Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CK Heme Onc > Onc Final > Flashcards

Onc Final Flashcards

1
Q

a/w anterior mediastinal mass

A

thymoma
teratoma
thyroid neoplasm
terrible lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Rx for chemotherapy induced nausea

A

ondasetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Rx for cancer associated anorexia

A

progestins

  • megestrol acetate
  • medroxyprogesterone acetate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

features of tumor lysis syndrome

A

cell breakdown which releases Urate, P and K

P binds to Ca which causes hypocalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how can breast cancer present

A

skin changes
palpable mass
nipple retraction
nipple discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

best initial test for breast cancer

A

FNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

most accurate test for breast cancer

A

open biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which breast cancer test allows to test for ER, PR and HER 2

A

core needle biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the most important factor for prognosis and Rx of breast cancer

A

HER 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which receptors are a/w worst breast cancer prognosis

A

HER 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which receptors are a/w better breast cancer prognosis

A

ER and PR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

screening for breast cancer

A

mammography starting at 50 yo but not required after 75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what cancer is a/w pagets disease of the breast

A

adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how does pagets disease present

A

rash on nipple with ulcerating eczematous appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is seen on biopsy of pagets disease of the breast

A

large cells with clear halo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

next step in suspected fibrocystic disease of the breast

A

aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is seen on aspiration of fibrocystic disease of the breast

A

clear fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what should be done in all females with a suspicious breast mass who are undergoing FNA and why

A

mammography

could be bilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

when should an US be done done in breast mass

A

painful

varies in size or pain with menstruation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when is PET scan indicated for breast mass

A

determine the content of abnormal lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what does a positive BRCA mean

A

increased risk for breast and ovarian cancer

nothing else

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the sentinel node

A

first node to be identified near the operative field in identified breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the significance of a negative sentinel node in breast cancer

A

no need for axillary lymph node dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Rx for breast cancer

A

if meet criteria
-lumpectomy with radiation

ER or PR positive should recieve

  • aromatase -
  • tamoxifen
  • raloxifene
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

why is radiation done in breast cancer

A

prevents recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

criteria for surgery in breast cancer

A

primary tumor is resected
no other site of cancer
no comorbidities
complete resection is possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

SE of tamoxifen

A

endometrial cancer (uterine sarcoma)

clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

SE of aromatase inhibitors

A

osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the aromatase inhibitors

A

anastrazole

letrozole

exemestane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the benefit of recieving trastuzumab

A

decreases risk of recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

who should recieve trastuzumab

A

those positive for HER 2

multiple first degree relatives have breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

SE of trastuzumab

A

cardiotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what test should be done before starting trastuzumab

A

echocardiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

when is adjuvant chemotherapy used in breast cancer Rx

A

lesions larger than 1 cm

positive axillary lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

where in the prostate does prostate cancer occur

A

peripheral zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

best initial test for prostate cancer

A

biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

most accurate test for prostate cancer

A

biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how does prostate cancer present

A

obstructive symptoms when voiding

palpable lesion
-nodular or irregular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

complications of prostatectomy

A

erectile dysfunction

urine incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how are BPH and prostate cancer presentation different

A

BPH

  • center
  • smooth

prostate cancer

  • peripheral
  • nodular/irregular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what should all px with BPH be checked for

A

hydronephrosis

-if present place foley

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the goal of hormonal manipulation in prostate cancer

A

shrink lesions that are already present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is used to shrink prostate cancers

A

flutamide
leuprolide
ketoconazole
orchidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

next best step in a px with prostate cancer with suspected lumbar metastasis

A

glucocorticoids to preserve neurologic functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what can an increased PSA be a/w

A

BPH
prostatitis
prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what PSA level is most a/w prostate cancer

A

> 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

when is surgery not indicated in lung cancer

A

bilateral disease
malignant pleural effusion
heart, carina, aorta or vena cava are involved
small cell cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what are some risk factors for ovarian cancer

A

BRCA + (multiple first degree relatives)

estrogen replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what should be done in a px with positive BRCA and family history of ovarian cancer

A

pelvic US or CA-125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

how does ovrian cancer present

A

woman above 50 with wieght loss and increased abdominal girth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

best initial test for ovarian cancer

A

US or CT

52
Q

most accurate test for ovarian cancer

A

biopsy

53
Q

what is protective against ovarian cancer

A

increased pregnancies

OCP

54
Q

Rx for ovarian cancer

A

remove all visible tumor and pelvic organs and give chemo

55
Q

next step in a px with a painless lump in the scrotum

A

transluminate or US

56
Q

diagnostic test for testicular cancer

A

inguinal orchiectomy

57
Q

next step in a px with a painless lump in the scrotum and US shows suspicious mass

A

inguinal orchiectomy

58
Q

testicular cancer a/w:

increased B-hCG

A

seminoma

59
Q

testicular cancer a/w:

increased AFP

A

yolk sac (endodermal sinus)

