Nursing care of the childbearing family Flashcards
Gravida
a woman who is pregnant
Nulligravida
a woman who has never been pregnant and is currently not pregnant
Primigravida
a woman who is pregnant for the first time
Multigravida
a woman who has had two or more pregnancies
Nullipara
a woman who has not completed a pregnancy with a fetus or fetuses who have reached at least 20 weeks of gestation
Primipara
a woman who has completed one pregnancy with a fetus or fetuses who have reached 20 weeks of gestation or more
Multipara
a woman who has completed two or more pregnancies to 20 weeks of gestation or more
Preterm
a pregnancy that has reached 20 weeks of gestation but ends before 37 weeks 0 days of gestation
Late preterm
a pregnancy that has reached between 34 weeks 0 days of gestation and ends before 36 weeks 6 days gestation
Full term
a pregnancy that has reached between 37 weeks 0 days and 41 weeks 6 days gestation
Post-term
a pregnancy that has reached 42 weeks and 0 days beyond gestation
Viability
the capacity to live outside the uterus; there are no clear limits of gestational age or weight
What age is considered to be the threshold of viability and vulnerable to brain injury
22 to 25 weeks of gestation
What skin problems do post-term babies usually have
dry and peeling skin
Amenorrhea
no period
Quickening
fetal movement between 10-12 weeks
EDC
estimated date of confinement, the due date
What is the common method for collecting EDC
determine the first day of the LMP, subtract 3 calendar months and add 7 days, then change the year
What does the EDC assume
that the woman has a 28-day cycle and that fertilization occurred on the 14th day
5 digit obstetric history
GTPAL
2 digit obstetric history
GP
What does the G stand for in obstetric history
gravida: number of pregnancies (current pregnancy is included)
What does the T stand for in obstetric history
term births: number of term gestations delivering between 37 and 42 weeks
What does the P stand for in obstetric history
pre-term births: number of preterm pregnancies ending greater than 20 weeks but before completion of 37 weeks
What does the A stand for in obstetric history
abortions/miscarriages: number of pregnancies ending before 20 weeks of viability
What does the L stand for in obstetric history
living children: number of children currently living
What is the best way to ensure a healthy outcome for both the mother and child
early and regular prenatal care
What is inadequate antepartum care closely associated with
low birth weight and increased premature birth, increasing neonatal mortality
What are the subjective/presumptive changes during pregnancy
amenorrhea, nausea/vomiting, excessive fatigue, urinary frequency, breast tenderness/enlargement, and quickening
What is the definition of subjective/presumptive changes
these changes are not definitive and could be caused by something other than pregnancy
What are the objective/probable changes during pregnancy
enlargement of the abdomen, cervical changes, uterine changes, pregnancy tests
What is the definition of objective/probable changes
changes that are observed by an examiner but may have other causes and do not confirm pregnancy
Goodell’s sign
softening of the cervix from the consistency of the tip of your nose to the consistency of your earlobe
Hegar’s sign
6th week of pregnancy, the lower uterine segment is so soft that it can be compressed to the thinness of paper, allowing the uterine segment to be flexed against the cervix
Chadwick’s sign
bluish, purple discoloration of the mucous membranes of the cervix/vagina; caused by increased vascularity of the pelvic organs, one of the earliest signs of pregnancy
Fetal outline
can be palpated by an experienced practitioner by the 2nd half of pregnancy
Ballottment
when a sudden tap on the cervix during vaginal examination near mid-pregnancy causes the fetus to rise in amniotic fluid and rebound to its original position
Braxton hicks
contractions that occur throughout pregnancy and are usually irregular and painless, most women do not notice until the 3rd trimester
Pregnancy tests
based on the presence of hCG in maternal urine and may be used as early as 3 days after a missed period (home kits are 97% accurate if used correctly)
Radioimmunoassay tests
use radioactive markers to detect antibodies against hCG in the blood or urine, done in a lab and are accurate as early as 1 week after ovulation
ELISA enzyme
linked immunosorbent assay uses antibodies to detect hCG in the blood and urine, positive 5 days before a missed period, certain drugs may affect accuracy
What is the definition of positive/diagnostic changes
conclusive proof of pregnancy
What are the positive/diagnostic changes during pregnancy
fetal heartbeat, fetal movement, visualization of the fetus
When can you hear a fetal heartbeat with an electronic doppler
10-12 weeks
When can you hear a fetal heartbeat with a fetoscope
18-20 weeks
What should the fetal heart rate be
160-170 bpm
Transvaginal ultrasound
visual examination of the fetus 4-6 weeks after LMP (identify the fetus and the heartbeat)
When are women screened for glucose levels
average: 24-28 weeks of gestation
high-risk: early 1st trimester
When is further glucose testing required
fasting: >126 mg/dl
challenge test: >140 mg/dl
What is given if the antibody tier for Rh is negative
RhoGAM is given
Group B streptococcus
normal for the mom, harmful for the baby, vaginal/rectal cultures are obtained at 35-37 weeks gestation, treated during active labor with antibiotics in an IV
Rubella
prevent the possibility of contracting rubella in future pregnancies through the MMR vaccine
Hepatitis B screen
important if the mother is positive because the infant must be given immune globulin after birth
Varicella
a vaccine is given postpartum and during follow up visit in women that have no immunity
What blood draws are done during pregnancy
alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), triple/quad screen, cell-free
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
screens for neural tube defects and multiple pregnancies, done 15-18 weeks