. Self-announce your position and intentions and remember not everyone has a radio
270
ATC has instructed you to line up and wait on the departure runway due to crossing traffic on an intersecting taxiway. What is a reasonable amount of time to wait for a T/O clearance before calling ATC
90 seconds or if you see or hear a conflict
271
What are several actions you can take to enhance A/C security
Lock A/C
Keep track off door and ignition keys and don't leave them unattended
Use secondary locks or A/C disabler if available
Lock hangar when unattended
272
What type of airport security procedures should you review regularly to prevent unauthorized access to aircraft at your airport
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Limit ramp access
Standard for securing A/C on the ramp
Secure access to A/C keys'
Auxiliary security items (prop locks)
After-hours or weekend access procedures
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273
Give some examples of what you would consider suspicious activity at an airport
unusual modifications such a N-number
People loitering for extended period of time near A/C
Anyone making threats
Events that do not fit the normal pattern of airport activity
Pilots appearing to be under the control of others
274
When witnessing suspicious or criminal activity, what are three basic ways for reporting the suspected actrivity
Alert airport FBO management
Contact local law enforcement
866-GA-SECURE hotline
275
What is the purpose of hte 866-GA-SECURE phone number
TSA hotline to take reports of suspicious or criminal activity happening at GA airports. This does not dispatch local law enforcement
276
What are several sources of information available to pilots interested in additional guidance on aviation secuirty
Security Guidelines for General Aviation Airports
| Flight School Security Awareness Training for Aircraft and Simulators