60
Q

testicular cancer a/w:

increased AFP and B-hCG

A

embryonal
choriocarcinoma
teratoma

61
Q

how is testicular cancer staged

A

CT or the

  • abdomen
  • pelvis
  • chest
62
Q

how does testicular cancer metastasize

A

retroperitoneum and up into chest

63
Q

Rx for testicular cancer

A

orchiectomy with

  • radiation if local
  • chemo if widespread
64
Q

management for advanced cervical cancer

A

hysterectomy

65
Q

when is HPV vaccine indicated

A

woman between ages 11-26

-try to do before initiating sex

66
Q

HPV serotype a/w cancer

A

16 and 18

67
Q

HPV serotype a/w warts

A

6 and 11

68
Q

when are pap smears indicated

A

21 - 30 every 2 years

30-65 every 3 years

69
Q

what increases the risk of cervical cancer

A

smoking

70
Q

what cancer is lynch syndrome a/w

A

endometrial cancer

71
Q

how is a solitary brain lesion managed

A

surgical resection

then whole brain radiotherapy

72
Q

best initial test for squamous cell carcinoma of the head or neck

A

panendoscopy followed by biopsy

73
Q

next best step if bone tumor is suspected

A

refer to orthopedic surgeon

74
Q

SE of megestrol acetate and medroxyprogesterone acetate

A

DVT

75
Q

what meds are a/w cochleardysfunction

A

platins

aminoglycosides

loops

76
Q

Dx

bloody discharge from nipples

A

intraductal papilloma

77
Q

Dx

bilateral breast pain and lumps that vary with periods

A

fibrocystic change

78
Q

Dx

painless, firm mobile mass that does not change with periods

A

fibroadenoma

79
Q

what is seen on CT of craniopharyngioma

A

cystic calcification of parasellar lesions

80
Q

type of cancer therapy:

Rx before standard

A

neoadjuvant

81
Q

type of cancer therapy:

radiation before prostatectomy

A

neoadjuvant

82
Q

type of cancer therapy:

Rx is standard therapy fails

A

salvage

83
Q

type of cancer therapy:

Rx given in addition to standard

A

adjuvant

84
Q

type of cancer therapy:

radiation at the same time as prostatectomy

A

adjuvant

85
Q

type of cancer therapy:

initial dose to kill tumor cells and put px into remission

A

induction

86
Q

type of cancer therapy:

given after induction

A

consolidation

87
Q

type of cancer therapy:

multidrug regiemn to reduce tumor

A

consolidation

88
Q

type of cancer therapy:

given after induction and consolidation

A

maintenance

89
Q

type of cancer therapy:

kills residual cells and keeps px in remission

A

maintenance

90
Q

type of cancer therapy:

daily antiandrogen therapy in prostate cancer

A

maintenance

91
Q

which cancer screening lowers mortality the most

A

mammography after 50 yo

92
Q

what should be given to women with multiple first degree relatives with breast cancer

A

SERMs

  • tamoxifen
  • raloxifene
93
Q

next best step if colonoscopy shows polyps

A

colonoscopy in 3-5 years

94
Q

screen for colon cancer

A

colonoscopy at 50 yo every 10 years

start 10 years earlier than family member if they had cancer

95
Q

what meds can help quit smoking

A

bupropion and TCA

96
Q

what is the single most beneficial disease prevention method of any type

A

stop smoking

97
Q

when is lipid screening indicated

A

men above 35
women above 45

any one with

  • DM
  • HTN
  • CAD
  • aortic disease
  • carotid disease
  • peripheral vascular disease
98
Q

screening for HTN

A

indicated to all px over 18 yo at every visit

99
Q

therapy for hyperlipidemia

A

0-1 risk factors
>160 life style changes
>190 meds

2 or more risk factors
>130 life style changes
>160 meds

100
Q

screening for DM

A

fasting blood glucose in px with

  • HTN
  • hyperlipidemia
101
Q

what are the 2 most beneficial vaccines in adults

A

influenza

pneumococcus

102
Q

when is the tetanus diptheria toxoid indicated

A

severe dirty wounds

those who recieved booster >5 years ago

103
Q

when is tetanus immune globulin indicated

A

severe dirty wound

unclear or incomplete immunization

104
Q

when is Tdap given

A

once every 10 years after age of 18

105
Q

who can recieve the intranasal influenza vaccine

A

healthy, non pregnant adults <50 yo

106
Q

indications for influenza vaccine

A

everyone yearly (including pregnant women)

107
Q

indications for pneumococcal vaccine

A

everyone above 65 (must be given 5 years later if done prior to 65 because of chronic disease)

cochlear implant

CSF leaks

alcoholics

108
Q

what vaccines have an egg allergy

A

influenza

yellow fever

109
Q

when is varicella zoster vaccine indicated

A

all children

all px over 60

110
Q

why is zoster vaccine given to px over 60

A

prevents shingles

111
Q

who benefits most from hepatitis A and B vaccine

A

chronic liver disease

112
Q

when is hepatitis A and B vaccine indicated

A 
children
chronic liver disease
men who have sex with men
multiple sexual partners
household contacts with hepatitis
IVDA
113
Q

what should be done in an unvaccinated px who is exposed to hepatitis

A

give vaccine and HBIG

114
Q

when is meningococcal vaccine indicated

A

age 11

asplenia

terminal compliment deficiency

military recruits

dorms

travelers for asia, africa, arabia

115
Q

what is the strongest indication for meningococcal vaccine

A

asplenia

116
Q

screening for osteoporosis

A

DEXA scan for every woman >65 yo

117
Q

Dx

DEXA T-score = 1.5-2.5

A

osteopenia

118
Q

Dx

DEXA T-score = >2.5

A

osteoporosis

119
Q

who has the highest risk factor for osteoporosis

A

postmenopausal women

120
Q

screening for AAA

A

US all men over 65 with smoking history

121
Q

MC infection in AAA

A

salmonella or staph

122
Q

when is AAA repaired

A

> 5 centimeters

123
Q

MC complication of AAA repair

A

bowel ischemia

124
Q

how can bowel ischemia from AAA repair be avoided

A

check sigmoid perfussion after aortic graft placement

125
Q

screening for chlamydia

A

sexually active females <24 yo

CK Heme Onc (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions